TAUC - smart medic quiz

An occlusive dressing is typically associated with: A behavioral emergency A chest wound A pregnancy complication An amputation An eye injury

A chest wound An occlusive dressing occludes (i.e., blocks) the flow of air. Occlusive dressings are commonly used with open (a.k.a. "sucking") chest wounds (i.e., an open pneumothorax).

Which of the following injuries is not possible? A fracture of cervical vertebrae 7 A fracture of lumbar vertebrae 6 A fracture of sacral vertebrae 4 A fracture of thoracic vertebrae 12

A fracture of lumbar vertebrae 6

What is crepitus? A blood condition A bone in the foot A bone in the skull A grinding sound A lung sound

A grinding sound Crepitus refers to the sound that fractured bones make when they rub together.

Your patient's ECG shows a heart rate of 200 beats per minute. Is this sinus tachycardia? Yes No

A heart rate of 200 is usually associated with supraventricular (not sinus) tachycardia.

A normal PR Interval on an ECG measures 0.04 to 0.12 second. True False

A normal PR Interval on an ECG should actually be 0.12 to 0.20 second.

What is a dressing? A pad or compress that is applied to a wound to promote healing and/or prevent infection. A piece of material used to secure a pad or compress to a wound.

A pad or compress that is applied to a wound to promote healing and/or prevent infection.

A weakened section of an arterial wall is a: Aneurysm Angina Arrhythmia Embolism Thrombus

Aneurysm

Which drug may be nebulized for an asthma attack? Atropine Dopamine Lasix Lisinopril Narcan

Atropine During an asthma attack, the bronchioles become constricted and wet. Atropine and salbutamol are commonly used to "dry out" the passages of the lungs. Albuterol and Atrovent are also nebulized drugs for asthma.

What is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning? Albuterol Atropine Epinephrine Morphine Sulfate Solumedrol

Atropine Organophosphates are group of insecticides or nerve agents.

''Dorsal'' means: Back Below Front Middle Side

Back

BVM

Bag Valve Mask

Which receptor plays a role in maintaining blood pressure? Baroreceptors Chemoreceptors Parasympathetic Sympathetic

Baroreceptors

If you touch a responsive patient without first obtaining consent, you may have committed: Adultry Assault Battery Implied Consent Justifiable Treatment

Battery Battery is non-consensual touching that results in physical or emotional harm. Assault is placing a person in fear of impending harm.

What is the most common cause of an AED failure? Battery failure Electrode failure Electronic failure Lead failure Screen or speaker failure

Battery failure

You respond to an MVA and discover a 19-year-old female with signs and symptoms of a closed pelvic fracture. What is your primary concern? Blood loss due to internal bleeding Ruptured urinary bladder Uterine embolization Uterine inversion Your ability to control her pain

Blood loss due to internal bleeding

The term ''mottled'' means: Blue-gray Blotchy Green Red Yellow

Blotchy

This is an easy assessment question The term cyanotic refers to: Blotchy Blue-gray Green Red Yellow

Blue-gray

Atropine is used to treat: Angina Bradycardia Hypertension Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Which of the following is not a typical sign of non-neurogenic compensated shock? Anxiety Bradycardia Cool clammy skin Tachypnea Tachycardia

Bradycardia

You have a patient who is experiencing non-neurogenic, compensated shock. Which of the following symptoms would you not expect? Anxiety Bradycardia Cool clammy skin Tachypnea Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Which of the following is a typical sign of neurogenic shock? Bradycardia Hypertension Tachycardia Tachypnea

Bradycardia Most forms of shock are associated with tachycardia (rapid heart rate). However, neurogenic shock is typically associated with bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure).

The distal end of the Achilles tendon attaches to the: Calcaneus Medial Malleolus Medial Cuneiform Navicular Talus

Calcaneus

The medical term for the heel bone is the: Calcaneus Metatarsal Osteoheel Talus Tibia

Calcaneus

The volume of air that you should deliver to a patient during CPR should be based on what key observation? Capillary Refill Chest Rise Pulse Temperature Weight

Chest Rise

A flail chest can be caused by: Black lung disease Chest trauma Pneumothorax Smoking All of the above

Chest trauma A flail chest is caused by a severe blunt injury to the chest resulting in multiple rib fractures.

Proximal refers to: Above Below Closer to trunk Further from trunk Middlec

Closer to trunk

The signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following except: Collapsed jugular veins Cyanosis Tracheal deviation Unilateral breath sounds

Collapsed jugular veins It is likely the jugular veins will be distended ("JDV").

The term dromotropy refers to: Cardiac Output Contractile Force Conductivity of a Nerve Fiber Heart Rate

Conductivity of a Nerve Fiber Dromotropy refers to the conductivity of a nerve fiber; it can be positive or negative.

The transparent, dome-shaped window covering the front of the eye is called the: Conjunctiva Cornea Iris Lens Retina

Cornea The conjunctiva is the clear moist membrane that coats the inner surfaces of the eyelids and the outer surface of the eye, the iris is the colored portion that contains the pupil, the lens is behind the pupil and focuses light on the retina in the back of the eye, and the cornea is the clear dome in the front of the eye.

To size an oropharyngeal airway, measure from the: Corner of the mouth to the ear canal Corner of the mouth to the ear lobe Nostril to the corner of the mouth Nostril to the ear canal Nostril to the ear lobe

Corner of the mouth to the ear lobe

Oxygen is supplied to the myocardium via the: Carotid arteries Coronary arteries Pulmonary arteries

Coronary arteries

What shape is a Macintosh laryngoscope blade? Curved Straight

Curved

Hypertension, erratic respirations, and slowing heart rate may indicate: Crushing Cushing Dunphy Hepatopulmonary Edema

Cushing Cushing's Triad is often found in the presence of increased intracranial Pressure (ICP).

Hypoperfusion usually results in what color skin? Apple Brown Cyanotic Red Yellow

Cyanotic Hypoperfusion is inadequate oxygenation of body tissue. The lack of oxygen in the blood can cause the skin to appear blue.

What is the preferred treatment for ventricular fibrillation? Atropine CPR Defibrillation Synchronized Cardioversion Transcutaneous Pacing

Defibrillation

What event ends the second stage of labor? Active labor Crowning Delivery of baby Delivery of placenta

Delivery of baby

What is the third stage of labor? Active Labor Pushing Pushing and delivery of the baby Delivery of the baby Delivery of placenta

Delivery of placenta

The bulb of hair follicles are contained in the: Deep fascia Dermis Epidermis Subcutaneous layer Sweat glands

Dermis

Dyspnea means: Difficulty breathing Difficulty hearing Difficulty speaking Difficulty thinking Difficulty urinating

Difficulty breathing

Your 14-year-old patient is bleeding profusely from his wrist following a bicycle accident. What is the first method you would use to control the bleeding? Cold Compress Direct Pressure Pressure Dressing Pressure Point Tourniquet

Direct Pressure The steps to control bleeding vary between protocols. Direct pressure is always the first choice. Many protocols then list pressure dressings while others move directly to tourniquet. Very few protocols still use pressure points.

The frontal plane: Divides anterior from posterior Divides medial from lateral Divides superior from inferior Is above midline Is below midline

Divides anterior from posterior

The ''sagittal'' plane: Divides anterior from posterior Divides left and right Divides superior from inferior Is above midline Is below midline

Divides left and right

The transverse plane: Divides anterior from posterior Divides medial from lateral Divides superior from inferior Is above midline Is below midline

Divides superior from inferior

The PR segment on an ECG begins at the: End of the P wave Peak of the P wave Peak of the R wave Start of the P wave Start of the R wave

End of the P wave The PR segment begins at the end of the P wave. The PR interval begins at the start of the P wave.

HIV can be transmitted by inhalation. True False

False HIV (the AIDS virus) can be transmitted by blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk

HIV can be transmitted by inhalation. True False

False HIV (the AIDS virus) can be transmitted by blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk.

To protect your patient's privacy, you should only inspect a genitalia injury if there is obvious bleeding. True False

False There are other reasons it may be appropriate to inspect your patient's genitals in addition to severe bleeding, such as pain or trauma.

Distal refers to Above Below Closer to trunk Further from trunk Middle

Further from trunk

Never insert the tip of a suction tip: More than 2 inches More than 3 inches More than 4 inches More than 5 inches Further than you can see

Further than you can see

The pulse that can be palpated near the groin is called the: Carotid Pulse Dorsalis Pedis Pulse Femoral Pulse Radial Pulse Posterior Tibial Pulse

Femoral Pulse

What is the name of the thigh bone? Femur Fibula Humerus Patella Tibia

Femur

A sound typically associated with fluid in the airway is: Gurgling Snoring Wheezing

Gurgling

The coronary arteries are located in the: Brain Eyes Heart Lungs Thighs

Heart

Which technique is better suited for a trauma patient with a significant MOI: Heat-tilt, chin-lift Jaw-thrust

Heat-tilt, chin-lift

A contusion often results in: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Hematoma Laceration

Hematoma

The most likely injury from a hammer is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Hematoma Laceration

Hematoma

Which of the following would be a closed injury? Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Hematoma Laceration

Hematoma

Which of these diseases is most commonly transmitted via the oral/fecal route? Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis D Hepatitis E

Hepatitis A

Which of the following is not an early sign of hypoperfusion? Hypotension Pale, cool, clammy skin Tachycardia Tachypnea

Hypotension Hypotension is a late sign of hypoperfusion.

When triaging multiple patients, red means: Immediate (highest priority) Delayed (second priority) Hold (third priority) Unsurvivable (no treatment

Immediate (highest priority)

The inferior tip of the sternum is the: Atlas Bone Lower Coccyx Occipital Tip Sternum Plantar Xiphoid Process

Xiphoid Process

he term jaundice refers to: Blue-gray Blotchy Green Red Yellow

Yellow Yellow skin is frequently associated with liver disfunction.

Is Lactated Ringers (LR) isotonic? Yes No

Yes An isotonic solution has the same salt concentration as the normal cells of the body and the blood.

Glasgow

a coma score

Your patient's ECG shows respiratory sinus dysrhythmia. Her heart rate does what during inspiration? Increases Decreases Stops Weakens Strengthens

Increases In respiratory sinus dysrhythmia, decreased vagal tone during inspiration causes rate to increase, and increased vagal tone during expiration causing the heart rate to decrease.

Fever, chills, and sore muscles are typical symptoms of a: Heart attack Infection Pregnancy Stroke Trauma

Infection

The letter ''i'' in MOI stands for: Illness Incision Injection Injury

Injury

Why is the jaw-thrust preferable for traumatic patients? It can be performed faster It causes less pain It is more effective It minimizes spinal movement It reduces the spread of disease

It minimizes spinal movement

he spleen is located in the? LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ

LUQ

The voice box is really the: Epiglottis Larynx Oropharynx Pharynx Trachea

Larynx

Is a drop in BP an early or late sign of hypoperfusion? Early Late

Late Falling blood pressure indicates that the body is no longer able to compensate for the hypoperfusion (i.e., shock). It's a late sign.

Which of the following most accurately describes septic shock? Clogged blood vessels and vasoconstriction due to infection Clogged blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection Infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation Leaking blood vessels and vasoconstriction due to infection Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection

Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection

The first 'L' in LLQ refers to: Lateral Left Linear Lower Lumba

Left

''Normal'' diastolic blood pressure is: Less than 60 mm Hg Less than 70 mm Hg Less than 80 mm Hg Less than 90 mm Hg Less than 100 mm Hg

Less than 80 mm Hg

The ''AVPU'' scale is used to measure: Blood Gases Heart Rate Level of Responsiveness Newborn Responsiveness Scene Safety

Level of Responsiveness The AVPU scale is used to report whether a patient is Alert, responsive to Voice or Pain stimuli, or is Unresponsive.

Bronchi are located in the: Abdomen Ear Eye Heart Lungs

Lungs The Bronchi are the large branches that exit the trachea and enter the lungs.

Prone refers to a patient who is: Lying on his abdomen Lying on his back Lying on his side Sitting Standing

Lying on his abdomen

Supine refers to a patient who is: Lying on his abdomen Lying on his back Lying on his side Sitting Standing

Lying on his back

Fowler's position refers to a patient who is: Lying on his back flat Lying on his back with back lowered Lying on his back with back raised Lying on his back with feet lowered Lying on his back with feet raised

Lying on his back with back raised Lying on his back with back raised"). In Fowler's position, the patient is placed in a semi-upright sitting position (45-60 degrees) and may have knees either bent or straight.

The MONA acronym is used for the treatment of: CVA COPD IUD MI MVA

MI MONA refers to Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, and Aspirin (treatment for a heart attack, an "MI").

Which of the following is the most important during an assessment: Getting a prompt SAMPLE history Keeping the patient comfortable Maintaining an open airway Obtaining verbal consent Performing a rapid body assessment

Maintaining an open airway All of these items are important, but the most important task is to maintain an open airway. Of course, this does not prevent you from performing the other tasks.

MCI

Mass-casualty Incident Colors: Black -- dead or unlikely survival Red -- major life-threatening injuries Green: Wounded but able to walk yellow: non life-threatening but not able to walk

MOI

Mechanism of Injury

The ''M'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Manic Medications Menstruation Morbidity Motion

Medications

Demerol is a brand name for: Atropine Dicyclomine Dopamine Meperidine Midazolam

Meperidine Narcotic -- It can treat moderate to severe pain

What might occur secondary to prolonged vomiting? Metabolic Acidosis Metabolic Alkalosis Respiratory Acidosis Respiratory Alkalosis

Metabolic Alkalosis Metabolic alkalosis may occur secondary to prolonged vomiting (due to loss of gastric acid) or after the ingestion of large amounts of bicarbonates.

This heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle: Aortic valve Mitral (bicuspid) valve Pulmonic valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic

Mitral (bicuspid) valve

A spinal injury can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock

Neurogenic Shock

Is the mandible superior to the maxilla? Yes No

No

To size an nasopharyngeal airway, measure from the: Corner of the mouth to the ear canal Corner of the mouth to the ear lobe Nostril to the corner of the mouth Nostril to the ear lobe Nostril to the ear canal

Nostril to the ear lobe Nostril to the ear lobe"). Nasopharygngeal should give you a hint that the question is about the nose. And airways are measured to the ear lobe.

The ''O'' in OPQRST stands for Oral Opening Onset Orgasm Orthogonal

Onset

OPQRST

Onset (of event) Provocation Quality (description of pain) Region and Radiation Severity (0-10) Time (history)

Contralateral means: Above midline Away from midline Opposite side of midline Same side of midline Toward the midline

Opposite side of midline

What is the correct route for activated charcoal? IV OS PO SC SQ

PO PO means "by mouth" in Latin. When appropriate, activated charcoal should be taken by mouth (orally).

Which membrane surrounds the heart? Pericardium Perimostoid Perineum Peritoneum Pleura

Pericardium

What are ''lucid'' intervals? Periods between blood pressure checks Periods between consciousness and unconsciousness Periods between drug administration Periods between respirations Periods between vital checks

Periods between consciousness and unconsciousness

Which membrane surrounds the abdominal cavity? Pericardium Perimastoid Perineum Peritoneum Pleura

Peritoneum The peritoneum is the membrane that forms the lining of the abdominal cavity. Don't confuse this with the perineum which is the area between the anus and the genitals.

What is ''abruptio placentae''? Meninges separating from skull Pericardium separating from heart Perineum separating from abdomen Peritoneum separating from abdomen Placenta separating from uterus

Placenta separating from uterus

Which membrane surrounds each lung? Pericardium Perimastoid Perineum Peritoneum Pleura

Pleura

The ''P'' in OPQRST stands for Pain Permanent Precursor Previous Provokes

Provokes

Where is the preferred location for an OS IV? Distal fibula Distal tibia Proximal fibula Proximal tibia

Proximal tibia OS IV" refers to intraosseous infusion which is the process of injecting directly into the marrow of a bone to provide a non-collapsible entry point into the systemic venous system. This is typically the proximal tibia.

The term Dorsiflex means to: Point toes downward Point toes inward Pull toes upward Roll foot inward Roll foot outward

Pull toes upward

Valium is a brand name for: atropine diazepam dopamine trazodone temazepam

diazepam It can treat anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures.

Visceral means: The area between urogenital passages and the rectum The membrane lining the abdominal cavity The outer surface of the skin The surface closest to an organ The surface closest to the wall

The surface closest to an organ

Parietal means: The area between urogenital passages and the rectum The membrane lining the abdominal cavity The outer surface of the skin The surface closest to the organ The wall of a body cavity

The wall of a body cavity The "parietal peritoneum" is attached to the abdominal wall, but the term parietal means, "the wall of a body, body cavity, or hollow structure."

What medicine prevents Wernicke's encephalopathy? Tagamet Tegretol Tenormin Thiamine Timoptic

Thiamine Thiamine deficiency can result in Wernicke's Encephalopathy (WE). In the West, thiamine deficiency is typically associated with chronic alcoholism.

The larger bone in the lower-leg is the: Fibula Radial Radius Tibia Ulna

Tibia

The ''T'' in ''OPQRST'' stands for Temperature Tender Time Tickle Transport

Time

What is the purpose of checking capillary refill before and after bandaging? To check circulation To check pain tolerance To check neurogenic function

To check circulation

An oropharyngeal airway is contraindicated if the patient: has a gag reflex has false teeth has oral bleeding is allergic to latex is unresponsive

has a gag reflex Oropharyngeal airway prevents gonue from covering epiglottis.

A communicable disease is a disease that: is always fatal. is only transmissible through body fluids. is only transmissible through inhalation is only transmissible through sexual activity. is spread from person to person.

is spread from person to person.

Select the most common airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient. Dentures Drugs Food Jewelry Tongue

Tongue. Although food may be the most common airway obstruction in conscious patients, the tongue is the most common in unresponsive patients.

When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, the beveled edge should be positioned ________ the septum. Away from Toward

Toward

Medial means: Toward the bottom Toward the feet Toward the head Toward the middle Toward the side

Toward the middle

''Lateral'' means: Toward the feet Toward the front Toward the head Toward the middle Toward the side

Toward the side

Which of the following is not in the upper airway? Larynx Nasopharynx Nasopharynx Pharynx Trachea

Trachea

hich of the following is not in the upper airway? Larynx Nasopharynx Nasopharynx Pharynx Trachea

Trachea is undeniably in the lower airway.

This heart valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle: Aortic valve Mitral valve Pulmonic valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic valve

Tricuspid valve One trick to remembering the name of this valve is that you "TRI to do RIGHT" (as in tricuspid rhymes with right). Another memory aid is you have to TRI before you BI (right side before left side).

An avulsion occurs when a body structure is partially torn from the body. True False

True

You should use the OPQRST mnemonic for your medical patients. True False

True The OPQRST mnemonic helps you learn more about your patient's symptoms. It can be used with both medical and trauma patients, but it is especially helpful with medical patients where there aren't as many signs and where you want to know more about what they are feeling.

If a patient who was ejected from a vehicle tells you his only injury is an abrasion on his wrist, you should still perform a rapid trauma assessment. True False

True Base your decision to do a rapid trauma assessment on the MOI, not on the patient's symptoms.

ou patient should attempt to hold his breath after using an MDI: True False

True MDI is an abbreviation for Metered Dose Inhaler. The patient should attempt to hold his or her breath to keep the medicine in his or her lungs.

he MOI can provide clues that will help you help your patient. True False

True The MOI is the mechanism of injury.

Oxygen should be administered to hypoxic COPD patients True False

True EMTs used to be taught that oxygen could eliminate a COPD patient's hypoxic drive and that it should not be given to these patients. It is now taught that withholding O2 does more harm than good.

The buildup of fatty deposits inside of arteries is called atherosclerosis. True False

True It is easy to confuse atherosclerosis (the buildup of fatty deposits) with arteriosclerosis (the buildup of calcium deposits).

You should vigorously shake an MDI before use. True False

True MDI is an abbreviation for Metered Dose Inhaler.

It is acceptable to ask patients to walk when triaging an MCI. True False

True Most triage algorithms identify the "green" patients (i.e., the "walking wounded") by asking patients with minor injuries to walk to a specific location.

The jugular neck veins are normally visible in a supine patient. True False

True Normally, the jugular veins will be visible in a supine (lying down) patient. If they are flat, it might be a sign of blood loss.

Pneumonia is often associated with an abnormal body temperature: True False

True Pneumonia often presents with a fever (including sweating and chills). Lower than normal body temperatures can occur in adults older than age 65 and people with weak immune systems.

When practical, CPR should be performed while AED pads are being applied. True False

True The American Heart Association 2015 Guidelines say, "CPR should be provided while the AED pads are applied and until the AED is ready to analyze the rhythm.."

The membrane layer that is in contact with abdominal organs is called the: Endometrium Visceral pericardium Visceral peritoneum Visceral pleura

Visceral peritoneum

What is another name for Thiamine? Vitiman B1 Vitiman B6 Vitiman B10 Vitiman B12

Vitiman B1

Which of the following is not typically considered a sign or symptom of hypoglycemia? Confusion Hunger Visual Distrubances Vomiting

Vomiting

The most likely injury after being shot with an arrow is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Laceration Puncture

Puncture

The appendix is located in the? LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ

RLQ

The gallbladder is located in the: LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ

RUQ

Which of these is common during an opioid overdose: Dilated Pupils Hyperaesthesia Respiratory Depression Tachypnea

Respiratory Depression The "opioid overdose triad" symptoms are pinpoint pupils, unconsciousness, and respiratory depression.

A Yankauer suction tip is: Rigid Flexible Either

Rigid

The tough, white, outer layer of the eye is called the: Cornea Iris Lens Retina Sclera

Sclera

The ''S'' in ''OPQRST'' stands for Severity Signs Stress Stripes Symptoms

Severity

START System

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment

Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain Automatic Cardiac Homogenous Skeletal Smooth

Skeletal

What is the most abundant cation in the extracellular fluid in the body? Calcium Magnesium Potassium Sodium Titanium

Sodium A "cation" is a positively charged ion. Sodium is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid whereas potassium is the most abundant cation in the intracellular space.

Auscultation is: Something you feel Something you hear Something you see Something you smell Something you taste

Something you hear

The following formula is used to calculate cardiac output: Blood Pressure times Heart Rate Diastolic times Heart Rate Diastolic times Systolic Heart Rate times Systolic Stroke Volume times Heart Rate

Stroke Volume times Heart Rate

The term ''diaphoretic'' means: Abdominal discomfort Erratic respirations Inability to urinate Pertaining to the eyes Sweating profusely

Sweating profusely

The ''S'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Scabies Significant Bleeding Splinting Stabbing Pain Swelling

Swelling

Is abdominal pain a sign or a symptom? Sign Symptom

Symptom Symptoms are something your patient tells you, but which you cannot confirm.

Your patient tells you they are going to vomit. Is this a sign or a symptom? Sign Symptom

Symptom Symptoms are things that your patient feels but you can't confirm. Thus, nausea is a symptom.

The ''T'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Tenderness Tendonitis Tissue Toxic Traumatic

Tenderness

Bones and muscles are connected by? Adipose tissue Cartilage Ligaments Muscle Tendons

Tendons are fibrous cords of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones.

You have a patient with hypoxia, decreased breath sounds on one side, and tracheal deviation. You suspect: Cerebrovascular Accident Myocardial Infarction Cardiac Tamponade Flail Chest Tension Pneumothorax

Tension Pneumothorax

Oxygen supplied via a nasal cannula should be set to flow at: 0-2 lpm 2-4 lpm 1-6 lpm 4-8 lpm 6-12 lpm

1-6 lpm (litres per minute)

What drip rate would you use if you were ordered to administer 1 L over one hour with a 10 gtt/mL drip set? 50 gtt 83 gtt 150 gtt 167 gtt 200 gtt

167 gtt One liter is 1000 cc. So the calculation is: (1000 cc * 10 gtt/mL) / 60 minutes = 166.67 gtt

Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's face? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent

4.5 percent An adult's head is 9 percent so the face is approximately 4.5 percent.

Which formula is used to determine the endotracheal tube size for children? (Age / 4) + 4 or (Age + 16) / 4 (Age / 4) + 1 or (Age + 4) / 4 (Age / 4) + 6 (Age / 6) + 4

(Age / 4) + 4 or (Age + 16) / 4

Jaw-thrust

first-aid procedure used to prevent the tongue from obstructing the upper airways

You have determined that the scene is safe. The next thing you would do (of these choices) is: Check for a current insurance card Check for signs of circulation Check level of responsiveness Check pupil size Check the pulse rate

Check level of responsiveness

Zygomas are: Cheek bones Female Genitals In the hands Male Genitals Vertebrae

Cheek bones

The ''C'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Canopy Colitis Colonoscopy Contusions Cranium

Contusions DCAP-BTLS is a memory aid which is used to help assess trauma patients.

The transfer of heat when air or water currents carry heat from an object is called: Conduction Convection Evaporation Radiation Respiration

Convection

How should you package an amputated body part for transportation to the hospital? Covered and packed in crushed ice Covered and packed in dry ice Covered with a dry dressing and kept cool In anatomical position near the separation point Submerged in cool water

Covered with a dry dressing and kept cool

EMTs should reduce a dislocated finger by applying gentle longitudinal traction. True False

False Most EMT and paramedic protocols do not permit reduction of dislocated joints.

Nicardipine is helpful for the treatment of hypotension. True False

False Nicardipine is helpful for the short-term treatment of hypertension.

Passive rewarming of a hypothermic patient includes placing heat-packs or hot water bottles near the patient's axillary and groin. True False

False Passive rewarming refers to removing wet clothing and adding insulation to prevent further heat loss. Active rewarming refers to applying heat sources.

Excessive pressure on the carotid artery can increase the heart rate in older patients. True False

False Pressure on the carotid artery can result in the slowing of the heart (typically in older patients).

The T wave on an ECG represents the depolarization of the atria. True False

False The P wave, not the T wave, represents the depolarization of the atria.

The diastolic blood pressure indicates the pressure when the left ventricle contracts: True False

False The diastolic blood pressure is the pressure when the left ventricle dilates (and refills with blood).

The epidermis contains blood vessels: True False

False The epidermis is the non-vascular, outer layer of the skin. It is approximately 1 mm thick and does not contain blood vessels.

All arteries carry oxygen rich blood.

False The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs

A febrile seizure is typically associated with: Cerebrovascular Accident Fever Head Injury Heart Attack Pregnancy

Fever Febrile seizures are convulsions brought on by a fever in infants or small children. During a febrile seizure, a child often loses consciousness and shakes, moving limbs on both sides of the body.

The smaller bone in the lower leg is the: Fanochia Fibia Fibula Tibia Tibula

Fibula Fibula is the correct term. the "fibia" does not exist. That term comes from an accidental combination of the words tibia (the larger bone in the lower leg) and fibula (the correct term).

The lateral bone in the lower-leg is the: Fibula Radius Radial Tibia Fibia

Fibula The fibula is the smaller bone in the lower-leg. It is lateral (to the outside) of the tibia.

A French suction tip is: Rigid Flexible Both

Flexible

When in the anatomical position, the palms of the hands face: Away from the body Backward Forward Toward the body Upward

Forward

What reverses the effects of temazepam? Atropine Diazepam Flumazenil Tenecteplase Trazodone

Flumazenil Temazepam is a benzodiazepine and is reversed by flumazenil as are other benzodiazepines like Valium.

he lateral malleolus is located near the: Foot Head Hip Knee Shoulder

Foot The lateral malleolus is the "outside" ankle bone (i.e., the end of the fibula).

The ''tarsals'' are located near the: Foot Hand Hip Knee Shoulder

Foot The tarsals are the ankle bones. It's easy to confuse these with the carpals (in the wrists).

The hole at the base of the skull is called the: Cerebral Orifice Foramen Magnum Mandible Manubrium

Foramen Magnum

Which of these are caused by a virus? Hepatitis B Syphilis Tetanus Tuberculosis

Hepatitis B Hepatitis B is caused by a virus. The others are bacterial.

The ''acetabulum'' is located in the: Abdomen Foot Hand Hip Shoulder

Hip

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Nitroglycerin? Dizziness Flushing Headache Hives Nervousness

Hives

When triaging multiple patients, green means: Immediate (highest priority) Delayed (second priority) Hold (third priority) Unsurvivable (no treatment)

Hold (third priority)

What is the name of the upper arm bone? Femur Fibula Humerus Humorous Patella

Humerus

In which of the following diabetic emergencies would you expect to find warm, red, dry skin: Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia

Hyperglycemia

In which of the following diabetic emergencies might you find breath that smells like nail polish remover? Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia

Hyperglycemia "Acetone breath" is caused by ketones which can occur during hyperglycemia when when the liver breaks down fat and proteins. Hyperglycemia can also cause a "fruity" breath.

Which of the following medical conditions has a slower onset? Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia

Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia, low blood sugar, can happen quickly. Hyperglycemia, high blood sugar, takes much longer to develop.

Lasix is used to treat: Hypertension Hyperthermia Hypotension Hypothermia Hypovolemia

Hypertension

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction? Difficulty breathing Dizziness Hives Hypertension Rapid heart rate

Hypertension Hypotension is a symptom of a severe allergic reaction.

What is preeclampsia? Hypertension during pregnancy Infantile cerebral hemorrhaging Infection during pregnancy Seizures relating to pregnancy Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy

Hypertension during pregnancy Preeclampsia is a complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys.

In which of the following diabetic emergencies would you expect to find cold, pale, moist, or clammy skin: Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia

Which of the following is the more common diabetic emergency? Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia

Hemorrhaging can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock

Hypovolemic Shock

Internal bleeding can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock

Hypovolemic Shock

Dehydration can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock

Hypovolemic Shock (decreased blood volume)

Lack of oxygen is called: Apnea Dyspnea Hypoxemia Hypoxia

Hypoxia Hypoxia refers to low oxygenation whereas hypoxemia refers specifically to low oxygenation in the blood.

While performing a Rapid Body Assessment on an unresponsive trauma patient, you discover an open fracture of the left tibia that has life-threatening bleeding. You should: Immediately control the bleeding. Quickly complete your survey and then control the bleeding.

Immediately control the bleeding. If you encounter a life threatening condition during your assessment, you should deal with it immediately before continuing with your assessment.

What should you give for a morphine overdose? Naprosyn Naproxen Narcan Neurontin Novacaine

Narcan Narcan is a brand name for naloxone. It can treat narcotic overdose in an emergency situation.

The acronym ''NOI'' stands for: Nature Of Injury Nature Of Illness

Nature Of Illness "NOI" refers to a medical illness. The term "MOI" refers to a traumatic injury.

Where is the cricoid cartilage? Ankle Hip Knee Neck Sternum

Neck The cricoid cartilage, or simply "cricoid" (from the Greek "krikoeides" meaning "ring-shaped"), is the only complete ring of cartilage around the trachea.

Should you bend at the waist when lifting or carrying a patient? Yes No

No

This is a moderately difficult airway question Is a nasal airway contraindicated when ventilating an unresponsive patient using a BVM? Yes No

No A nasal airway, or nasopharyngeal airway, helps oxygen reach the patient's lungs. An oropharyngeal airway is preferred, but an nasal airway is not contraindicated.

The appendix is located in the? LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ

RLQ

The liver is located in the? LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ

RUQ

The pulse that can be palpated near the wrist is called the: Carotid Pulse Dorsalis Pedis Pulse Femoral Pulse Posterior Tibial Pulse Radial Pulse

Radial Pulse

The R in OPQRST stands for Radiate Recollection Rejuvenate Retaliate Revoke

Radiate

The transfer of heat when heat waves, or rays, are dispersed from an object is called: Conduction Convection Evaporation Radiation Respiration

Radiation

The bone on the thumb-side of the forearm is the: Fibula Radial Radius Tibia Ulna

Radius

The fibula is to the tibia as the ulna is to the: Carpals Patella Radius Tarsals Umbilicus

Radius

The bone in the lower arm that joins the wrist near the thumb is the: Humerous Radial Radius Ulna Ulnar

Radius The two bones in the lower arm are the Radius and the Ulna.

ou suspect that your patient, who is immobilized on a long spine board, may be going into shock. How should you position the long-board? Raise the ''feet'' end of the spine board 6-8 inches Raise the ''head'' end of the spine board 6-8 inches Unstrap lower extremities and raise feet 6-8 inches Unstrap the upper body and raise to a 45 degree angle

Raise the ''feet'' end of the spine board 6-8 inches

What is the name of a bubbling sound in lungs? Asthma Rales Ridor Stridor Wheezing

Rales

Which of the following is a typical sign of compensated shock? Bradycardia Rapid heart rate Slow, deep breathing Surge in strength Warm, pink skin

Rapid heart rate

Which of the following five parameters are most helpful when interpreting cardiac rhythms? Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, P Waves, PR Interval Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, ST Segment, T Waves Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, ST segment, PR Interval Rate, Regularity, U Waves, P Waves, PR Interval

Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, P Waves, PR Interval

During triage, a sucking chest wound would be: Black Blue Green Red Yellow

Red

The term ''flushed'' refers to: Blotchy Blue-gray Green Red Yellow

Red

Vagal maneuvers: Slow conduction through the AV node Slow conduction through the SA node Speed conduction through the AV node Speed conduction through the SA node

Slow conduction through the AV node

The prefix phlebo means? Artery Blood Circulation Vein Vessels

Vein The prefix phlebo means vein. Phlebotomy refers to drawing blood from a vein.

The ''midaxillary'' line runs in which direction? Diagonally Front-to-back Horizontally Vertically

Vertically

A contraindication for nitroglycerin is: Angina Asthma Biebrich Scarlet Epistaxis Viagra

Viagra

A sound typically associated with asthma or an allergic reaction is: Gurgling Snoring Wheezing

Wheezing

When treating a drug overdose, which question should you not ask: How many pills did you take? What drug did you take? When did you take the pills? Where is the pill container? Who gave you the pills?

Who gave you the pills?

During triage, a femur fracture wound would be: Black Blue Green Red Yellow

Yellow Don't feel bad if you selected Red—most people do (us, too), but most texts say that "major or multiple bone or joint injuries" are yellow.

Based on the color of triage tags, which of these patients would receive care second? Black Green Orange Red Yellow

Yellow Patients tagged red would receive care first. Patients tagged yellow would receive care second. (Orange is not a triage color.)

Is normal saline isotonic? Yes No

Yes

Is the mandible superior to the manubrium? Yes No

Yes

Is a DNR an advanced directive? Yes No

Yes A "do not resuscitate" (DNR) is a legal document to respect the patient's wishes to not receive CPR or advanced life support.

Is NS IV fluid isotonic? Yes No

Yes An isotonic solution has the same salt concentration as the cells of the body and the blood. Normal saline (NS) is isotonic.

What is the normal respiration rate for an adult? 5 to 10 breaths per minute 10 to 20 breaths per minute 12 to 20 breaths per minute 15 to 30 breaths per minute 25 to 50 breaths per minute

12 to 20 breaths per minute

What is the correct dosage of aspirin for an adult who is experiencing chest pain? 81 - 162 mg 162 - 243 mg 162 - 325 mg 325 - 405 mg 405 - 486 mg

162 - 325 mg he American Heart Association recommends an initial aspirin dose following a suspected miocardial infarction of between 162 mg and 325 mg. Next Question

Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's back? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent

18 percent

Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's entire leg? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent

18 percent

Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant's back? 4.5 percent 9 percent 14 percent 18 percent

18 percent The percentages on an infant are: head (18%), anterior torso (18%), posterior torso (18%), each leg (14%), and each arm (9%).

Each small square on an ECG represents: 0.02 second 0.04 second 0.06 second 0.10 second 0.20 second

0.04 second

What is the epinephrine dosage for anaphylaxis? 0.15 mg 1:1000 (IM) 0.3 mg 1:1000 (IM) 0.15 mg 1:10000 (IM) 0.3 mg 1:10000 (IM)

0.3 mg 1:1000 (IM)

An adult EpiPen contains how much epinephrine? 0.15 mg 1:1000 0.15 mg 1:2000 0.30 mg 1:1000 0.30 mg 1:2000 0.30 mg 1:10000

0.30 mg 1:1000

What is the epinephrine dosage for cardiac arrest? 0.1 - 0.5 mg 1000:1 0.5 - 1.0 mg 1000:1 0.1 - 0.5 mg 10000:1 0.5 - 1.0 mg 10000:1

0.5 - 1.0 mg 10000:1 The recommended dosage for cardiac arrest is 1 mg of 1:10000 administered q 3-5 minutes. Follow each dose with IV flush.

How many pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum? 10 11 12 13 14

10 There are 12 pairs of ribs all of which connect to the spine. Ten pairs of these ribs connect at the sternum. The lower two pairs of ribs are floaters and connect to cartilage.

What is optimum on-scene time for a critical trauma patient? 10 minutes 12 minutes 45 minutes 60 minutes

10 minutes Shorter is obviously better. Brady Emergency Care says that 10 minutes on scene is the maximum "optimal time" to begin transporting a critical trauma patient to definitive care.

What is the maximum amount of time you should suction a patient's airway? 5-10 seconds 10-15 seconds 15-30 seconds 30-60 seconds 60-120 seconds

10-15 seconds

What is the initial treatment for a responsive patient suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? 100% O2 via NRM 100% O2 via nasal cannula Activated charcoal Immediate intubation Oropharyngeal airway

100% O2 via NRM (non-rebreathing mask)

How many areas should you palpate when assessing the abdomen? 1 2 4 6 8

4 You should palpate (i.e., feel) the four quadrants of the abdomen.

How many coccyx vertebrae are in the spine? 4 6 7 9 11

4 The coccyx is formed of either three, four or five rudimentary vertebrae.

Looking at the ECG strip, you see that there are 6 large boxes between QRS complexes. What is the heart rate? 40 50 60 70 80

50 To calculate the heart rate on an ECG strip, divide 300 by the number of large boxes between QRS complexes. In this case, 300 divided by 6 is 50.

How many pairs of ribs are connected to the spine? 10 11 12 13 14

12

How many pairs of ribs are there? 10 11 12 13 14

12

What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) for your adult patient if they open their eyes to speech, localizes pain, and their speech is confused. 11 12 13 14 15

12 Opens eyes to speech (+3), confused speech (+4), and localizes pain (+5) is 12.

What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) for your adult patient who only opens their eyes when you speak, can localize pain, and is disoriented. 11 12 13 14 15

12 Eyes open in response to voice = 3, localizes pain = 5, disoriented = 4.

How many thoracic vertebrae are in the spine? 4 5 7 12 14

12 You might remember that there are 12 ribs on each side, and each rib is connected to a thoracic vertebrae.

Which of the following flow rates should you select when using a BVM device with a reservoir? 10 L/min 15 L/min 17 L/min 20 L/min 4 L/min

15 L/min

You should repeat the ongoing assessment of a patient with minor S&S and a minor MOI (or LOI) every: 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes 20 minutes 25 minutes

15 minutes . The schoolbook answer is every 15 minutes, but obviously you should do so more frequently if you have any reason to suspect that the patient's condition is changing.

What is the normal respiration rate for a child? 5 to 10 breaths per minute 10 to 20 breaths per minute 12 to 20 breaths per minute 15 to 30 breaths per minute 25 to 50 breaths per minute

15 to 30 breaths per minute

At what ''compressions to breaths'' ratio should two rescuers perform CPR on a child? 5:1 10:1 15:2 30:2 60:2

15:2 According to the American Heart Association, the only exception to 30 compressions to 2 breaths ratio is when two rescuers are performing CPR on a child in which case you should give 15 compressions to 2 breaths.

Exhaled air contains what percent oxygen? 16 21 26 31 36

16 Atmospheric air contains approximately 21 percent oxygen at sea level. Exhaled air contains approximately 16 percent oxygen.

Approximately what percent oxygen does a patient receive from rescue breathing without supplemental oxygen? 13 percent 16 percent 19 percent 22 percent 25 percent

16 percent Air contains approximately 21% oxygen at sea level. During rescue breathing this drops to approximately 16%.

At what ''compressions to breaths'' ratio should one rescuer provide during CPR on an adult? 5:1 10:1 15:2 30:2 60:2

30:2 According to the American Heart Association, a single rescuer should provide 30 compressions to 2 breaths.

What ''compressions to breaths'' ratio is recommended by the American Heart Association when two rescuers are performing CPR on an adult? 5:1 10:1 15:2 30:2 60:2

30:2 \ According to the American Heart Association, a two rescuers should provide 30 compressions to 2 breaths. The ratio is the same for an adult whether there is one or two rescuers.

How many cc's would you administer if you were ordered to give a normal saline IV bolus to a 22 pound patient? 50 cc 100 cc 200 cc 400 cc 600 cc

200 cc A bolus is typically calculated at 20 cc per kilogram of patient weight. This patient weighs 10 kg (22 pounds), so you would administer 200 cc.

How many cc's would you administer if you were ordered to give a normal saline IV bolus to a 10 kg patient? 50 cc 100 cc 200 cc 400 cc 600 cc

200 cc A bolus is typically calculated at 20 cc per kilogram of patient weight, so a 10 kg patient would receive 200 cc.

A full oxygen cylinder is typically: 1000 psi 2000 psi 3000 psi 4000 psi 5000 psi

2000 psi Regardless of the size of the tank, oxygen tanks typically contain 2,200 PSI (pounds per square inch).

Approximately how many bones are there in the human body? 106 176 206 306 412

206

Inhaled air contains approximately what percent oxygen? 16 21 26 31 36

21

What is the typical dose of dextrose? 25 mg 25 g 50 mg 50 g

25 g

What is the normal respiration rate for an infant? 5 to 10 breaths per minute 10 to 20 breaths per minute 12 to 20 breaths per minute 15 to 30 breaths per minute 25 to 50 breaths per minute

25 to 50 breaths per minute

What percent oxygen does a patient receive from a nasal cannula flowing at 1 to 6 LPM? < 25 percent 25 to 50 percent 50 to 75 percent 75 to 100 percent

25 to 50 percent

How many bones are there in each foot? 18 22 26 28 32

26

Thrombolytic drugs typically must be administered to stroke patients within how many hours? 1 3 5 7 9

3

Hypothermia is usually defined as a core body temperature below: 36° C (96.8° F) 35° C (95.0° F) 34° C (93.2° F) 33° C (91.4° F) 32° C (89.6° F)

35° C (95.0° F)

What is the inherent rate of conduction for the SA (sinoatrial) node? 20 - 40 bpm 40 - 60 bpm 60 - 100 bpm 100 - 120 bpm

60 - 100 bpm The SA node is the primary pacemaker for the heart.

How many lumbar vertebrae are in the spine? 4 5 7 12 14

5

How many sacral vertebrae are in the spine? 3 5 7 12 14

5

What is the total number of lobes on both lungs? 2 3 4 5 6

5 Normally, the right lung has three lobes and the left lung has two lobes. There are fewer lobes on the left lung to make room for the heart (which is located on the left side of the chest).

You should repeat the ongoing assessment of a patient with serious S&S, MOI, or NOI every: 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes 20 minutes 25 minutes

5 minutes

The maximum suction time for an infant is: 5 seconds 10 seconds 15 seconds 20 seconds 30 seconds

5 seconds

What drip rate would you use if you were ordered to administer 100 cc over 30 minutes with a 15 gtt/mL drip set? 50 gtt 83 gtt 150 gtt 167 gtt 200 gtt

50 gtt The forumula is "(100 cc * 15 gtt/mL) / 30 minutes" = 50 gtt.

What is the recommended dose of atropine for severe organophosphate (nerve gas) poisoning? 2 mg/0.7 mL 4 mg/1.4 mL 6 mg/2.1 mL 8 mg/2.8 mL 10 mg/3.5 mL

6 mg/2.1 mL The treatment for severe symptoms of nerve agent ('nerve gas') or insecticide exposure is 3 injections of 2 mg/0.7 mL by AtroPen auto-injector into mid-lateral thigh in rapid succession (i.e., 6 mg/2.1mL).

What is the inherent rate of conduction for the SA (sinoatrial) node? 20 - 40 bpm 40 - 60 bpm 60 - 100 bpm 100 - 120 bpm

60 - 100 bpm

How many gtts/mL is a typical pediatric IV set (microdrip)? 10 gtts 15 gtts 45 gtts 60 gtts 90 gtts

60 gtts

The normal resting heart rate for an adult is: 50 to 80 60 to 100 70 to 110 80 to 130 90 to 140

60 to 100

What percent of oxygen is delivered through a nonrebreather mask? 10% - 25% 25% - 40% 40% - 65% 65% - 100%

65% - 100%

How many cervical vertebrae are in the spine? 4 5 7 12 14

7

What is the APGAR score of a newborn if his arms and legs are flexed, his pulse is > 100, there is grimace, his extremities are blue three minutes after birth, and he is actively crying? 5 7 9 11

7 Arms and legs flexed = 1; pulse >100 = 2; grimace = 1; skin color blue in extremities = 1; crying / good respirations = 2.

Which of the following heart rates would you most expect for an adult in good physical condition while at rest? 70 bpm 90 bpm 110 bpm 120 bpm 130 bpm

70 bpm

What drip rate would you use if you were ordered to administer 1,000 cc at 500 cc per hour with a 10 gtt/mL drip set? 13 gtt 26 gtt 83 gtt 96 gtt 167 gtt

83 gtt Solution: (500 cc * 10 gtt/mL) / 60 minutes = 83 gtt. (Don't get confused by the 1,000 cc, which is the total amount to administer and not used when calculating the drip rate.)

Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is the front of an adult's leg? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent

9 percent

Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's abdomen? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent

9 percent The front of an adult's torso is 18%, so the abdomen is approximately 9%.

What percent oxygen does a patient receive from a BVM (with O2 flowing at 10-15 LPM)?

90-100 percent

What is the average core body temperature in Fahrenheit? 96.7° F 97.8° F 98.6° F 98.7° F 99.6° F

98.6° F

Which of the following victims would you care for first? A 10-year-old child with a closed tibia fracture A 20-year-old male with abdominal pain A 30-year-old female with a femur fracture A 40-year-old pregnant female

A 30-year-old female with a femur fracture The femur fracture is the most urgent condition. Being pregnant isn't a medical problem by itself.

Which of these patients would you treat even if they refuse care? A 33-year-old male with a Glasgow score of 10. A 49-year-old female with a sucking chest wound. A 58-year-old male with hypotension and chest pain. A 9-year-old with a finger laceration whose parent refuses your care. An 18-year-old female with arterial bleeding.

A 33-year-old male with a Glasgow score of 10. A patient with a Glasgow score of 10 does not have the mental capacity to give informed consent.

Whom would you treat first at the scene of a multiple vehicle accident? A 13-year-old male with a coagulated laceration A 24-year-old female in cardiac arrest A 33-year-old male with rapid breathing and a weak pulse A 55-year-old who walks up to you with an angulated ulna

A 33-year-old male with rapid breathing and a weak pulse

An EMT's responsibility to respond to calls in an expeditious (and safe) manner, perform a thorough assessment of the patient, provide the appropriate treatment, and transport the patient (when warranted) to the appropriate facility is legally defined as: Duty to Act Implied Consent Medical Control Scope of Practice Standing Orders

Duty to Act

The tragus is part of the: Ear Foot Genitals Throat Upper Airway

Ear

The tragus is part of the: Ear Foot Genitals Throat Upper Airway

Ear

A 26-year-old woman is complaining of sudden, sharp pain in her LLQ. What is the most likely ailment? Appendicitis Ectopic Pregnancy Hemorrhoids Hypertension Pancreatitis

Ectopic Pregnancy

The costal arch is: In the upper airway Near the pelvic crest On Utah license plates The cartilage connecting ribs

The cartilage connecting ribs

The smallest kind of artery is an: Alveoli Arteriole Atria

Arteriole

What is the IV/IO PALS dosage for epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest? 0.01 mg/kg (1:1,000) 0.01 mg/kg (1:10,000) 0.02 mg/kg (1:1,000) 0.02 mg/kg (1:10,000) 0.02 mg/kg

0.01 mg/kg (1:10,000) PAS recommends administering 0.01 mg/kg (1:10,000) IV epinephrine every 3 to 5 minutes during cardiac arrest.

A child's EpiPen contains how much epinephrine? 0.10 mg 0.15 mg 0.20 mg 0.25 mg 0.30 mg

0.15 mg

Each large square on an ECG represents: 0.04 second 0.08 second 0.10 second 0.20 second 0.40 second

0.20 second

What is the typical dose of atropine to bradycardia? 0.25 mg to 0.5 IV q 5 minutes 0.5 mg to 1.0 mg IV q 5 minutes 1.0 mg to 2.0 mg IV q 5 minutes 2.0 mg to 3.0 mg IV q 5 minutes 3.0 mg to 5.0 mg IV q 5 minutes

0.5 mg to 1.0 mg IV q 5 minutes

Which of the following blood glucose levels would be considered closest to normal? 50 mg/dL 100 mg/dL 150 mg/dL 200 mg/dL 250 mg/dL

100 mg/dL . In most people the blood glucose level varies from about 80 mg/dl to 110 mg/dl (3.9 to 6.0 mmol/liter).

At what rate should one rescuer perform CPR compressions on a newborn? 40 to 60 per minute 60 to 80 per minute 80 to 100 per minute 100 to 120 per minute 120 to 140 per minute

100 to 120 per minute

At what rate should one rescuer perform CPR compressions on a child? 40 to 60 per minute 60 to 80 per minute 80 to 100 per minute 100 to 120 per minute 120+ per minute

100 to 120 per minute According to the American Heart Association 2015 guidelines, chest compressions should be at a rate of "100 to 120/minute." This is true for both children and adults.

At what rate should one rescuer perform CPR compressions on an adult? 40 to 60 per minute 60 to 80 per minute 80 to 100 per minute 100 to 120 per minute 120 to 140 per minute

100 to 120 per minute According to the American Heart Association's 2015 guidelines, chest compressions should be at a rate of "100 to 120/minute." Previous guidelines said, "at least 100/minute."

This is an easy medicines question Before use, the reservoir bag on a non-rebreather mask should be pre-inflated to: 10% of capacity 30% of capacity 50% of capacity 100% of capacity

100% of capacity

Oxygen supplied via a non-rebreather mask should be provided at the rate of: 2-4 lpm 4-8 lpm 6-12 lpm 12-15 lpm 15-20 lpm

12-15 lpm

Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant's entire leg? 4.5 percent 9 percent 14 percent 18 percent

14 percent The percentages on an infant are head (18%), anterior torso (18%), posterior torso (18%), each leg (14%), and each arm (9%). Some protocols specify the genitals/perineum as 1%, which adds up to 101%.

What is the normal core body temperature in Celsius? 34° C 35° C 36° C 37° C 38° C

37° C

The heart contains: 2 chambers 3 chambers 4 chambers 5 chambers 6 chambers

4 chambers

What is the adult dose for activated charcoal? 10-30 g 30-40 mL 50-100 g 60-100 mL 150-300 g

50-100 g The recommended dose in many prehospital protocols is 1g/kg. An initial dose of 50-100 g for an adult is recommended in joint position papers by the American Academy of Clinical Toxicology, European Association of Poisons Centres, and Clinical Toxicologists.

Which of the following is a typical tidal volume for a male patient? 100 mL 200 mL 500 mL 1000 mL 1500 mL

500 Ml Tidal volume is the volume of gas inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath. The tidal volume of an average adult is approximately 500 to 600 mL.

Which of the following is a typical tidal volume for a male patient? 100 mL 200 mL 500 mL 1000 mL 1500 mL

500 mL Tidal volume is the volume of gas inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath. The tidal volume of an average adult is approximately 500 to 600 mL.

Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is the front of an infant's leg? 4.5 percent 7 percent 14 percent 18 percent

7 percent The percentages on an infant are: head (18%), anterior torso (18%), posterior torso (18%), each leg (14%), and each arm (9%). So the front of a leg is 7 percent.

What does the acronym ''STEMI'' help identify? A blocked a coronary artery. A form of psychosis? A non-hemorrhagic cerebrovascular accident. A postpartum complication. A respiratory ailment caused by an infection or allergen.

A blocked a coronary artery.

You should treat all unresponsive patients as if they have: A gag reflex A head injury A spinal injury Health insurance Internal injuries

A spinal injury

''Meconium'' is: A medication A nationality A sign of shock A type of feces A type of head injury

A type of feces Meconium is the earliest stool of a mammalian infant. Unlike later feces, meconium is composed of materials ingested during the time the infant was in the uterus.

Which of the following is not used to assess mental status: APGAR AVPU GCS

APGAR APGAR = newborn babies

Failing to turn your patient over to somebody with equal or higher medical training is called: Abandonment Abatement Assault Battery Pretense Failure

Abandonment

Where would you find the peritoneum? Abdomen Groin Heart Mouth Skull

Abdomen The peritoneum is the membrane that forms the lining of the abdominal cavity. Don't confuse this with the perineum which is the area between the anus and the genitals.

The term for an injury where the skin is scraped is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Incision Laceration

Abrasion

The ''A'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Abrasions Anaphylaxis Anterior Area Asphyxiation

Abrasions

What is the first stage of labor? Active Labor Pushing Pushing and delivery of the baby Delivery of the baby Delivery of placenta

Active Labor

Where is the cephalic vein located? Abdomen Arm Head Leg Lungs

Arm If you selected "Head," you are not alone. Ordinarily the term cephalic refers to the anatomy of the head. When Persian physician Ibn Sina's Canon was translated into medieval Latin, cephalic was mistakenly chosen to refer to the Arabic term al-kífal, meaning "outer."

What happens when the diaphragm contracts? Air moves into the lungs Air moves out of the lungs

Air moves into the lungs When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the lungs down which causes them to fill with air.

The letter ''A'' in the ABCs stands for what? Airway Alert Ambulance Ambulatory Autonomic

Airway The ABCs are the key portion of the initial assessment. The letter A stands for Airway. In this step you check to see that the patient's airway is open.

AVPU

Alert, Voice, Pain, and Unresponsive

What do you call a pH that is greater than 7.45? Acidosis Alkalosis Hyperporetic Hypoporetic

Alkalosis

Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults? Grunting Respirations Nasal Flaring See-sawing of the Chest and Abdomen All of the above

All of the above

The ''A'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Alert Allergies Ambulatory Ambivalent

Allergies

The term for an injury where a body part is separated from the body is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Laceration Puncture

Amputation

Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant's face? 4.5 percent 9 percent 14 percent 18 percent

An infant's head is 18 percent so his face is approximately 9 percent.

A bee sting can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock

Anaphylactic Shock

Peanuts can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock

Anaphylactic Shock

What is the term for a patient who is standing face forward with palms forward? Anatomical Distal Medial Posterior Supine

Anatomical The anatomical position is standing face forward with palms forward.

Which of these is closest to phalanges? Ankle Chest Ear Pelvis Spine

Ankle Phalanges is the name of the finger and toe bones. Given the above choices, an ankle is closest to phalanges.

In the human anatomical position, the palms of the hands face: Anteriorly Dorsally Inferiorly Posteriorly Superiorly

Anteriorly

What is the term for a substance that triggers an allergic reaction? Antigen Histamine Antibody Mast Cell Pathogen

Antigen

What is the name of the heart valve that is located where the blood leaves the left ventricle? Aortic valve Mitral (bicuspid) valve Pulmonic valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic

Aortic valve A bicuspid aortic valve, which many people incorrectly select, is an aortic valve that only has two leaflets, instead of three. The aortic valve is located where the aorta receives blood from the left ventricle.

The brachial artery is located in the: Arm Brain Eyes Heart Lungs

Arm

The ulna is located near the: Abdomen Arm Ear Genitals Throat

Arm

A sphygmomanometer should be applied to the: Anus Arm Ear Mouth Skull

Arm A sphygmomanometer is the device used to measure blood pressure.

What is the term for an injury when a body structure is partially torn from the body? Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Incision Laceration

Avulsion

What is your first priority during a patient assessment? Airway BSI Bleeding Cevical Spine Circulation

BSI Body Substance Isolation

Your unresponsive adult patient is breathing at the rate of 6 breaths per minute. What treatment will you provide? BVM with 100% O2 CPR with 100% O2 CPR with 6 lpm nasal cannula NRM with 80% O2 NRM with 100% O2

BVM with 100% O2 bag valve mask

Posterior refers to Above Back Below Front Middle

Back

The scapula is located nearest the: Back Foot Hand Head Hips

Back

The transverse process is located in the: Back Cranium Foot Knee Shoulde

Back he transverse processes are two projections of bone on the sides of vertebra to which back muscles attach.

Which of the following is not a risk factor for pneumothorax? Being female Family history On mechanical ventilation Smoking Underlying lung disease

Being female Men are three times more likely than women to have a spontaneous pneumothorax.

On the human body, Ventral refers to Above Back Belly Below Middle

Belly

''Inferior'' refers to Above Below Center Middle Side

Below

The maxilla is: Above the parietal bone Below the zygomatic bone Connected to the ribs Near the clavicle The lower jaw bone

Below the zygomatic bone

To correctly perform the Heimlich maneuver on an adult, you should place your hand: Between the belt and navel Between the navel and xiphoid process On the belt On the navel On the xiphoid process

Between the navel and xiphoid process

Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of grief? Acceptance Anger Bargaining Bitterness Denial

Bitterness The stages of grief are: Denial (this isn't happening to me!), Anger (why is this happening to me?), Bargaining (I promise I'll be a better person if...), Depression (I don't care anymore), Acceptance (I'm ready for whatever comes).

Based on the color of triage tags, which of these patients would not receive care? Black Green Orange Red Yellow

Black

During triage at an MCI, a cardiac arrest would be: Green Yellow Red Black Blue

Black Cardiac arrest means that the patient's heart is no longer beating. The patient would be tagged black.

Anatomy refers to: Body functions Body structures Both functions and structures

Body structures "Anatomy" refers to body structures. "Physiology" refers to body functions.

What are the effects of epinephrine? Bronchoconstriction and Vasoconstriction Bronchoconstriction and Vasodilation Bronchodilation and Vasoconstriction Bronchodilation and Vasodilation

Bronchodilation and Vasoconstriction

A hematoma is another name for a: Abrasion Bruise CVA Heart Attack Seizure

Bruise

What is the layman's term for a contusion? Break Bruise Nosebleed Sprain Strain

Bruise

The 'B' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Browns Symptoms Bruises Bumps Burns Bursitis

Burns

The first task you should perform when you encounter an apparently unresponsive patient is: Ask bystanders the MOI Check for scene safety Check the level of responsiveness Look for signs of major bleeding Open the airway (using the jaw-thrust technique)

Check for scene safety

A myocardial infarction can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock

Cardiogenic Shock

The anatomical structure where the trachea splits into two bronchi is called the: Carina Clavicular Notch Cricoid Cartilage Hocking Notch Xyphoid process

Carina

The pulse that can be palpated near the neck is called the: Carotid Pulse Dorsalis Pedis Pulse Femoral Pulse Posterior Tibial Pulse Radial Pulse

Carotid Pulse

The carpals are located near the: Foot Hand Hip Knee Shoulder

Carpals. The carpals are the wrist bones. Don't confuse carpals with tarsals (the ankle bones).

The term CVA refers to a: Car or Vehicle Accident Cardiovascular Accident Central Vortex Areole Cerebrovascular Accident Cyanide Volume Antidote

Cerebrovascular Accident The medical term for a stroke is cerebrovascular accident (CVA).

The QT Interval on an ECG ends at the: End of the Q wave End of the T wave Peak of the T wave Start of the Q wave Start of the T wave

End of the T wave

What should you give for an opiate overdose? Naprosyn Naproxen Narcan Neurontin Novacaine

Narcan

The ''D'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Damnation Deformities Dermatitis Diticular Dungeness

Deformities

DCAP-BTLS

Deformities Crepitus Abrasion Penetrations Burns Tenderness Lacerations Swelling

Which of the following is not a cause of JVD? Cardiac Tamponade Dehydration Tension Pneumothorax Volume Overloaded CHF

Dehydration "JVD" refers to jugular vein distention.

When triaging multiple patients, yellow means: Immediate (highest priority) Delayed (second priority) Hold (third priority) Unsurvivable (no treatment)

Delayed (second priority)

When the pupils are in a dark room, they will: Constrict Contract Dialate Dilate Shrink

Dilate Pupils get larger, dilate, in a dark environment. It is worth noting that the correct spelling is dilate and not dialate. The correct pronunciation is di-late (two syllables) and not di-a-late

The first step to control bleeding is: Cool Direct Pressure Elevate Pressure Point Tourniquet

Direct Pressure

The pulse that can be palpated near the top of the foot is called the: Carotid Pulse Dorsalis Pedis Pulse Femoral Pulse Radial Pulse Posterior Tibial Pulse

Dorsalis Pedis Pulse

The prongs on a nasal cannula should curve: Downward (i.e., toward the tongue) Upward (i.e.,toward the brain)

Downward (i.e., toward the tongue) Note that the prongs on many nasal cannulas are straight, in which case there is only one way to insert them.

What are the possible side effects of lidocaine? Drowsiness, confusion, seizures, bradycardia, heart blocks Headache, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, tachycardia Hypotension, tachycardia, palpitations, chest pain Skeletal muscle tremors, confusion, light headedness

Drowsiness, confusion, seizures, bradycardia, heart blocks

What is the mnemonic N.A.V.E.L. used for? Drugs that can be administered via an ET tube Drugs that can be administered via IO Drugs that can be administered via IV Drugs that can be administered via a NG tube

Drugs that can be administered via an ET tube Narcan, Atropine, Valium, Epinephrine, and Lidocaine are the key drugs that can be administered via an ET tube.

Which meningal layer is the hard mother? Arachnoid Dura Mater No Matter Pia Mater Subarachnoid

Dura Mater

The anatomical structure that prevents food from entering the trachea is the: Carina Epiglottis Esophagus Pharynx Tongue

Epiglottis

Vasopressin is an alternative to: Atropine Dicyclomine Dopamine Epinephrine Temazepam

Epinephrine Vasopressin is a natural antidiuretic hormone. It is a powerful vasoconstrictor and an alternative to epinephrine for adult shock-refractory VF.

What does ''EOA'' stand for? Emmetropia Operation Abacterial Enema Opaca Acid Enzyme Organ Abdomen Esophageal Obturator Airway Eye Optician Abduction

Esophageal Obturator Airway

The transfer of heat when water vaporizes is called: Conduction Convection Evaporation Radiation Respiration

Evaporation

The ''E'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Activate EMS Equation Event Extension Eye Opening

Event

A SAMPLE history is required for medical patients, but not for trauma patients. True False

False

An AED is an appropriate treatment for a trauma patient: True False

False

An amputation occurs when a piece of skin is left hanging from the body. True False

False

An infection typically decreases the heart rate. True False

False

Bronchiole are smaller than alveolus. True False

False

During a seizure, you should insert an oral airway to prevent the patient from biting his or her tongue. True False

False

Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer atropine. True False

False

Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer lidocaine. True False

False

Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer morphine. True False

False

People with Type II diabetes typically take insulin daily. True False

False

Red blood cells fight infection. True False

False

When the left ventricle contracts, it sends a pressure wave of blood through the veins which is called the pulse. (This question is a little tricky... read it twice.) True False

False

You should normally see the jugular neck veins in a standing patient. True False

False

The peripheral nerves are a part of the central nervous system. True Fals

False he central nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nerves are included in the nervous system (specifically, in the peripheral nervous system), but not in the central nervous system.

Activated charcoal is appropriate for cyanide poisoning. True False

False Activated charcoal is contraindicated in numerous situations, including cyanide poisoning.

Digitalis toxicity would be expected to cause an abnormally short PR Interval. True False

False Digitalis toxicity would be expected to cause an abnormally long PR Interval because it blocks conduction through the AV junction.

The immediate threat caused by an open wound is infection. True False

False The immediate threat caused by an open wound is blood loss, not infection.

If a patient has no signs of a significant injury and there was not a significant MOI, you must still perform a rapid trauma assessment. True False

False This question refers to patients with minor traumatic injuries or a medical condition (e.g., a patient who hit their finger with a hammer or a patient with flu-like symptoms). Although it certainly will not hurt to do a rapid trauma assessment in these situations, it isn't necessary.

Oxygen is stored in the lungs. True False

False oxygen isn't stored in the lungs (if anything, it is stored in blood).

ou should perform an assessment of a pediatric patient in the same order as an adult patient. True False

False . Most texts suggest that you should assess pediatric patients from the feet up, rather than from the head down. Presumably, this is less frightening for the child.

The radial pulse rate is usually slightly slower than the carotid pulse: True False

False Although the radial pulse may be more difficult to feel, both will have the same rate (unless the radial pulse is so weak that some beats cannot be felt).

An oral airway helps relax the muscles of a responsive patient. True False

False An oral airway adjunct should only be used on a non-responsive patient who does not have a gag reflex.

COPD is common in pediatric patients: True False

False COPD is an abbreviation for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease. It is usually caused by cigarette smoking.

Hyperthermia occurs when the body loses more heat than it can create. True False

False Hyperthermia occurs when the body gains more heat than it can lose. Hypothermia occurs when the body loses more heat than it can create.

One of the best ways to prevent disease transmission is: Ask patients about HIV exposure Frequent hand washing Prophylactic antibiotics Thorough medical reports

Frequent hand washing Although gloves and other PPE are important, do not underestimate the importance of frequent hand washing.

How should you measure the proper depth of a suction catheter? From the corner of the mouth to the ear lobe From the corner of the mouth to the top of the ear From the tip of the nose to the ear lobe From the tip of the nose to the top of the ear

From the corner of the mouth to the top of the ear

Anterior refers to: Above Back Below Front Middle

Front

What are agonal respirations? Deep respirations Gasping respirations Rapid respirations Shallow respirations Slow respirations

Gasping respirations Agonal respiration is an abnormal pattern of breathing and brainstem reflex characterized by gasping, labored breathing, accompanied by strange vocalizations and myoclonus (involuntary twitching of muscles).

Which type of fracture is more common in younger patients than in older patients? Compound Greenstick Spiral Stress Transverse

Greenstick A greenstick fracture occurs when a bone bends and cracks instead of breaking completely into separate pieces.

Where would you find the perineum? Abdomen Groin Heart Mouth Skull

Groin The perineum is the region of the body inferior to the pelvic diaphragm and between the legs. It is generally defined as the surface region in both males and females between the pubic symphysis and the coccyx. Don't confuse this with the peritoneum which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity.

The venae cavae are located near the: Feet Groin Hands Head Heary

Heart

The least-likely cause of altered LOR is: Head injury Heart attack Hypoglycemia Hypothermia Stroke

Heart attack Of these choices, a heart attack is the least likely to result in an altered level of responsiveness (although the poor circulation resulting from a heart attack can certainly result in an altered LOR).

Which of the following is typically associated with profuse sweating? Heat Compensation Heat Decompensation Heat Exhaustion Heat Stroke Heat Tamponade

Heat Exhaustion

Which of the following is associated with a significant increase in core body temperature? Heat Compensation Heat Decompensation Heat Exhaustion Heat Stroke Heat Tamponade

Heat Stroke Heatstroke is caused by prolonged exposure to high temperatures or by doing physical activity in hot weather. Heatstroke is defined as a body temperature of 104 F (40 C) or higher.

When you treat an unresponsive patient you are assuming: Doctrine of Acceptance Implied Consent Jurisprudence Last Legal Liability Parental Permission

Implied Consent Implied consent is consent which is not expressly granted by a person, but rather inferred from a person's actions and the facts and circumstances of a particular situation.

Hypoperfusion refers to: Extreme cold Extreme heat Inadequate circulation Lowered mental status

Inadequate circulation Hypoperfusion is also known as shock.

Which of the following is not a symptom of stress? Decrease in appetite Difficulty sleeping Feelings of guilt Increase in sexual desire Irritability

Increase in sexual desire Stress is frequently associated with a decrease in sexual desire.

Your patient's ECG shows respiratory sinus dysrhythmia. Her heart rate does what during inspiration? Increases Decreases Stops Weakens Strengthens

Increases In respiratory sinus dysrhythmia, decreased vagal tone during inspiration causes rate to increase, and increased vagal tone during expiration causing the heart rate to decrease.

The beta cells of the pancreas produce: ACTH Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH) Insulin Hormone Testosterone Hormone Thyroxin Hormone

Insulin Hormone

Which of the following is not a ''route of entry'' for a toxin? Absorbption Ingestion Inhalation Injection Intoxication

Intoxication

The colored part of the eye that controls light levels inside the eye is called the: Conjunctiva Ibandronate Iris Lens Retina

Iris

What is unique about the hyoid bone? It is not connected to any ligaments It does not articulate with any other bone It is the hardest bone in the facial structure It does not contain bone marrow All of the above

It does not articulate with any other bone

Why should norepinephrine be given through via a central access line whenever possible? It has a short half life and may not take effect if given via a peripheral line It may cause necrosis if it extravasates in a peripheral line It will cause some minor discomfort to the patient if administered peripherally

It may cause necrosis if it extravasates in a peripheral line Because norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor, it can cause extravasation which will result in peripheral tissue necrosis.

The most likely injury from a knife is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Laceration Slice

Laceration

The ''L'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Lacerations Lateral Limited Range Localization Lymphoma

Lacerations

The ''L'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Last Medicine Intake Last Oral Intake Lucidity Lumbar Lasix

Last Oral Intake The "L" in SAMPLE traditionally stands for Last Oral Intake, but it is helpful to consider the Last anything: last urination, bowel movement, sleep, medication, seizure, etc.

Which vein carries oxygen-rich blood? Superior vena cava Left ventricle vein Left pulmonary vein Left pulmonary artery None of the above.

Left pulmonary vein The pulmonary veins (both left and right) carry oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart.

Which of the following is not typically associated with a stroke? Arm Weakness Facial Droop Leg Pain Speech Difficulty

Leg Pain

The transparent disk inside the eye that focues the light is called the: Conjunctiva Cornea Iris Lens Retina

Lens

''Normal'' systolic blood pressure is: Less than 120 mm Hg Less than 139 mm Hg Less than 159 mm Hg Less than 110 mm Hg

Less than 120 mm Hg

The Ryan White CARE Act deals with Life threatening diseases Lost or abducted children The treatment of minors The treatment of seniors

Life threatening diseases The Ryan White CARE Act mandates that EMS personnel can find out whether they were exposed to life threatening diseases while providing care.

What is the definition of auscultation? Administering medicines Listening to body sounds Taking blood pressure Viewing the retinas

Listening to body sounds

Yellow skin probably indicates: Heart Disease Insufficient perfusion Liver Problems Poor Circulation Respiratory Distress

Liver Problems

What does hypoxemia mean? Low iron in blood Low iron in body tissue Low oxygen in blood Low oxygen in body tissue

Low oxygen in blood Hypoxia refers to low oxygen in body tissue. Hypoxemia refers specifically to low oxygen in blood.

What does hypoxia mean? Low calcium in blood Low iron in blood Low iron in body tissue Low oxygen in blood Low oxygen in body tissue

Low oxygen in body tissue

The term ''wheezing'' typically refers to which type of airway obstruction? Upper Lower

Lower Wheezing is a high-pitched, whistling sound that occurs when the small airways of the lungs become narrow or constricted. It is most commonly heard when exhaling. Wheezing can be a symptom of asthma, but asthma isn't the only cause of wheeze.

A disadvantage of asking ''closed ended'' questions when gathering patient history is they: Are difficult for mentally challenged patients Are inappropriate when time is limited Elicit a dishonest answer to a direct question Elicit a long answer to a direct question May lead your patient toward certain answers

May lead your patient toward certain answers A closed-ended question can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no." For example, asking, "Does it hurt when you inhale?" versus asking, "When does it hurt?"

The direction of life support procedures by a physician that are carried out by emergency medical technicians and paramedics, including online and off-line supervision, is called: Duty to Act Implied Consent Medical Control Scope of Practice Standing Orders

Medical Control

A child with projectile vomitting, a stiff neck, and a fever causes you to suspect: Croup Dendritis Epiglottis Meningitis Rheumatic fever

Meningitis

A traction splint is indicated in which of the following: Angulated ankle Dislocated knee Open fracture of the tibia/fibula Mid-thigh closed fracture Swollen knee with displaced patella

Mid-thigh closed fracture A traction splint should only be used on a mid-shaft femur fracture. (There is debate on whether a traction split is appropriate for an open femur fracture.)

The term abduct means to Bend a joint Move away from midline Move toward midline Rotate a joint Straighten a joint

Move away from midline

What is the generic name for Narcan? Nabilone Nafarelin Naloxone Nubain Nutropin

Naloxone

You are treating a triathlete who has an upset stomach the day before a race. His pulse is 48 beats per minute. Should you begin treatment for bradycardia? Yes No

No A resting heart rate of 48 is not uncommon for a well conditioned athlete. Treating for bradycardia should be based on whether the patient has signs and symptoms that are the result of the bradycardia.

Is activated charcoal appropriate with lithium poisoning? Yes No

No Activated charcoal is contraindicated in numerous situations, including lithium poisoning.

Are infants obligatory mouth or nose breathers? Mouth Nose

Nose

What is epistaxis associated with? Genitals Myocardial Infarction Nose Pregnancy Stroke

Nose Epistaxis is the medical term for a nose bleed.

Approximately how often should you give breaths to a child when ventilating? Once every 1 to 3 seconds Once every 3 to 5 seconds Once every 5 to 7 seconds Once every 7 to 10 seconds

Once every 3 to 5 seconds

How often should you give breaths to an adult when ventilating? Once every 1 to 3 seconds Once every 4 to 5 seconds Once every 5 to 6 seconds Once every 6 to 7 seconds Once every 8 to 10 seconds

Once every 5 to 6 seconds

Most arteries carry: Oxygen-rich blood Oxygen-poor blood

Oxygen-rich blood

The ''P'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Pain Response Past History Presents Provokes

Past History

What is the name of the knee cap? Femur Fibula Humerus Patella Tibia

Patella

Organisms that cause diseases are called: Antibodies Inflamogens Pathogens Neurogens Toxins

Pathogens

In which of the following situations might you consult with medical control before inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? Patient has COPD Patient has gag reflex Patient has severe trauma to head and face Patient is overweight Patient is under the age of 10 or less than 20 kg

Patient has severe trauma to head and face "Patient has severe trauma to head and face"). Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway into a patient with severe facial trauma might cause further harm.

The sacrum is located in the: Abdomen Ear Pelvis Penis Shoulde

Pelvis The sacrum is the lower portion of the spine.

The ''ischium'' is located in the: Abdomen Ear Foot Pelvis Shoulder

Pelvis The ischium is the lower, rear part of the pelvis. Laypeople sometimes call them the "sit bones."

The term PPE refers to: Perineum Perforation Edema Peritonial Perforation Edema Personal Protective Equipment Proprietary Performance Equation Pulmonary Perforation Embolism

Personal Protective Equipment

What is placenta previa? Excessively large placenta Excessively small placenta Placenta bleeding Placenta covering the cervix Placenta detaching from the uterus

Placenta covering the cervix

Which fluid carries blood cells? Aqueous humour Cerumen Lymph Plasma Synovial

Plasma Blood plasma is the pale-yellow liquid component of blood that holds the blood cells in suspension. It makes up about 55% of the body's total blood volume.

The term plantarflex means to: Point the toes downward Point the toes inward Pull the toes upward Roll the foot inward Roll the foot outward

Point the toes downward

head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver

Prevent tongue from obstructing upper airways. Tilt head backwards in unconscious patients (by applying pressure to forehead and chin)

Shocking news can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock

Psychogenic Shock A more accurate term for the body's response to "shocking" news is acute stress response (ASR).

This heart valve is located where the blood leaves the right ventricle: Aortic valve Mitral (bicuspid) valve Pulmonary valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic

Pulmonary valve

This heart valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery: Aortic valve Mitral (bicuspid) valve Pulmonic valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic

Pulmonic valve

The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is called the: Base Pressure Inverse Pressure Orthostatic Pressure Pulse Pressure Zygomatic Pressure

Pulse Pressure

The ''Q'' in OPQRST stands for Quadratus Quality Quiet Quinolinol Quit

Quality

Your patient has a heart rate of less than 50 beats per minute. The ECG shows a variation between R waves of 3 small boxes. Is this rhythm: Regular Irregular

Regular A variation of three small boxes (or less) in rate is generally considered a regular rhythm (although this patient appears to be experiencing bradycardia, the rhythm appears normal).

Your patient is showing signs of accessory muscles and nasal flaring. You suspect: Appendicitis Cardiac Insufficiency Respiratory Distress Upper Airway Blockage

Respiratory Distress

The diaphragm is a part of the: Endocrine System Integumentary System Nervous System Respiratory System Skeletal System

Respiratory System

RTS

Revised Trauma Score

The coarse rattling sound (somewhat like snoring) that can be heard when auscultating lungs is called: Stridor Wheezing Kussmaul breathing Rhonchi

Rhonchi

The SA node is located near the: Left Atrium Left Ventricle Right Atrium Right Ventricle

Right Atrium

The right atrium sends blood to the: Aorta Inferior Vena Cava Left Ventricle Right Atrium Right Ventricle

Right Ventricle

our trauma patient is complaining of pain in the LUQ. They are showing signs of hypoperfusion. You suspect: Airway obstruction Appendicitis Cardiac compromise Gastritis Ruptured spleen

Ruptured spleen The spleen is located in the Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ).

Which of the following is NOT used to report LOR? AVPU Glasgow RTS SALT

SALT (doesn't mean anything)

''Ipsilateral'' means: Above midline Away from midline Opposite side of midline Same side of midline Toward the midline

Same side of midline ipsi = self/same

Care that an EMT can provide is legally defined as: Duty to Act Implied Consent Medical Control Scope of Practice Standing Orders

Scope of Practice Scope of Practice is a term used by government licensing boards that defines the procedures, actions, and processes that are permitted for the licensed individual.

A patient with a nose bleed should be positioned: On his back On his side (the recovery position) Seated, leaning back Seated, leaning forward Seated, with head between knees

Seated, leaning forward In the "good old days" mom had us lean back (probably so we didn't get blood on her carpet), but the correct position is to lean forward.

In which stage of labor does ''crowning'' occur? First stage Second stage Third stage Fourth stage Fifth stage

Second stage

Penetrating trauma to the eye should be treated by: Quickly and carefully removing the penetrating object Remove the object if it is less than 2 mm in diameter Securing the penetrating object in place

Securing the penetrating object in place

The postictal state is associated with: Anaphylaxis Asthma Cerebral Vascular Accidents Myocardial Infarctions Seizures

Seizures The postictal state is the altered level of consciousness following a seizure.

What is ''status epilepticus''? Seizures lasting less than 1 minute Seizures lasting 1 to 2 minutes Seizures lasting 2 to 3 minutes Seizures lasting 3 to 5 minutes Seizures lasting 5+ minutes

Seizures lasting 5+ minutes Status epilepticus is an epileptic seizure of greater than five minutes OR more than one seizure within a five-minute period without the person returning to normal between them.

What is ''eclampsia''? Hypertension during pregnancy Infantile cerebral hemorrhaging Infection during pregnancy Seizures relating to pregnancy Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy

Seizures relating to pregnancy Preeclampsia is a complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Eclampsia is the onset of seizures (convulsions) in a woman with preeclampsia.

Which off the following types of nerves carry information from the body to the brain? Central Motion Motor Sensory Somatic

Sensory he central nervous system is made up of the spinal cord and brain. The sensory nerves are nerves that receive sensory stimuli, such as how something feels and whether it is painful, smooth, rough, etc.

When packaging a young child to a spine board, you should consider padding under the: Feet Head Pelvis Shoulders

Shoulders Because young children have relatively larger heads, you may need to pad under their shoulders (upper back) to keep the spine aligned.

You see vomit running out of your patient's mouth. This is a: Sign Symptom

Sign

Is wheezing a sign or a symptom? Sign Symptom

Sign Signs are things that you can see, feel, hear, smell, etc. Symptoms are things that only your patient feels. Since you can hear wheezing, it is a sign.

The ''S'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Stabilize the Spine Signs and Symptoms Supine Superior

Signs and Symptoms

Crepitus and false motion are: Seen only with open fractures Signs of a dislocation ` Signs of severe pain Symptoms of severe pain

Signs of a fracture Crepitus is a grating sound produced by friction between the fractured parts of a bone. False motion is a bone bending where it shouldn't. Both are signs of a fracture.kul890-=87iuyjmn nyt76545e6rdtfxcSEAq

A sound typically associated with an obstructed airway is: Gurgling Snoring Wheezing

Snoring

Palpation is: Something you feel Something you hear Something you see Something you smell Something you taste

Something you feel

The stage of labor when a woman reaches complete dilation and is pushing is called: Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4 Stage 5

Stage 2 Stage 1: Onset of labor to complete dilation. Stage 2: Pushing to delivery of baby. Stage 3: Delivery of baby to delivery of placenta.

A written document containing rules, policies, procedures, regulations, and orders for the conduct of patient care in the prehospital environment is called: Duty to Act Implied Consent Medical Control Scope of Practice Standing Orders

Standing Orders

The PR Interval on an ECG starts at the: End of the P wave Peak of the P wave Peak of the R wave Start of the P wave Start of the R wave

Start of the P wave

The PR interval on an ECG begins at the: Start of the P wave Peak of the P wave End of the P wave Start of the R wave Peak of the R wave

Start of the P wave The PR segment begins at the end of the P wave. The PR interval begins at the start of the P wave.

What shape is a Miller laryngoscope blade? Curved Straight

Straight

Nubain is a: Opioid Antagonist Synthetic Opioid

Synthetic Opioid Nubain is a synthetic opioid. Don't confuse this with Narcan, which reverses the effects of opioids.

In which case might you want to remove a penetrating object? The object is in a large muscle The object is in a lung The object is in an eye The object is in the airway

The object is in the airway You should consider removing a penetrating object is if it interferes with the airway, for example, a penetrating object in the mouth.

How many ribs do men have? Fewer than women The same as women More than women

The same as women

How many ribs do men have? Fewer than women The same as women More than women

The same as women

The dorsalis pedis pulse is located on: Behind the ankle Top of the foot

Top of the foot The dorsalis pedis pulse can be palpated on the lateral side of the large tendon on the top of the foot.

Plasma: Destroys germs Transports oxygen Transports platelets

Transports platelets Plasma transports platelets, red and white blood cells.

Core body temperature is one of the four key vital signs? True False

True

It may be possible to resuscitate somebody who has been in cardiac arrest for more than 30 minutes if they are submerged in cold water. True False

True

Many EMT-B protocols allow them to administer activated charcoal. True False

True

Most EMT-B protocols allow EMTs to administer oral glucose. True False

True

Most EMT-B protocols allow them to assist patients with prescribed epinephrine. True False

True

Most EMT-B protocols allow them to assist patients with prescribed inhalers. True False

True

Most EMT-B protocols allow them to assist patients with prescribed nitroglycerin. True False

True

People living with Type I diabetes typically take insulin daily. True False

True

The atria are superior to the ventricles. True False

True

The epiglottis superior to the larynx. True False

True

The systolic blood pressure indicates the pressure when the left ventricle contracts: True False

True

The use of an emergency move (e.g., the shoulder drag) is warranted if you are unable to reach other critically injured patients. True False

True

The pharynx is located inferior to the nasopharynx.

True The pharynx is comprised of both the nasopharynx and the oropharynx.

You should avoid warming the limbs of a patient with moderate hypothermia. True False

True Warming the extremities of moderate or severe hypothermic patients may result in shock or arrhythmias.

Tuberculosis can be transmitted by inhalation. True False

True You should wear a NIOSH approved N-95 or HEPA (high efficiency particulate air) respirator if you suspect your patient has TB.

Most patients experiencing chest pain will not be having a heart attack. True False

True Although it is true that most patients that complain of chest pain are not having a heart attack, you should treat these patients as if it is a serious cardiac event.

When triaging multiple patients, black means: Immediate (highest priority) Delayed (second priority) Hold (third priority) Unsurvivable (no treatment)

Unsurvivable (no treatment)

The term stridor typically refers to which type of airway obstruction? Upper Lower

Upper In medicine, "stridor" refers to "a harsh vibrating noise when breathing, caused by obstruction of the windpipe or larynx."

The manubrium is near the: Frontal Lobe Lower Sternal Notch Upper Jaw Bone Upper Sternum

Upper Sternum . The manubrium is the upper part of the breastbone. Don't confuse this with the mandible which is the jaw bone.

The correct placement of a curved laryngoscope blade is normally the: Epiglottis Maxilla Tongue Uvula Vallecula

Vallecula The correct placement of a curved laryngoscope blade is the vallecula while the straight laryngoscopic blade is used to lift the epiglottis.

Nitroglycerin is a: Vasoconstrictor Vasodilator

Vasodilator

Which drug class does nitroglycerin belong? Catecholamines Diuretics Renin Inhibitors Vasodilators Vasopressors

Vasodilators

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is: a cardiac necrosis due to an imbalance in oxygen supply and demand. a condition relating to the alveoli. a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough oxygenated blood to the body. a result of inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree. an enlargement of air spaces within the lungs.

a condition relating to the alveoli.

CHF is: a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough oxygenated blood to the body. a result of inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree. an enlargement of air spaces within the lungs. cardiac necrosis due to an imbalance in oxygen supply and demand. characterized by airway obstruction.

a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough oxygenated blood to the body.

The epigastric region is: between the scapulae. between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process. in the digestive system. in the nasopharynx. in the reproductive system

between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process.

Myocardial infarction is: a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough oxygenated blood to the body. a result of inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree. an enlargement of air spaces within the lungs. cardiac necrosis due to an imbalance in oxygen supply and demand. characterized by airway obstruction.

cardiac necrosis due to an imbalance in oxygen supply and demand. Myocardial infarction is a heart attack.

The term midaxillary refers to a line draw from: the armpit to the ankle the chin to the navel the clavicle to the great toe the scapula to the buttocks the thorax to the femur

the armpit to the ankle

The term midaxillary refers to a line draw from: the armpit to the ankle the chin to the navel the clavicle to the great toe the scapula to the buttocks the thorax to the femur

the armpit to the ankle