Spinal Cord Injury Review Questions
Neurological level of spinal cord injury refers to which of the following? a. The level of the spinal cord transection b. The lowest level at which sensory and motor function is normal c. The best possible level of recovery d. The highest level at which sensory and motor function is normal
b. The lowest level at which sensory and motor function is normal Explanation: "Neurologic level" refers to the lowest level at which sensory and motor functions are normal. It is not the level of spinal cord transection, the best possible level of recovery, or the highest level at which sensory and motor function is normal.
The nurse is caring for a client who has sustained a spinal cord injury (SCI) at C5 and has developed a paralytic ileus. The nurse will prepare the client for which of the following procedures? a. Insertion of a nasogastric tube b. Bowel surgery c. Digital stimulation d. A large volume enema
a. Insertion of a nasogastric tube Explanation: Immediately after a SCI, a paralytic ileus usually develops. A nasogastric tube is often required to relieve distention and to prevent vomiting and aspiration. An enema and digital stimulation will not relieve a paralytic ileus. Bowel surgery is not necessary.
A client is being treated for a lumbar spinal injury that occurred 5 days ago and is currently experiencing the symptoms of spinal shock. Characteristic for this condition, the client is unable to move the lower extremities, is being closely monitored for hypotension and bradycardia, and has impaired temperature control. Which would not be an expected outcome of care? a. client maintains mechanical ventilation with minimal mucus accumulation b. client reports no discomfort c. client's skin remains clean, dry, and intact d. client regains bowel elimination capacity
a. client maintains mechanical ventilation with minimal mucus accumulation Explanation: A client with a lumbar spinal injury would not require mechanical ventilation.
The nurse is admitting a client from the emergency department with a reported spinal cord injury. What device would the nurse expect to be used to provide correct vertebral alignment and to increase the space between the vertebrae in a client with spinal cord injury? a. Traction with weights and pulleys b. Cast c. Cervical collar d. Turning frame
a. Traction with weights and pulleys Explanation: Traction with weights and pulleys is applied to provide correct vertebral alignment and to increase the space between the vertebrae. A cast and a cervical collar are used to immobilize the injured portion of the spine. A turning frame is used to change the client's position without altering the alignment of the spine.
The client has been brought to the emergency department by their caregiver. The caregiver says that she found the client diaphoretic, nauseated, flushed and complaining of a pounding headache when she came on shift. What are these symptoms indicative of? a. Autonomic dysreflexia b. Contusion c. Concussion d. Spinal shock
a. Autonomic dysreflexia Explanation: Characteristics of this acute emergency are as follows: Severe hypertension; Slow heart rate; Pounding headache; Nausea; Blurred vision; Flushed skin; Sweating; Goosebumps (erection of pilomotor muscles in the skin); Nasal stuffiness; and Anxiety. The symptoms in the scenario are not symptoms or concussion, spinal shock, or contusion.
A client is brought to the trauma center by ambulance after sustaining a high cervical spinal cord injury 1½ hours ago. Endotracheal intubation has been deemed necessary and the nurse is preparing to assist. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse associate with this procedure? a. Risk for injury b. Risk for impaired skin integrity c. Risk for autonomic dysreflexia d. Risk for suffocation
a. Risk for injury Explanation: If endotracheal intubation is necessary, extreme care is taken to avoid flexing or extending the client's neck, which can result in extension of a cervical injury. Intubation does not directly cause autonomic dysreflexia and the threat to skin integrity is not a primary concern. Intubation does not carry the potential to cause suffocation.
A client has a spinal cord injury. The home health nurse is making an initial visit to the client at home and plans on reinforcing teaching on autonomic dysreflexia. What symptom would the nurse stress to the client and his family? a. Runny nose b. Sweating c. Slight headache d. Rapid heart rate
b. Sweating Explanation: Characteristics of this acute emergency are as follows: severe hypertension; slow heart rate; pounding headache; nausea; blurred vision; flushed skin; sweating; goosebumps (erection of pilomotor muscles in the skin); nasal stuffiness; and anxiety.
There is a high risk for ineffective coping in a client with a recent spinal cord injury. Which nursing interventions will assist the client with this process? Select all that apply. a. Offer encouragement as the client makes progress. b. Assist the client in accepting the severity of deficits. c. Reassure the client by stating, "Everything is going to be all right." d. Involve the client actively in self care.
a. Offer encouragement as the client makes progress. d. Involve the client actively in self care. Explanation: Encouragement can contribute to the client's resolve to put forth continued effort and involving the client in care will assist with effective coping. Until the initial trauma and swelling have resolved, assumptions about outcome are premature. False reassurance is a common barrier to therapeutic communication.
A nurse is assessing pain in a client who has a spinal cord injury. The client states that even a light touch to the legs will illicit severe pain. The client is describing which type of pain? a. nociceptive b. allodynia c. hyperalgesia d. idiopathic
b. allodynia Explanation: Allodynia is a type of neurogenic pain whereby clients experience pain in response to a normally painless stimulus. Hyperalgesia is a type of neurogenic pain whereby clients experience an increased response to a painful stimulus. Nociceptive pain is detected by specialized sensory nerves located throughout the soft tissues and is not neurogenic. Idiopathic pain has no apparent underlying cause and is not neurogenic.
Which are possible long-term complications of spinal cord injury? Select all that apply. a. respiratory arrest b. autonomic dysreflexia c. respiratory infection d. areflexia
b. autonomic dysreflexia c. respiratory infection Explanation: Autonomic dysreflexia and respiratory infection are long-term complications of spinal cord injury. Respiratory arrest and spinal shock (areflexia) are immediate complications of spinal cord injury.
A client with tetraplegia has a spinal cord injury (SCI) at C4. He experiences severe orthostatic hypotension with any elevation of his head. Which of the following interventions will the nurse employ to reduce the hypotension? a. Practice with the client raising the head in one smooth, quick motion. b. Avoid binders around the abdominal area. c. Avoid vasopressor medication for 2 hours prior to the client sitting up. d. Apply anti-embolic stockings prior to elevation of the head.
d. Apply anti-embolic stockings prior to elevation of the head. Explanation: Anti-embolic stockings will improve venous return from the legs. An abdominal binder will also encourage venous return. The nurse should allow time for a slow progression from laying to sitting. Vasopressor drugs may be used to treat the profound vasodilation.
After a motor vehicle crash, a client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a cervical collar in place. The cervical spinal X-rays haven't been read, so the nurse doesn't know whether the client has a cervical spinal injury. Until such an injury is ruled out, the nurse should restrict this client to which position? a. A head elevation of 90 degrees to prevent cerebral swelling b. Supine, with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees c. Flat d. Flat, except for logrolling as needed
d. Flat, except for logrolling as needed Explanation: When caring for the client with a possible cervical spinal injury who's wearing a cervical collar, the nurse must keep the client flat to decrease mobilization and prevent further injury to the spinal column. The client can be logrolled, if necessary, with the cervical collar on.
The nurse is assessing a client with a spinal cord injury that reports a severe headache with a rapid onset. The nurse knows that this could be a symptom of which complication of a spinal cord injury? a. Autonomic dysreflexia b. Myocardial infarction c. Retinal hemorrhage d. Spinal shock
a. Autonomic dysreflexia Explanation: The client is likely suffering from an episode of autonomic dysreflexia which triggers an autonomic-hyper-response. Autonomic dysreflexia occurs after spinal shock, not due to it. Retinal hemorrhage and MI occur if autonomic dysreflexia is not resolved.
The nurse is planning to provide education about prevention in the community YMCA due to the increase in numbers of spinal cord injuries (SCIs). What predominant risk factors does the nurse understand will have to be addressed? Select all that apply. a. Male gender b. Young age c. Substance abuse d. Low-income community e. Older adult
a. Male gender b. Young age c. Substance abuse Explanation: The predominant risk factors for SCI include young age, male gender, and alcohol and drug use.
A patient was admitted to a rehabilitation unit for treatment of a spinal cord injury. The admitting diagnosis is central cord syndrome. During an admissions physical, the nurse expects to find: a. loss of motor power and sensation in the upper extremities. b. loss of motor power, pain, and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion. c. preservation of a sense of touch below the level of the lesion. d. loss of the sensation of pain and temperature on the side opposite the injury.
a. loss of motor power and sensation in the upper extremities. Explanation: Characteristics of a central cord injury include motor deficits (in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities; sensory loss varies but is more pronounced in the upper extremities); bowel/bladder dysfunction is variable, or function may be completely preserved.
The nurse is providing information about spinal cord injury (SCI) prevention to a community group of young adults. The nurse mentions that all of the following are predominant risk factors for SCI except? a. Being an athlete b. Alcohol/drug use c. Male gender d. Young age
a. Being an athlete Explanation: The predominant risk factors for SCI include young age (most between 16 and 30 years old), gender (80% of those living with SCI are male), and alcohol/drug use.
Which activities would the client with a T4 spinal cord injury be able to perform independently? Select all that apply. a. Eating b. Writing c. Ambulating d. Transferring to a wheelchair e. Breathing
a. Eating b. Writing d. Transferring to a wheelchair e. Breathing Explanation: Eating, breathing, transferring to a wheelchair, and writing are functional abilities for those with a T4 injury. Ambulation can be performed independently by a client with an injury at T11-S5 injury.
Three hours after injuring the spinal cord at the C6 level, a client receives high doses of methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol) to suppress breakdown of the neurologic tissue membrane at the injury site. To help prevent adverse effects of this drug, the nurse expects the physician to order: a. nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). b. famotidine (Pepcid). c. naloxone (Narcan). d. atracurium (Tracrium).
b. famotidine (Pepcid). Explanation: Adverse effects of methylprednisolone sodium succinate and other steroids include GI bleeding and wound infection. To help prevent GI bleeding, the physician is likely to order an antacid or a histamine2-receptor antagonist such as famotidine (Pepcid). Naloxone, nitroglycerin, and atracurium aren't used to prevent adverse effects of steroids. Naloxone, an endogenous opioid antagonist, has been studied in animals for its action in inhibiting release of endogenous opioids after spinal cord injury. (Endogenous opioids are thought to contribute to secondary damage to spinal cord tissue by reducing microcirculatory blood flow.) Nitroglycerin is used to dilate the coronary arteries. Atracurium is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant.
A client with a spinal cord injury says he has difficulty recognizing the symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which symptom is an early sign of UTI in a client with a spinal cord injury? a. Lower back pain b. Frequency of urination c. Fever and change in urine clarity d. Burning sensation on urination
c. Fever and change in urine clarity Explanation: Fever and change in urine clarity as early signs of UTI in a client with a spinal cord injury. Lower back pain is a late sign. A client with a spinal cord injury may not experience a burning sensation or urinary frequency.
A patient has an S5 spinal fracture from a fall. What type of assistive device will this patient require? a. Voice or sip-n-puff controlled electric wheelchair b. Electric or modified manual wheelchair, needs transfer assistance c. Cane d. The patient will be able to ambulate independently.
d. The patient will be able to ambulate independently. Explanation: Patients with spinal cord injuries from S1 to S5 should be able to ambulate independently, without an assistive device.
The nurse is assigned to care for clients with SCI on a rehabilitation unit. Which signs does the nurse recognize as clinical manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia? Select all that apply. a. Nasal congestion b. Tachycardia c. Fever d. Hypertension e. Diaphoresis
a. Nasal congestion d. Hypertension e. Diaphoresis Explanation: Hypertension and diaphoresis are signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Nasal congestion often accompanies autonomic dysreflexia. Bradycardia, not tachycardia, occurs with autonomic dysreflexia. Although the client may be diaphoretic, a fever does not accompany this condition.
The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. What test reveals the level of spinal cord injury? a. Neurologic examination b. Radiography c. Myelography d. Computed tomography (CT) scan
a. Neurologic examination Explanation: A neurologic examination reveals the level of spinal cord injury. Radiography, myelography, and a CT scan show the evidence of fracture or compression of one or more vertebrae, edema, or a hematoma.
Clinical manifestations of neurogenic shock include which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Profuse bilateral sweating b. Tachycardia c. Venous pooling in the extremities d. Warm skin e. Bradycardia
c. Venous pooling in the extremities d. Warm skin e. Bradycardia Explanation: Loss of sympathetic innervation causes a decrease in cardiac output, venous pooling in the extremities, and peripheral vasodilation resulting in mild hypotension, bradycardia, and warm skin. In addition, the patient doe not perspire on the paralyzed portions of the body because sympathetic activity is blocked.
When assessing a client who has experienced a spinal injury, the nurse notes diaphragmatic breathing and loss of upper limb use and sensation. At what level does the nurse anticipate the injury has occurred? a. C3 b. C5 c. L1 d. T6
b. C5 Explanation: The nurse should anticipate that the injury has occurred at level C5. Injuries above C3 result in the loss of spontaneous respiratory function. Clients with injuries at T6 and L1 retain some degree of upper limb use and sensation.
The nurse is caring for a client immediately after a spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding is essential when caring for a client in spinal shock with injury in the lower thoracic region? a. Pain level b. Pulse and blood pressure c. Numbness and tingling d. Respiratory pattern
b. Pulse and blood pressure Explanation: Spinal shock is a loss of sympathetic reflex activity below the level of the injury within 30 to 60 minutes after insult. In addition to the paralysis, manifestations include pronounced hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, dry skin. Numbness and tingling and pain are not as high of a concern at this time due to the cord injury. Because the level of impairment is below the first thoracic vertebrae, respiratory failure is not a concern.
A client with a T4-level spinal cord injury (SCI) is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia; his blood pressure is 230/110. The nurse cannot locate the cause and administers antihypertensive medication as ordered. The nurse empties the client's bladder and the symptoms abate. Now, what must the nurse watch for? a. Urinary tract infection b. Rebound hypotension c. Rebound hypertension d. Spinal shock
b. Rebound hypotension Explanation: When the cause is removed and the symptoms abate, the blood pressure goes down. The antihypertensive medication is still working. The nurse must watch for rebound hypotension. Rebound hypertension is not an issue. Spinal shock occurs right after the initial injury. The client is not at any more risk for a urinary tract infection after the episode than he was before.
Which of the following are the immediate complications of spinal cord injury? a. Paraplegia b. Respiratory arrest c. Autonomic dysreflexia d. Tetraplegia e. Spinal shock
b. Respiratory arrest e. Spinal shock Explanation: Respiratory arrest and spinal shock are the immediate complications of spinal cord injury. Tetraplegia is paralysis of all extremities when there is a high cervical spine injury. Paraplegia occurs with injuries at the thoracic level. Autonomic dysreflexia is a long-term complication of spinal cord injury.
The nurse is admitting a client from the emergency department with a reported spinal cord injury. What device would the nurse expect to be used to provide correct vertebral alignment and to increase the space between the vertebrae in a client with spinal cord injury? a. Turning frame b. Traction with weights and pulleys c. Cast d. Cervical collar
b. Traction with weights and pulleys Explanation: Traction with weights and pulleys is applied to provide correct vertebral alignment and to increase the space between the vertebrae. A cast and a cervical collar are used to immobilize the injured portion of the spine. A turning frame is used to change the client's position without altering the alignment of the spine.
In a spinal cord injury, neurogenic shock develops due to loss of the autonomic nervous system functioning below the level of the lesion. Which of the following indicators of neurogenic shock would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply. a. Tachycardia b. Venous pooling c. Tachypnea d. Diaphoresis e. Hypotension f. Hypothermia
b. Venous pooling c. Tachypnea e. Hypotension f. Hypothermia Explanation: The vital organs are affected in a spinal cord injury, causing the blood pressure and heart rate to decrease. This loss of sympathetic innervation causes a variety of other clinical manifestations, including a decrease in cardiac output, venous pooling in the extremities, and peripheral vasodilation resulting in mild hypotension, bradycardia, and warm skin. In addition, the patient does not perspire on the paralyzed portions of the body because sympathetic activity is blocked; therefore, close observation is required for early detection of an abrupt onset of fever.
A client with a C5 spinal cord injury has tetraplegia. After being moved out of the ICU, the client reports a severe throbbing headache. What should the nurse do first? a. Lower the HOB to improve perfusion. b. Reassure the client that headaches are expected during recovery from spinal cord injuries. c. Check the client's indwelling urinary catheter for kinks to ensure patency. d. Administer PRN analgesia as prescribed.
c. Check the client's indwelling urinary catheter for kinks to ensure patency. Explanation: A severe throbbing headache is a common symptom of autonomic dysreflexia, which occurs after injuries to the spinal cord above T6. The syndrome is usually brought on by sympathetic stimulation, such as bowel and bladder distention. Lowering the HOB can increase ICP. Before administering analgesia, the nurse should check the client's catheter, record vital signs, and perform an abdominal assessment. A severe throbbing headache is a dangerous symptom in this client and is not expected.
A nurse is caring for a client with L1-L2 paraplegia who is undergoing rehabilitation. Which goal is appropriate? a. Preventing autonomic dysreflexia by preventing bowel impaction b. Managing spasticity with range-of-motion exercises and medications c. Establishing an intermittent catheterization routine every 4 hours d. Establishing an ambulation program using short leg braces
c. Establishing an intermittent catheterization routine every 4 hours Explanation: The paraplegic client with an L1-L2 injury will demonstrate flaccid paralysis. Developing an intermittent catheterization routine offers a way of manually draining the bladder, eliminating the need for an indwelling urinary catheter. With an injury at L1-L2, ambulation may be possible with long leg braces but not with short leg braces. Spasticity and autonomic dysreflexia are seen in clients with upper motor injuries above T6, not L1-L2 injuries.
A patient with a C7 spinal cord fracture informs the nurse, "My head is killing me!" The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 210/140 mm Hg, heart rate of 48 and observes diaphoresis on the face. What is the first action by the nurse? a. Assess the patient for a full bladder. b. Call the physician. c. Place the patient in a sitting position. d. Assess the patient for a fecal impaction.
c. Place the patient in a sitting position. Explanation: Autonomic dysreflexia, also known as autonomic hyperreflexia, is an acute life-threatening emergency that occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli that are harmless in normal people. It occurs only after spinal shock has resolved. This syndrome is characterized by a severe, pounding headache with paroxysmal hypertension, profuse diaphoresis (most often of the forehead), nausea, nasal congestion, and bradycardia. It occurs among patients with cord lesions above T6 (the sympathetic visceral outflow level) after spinal shock has subsided (Bader & Littlejohns, 2010). The patient is placed immediately in a sitting position to lower blood pressure.
The nurse is working in the rehabilitative setting caring for tetraplegia and paraplegia clients. When instructing family members on the difference between the sites of impairment, which location should the nurse explain differentiates the two disorders? a. The first lumbar vertebrae b. The second cervical vertebrae c. The first thoracic vertebrae d. The seventh thoracic vertebrae
c. The first thoracic vertebrae Explanation: Tetraplegia is the impairment of all extremities and the trunk when there is a spinal injury at or above the first thoracic vertebrae. Paraplegia is the impairment of all extremities below the first thoracic vertebrae.
A client with a spinal cord injury develops an excruciating headache and profuse diuresis. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Asses the skin for areas of pressure. b. Palpate the bladder for distention. c. Examine the rectum for a fecal mass. d. Place in a seated position.
d. Place in a seated position. Explanation: Autonomic dysreflexia, also known as autonomic hyperreflexia, is an acute life-threatening emergency that occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli that are harmless in people without spinal cord injury (SCI). It occurs only after spinal shock has resolved. This syndrome is characterized by a severe, pounding headache with paroxysmal hypertension, profuse diaphoresis above the spinal level of the lesion (most often of the forehead), nausea, nasal congestion, and bradycardia. The first action to take is to place the client in a seated position to lower the blood pressure. Next, the bladder can be assessed for distention, the skin assessed for areas of pressure, and the rectum assessed for a fecal mass, which can all be the reasons for the onset of the symptoms.
A client with a T4-level spinal cord injury (SCI) reports severe headache. The nurse notes profuse diaphoresis of the client's forehead and scalp and suspects autonomic dysreflexia. What is the first thing the nurse will do? a. Lay the client flat. b. Notify the physician. c. Apply antiembolic stockings. d. Place the client in a sitting position.
d. Place the client in a sitting position. Explanation: The nurse immediately places the client in a sitting position to lower blood pressure. Next, the nurse will do a rapid assessment to identify and alleviate the cause, and then check the bladder and bowel. The nurse will examine skin for any places of irritation. If no cause can be found, the nurse will give an antihypertensive as ordered and continue to look for cause. He or she watches for rebound hypotension once cause is alleviated. Antiembolic stockings will not decrease the blood pressure.
Which stimulus is known to trigger an episode of autonomic dysreflexia in the client who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a. Diarrhea b. Placing the client in a sitting position c. Voiding d. Placing a blanket over the client
d. Placing a blanket over the client Explanation: An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate autonomic dysreflexia. In general, constipation or fecal impaction triggers autonomic dysreflexia. When the client is observed to be demonstrating signs of autonomic dysreflexia, the nurse immediately places the client in a sitting position to lower blood pressure. The most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder.