TAUC - smart medic quiz
An occlusive dressing is typically associated with: A behavioral emergency A chest wound A pregnancy complication An amputation An eye injury
A chest wound An occlusive dressing occludes (i.e., blocks) the flow of air. Occlusive dressings are commonly used with open (a.k.a. "sucking") chest wounds (i.e., an open pneumothorax).
Which of the following injuries is not possible? A fracture of cervical vertebrae 7 A fracture of lumbar vertebrae 6 A fracture of sacral vertebrae 4 A fracture of thoracic vertebrae 12
A fracture of lumbar vertebrae 6
What is crepitus? A blood condition A bone in the foot A bone in the skull A grinding sound A lung sound
A grinding sound Crepitus refers to the sound that fractured bones make when they rub together.
Your patient's ECG shows a heart rate of 200 beats per minute. Is this sinus tachycardia? Yes No
A heart rate of 200 is usually associated with supraventricular (not sinus) tachycardia.
A normal PR Interval on an ECG measures 0.04 to 0.12 second. True False
A normal PR Interval on an ECG should actually be 0.12 to 0.20 second.
What is a dressing? A pad or compress that is applied to a wound to promote healing and/or prevent infection. A piece of material used to secure a pad or compress to a wound.
A pad or compress that is applied to a wound to promote healing and/or prevent infection.
A weakened section of an arterial wall is a: Aneurysm Angina Arrhythmia Embolism Thrombus
Aneurysm
Which drug may be nebulized for an asthma attack? Atropine Dopamine Lasix Lisinopril Narcan
Atropine During an asthma attack, the bronchioles become constricted and wet. Atropine and salbutamol are commonly used to "dry out" the passages of the lungs. Albuterol and Atrovent are also nebulized drugs for asthma.
What is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning? Albuterol Atropine Epinephrine Morphine Sulfate Solumedrol
Atropine Organophosphates are group of insecticides or nerve agents.
''Dorsal'' means: Back Below Front Middle Side
Back
BVM
Bag Valve Mask
Which receptor plays a role in maintaining blood pressure? Baroreceptors Chemoreceptors Parasympathetic Sympathetic
Baroreceptors
If you touch a responsive patient without first obtaining consent, you may have committed: Adultry Assault Battery Implied Consent Justifiable Treatment
Battery Battery is non-consensual touching that results in physical or emotional harm. Assault is placing a person in fear of impending harm.
What is the most common cause of an AED failure? Battery failure Electrode failure Electronic failure Lead failure Screen or speaker failure
Battery failure
You respond to an MVA and discover a 19-year-old female with signs and symptoms of a closed pelvic fracture. What is your primary concern? Blood loss due to internal bleeding Ruptured urinary bladder Uterine embolization Uterine inversion Your ability to control her pain
Blood loss due to internal bleeding
The term ''mottled'' means: Blue-gray Blotchy Green Red Yellow
Blotchy
This is an easy assessment question The term cyanotic refers to: Blotchy Blue-gray Green Red Yellow
Blue-gray
Atropine is used to treat: Angina Bradycardia Hypertension Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Which of the following is not a typical sign of non-neurogenic compensated shock? Anxiety Bradycardia Cool clammy skin Tachypnea Tachycardia
Bradycardia
You have a patient who is experiencing non-neurogenic, compensated shock. Which of the following symptoms would you not expect? Anxiety Bradycardia Cool clammy skin Tachypnea Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Which of the following is a typical sign of neurogenic shock? Bradycardia Hypertension Tachycardia Tachypnea
Bradycardia Most forms of shock are associated with tachycardia (rapid heart rate). However, neurogenic shock is typically associated with bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure).
The distal end of the Achilles tendon attaches to the: Calcaneus Medial Malleolus Medial Cuneiform Navicular Talus
Calcaneus
The medical term for the heel bone is the: Calcaneus Metatarsal Osteoheel Talus Tibia
Calcaneus
The volume of air that you should deliver to a patient during CPR should be based on what key observation? Capillary Refill Chest Rise Pulse Temperature Weight
Chest Rise
A flail chest can be caused by: Black lung disease Chest trauma Pneumothorax Smoking All of the above
Chest trauma A flail chest is caused by a severe blunt injury to the chest resulting in multiple rib fractures.
Proximal refers to: Above Below Closer to trunk Further from trunk Middlec
Closer to trunk
The signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following except: Collapsed jugular veins Cyanosis Tracheal deviation Unilateral breath sounds
Collapsed jugular veins It is likely the jugular veins will be distended ("JDV").
The term dromotropy refers to: Cardiac Output Contractile Force Conductivity of a Nerve Fiber Heart Rate
Conductivity of a Nerve Fiber Dromotropy refers to the conductivity of a nerve fiber; it can be positive or negative.
The transparent, dome-shaped window covering the front of the eye is called the: Conjunctiva Cornea Iris Lens Retina
Cornea The conjunctiva is the clear moist membrane that coats the inner surfaces of the eyelids and the outer surface of the eye, the iris is the colored portion that contains the pupil, the lens is behind the pupil and focuses light on the retina in the back of the eye, and the cornea is the clear dome in the front of the eye.
To size an oropharyngeal airway, measure from the: Corner of the mouth to the ear canal Corner of the mouth to the ear lobe Nostril to the corner of the mouth Nostril to the ear canal Nostril to the ear lobe
Corner of the mouth to the ear lobe
Oxygen is supplied to the myocardium via the: Carotid arteries Coronary arteries Pulmonary arteries
Coronary arteries
What shape is a Macintosh laryngoscope blade? Curved Straight
Curved
Hypertension, erratic respirations, and slowing heart rate may indicate: Crushing Cushing Dunphy Hepatopulmonary Edema
Cushing Cushing's Triad is often found in the presence of increased intracranial Pressure (ICP).
Hypoperfusion usually results in what color skin? Apple Brown Cyanotic Red Yellow
Cyanotic Hypoperfusion is inadequate oxygenation of body tissue. The lack of oxygen in the blood can cause the skin to appear blue.
What is the preferred treatment for ventricular fibrillation? Atropine CPR Defibrillation Synchronized Cardioversion Transcutaneous Pacing
Defibrillation
What event ends the second stage of labor? Active labor Crowning Delivery of baby Delivery of placenta
Delivery of baby
What is the third stage of labor? Active Labor Pushing Pushing and delivery of the baby Delivery of the baby Delivery of placenta
Delivery of placenta
The bulb of hair follicles are contained in the: Deep fascia Dermis Epidermis Subcutaneous layer Sweat glands
Dermis
Dyspnea means: Difficulty breathing Difficulty hearing Difficulty speaking Difficulty thinking Difficulty urinating
Difficulty breathing
Your 14-year-old patient is bleeding profusely from his wrist following a bicycle accident. What is the first method you would use to control the bleeding? Cold Compress Direct Pressure Pressure Dressing Pressure Point Tourniquet
Direct Pressure The steps to control bleeding vary between protocols. Direct pressure is always the first choice. Many protocols then list pressure dressings while others move directly to tourniquet. Very few protocols still use pressure points.
The frontal plane: Divides anterior from posterior Divides medial from lateral Divides superior from inferior Is above midline Is below midline
Divides anterior from posterior
The ''sagittal'' plane: Divides anterior from posterior Divides left and right Divides superior from inferior Is above midline Is below midline
Divides left and right
The transverse plane: Divides anterior from posterior Divides medial from lateral Divides superior from inferior Is above midline Is below midline
Divides superior from inferior
The PR segment on an ECG begins at the: End of the P wave Peak of the P wave Peak of the R wave Start of the P wave Start of the R wave
End of the P wave The PR segment begins at the end of the P wave. The PR interval begins at the start of the P wave.
HIV can be transmitted by inhalation. True False
False HIV (the AIDS virus) can be transmitted by blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk
HIV can be transmitted by inhalation. True False
False HIV (the AIDS virus) can be transmitted by blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk.
To protect your patient's privacy, you should only inspect a genitalia injury if there is obvious bleeding. True False
False There are other reasons it may be appropriate to inspect your patient's genitals in addition to severe bleeding, such as pain or trauma.
Distal refers to Above Below Closer to trunk Further from trunk Middle
Further from trunk
Never insert the tip of a suction tip: More than 2 inches More than 3 inches More than 4 inches More than 5 inches Further than you can see
Further than you can see
The pulse that can be palpated near the groin is called the: Carotid Pulse Dorsalis Pedis Pulse Femoral Pulse Radial Pulse Posterior Tibial Pulse
Femoral Pulse
What is the name of the thigh bone? Femur Fibula Humerus Patella Tibia
Femur
A sound typically associated with fluid in the airway is: Gurgling Snoring Wheezing
Gurgling
The coronary arteries are located in the: Brain Eyes Heart Lungs Thighs
Heart
Which technique is better suited for a trauma patient with a significant MOI: Heat-tilt, chin-lift Jaw-thrust
Heat-tilt, chin-lift
A contusion often results in: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Hematoma Laceration
Hematoma
The most likely injury from a hammer is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Hematoma Laceration
Hematoma
Which of the following would be a closed injury? Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Hematoma Laceration
Hematoma
Which of these diseases is most commonly transmitted via the oral/fecal route? Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis D Hepatitis E
Hepatitis A
Which of the following is not an early sign of hypoperfusion? Hypotension Pale, cool, clammy skin Tachycardia Tachypnea
Hypotension Hypotension is a late sign of hypoperfusion.
When triaging multiple patients, red means: Immediate (highest priority) Delayed (second priority) Hold (third priority) Unsurvivable (no treatment
Immediate (highest priority)
The inferior tip of the sternum is the: Atlas Bone Lower Coccyx Occipital Tip Sternum Plantar Xiphoid Process
Xiphoid Process
he term jaundice refers to: Blue-gray Blotchy Green Red Yellow
Yellow Yellow skin is frequently associated with liver disfunction.
Is Lactated Ringers (LR) isotonic? Yes No
Yes An isotonic solution has the same salt concentration as the normal cells of the body and the blood.
Glasgow
a coma score
Your patient's ECG shows respiratory sinus dysrhythmia. Her heart rate does what during inspiration? Increases Decreases Stops Weakens Strengthens
Increases In respiratory sinus dysrhythmia, decreased vagal tone during inspiration causes rate to increase, and increased vagal tone during expiration causing the heart rate to decrease.
Fever, chills, and sore muscles are typical symptoms of a: Heart attack Infection Pregnancy Stroke Trauma
Infection
The letter ''i'' in MOI stands for: Illness Incision Injection Injury
Injury
Why is the jaw-thrust preferable for traumatic patients? It can be performed faster It causes less pain It is more effective It minimizes spinal movement It reduces the spread of disease
It minimizes spinal movement
he spleen is located in the? LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ
LUQ
The voice box is really the: Epiglottis Larynx Oropharynx Pharynx Trachea
Larynx
Is a drop in BP an early or late sign of hypoperfusion? Early Late
Late Falling blood pressure indicates that the body is no longer able to compensate for the hypoperfusion (i.e., shock). It's a late sign.
Which of the following most accurately describes septic shock? Clogged blood vessels and vasoconstriction due to infection Clogged blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection Infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation Leaking blood vessels and vasoconstriction due to infection Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection
Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection
The first 'L' in LLQ refers to: Lateral Left Linear Lower Lumba
Left
''Normal'' diastolic blood pressure is: Less than 60 mm Hg Less than 70 mm Hg Less than 80 mm Hg Less than 90 mm Hg Less than 100 mm Hg
Less than 80 mm Hg
The ''AVPU'' scale is used to measure: Blood Gases Heart Rate Level of Responsiveness Newborn Responsiveness Scene Safety
Level of Responsiveness The AVPU scale is used to report whether a patient is Alert, responsive to Voice or Pain stimuli, or is Unresponsive.
Bronchi are located in the: Abdomen Ear Eye Heart Lungs
Lungs The Bronchi are the large branches that exit the trachea and enter the lungs.
Prone refers to a patient who is: Lying on his abdomen Lying on his back Lying on his side Sitting Standing
Lying on his abdomen
Supine refers to a patient who is: Lying on his abdomen Lying on his back Lying on his side Sitting Standing
Lying on his back
Fowler's position refers to a patient who is: Lying on his back flat Lying on his back with back lowered Lying on his back with back raised Lying on his back with feet lowered Lying on his back with feet raised
Lying on his back with back raised Lying on his back with back raised"). In Fowler's position, the patient is placed in a semi-upright sitting position (45-60 degrees) and may have knees either bent or straight.
The MONA acronym is used for the treatment of: CVA COPD IUD MI MVA
MI MONA refers to Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, and Aspirin (treatment for a heart attack, an "MI").
Which of the following is the most important during an assessment: Getting a prompt SAMPLE history Keeping the patient comfortable Maintaining an open airway Obtaining verbal consent Performing a rapid body assessment
Maintaining an open airway All of these items are important, but the most important task is to maintain an open airway. Of course, this does not prevent you from performing the other tasks.
MCI
Mass-casualty Incident Colors: Black -- dead or unlikely survival Red -- major life-threatening injuries Green: Wounded but able to walk yellow: non life-threatening but not able to walk
MOI
Mechanism of Injury
The ''M'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Manic Medications Menstruation Morbidity Motion
Medications
Demerol is a brand name for: Atropine Dicyclomine Dopamine Meperidine Midazolam
Meperidine Narcotic -- It can treat moderate to severe pain
What might occur secondary to prolonged vomiting? Metabolic Acidosis Metabolic Alkalosis Respiratory Acidosis Respiratory Alkalosis
Metabolic Alkalosis Metabolic alkalosis may occur secondary to prolonged vomiting (due to loss of gastric acid) or after the ingestion of large amounts of bicarbonates.
This heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle: Aortic valve Mitral (bicuspid) valve Pulmonic valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic
Mitral (bicuspid) valve
A spinal injury can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock
Neurogenic Shock
Is the mandible superior to the maxilla? Yes No
No
To size an nasopharyngeal airway, measure from the: Corner of the mouth to the ear canal Corner of the mouth to the ear lobe Nostril to the corner of the mouth Nostril to the ear lobe Nostril to the ear canal
Nostril to the ear lobe Nostril to the ear lobe"). Nasopharygngeal should give you a hint that the question is about the nose. And airways are measured to the ear lobe.
The ''O'' in OPQRST stands for Oral Opening Onset Orgasm Orthogonal
Onset
OPQRST
Onset (of event) Provocation Quality (description of pain) Region and Radiation Severity (0-10) Time (history)
Contralateral means: Above midline Away from midline Opposite side of midline Same side of midline Toward the midline
Opposite side of midline
What is the correct route for activated charcoal? IV OS PO SC SQ
PO PO means "by mouth" in Latin. When appropriate, activated charcoal should be taken by mouth (orally).
Which membrane surrounds the heart? Pericardium Perimostoid Perineum Peritoneum Pleura
Pericardium
What are ''lucid'' intervals? Periods between blood pressure checks Periods between consciousness and unconsciousness Periods between drug administration Periods between respirations Periods between vital checks
Periods between consciousness and unconsciousness
Which membrane surrounds the abdominal cavity? Pericardium Perimastoid Perineum Peritoneum Pleura
Peritoneum The peritoneum is the membrane that forms the lining of the abdominal cavity. Don't confuse this with the perineum which is the area between the anus and the genitals.
What is ''abruptio placentae''? Meninges separating from skull Pericardium separating from heart Perineum separating from abdomen Peritoneum separating from abdomen Placenta separating from uterus
Placenta separating from uterus
Which membrane surrounds each lung? Pericardium Perimastoid Perineum Peritoneum Pleura
Pleura
The ''P'' in OPQRST stands for Pain Permanent Precursor Previous Provokes
Provokes
Where is the preferred location for an OS IV? Distal fibula Distal tibia Proximal fibula Proximal tibia
Proximal tibia OS IV" refers to intraosseous infusion which is the process of injecting directly into the marrow of a bone to provide a non-collapsible entry point into the systemic venous system. This is typically the proximal tibia.
The term Dorsiflex means to: Point toes downward Point toes inward Pull toes upward Roll foot inward Roll foot outward
Pull toes upward
Valium is a brand name for: atropine diazepam dopamine trazodone temazepam
diazepam It can treat anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures.
Visceral means: The area between urogenital passages and the rectum The membrane lining the abdominal cavity The outer surface of the skin The surface closest to an organ The surface closest to the wall
The surface closest to an organ
Parietal means: The area between urogenital passages and the rectum The membrane lining the abdominal cavity The outer surface of the skin The surface closest to the organ The wall of a body cavity
The wall of a body cavity The "parietal peritoneum" is attached to the abdominal wall, but the term parietal means, "the wall of a body, body cavity, or hollow structure."
What medicine prevents Wernicke's encephalopathy? Tagamet Tegretol Tenormin Thiamine Timoptic
Thiamine Thiamine deficiency can result in Wernicke's Encephalopathy (WE). In the West, thiamine deficiency is typically associated with chronic alcoholism.
The larger bone in the lower-leg is the: Fibula Radial Radius Tibia Ulna
Tibia
The ''T'' in ''OPQRST'' stands for Temperature Tender Time Tickle Transport
Time
What is the purpose of checking capillary refill before and after bandaging? To check circulation To check pain tolerance To check neurogenic function
To check circulation
An oropharyngeal airway is contraindicated if the patient: has a gag reflex has false teeth has oral bleeding is allergic to latex is unresponsive
has a gag reflex Oropharyngeal airway prevents gonue from covering epiglottis.
A communicable disease is a disease that: is always fatal. is only transmissible through body fluids. is only transmissible through inhalation is only transmissible through sexual activity. is spread from person to person.
is spread from person to person.
Select the most common airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient. Dentures Drugs Food Jewelry Tongue
Tongue. Although food may be the most common airway obstruction in conscious patients, the tongue is the most common in unresponsive patients.
When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, the beveled edge should be positioned ________ the septum. Away from Toward
Toward
Medial means: Toward the bottom Toward the feet Toward the head Toward the middle Toward the side
Toward the middle
''Lateral'' means: Toward the feet Toward the front Toward the head Toward the middle Toward the side
Toward the side
Which of the following is not in the upper airway? Larynx Nasopharynx Nasopharynx Pharynx Trachea
Trachea
hich of the following is not in the upper airway? Larynx Nasopharynx Nasopharynx Pharynx Trachea
Trachea is undeniably in the lower airway.
This heart valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle: Aortic valve Mitral valve Pulmonic valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic valve
Tricuspid valve One trick to remembering the name of this valve is that you "TRI to do RIGHT" (as in tricuspid rhymes with right). Another memory aid is you have to TRI before you BI (right side before left side).
An avulsion occurs when a body structure is partially torn from the body. True False
True
You should use the OPQRST mnemonic for your medical patients. True False
True The OPQRST mnemonic helps you learn more about your patient's symptoms. It can be used with both medical and trauma patients, but it is especially helpful with medical patients where there aren't as many signs and where you want to know more about what they are feeling.
If a patient who was ejected from a vehicle tells you his only injury is an abrasion on his wrist, you should still perform a rapid trauma assessment. True False
True Base your decision to do a rapid trauma assessment on the MOI, not on the patient's symptoms.
ou patient should attempt to hold his breath after using an MDI: True False
True MDI is an abbreviation for Metered Dose Inhaler. The patient should attempt to hold his or her breath to keep the medicine in his or her lungs.
he MOI can provide clues that will help you help your patient. True False
True The MOI is the mechanism of injury.
Oxygen should be administered to hypoxic COPD patients True False
True EMTs used to be taught that oxygen could eliminate a COPD patient's hypoxic drive and that it should not be given to these patients. It is now taught that withholding O2 does more harm than good.
The buildup of fatty deposits inside of arteries is called atherosclerosis. True False
True It is easy to confuse atherosclerosis (the buildup of fatty deposits) with arteriosclerosis (the buildup of calcium deposits).
You should vigorously shake an MDI before use. True False
True MDI is an abbreviation for Metered Dose Inhaler.
It is acceptable to ask patients to walk when triaging an MCI. True False
True Most triage algorithms identify the "green" patients (i.e., the "walking wounded") by asking patients with minor injuries to walk to a specific location.
The jugular neck veins are normally visible in a supine patient. True False
True Normally, the jugular veins will be visible in a supine (lying down) patient. If they are flat, it might be a sign of blood loss.
Pneumonia is often associated with an abnormal body temperature: True False
True Pneumonia often presents with a fever (including sweating and chills). Lower than normal body temperatures can occur in adults older than age 65 and people with weak immune systems.
When practical, CPR should be performed while AED pads are being applied. True False
True The American Heart Association 2015 Guidelines say, "CPR should be provided while the AED pads are applied and until the AED is ready to analyze the rhythm.."
The membrane layer that is in contact with abdominal organs is called the: Endometrium Visceral pericardium Visceral peritoneum Visceral pleura
Visceral peritoneum
What is another name for Thiamine? Vitiman B1 Vitiman B6 Vitiman B10 Vitiman B12
Vitiman B1
Which of the following is not typically considered a sign or symptom of hypoglycemia? Confusion Hunger Visual Distrubances Vomiting
Vomiting
The most likely injury after being shot with an arrow is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Laceration Puncture
Puncture
The appendix is located in the? LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ
RLQ
The gallbladder is located in the: LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ
RUQ
Which of these is common during an opioid overdose: Dilated Pupils Hyperaesthesia Respiratory Depression Tachypnea
Respiratory Depression The "opioid overdose triad" symptoms are pinpoint pupils, unconsciousness, and respiratory depression.
A Yankauer suction tip is: Rigid Flexible Either
Rigid
The tough, white, outer layer of the eye is called the: Cornea Iris Lens Retina Sclera
Sclera
The ''S'' in ''OPQRST'' stands for Severity Signs Stress Stripes Symptoms
Severity
START System
Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain Automatic Cardiac Homogenous Skeletal Smooth
Skeletal
What is the most abundant cation in the extracellular fluid in the body? Calcium Magnesium Potassium Sodium Titanium
Sodium A "cation" is a positively charged ion. Sodium is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid whereas potassium is the most abundant cation in the intracellular space.
Auscultation is: Something you feel Something you hear Something you see Something you smell Something you taste
Something you hear
The following formula is used to calculate cardiac output: Blood Pressure times Heart Rate Diastolic times Heart Rate Diastolic times Systolic Heart Rate times Systolic Stroke Volume times Heart Rate
Stroke Volume times Heart Rate
The term ''diaphoretic'' means: Abdominal discomfort Erratic respirations Inability to urinate Pertaining to the eyes Sweating profusely
Sweating profusely
The ''S'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Scabies Significant Bleeding Splinting Stabbing Pain Swelling
Swelling
Is abdominal pain a sign or a symptom? Sign Symptom
Symptom Symptoms are something your patient tells you, but which you cannot confirm.
Your patient tells you they are going to vomit. Is this a sign or a symptom? Sign Symptom
Symptom Symptoms are things that your patient feels but you can't confirm. Thus, nausea is a symptom.
The ''T'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Tenderness Tendonitis Tissue Toxic Traumatic
Tenderness
Bones and muscles are connected by? Adipose tissue Cartilage Ligaments Muscle Tendons
Tendons are fibrous cords of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones.
You have a patient with hypoxia, decreased breath sounds on one side, and tracheal deviation. You suspect: Cerebrovascular Accident Myocardial Infarction Cardiac Tamponade Flail Chest Tension Pneumothorax
Tension Pneumothorax
Oxygen supplied via a nasal cannula should be set to flow at: 0-2 lpm 2-4 lpm 1-6 lpm 4-8 lpm 6-12 lpm
1-6 lpm (litres per minute)
What drip rate would you use if you were ordered to administer 1 L over one hour with a 10 gtt/mL drip set? 50 gtt 83 gtt 150 gtt 167 gtt 200 gtt
167 gtt One liter is 1000 cc. So the calculation is: (1000 cc * 10 gtt/mL) / 60 minutes = 166.67 gtt
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's face? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent
4.5 percent An adult's head is 9 percent so the face is approximately 4.5 percent.
Which formula is used to determine the endotracheal tube size for children? (Age / 4) + 4 or (Age + 16) / 4 (Age / 4) + 1 or (Age + 4) / 4 (Age / 4) + 6 (Age / 6) + 4
(Age / 4) + 4 or (Age + 16) / 4
Jaw-thrust
first-aid procedure used to prevent the tongue from obstructing the upper airways
You have determined that the scene is safe. The next thing you would do (of these choices) is: Check for a current insurance card Check for signs of circulation Check level of responsiveness Check pupil size Check the pulse rate
Check level of responsiveness
Zygomas are: Cheek bones Female Genitals In the hands Male Genitals Vertebrae
Cheek bones
The ''C'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Canopy Colitis Colonoscopy Contusions Cranium
Contusions DCAP-BTLS is a memory aid which is used to help assess trauma patients.
The transfer of heat when air or water currents carry heat from an object is called: Conduction Convection Evaporation Radiation Respiration
Convection
How should you package an amputated body part for transportation to the hospital? Covered and packed in crushed ice Covered and packed in dry ice Covered with a dry dressing and kept cool In anatomical position near the separation point Submerged in cool water
Covered with a dry dressing and kept cool
EMTs should reduce a dislocated finger by applying gentle longitudinal traction. True False
False Most EMT and paramedic protocols do not permit reduction of dislocated joints.
Nicardipine is helpful for the treatment of hypotension. True False
False Nicardipine is helpful for the short-term treatment of hypertension.
Passive rewarming of a hypothermic patient includes placing heat-packs or hot water bottles near the patient's axillary and groin. True False
False Passive rewarming refers to removing wet clothing and adding insulation to prevent further heat loss. Active rewarming refers to applying heat sources.
Excessive pressure on the carotid artery can increase the heart rate in older patients. True False
False Pressure on the carotid artery can result in the slowing of the heart (typically in older patients).
The T wave on an ECG represents the depolarization of the atria. True False
False The P wave, not the T wave, represents the depolarization of the atria.
The diastolic blood pressure indicates the pressure when the left ventricle contracts: True False
False The diastolic blood pressure is the pressure when the left ventricle dilates (and refills with blood).
The epidermis contains blood vessels: True False
False The epidermis is the non-vascular, outer layer of the skin. It is approximately 1 mm thick and does not contain blood vessels.
All arteries carry oxygen rich blood.
False The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs
A febrile seizure is typically associated with: Cerebrovascular Accident Fever Head Injury Heart Attack Pregnancy
Fever Febrile seizures are convulsions brought on by a fever in infants or small children. During a febrile seizure, a child often loses consciousness and shakes, moving limbs on both sides of the body.
The smaller bone in the lower leg is the: Fanochia Fibia Fibula Tibia Tibula
Fibula Fibula is the correct term. the "fibia" does not exist. That term comes from an accidental combination of the words tibia (the larger bone in the lower leg) and fibula (the correct term).
The lateral bone in the lower-leg is the: Fibula Radius Radial Tibia Fibia
Fibula The fibula is the smaller bone in the lower-leg. It is lateral (to the outside) of the tibia.
A French suction tip is: Rigid Flexible Both
Flexible
When in the anatomical position, the palms of the hands face: Away from the body Backward Forward Toward the body Upward
Forward
What reverses the effects of temazepam? Atropine Diazepam Flumazenil Tenecteplase Trazodone
Flumazenil Temazepam is a benzodiazepine and is reversed by flumazenil as are other benzodiazepines like Valium.
he lateral malleolus is located near the: Foot Head Hip Knee Shoulder
Foot The lateral malleolus is the "outside" ankle bone (i.e., the end of the fibula).
The ''tarsals'' are located near the: Foot Hand Hip Knee Shoulder
Foot The tarsals are the ankle bones. It's easy to confuse these with the carpals (in the wrists).
The hole at the base of the skull is called the: Cerebral Orifice Foramen Magnum Mandible Manubrium
Foramen Magnum
Which of these are caused by a virus? Hepatitis B Syphilis Tetanus Tuberculosis
Hepatitis B Hepatitis B is caused by a virus. The others are bacterial.
The ''acetabulum'' is located in the: Abdomen Foot Hand Hip Shoulder
Hip
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Nitroglycerin? Dizziness Flushing Headache Hives Nervousness
Hives
When triaging multiple patients, green means: Immediate (highest priority) Delayed (second priority) Hold (third priority) Unsurvivable (no treatment)
Hold (third priority)
What is the name of the upper arm bone? Femur Fibula Humerus Humorous Patella
Humerus
In which of the following diabetic emergencies would you expect to find warm, red, dry skin: Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia
Hyperglycemia
In which of the following diabetic emergencies might you find breath that smells like nail polish remover? Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia
Hyperglycemia "Acetone breath" is caused by ketones which can occur during hyperglycemia when when the liver breaks down fat and proteins. Hyperglycemia can also cause a "fruity" breath.
Which of the following medical conditions has a slower onset? Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia
Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia, low blood sugar, can happen quickly. Hyperglycemia, high blood sugar, takes much longer to develop.
Lasix is used to treat: Hypertension Hyperthermia Hypotension Hypothermia Hypovolemia
Hypertension
Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction? Difficulty breathing Dizziness Hives Hypertension Rapid heart rate
Hypertension Hypotension is a symptom of a severe allergic reaction.
What is preeclampsia? Hypertension during pregnancy Infantile cerebral hemorrhaging Infection during pregnancy Seizures relating to pregnancy Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy
Hypertension during pregnancy Preeclampsia is a complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys.
In which of the following diabetic emergencies would you expect to find cold, pale, moist, or clammy skin: Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia
Which of the following is the more common diabetic emergency? Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia
Hemorrhaging can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock
Hypovolemic Shock
Internal bleeding can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock
Hypovolemic Shock
Dehydration can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock
Hypovolemic Shock (decreased blood volume)
Lack of oxygen is called: Apnea Dyspnea Hypoxemia Hypoxia
Hypoxia Hypoxia refers to low oxygenation whereas hypoxemia refers specifically to low oxygenation in the blood.
While performing a Rapid Body Assessment on an unresponsive trauma patient, you discover an open fracture of the left tibia that has life-threatening bleeding. You should: Immediately control the bleeding. Quickly complete your survey and then control the bleeding.
Immediately control the bleeding. If you encounter a life threatening condition during your assessment, you should deal with it immediately before continuing with your assessment.
What should you give for a morphine overdose? Naprosyn Naproxen Narcan Neurontin Novacaine
Narcan Narcan is a brand name for naloxone. It can treat narcotic overdose in an emergency situation.
The acronym ''NOI'' stands for: Nature Of Injury Nature Of Illness
Nature Of Illness "NOI" refers to a medical illness. The term "MOI" refers to a traumatic injury.
Where is the cricoid cartilage? Ankle Hip Knee Neck Sternum
Neck The cricoid cartilage, or simply "cricoid" (from the Greek "krikoeides" meaning "ring-shaped"), is the only complete ring of cartilage around the trachea.
Should you bend at the waist when lifting or carrying a patient? Yes No
No
This is a moderately difficult airway question Is a nasal airway contraindicated when ventilating an unresponsive patient using a BVM? Yes No
No A nasal airway, or nasopharyngeal airway, helps oxygen reach the patient's lungs. An oropharyngeal airway is preferred, but an nasal airway is not contraindicated.
The appendix is located in the? LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ
RLQ
The liver is located in the? LLQ LUQ RLQ RUQ
RUQ
The pulse that can be palpated near the wrist is called the: Carotid Pulse Dorsalis Pedis Pulse Femoral Pulse Posterior Tibial Pulse Radial Pulse
Radial Pulse
The R in OPQRST stands for Radiate Recollection Rejuvenate Retaliate Revoke
Radiate
The transfer of heat when heat waves, or rays, are dispersed from an object is called: Conduction Convection Evaporation Radiation Respiration
Radiation
The bone on the thumb-side of the forearm is the: Fibula Radial Radius Tibia Ulna
Radius
The fibula is to the tibia as the ulna is to the: Carpals Patella Radius Tarsals Umbilicus
Radius
The bone in the lower arm that joins the wrist near the thumb is the: Humerous Radial Radius Ulna Ulnar
Radius The two bones in the lower arm are the Radius and the Ulna.
ou suspect that your patient, who is immobilized on a long spine board, may be going into shock. How should you position the long-board? Raise the ''feet'' end of the spine board 6-8 inches Raise the ''head'' end of the spine board 6-8 inches Unstrap lower extremities and raise feet 6-8 inches Unstrap the upper body and raise to a 45 degree angle
Raise the ''feet'' end of the spine board 6-8 inches
What is the name of a bubbling sound in lungs? Asthma Rales Ridor Stridor Wheezing
Rales
Which of the following is a typical sign of compensated shock? Bradycardia Rapid heart rate Slow, deep breathing Surge in strength Warm, pink skin
Rapid heart rate
Which of the following five parameters are most helpful when interpreting cardiac rhythms? Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, P Waves, PR Interval Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, ST Segment, T Waves Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, ST segment, PR Interval Rate, Regularity, U Waves, P Waves, PR Interval
Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, P Waves, PR Interval
During triage, a sucking chest wound would be: Black Blue Green Red Yellow
Red
The term ''flushed'' refers to: Blotchy Blue-gray Green Red Yellow
Red
Vagal maneuvers: Slow conduction through the AV node Slow conduction through the SA node Speed conduction through the AV node Speed conduction through the SA node
Slow conduction through the AV node
The prefix phlebo means? Artery Blood Circulation Vein Vessels
Vein The prefix phlebo means vein. Phlebotomy refers to drawing blood from a vein.
The ''midaxillary'' line runs in which direction? Diagonally Front-to-back Horizontally Vertically
Vertically
A contraindication for nitroglycerin is: Angina Asthma Biebrich Scarlet Epistaxis Viagra
Viagra
A sound typically associated with asthma or an allergic reaction is: Gurgling Snoring Wheezing
Wheezing
When treating a drug overdose, which question should you not ask: How many pills did you take? What drug did you take? When did you take the pills? Where is the pill container? Who gave you the pills?
Who gave you the pills?
During triage, a femur fracture wound would be: Black Blue Green Red Yellow
Yellow Don't feel bad if you selected Red—most people do (us, too), but most texts say that "major or multiple bone or joint injuries" are yellow.
Based on the color of triage tags, which of these patients would receive care second? Black Green Orange Red Yellow
Yellow Patients tagged red would receive care first. Patients tagged yellow would receive care second. (Orange is not a triage color.)
Is normal saline isotonic? Yes No
Yes
Is the mandible superior to the manubrium? Yes No
Yes
Is a DNR an advanced directive? Yes No
Yes A "do not resuscitate" (DNR) is a legal document to respect the patient's wishes to not receive CPR or advanced life support.
Is NS IV fluid isotonic? Yes No
Yes An isotonic solution has the same salt concentration as the cells of the body and the blood. Normal saline (NS) is isotonic.
What is the normal respiration rate for an adult? 5 to 10 breaths per minute 10 to 20 breaths per minute 12 to 20 breaths per minute 15 to 30 breaths per minute 25 to 50 breaths per minute
12 to 20 breaths per minute
What is the correct dosage of aspirin for an adult who is experiencing chest pain? 81 - 162 mg 162 - 243 mg 162 - 325 mg 325 - 405 mg 405 - 486 mg
162 - 325 mg he American Heart Association recommends an initial aspirin dose following a suspected miocardial infarction of between 162 mg and 325 mg. Next Question
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's back? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent
18 percent
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's entire leg? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent
18 percent
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant's back? 4.5 percent 9 percent 14 percent 18 percent
18 percent The percentages on an infant are: head (18%), anterior torso (18%), posterior torso (18%), each leg (14%), and each arm (9%).
Each small square on an ECG represents: 0.02 second 0.04 second 0.06 second 0.10 second 0.20 second
0.04 second
What is the epinephrine dosage for anaphylaxis? 0.15 mg 1:1000 (IM) 0.3 mg 1:1000 (IM) 0.15 mg 1:10000 (IM) 0.3 mg 1:10000 (IM)
0.3 mg 1:1000 (IM)
An adult EpiPen contains how much epinephrine? 0.15 mg 1:1000 0.15 mg 1:2000 0.30 mg 1:1000 0.30 mg 1:2000 0.30 mg 1:10000
0.30 mg 1:1000
What is the epinephrine dosage for cardiac arrest? 0.1 - 0.5 mg 1000:1 0.5 - 1.0 mg 1000:1 0.1 - 0.5 mg 10000:1 0.5 - 1.0 mg 10000:1
0.5 - 1.0 mg 10000:1 The recommended dosage for cardiac arrest is 1 mg of 1:10000 administered q 3-5 minutes. Follow each dose with IV flush.
How many pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum? 10 11 12 13 14
10 There are 12 pairs of ribs all of which connect to the spine. Ten pairs of these ribs connect at the sternum. The lower two pairs of ribs are floaters and connect to cartilage.
What is optimum on-scene time for a critical trauma patient? 10 minutes 12 minutes 45 minutes 60 minutes
10 minutes Shorter is obviously better. Brady Emergency Care says that 10 minutes on scene is the maximum "optimal time" to begin transporting a critical trauma patient to definitive care.
What is the maximum amount of time you should suction a patient's airway? 5-10 seconds 10-15 seconds 15-30 seconds 30-60 seconds 60-120 seconds
10-15 seconds
What is the initial treatment for a responsive patient suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? 100% O2 via NRM 100% O2 via nasal cannula Activated charcoal Immediate intubation Oropharyngeal airway
100% O2 via NRM (non-rebreathing mask)
How many areas should you palpate when assessing the abdomen? 1 2 4 6 8
4 You should palpate (i.e., feel) the four quadrants of the abdomen.
How many coccyx vertebrae are in the spine? 4 6 7 9 11
4 The coccyx is formed of either three, four or five rudimentary vertebrae.
Looking at the ECG strip, you see that there are 6 large boxes between QRS complexes. What is the heart rate? 40 50 60 70 80
50 To calculate the heart rate on an ECG strip, divide 300 by the number of large boxes between QRS complexes. In this case, 300 divided by 6 is 50.
How many pairs of ribs are connected to the spine? 10 11 12 13 14
12
How many pairs of ribs are there? 10 11 12 13 14
12
What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) for your adult patient if they open their eyes to speech, localizes pain, and their speech is confused. 11 12 13 14 15
12 Opens eyes to speech (+3), confused speech (+4), and localizes pain (+5) is 12.
What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) for your adult patient who only opens their eyes when you speak, can localize pain, and is disoriented. 11 12 13 14 15
12 Eyes open in response to voice = 3, localizes pain = 5, disoriented = 4.
How many thoracic vertebrae are in the spine? 4 5 7 12 14
12 You might remember that there are 12 ribs on each side, and each rib is connected to a thoracic vertebrae.
Which of the following flow rates should you select when using a BVM device with a reservoir? 10 L/min 15 L/min 17 L/min 20 L/min 4 L/min
15 L/min
You should repeat the ongoing assessment of a patient with minor S&S and a minor MOI (or LOI) every: 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes 20 minutes 25 minutes
15 minutes . The schoolbook answer is every 15 minutes, but obviously you should do so more frequently if you have any reason to suspect that the patient's condition is changing.
What is the normal respiration rate for a child? 5 to 10 breaths per minute 10 to 20 breaths per minute 12 to 20 breaths per minute 15 to 30 breaths per minute 25 to 50 breaths per minute
15 to 30 breaths per minute
At what ''compressions to breaths'' ratio should two rescuers perform CPR on a child? 5:1 10:1 15:2 30:2 60:2
15:2 According to the American Heart Association, the only exception to 30 compressions to 2 breaths ratio is when two rescuers are performing CPR on a child in which case you should give 15 compressions to 2 breaths.
Exhaled air contains what percent oxygen? 16 21 26 31 36
16 Atmospheric air contains approximately 21 percent oxygen at sea level. Exhaled air contains approximately 16 percent oxygen.
Approximately what percent oxygen does a patient receive from rescue breathing without supplemental oxygen? 13 percent 16 percent 19 percent 22 percent 25 percent
16 percent Air contains approximately 21% oxygen at sea level. During rescue breathing this drops to approximately 16%.
At what ''compressions to breaths'' ratio should one rescuer provide during CPR on an adult? 5:1 10:1 15:2 30:2 60:2
30:2 According to the American Heart Association, a single rescuer should provide 30 compressions to 2 breaths.
What ''compressions to breaths'' ratio is recommended by the American Heart Association when two rescuers are performing CPR on an adult? 5:1 10:1 15:2 30:2 60:2
30:2 \ According to the American Heart Association, a two rescuers should provide 30 compressions to 2 breaths. The ratio is the same for an adult whether there is one or two rescuers.
How many cc's would you administer if you were ordered to give a normal saline IV bolus to a 22 pound patient? 50 cc 100 cc 200 cc 400 cc 600 cc
200 cc A bolus is typically calculated at 20 cc per kilogram of patient weight. This patient weighs 10 kg (22 pounds), so you would administer 200 cc.
How many cc's would you administer if you were ordered to give a normal saline IV bolus to a 10 kg patient? 50 cc 100 cc 200 cc 400 cc 600 cc
200 cc A bolus is typically calculated at 20 cc per kilogram of patient weight, so a 10 kg patient would receive 200 cc.
A full oxygen cylinder is typically: 1000 psi 2000 psi 3000 psi 4000 psi 5000 psi
2000 psi Regardless of the size of the tank, oxygen tanks typically contain 2,200 PSI (pounds per square inch).
Approximately how many bones are there in the human body? 106 176 206 306 412
206
Inhaled air contains approximately what percent oxygen? 16 21 26 31 36
21
What is the typical dose of dextrose? 25 mg 25 g 50 mg 50 g
25 g
What is the normal respiration rate for an infant? 5 to 10 breaths per minute 10 to 20 breaths per minute 12 to 20 breaths per minute 15 to 30 breaths per minute 25 to 50 breaths per minute
25 to 50 breaths per minute
What percent oxygen does a patient receive from a nasal cannula flowing at 1 to 6 LPM? < 25 percent 25 to 50 percent 50 to 75 percent 75 to 100 percent
25 to 50 percent
How many bones are there in each foot? 18 22 26 28 32
26
Thrombolytic drugs typically must be administered to stroke patients within how many hours? 1 3 5 7 9
3
Hypothermia is usually defined as a core body temperature below: 36° C (96.8° F) 35° C (95.0° F) 34° C (93.2° F) 33° C (91.4° F) 32° C (89.6° F)
35° C (95.0° F)
What is the inherent rate of conduction for the SA (sinoatrial) node? 20 - 40 bpm 40 - 60 bpm 60 - 100 bpm 100 - 120 bpm
60 - 100 bpm The SA node is the primary pacemaker for the heart.
How many lumbar vertebrae are in the spine? 4 5 7 12 14
5
How many sacral vertebrae are in the spine? 3 5 7 12 14
5
What is the total number of lobes on both lungs? 2 3 4 5 6
5 Normally, the right lung has three lobes and the left lung has two lobes. There are fewer lobes on the left lung to make room for the heart (which is located on the left side of the chest).
You should repeat the ongoing assessment of a patient with serious S&S, MOI, or NOI every: 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes 20 minutes 25 minutes
5 minutes
The maximum suction time for an infant is: 5 seconds 10 seconds 15 seconds 20 seconds 30 seconds
5 seconds
What drip rate would you use if you were ordered to administer 100 cc over 30 minutes with a 15 gtt/mL drip set? 50 gtt 83 gtt 150 gtt 167 gtt 200 gtt
50 gtt The forumula is "(100 cc * 15 gtt/mL) / 30 minutes" = 50 gtt.
What is the recommended dose of atropine for severe organophosphate (nerve gas) poisoning? 2 mg/0.7 mL 4 mg/1.4 mL 6 mg/2.1 mL 8 mg/2.8 mL 10 mg/3.5 mL
6 mg/2.1 mL The treatment for severe symptoms of nerve agent ('nerve gas') or insecticide exposure is 3 injections of 2 mg/0.7 mL by AtroPen auto-injector into mid-lateral thigh in rapid succession (i.e., 6 mg/2.1mL).
What is the inherent rate of conduction for the SA (sinoatrial) node? 20 - 40 bpm 40 - 60 bpm 60 - 100 bpm 100 - 120 bpm
60 - 100 bpm
How many gtts/mL is a typical pediatric IV set (microdrip)? 10 gtts 15 gtts 45 gtts 60 gtts 90 gtts
60 gtts
The normal resting heart rate for an adult is: 50 to 80 60 to 100 70 to 110 80 to 130 90 to 140
60 to 100
What percent of oxygen is delivered through a nonrebreather mask? 10% - 25% 25% - 40% 40% - 65% 65% - 100%
65% - 100%
How many cervical vertebrae are in the spine? 4 5 7 12 14
7
What is the APGAR score of a newborn if his arms and legs are flexed, his pulse is > 100, there is grimace, his extremities are blue three minutes after birth, and he is actively crying? 5 7 9 11
7 Arms and legs flexed = 1; pulse >100 = 2; grimace = 1; skin color blue in extremities = 1; crying / good respirations = 2.
Which of the following heart rates would you most expect for an adult in good physical condition while at rest? 70 bpm 90 bpm 110 bpm 120 bpm 130 bpm
70 bpm
What drip rate would you use if you were ordered to administer 1,000 cc at 500 cc per hour with a 10 gtt/mL drip set? 13 gtt 26 gtt 83 gtt 96 gtt 167 gtt
83 gtt Solution: (500 cc * 10 gtt/mL) / 60 minutes = 83 gtt. (Don't get confused by the 1,000 cc, which is the total amount to administer and not used when calculating the drip rate.)
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is the front of an adult's leg? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent
9 percent
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's abdomen? 4.5 percent 9 percent 13.5 percent 18 percent
9 percent The front of an adult's torso is 18%, so the abdomen is approximately 9%.
What percent oxygen does a patient receive from a BVM (with O2 flowing at 10-15 LPM)?
90-100 percent
What is the average core body temperature in Fahrenheit? 96.7° F 97.8° F 98.6° F 98.7° F 99.6° F
98.6° F
Which of the following victims would you care for first? A 10-year-old child with a closed tibia fracture A 20-year-old male with abdominal pain A 30-year-old female with a femur fracture A 40-year-old pregnant female
A 30-year-old female with a femur fracture The femur fracture is the most urgent condition. Being pregnant isn't a medical problem by itself.
Which of these patients would you treat even if they refuse care? A 33-year-old male with a Glasgow score of 10. A 49-year-old female with a sucking chest wound. A 58-year-old male with hypotension and chest pain. A 9-year-old with a finger laceration whose parent refuses your care. An 18-year-old female with arterial bleeding.
A 33-year-old male with a Glasgow score of 10. A patient with a Glasgow score of 10 does not have the mental capacity to give informed consent.
Whom would you treat first at the scene of a multiple vehicle accident? A 13-year-old male with a coagulated laceration A 24-year-old female in cardiac arrest A 33-year-old male with rapid breathing and a weak pulse A 55-year-old who walks up to you with an angulated ulna
A 33-year-old male with rapid breathing and a weak pulse
An EMT's responsibility to respond to calls in an expeditious (and safe) manner, perform a thorough assessment of the patient, provide the appropriate treatment, and transport the patient (when warranted) to the appropriate facility is legally defined as: Duty to Act Implied Consent Medical Control Scope of Practice Standing Orders
Duty to Act
The tragus is part of the: Ear Foot Genitals Throat Upper Airway
Ear
The tragus is part of the: Ear Foot Genitals Throat Upper Airway
Ear
A 26-year-old woman is complaining of sudden, sharp pain in her LLQ. What is the most likely ailment? Appendicitis Ectopic Pregnancy Hemorrhoids Hypertension Pancreatitis
Ectopic Pregnancy
The costal arch is: In the upper airway Near the pelvic crest On Utah license plates The cartilage connecting ribs
The cartilage connecting ribs
The smallest kind of artery is an: Alveoli Arteriole Atria
Arteriole
What is the IV/IO PALS dosage for epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest? 0.01 mg/kg (1:1,000) 0.01 mg/kg (1:10,000) 0.02 mg/kg (1:1,000) 0.02 mg/kg (1:10,000) 0.02 mg/kg
0.01 mg/kg (1:10,000) PAS recommends administering 0.01 mg/kg (1:10,000) IV epinephrine every 3 to 5 minutes during cardiac arrest.
A child's EpiPen contains how much epinephrine? 0.10 mg 0.15 mg 0.20 mg 0.25 mg 0.30 mg
0.15 mg
Each large square on an ECG represents: 0.04 second 0.08 second 0.10 second 0.20 second 0.40 second
0.20 second
What is the typical dose of atropine to bradycardia? 0.25 mg to 0.5 IV q 5 minutes 0.5 mg to 1.0 mg IV q 5 minutes 1.0 mg to 2.0 mg IV q 5 minutes 2.0 mg to 3.0 mg IV q 5 minutes 3.0 mg to 5.0 mg IV q 5 minutes
0.5 mg to 1.0 mg IV q 5 minutes
Which of the following blood glucose levels would be considered closest to normal? 50 mg/dL 100 mg/dL 150 mg/dL 200 mg/dL 250 mg/dL
100 mg/dL . In most people the blood glucose level varies from about 80 mg/dl to 110 mg/dl (3.9 to 6.0 mmol/liter).
At what rate should one rescuer perform CPR compressions on a newborn? 40 to 60 per minute 60 to 80 per minute 80 to 100 per minute 100 to 120 per minute 120 to 140 per minute
100 to 120 per minute
At what rate should one rescuer perform CPR compressions on a child? 40 to 60 per minute 60 to 80 per minute 80 to 100 per minute 100 to 120 per minute 120+ per minute
100 to 120 per minute According to the American Heart Association 2015 guidelines, chest compressions should be at a rate of "100 to 120/minute." This is true for both children and adults.
At what rate should one rescuer perform CPR compressions on an adult? 40 to 60 per minute 60 to 80 per minute 80 to 100 per minute 100 to 120 per minute 120 to 140 per minute
100 to 120 per minute According to the American Heart Association's 2015 guidelines, chest compressions should be at a rate of "100 to 120/minute." Previous guidelines said, "at least 100/minute."
This is an easy medicines question Before use, the reservoir bag on a non-rebreather mask should be pre-inflated to: 10% of capacity 30% of capacity 50% of capacity 100% of capacity
100% of capacity
Oxygen supplied via a non-rebreather mask should be provided at the rate of: 2-4 lpm 4-8 lpm 6-12 lpm 12-15 lpm 15-20 lpm
12-15 lpm
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant's entire leg? 4.5 percent 9 percent 14 percent 18 percent
14 percent The percentages on an infant are head (18%), anterior torso (18%), posterior torso (18%), each leg (14%), and each arm (9%). Some protocols specify the genitals/perineum as 1%, which adds up to 101%.
What is the normal core body temperature in Celsius? 34° C 35° C 36° C 37° C 38° C
37° C
The heart contains: 2 chambers 3 chambers 4 chambers 5 chambers 6 chambers
4 chambers
What is the adult dose for activated charcoal? 10-30 g 30-40 mL 50-100 g 60-100 mL 150-300 g
50-100 g The recommended dose in many prehospital protocols is 1g/kg. An initial dose of 50-100 g for an adult is recommended in joint position papers by the American Academy of Clinical Toxicology, European Association of Poisons Centres, and Clinical Toxicologists.
Which of the following is a typical tidal volume for a male patient? 100 mL 200 mL 500 mL 1000 mL 1500 mL
500 Ml Tidal volume is the volume of gas inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath. The tidal volume of an average adult is approximately 500 to 600 mL.
Which of the following is a typical tidal volume for a male patient? 100 mL 200 mL 500 mL 1000 mL 1500 mL
500 mL Tidal volume is the volume of gas inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath. The tidal volume of an average adult is approximately 500 to 600 mL.
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is the front of an infant's leg? 4.5 percent 7 percent 14 percent 18 percent
7 percent The percentages on an infant are: head (18%), anterior torso (18%), posterior torso (18%), each leg (14%), and each arm (9%). So the front of a leg is 7 percent.
What does the acronym ''STEMI'' help identify? A blocked a coronary artery. A form of psychosis? A non-hemorrhagic cerebrovascular accident. A postpartum complication. A respiratory ailment caused by an infection or allergen.
A blocked a coronary artery.
You should treat all unresponsive patients as if they have: A gag reflex A head injury A spinal injury Health insurance Internal injuries
A spinal injury
''Meconium'' is: A medication A nationality A sign of shock A type of feces A type of head injury
A type of feces Meconium is the earliest stool of a mammalian infant. Unlike later feces, meconium is composed of materials ingested during the time the infant was in the uterus.
Which of the following is not used to assess mental status: APGAR AVPU GCS
APGAR APGAR = newborn babies
Failing to turn your patient over to somebody with equal or higher medical training is called: Abandonment Abatement Assault Battery Pretense Failure
Abandonment
Where would you find the peritoneum? Abdomen Groin Heart Mouth Skull
Abdomen The peritoneum is the membrane that forms the lining of the abdominal cavity. Don't confuse this with the perineum which is the area between the anus and the genitals.
The term for an injury where the skin is scraped is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Incision Laceration
Abrasion
The ''A'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Abrasions Anaphylaxis Anterior Area Asphyxiation
Abrasions
What is the first stage of labor? Active Labor Pushing Pushing and delivery of the baby Delivery of the baby Delivery of placenta
Active Labor
Where is the cephalic vein located? Abdomen Arm Head Leg Lungs
Arm If you selected "Head," you are not alone. Ordinarily the term cephalic refers to the anatomy of the head. When Persian physician Ibn Sina's Canon was translated into medieval Latin, cephalic was mistakenly chosen to refer to the Arabic term al-kífal, meaning "outer."
What happens when the diaphragm contracts? Air moves into the lungs Air moves out of the lungs
Air moves into the lungs When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the lungs down which causes them to fill with air.
The letter ''A'' in the ABCs stands for what? Airway Alert Ambulance Ambulatory Autonomic
Airway The ABCs are the key portion of the initial assessment. The letter A stands for Airway. In this step you check to see that the patient's airway is open.
AVPU
Alert, Voice, Pain, and Unresponsive
What do you call a pH that is greater than 7.45? Acidosis Alkalosis Hyperporetic Hypoporetic
Alkalosis
Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults? Grunting Respirations Nasal Flaring See-sawing of the Chest and Abdomen All of the above
All of the above
The ''A'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Alert Allergies Ambulatory Ambivalent
Allergies
The term for an injury where a body part is separated from the body is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Laceration Puncture
Amputation
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant's face? 4.5 percent 9 percent 14 percent 18 percent
An infant's head is 18 percent so his face is approximately 9 percent.
A bee sting can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock
Anaphylactic Shock
Peanuts can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock
Anaphylactic Shock
What is the term for a patient who is standing face forward with palms forward? Anatomical Distal Medial Posterior Supine
Anatomical The anatomical position is standing face forward with palms forward.
Which of these is closest to phalanges? Ankle Chest Ear Pelvis Spine
Ankle Phalanges is the name of the finger and toe bones. Given the above choices, an ankle is closest to phalanges.
In the human anatomical position, the palms of the hands face: Anteriorly Dorsally Inferiorly Posteriorly Superiorly
Anteriorly
What is the term for a substance that triggers an allergic reaction? Antigen Histamine Antibody Mast Cell Pathogen
Antigen
What is the name of the heart valve that is located where the blood leaves the left ventricle? Aortic valve Mitral (bicuspid) valve Pulmonic valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic
Aortic valve A bicuspid aortic valve, which many people incorrectly select, is an aortic valve that only has two leaflets, instead of three. The aortic valve is located where the aorta receives blood from the left ventricle.
The brachial artery is located in the: Arm Brain Eyes Heart Lungs
Arm
The ulna is located near the: Abdomen Arm Ear Genitals Throat
Arm
A sphygmomanometer should be applied to the: Anus Arm Ear Mouth Skull
Arm A sphygmomanometer is the device used to measure blood pressure.
What is the term for an injury when a body structure is partially torn from the body? Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Incision Laceration
Avulsion
What is your first priority during a patient assessment? Airway BSI Bleeding Cevical Spine Circulation
BSI Body Substance Isolation
Your unresponsive adult patient is breathing at the rate of 6 breaths per minute. What treatment will you provide? BVM with 100% O2 CPR with 100% O2 CPR with 6 lpm nasal cannula NRM with 80% O2 NRM with 100% O2
BVM with 100% O2 bag valve mask
Posterior refers to Above Back Below Front Middle
Back
The scapula is located nearest the: Back Foot Hand Head Hips
Back
The transverse process is located in the: Back Cranium Foot Knee Shoulde
Back he transverse processes are two projections of bone on the sides of vertebra to which back muscles attach.
Which of the following is not a risk factor for pneumothorax? Being female Family history On mechanical ventilation Smoking Underlying lung disease
Being female Men are three times more likely than women to have a spontaneous pneumothorax.
On the human body, Ventral refers to Above Back Belly Below Middle
Belly
''Inferior'' refers to Above Below Center Middle Side
Below
The maxilla is: Above the parietal bone Below the zygomatic bone Connected to the ribs Near the clavicle The lower jaw bone
Below the zygomatic bone
To correctly perform the Heimlich maneuver on an adult, you should place your hand: Between the belt and navel Between the navel and xiphoid process On the belt On the navel On the xiphoid process
Between the navel and xiphoid process
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of grief? Acceptance Anger Bargaining Bitterness Denial
Bitterness The stages of grief are: Denial (this isn't happening to me!), Anger (why is this happening to me?), Bargaining (I promise I'll be a better person if...), Depression (I don't care anymore), Acceptance (I'm ready for whatever comes).
Based on the color of triage tags, which of these patients would not receive care? Black Green Orange Red Yellow
Black
During triage at an MCI, a cardiac arrest would be: Green Yellow Red Black Blue
Black Cardiac arrest means that the patient's heart is no longer beating. The patient would be tagged black.
Anatomy refers to: Body functions Body structures Both functions and structures
Body structures "Anatomy" refers to body structures. "Physiology" refers to body functions.
What are the effects of epinephrine? Bronchoconstriction and Vasoconstriction Bronchoconstriction and Vasodilation Bronchodilation and Vasoconstriction Bronchodilation and Vasodilation
Bronchodilation and Vasoconstriction
A hematoma is another name for a: Abrasion Bruise CVA Heart Attack Seizure
Bruise
What is the layman's term for a contusion? Break Bruise Nosebleed Sprain Strain
Bruise
The 'B' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Browns Symptoms Bruises Bumps Burns Bursitis
Burns
The first task you should perform when you encounter an apparently unresponsive patient is: Ask bystanders the MOI Check for scene safety Check the level of responsiveness Look for signs of major bleeding Open the airway (using the jaw-thrust technique)
Check for scene safety
A myocardial infarction can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock
Cardiogenic Shock
The anatomical structure where the trachea splits into two bronchi is called the: Carina Clavicular Notch Cricoid Cartilage Hocking Notch Xyphoid process
Carina
The pulse that can be palpated near the neck is called the: Carotid Pulse Dorsalis Pedis Pulse Femoral Pulse Posterior Tibial Pulse Radial Pulse
Carotid Pulse
The carpals are located near the: Foot Hand Hip Knee Shoulder
Carpals. The carpals are the wrist bones. Don't confuse carpals with tarsals (the ankle bones).
The term CVA refers to a: Car or Vehicle Accident Cardiovascular Accident Central Vortex Areole Cerebrovascular Accident Cyanide Volume Antidote
Cerebrovascular Accident The medical term for a stroke is cerebrovascular accident (CVA).
The QT Interval on an ECG ends at the: End of the Q wave End of the T wave Peak of the T wave Start of the Q wave Start of the T wave
End of the T wave
What should you give for an opiate overdose? Naprosyn Naproxen Narcan Neurontin Novacaine
Narcan
The ''D'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Damnation Deformities Dermatitis Diticular Dungeness
Deformities
DCAP-BTLS
Deformities Crepitus Abrasion Penetrations Burns Tenderness Lacerations Swelling
Which of the following is not a cause of JVD? Cardiac Tamponade Dehydration Tension Pneumothorax Volume Overloaded CHF
Dehydration "JVD" refers to jugular vein distention.
When triaging multiple patients, yellow means: Immediate (highest priority) Delayed (second priority) Hold (third priority) Unsurvivable (no treatment)
Delayed (second priority)
When the pupils are in a dark room, they will: Constrict Contract Dialate Dilate Shrink
Dilate Pupils get larger, dilate, in a dark environment. It is worth noting that the correct spelling is dilate and not dialate. The correct pronunciation is di-late (two syllables) and not di-a-late
The first step to control bleeding is: Cool Direct Pressure Elevate Pressure Point Tourniquet
Direct Pressure
The pulse that can be palpated near the top of the foot is called the: Carotid Pulse Dorsalis Pedis Pulse Femoral Pulse Radial Pulse Posterior Tibial Pulse
Dorsalis Pedis Pulse
The prongs on a nasal cannula should curve: Downward (i.e., toward the tongue) Upward (i.e.,toward the brain)
Downward (i.e., toward the tongue) Note that the prongs on many nasal cannulas are straight, in which case there is only one way to insert them.
What are the possible side effects of lidocaine? Drowsiness, confusion, seizures, bradycardia, heart blocks Headache, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, tachycardia Hypotension, tachycardia, palpitations, chest pain Skeletal muscle tremors, confusion, light headedness
Drowsiness, confusion, seizures, bradycardia, heart blocks
What is the mnemonic N.A.V.E.L. used for? Drugs that can be administered via an ET tube Drugs that can be administered via IO Drugs that can be administered via IV Drugs that can be administered via a NG tube
Drugs that can be administered via an ET tube Narcan, Atropine, Valium, Epinephrine, and Lidocaine are the key drugs that can be administered via an ET tube.
Which meningal layer is the hard mother? Arachnoid Dura Mater No Matter Pia Mater Subarachnoid
Dura Mater
The anatomical structure that prevents food from entering the trachea is the: Carina Epiglottis Esophagus Pharynx Tongue
Epiglottis
Vasopressin is an alternative to: Atropine Dicyclomine Dopamine Epinephrine Temazepam
Epinephrine Vasopressin is a natural antidiuretic hormone. It is a powerful vasoconstrictor and an alternative to epinephrine for adult shock-refractory VF.
What does ''EOA'' stand for? Emmetropia Operation Abacterial Enema Opaca Acid Enzyme Organ Abdomen Esophageal Obturator Airway Eye Optician Abduction
Esophageal Obturator Airway
The transfer of heat when water vaporizes is called: Conduction Convection Evaporation Radiation Respiration
Evaporation
The ''E'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Activate EMS Equation Event Extension Eye Opening
Event
A SAMPLE history is required for medical patients, but not for trauma patients. True False
False
An AED is an appropriate treatment for a trauma patient: True False
False
An amputation occurs when a piece of skin is left hanging from the body. True False
False
An infection typically decreases the heart rate. True False
False
Bronchiole are smaller than alveolus. True False
False
During a seizure, you should insert an oral airway to prevent the patient from biting his or her tongue. True False
False
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer atropine. True False
False
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer lidocaine. True False
False
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer morphine. True False
False
People with Type II diabetes typically take insulin daily. True False
False
Red blood cells fight infection. True False
False
When the left ventricle contracts, it sends a pressure wave of blood through the veins which is called the pulse. (This question is a little tricky... read it twice.) True False
False
You should normally see the jugular neck veins in a standing patient. True False
False
The peripheral nerves are a part of the central nervous system. True Fals
False he central nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nerves are included in the nervous system (specifically, in the peripheral nervous system), but not in the central nervous system.
Activated charcoal is appropriate for cyanide poisoning. True False
False Activated charcoal is contraindicated in numerous situations, including cyanide poisoning.
Digitalis toxicity would be expected to cause an abnormally short PR Interval. True False
False Digitalis toxicity would be expected to cause an abnormally long PR Interval because it blocks conduction through the AV junction.
The immediate threat caused by an open wound is infection. True False
False The immediate threat caused by an open wound is blood loss, not infection.
If a patient has no signs of a significant injury and there was not a significant MOI, you must still perform a rapid trauma assessment. True False
False This question refers to patients with minor traumatic injuries or a medical condition (e.g., a patient who hit their finger with a hammer or a patient with flu-like symptoms). Although it certainly will not hurt to do a rapid trauma assessment in these situations, it isn't necessary.
Oxygen is stored in the lungs. True False
False oxygen isn't stored in the lungs (if anything, it is stored in blood).
ou should perform an assessment of a pediatric patient in the same order as an adult patient. True False
False . Most texts suggest that you should assess pediatric patients from the feet up, rather than from the head down. Presumably, this is less frightening for the child.
The radial pulse rate is usually slightly slower than the carotid pulse: True False
False Although the radial pulse may be more difficult to feel, both will have the same rate (unless the radial pulse is so weak that some beats cannot be felt).
An oral airway helps relax the muscles of a responsive patient. True False
False An oral airway adjunct should only be used on a non-responsive patient who does not have a gag reflex.
COPD is common in pediatric patients: True False
False COPD is an abbreviation for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease. It is usually caused by cigarette smoking.
Hyperthermia occurs when the body loses more heat than it can create. True False
False Hyperthermia occurs when the body gains more heat than it can lose. Hypothermia occurs when the body loses more heat than it can create.
One of the best ways to prevent disease transmission is: Ask patients about HIV exposure Frequent hand washing Prophylactic antibiotics Thorough medical reports
Frequent hand washing Although gloves and other PPE are important, do not underestimate the importance of frequent hand washing.
How should you measure the proper depth of a suction catheter? From the corner of the mouth to the ear lobe From the corner of the mouth to the top of the ear From the tip of the nose to the ear lobe From the tip of the nose to the top of the ear
From the corner of the mouth to the top of the ear
Anterior refers to: Above Back Below Front Middle
Front
What are agonal respirations? Deep respirations Gasping respirations Rapid respirations Shallow respirations Slow respirations
Gasping respirations Agonal respiration is an abnormal pattern of breathing and brainstem reflex characterized by gasping, labored breathing, accompanied by strange vocalizations and myoclonus (involuntary twitching of muscles).
Which type of fracture is more common in younger patients than in older patients? Compound Greenstick Spiral Stress Transverse
Greenstick A greenstick fracture occurs when a bone bends and cracks instead of breaking completely into separate pieces.
Where would you find the perineum? Abdomen Groin Heart Mouth Skull
Groin The perineum is the region of the body inferior to the pelvic diaphragm and between the legs. It is generally defined as the surface region in both males and females between the pubic symphysis and the coccyx. Don't confuse this with the peritoneum which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity.
The venae cavae are located near the: Feet Groin Hands Head Heary
Heart
The least-likely cause of altered LOR is: Head injury Heart attack Hypoglycemia Hypothermia Stroke
Heart attack Of these choices, a heart attack is the least likely to result in an altered level of responsiveness (although the poor circulation resulting from a heart attack can certainly result in an altered LOR).
Which of the following is typically associated with profuse sweating? Heat Compensation Heat Decompensation Heat Exhaustion Heat Stroke Heat Tamponade
Heat Exhaustion
Which of the following is associated with a significant increase in core body temperature? Heat Compensation Heat Decompensation Heat Exhaustion Heat Stroke Heat Tamponade
Heat Stroke Heatstroke is caused by prolonged exposure to high temperatures or by doing physical activity in hot weather. Heatstroke is defined as a body temperature of 104 F (40 C) or higher.
When you treat an unresponsive patient you are assuming: Doctrine of Acceptance Implied Consent Jurisprudence Last Legal Liability Parental Permission
Implied Consent Implied consent is consent which is not expressly granted by a person, but rather inferred from a person's actions and the facts and circumstances of a particular situation.
Hypoperfusion refers to: Extreme cold Extreme heat Inadequate circulation Lowered mental status
Inadequate circulation Hypoperfusion is also known as shock.
Which of the following is not a symptom of stress? Decrease in appetite Difficulty sleeping Feelings of guilt Increase in sexual desire Irritability
Increase in sexual desire Stress is frequently associated with a decrease in sexual desire.
Your patient's ECG shows respiratory sinus dysrhythmia. Her heart rate does what during inspiration? Increases Decreases Stops Weakens Strengthens
Increases In respiratory sinus dysrhythmia, decreased vagal tone during inspiration causes rate to increase, and increased vagal tone during expiration causing the heart rate to decrease.
The beta cells of the pancreas produce: ACTH Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH) Insulin Hormone Testosterone Hormone Thyroxin Hormone
Insulin Hormone
Which of the following is not a ''route of entry'' for a toxin? Absorbption Ingestion Inhalation Injection Intoxication
Intoxication
The colored part of the eye that controls light levels inside the eye is called the: Conjunctiva Ibandronate Iris Lens Retina
Iris
What is unique about the hyoid bone? It is not connected to any ligaments It does not articulate with any other bone It is the hardest bone in the facial structure It does not contain bone marrow All of the above
It does not articulate with any other bone
Why should norepinephrine be given through via a central access line whenever possible? It has a short half life and may not take effect if given via a peripheral line It may cause necrosis if it extravasates in a peripheral line It will cause some minor discomfort to the patient if administered peripherally
It may cause necrosis if it extravasates in a peripheral line Because norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor, it can cause extravasation which will result in peripheral tissue necrosis.
The most likely injury from a knife is: Abrasion Amputation Avulsion Laceration Slice
Laceration
The ''L'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for: Lacerations Lateral Limited Range Localization Lymphoma
Lacerations
The ''L'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Last Medicine Intake Last Oral Intake Lucidity Lumbar Lasix
Last Oral Intake The "L" in SAMPLE traditionally stands for Last Oral Intake, but it is helpful to consider the Last anything: last urination, bowel movement, sleep, medication, seizure, etc.
Which vein carries oxygen-rich blood? Superior vena cava Left ventricle vein Left pulmonary vein Left pulmonary artery None of the above.
Left pulmonary vein The pulmonary veins (both left and right) carry oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart.
Which of the following is not typically associated with a stroke? Arm Weakness Facial Droop Leg Pain Speech Difficulty
Leg Pain
The transparent disk inside the eye that focues the light is called the: Conjunctiva Cornea Iris Lens Retina
Lens
''Normal'' systolic blood pressure is: Less than 120 mm Hg Less than 139 mm Hg Less than 159 mm Hg Less than 110 mm Hg
Less than 120 mm Hg
The Ryan White CARE Act deals with Life threatening diseases Lost or abducted children The treatment of minors The treatment of seniors
Life threatening diseases The Ryan White CARE Act mandates that EMS personnel can find out whether they were exposed to life threatening diseases while providing care.
What is the definition of auscultation? Administering medicines Listening to body sounds Taking blood pressure Viewing the retinas
Listening to body sounds
Yellow skin probably indicates: Heart Disease Insufficient perfusion Liver Problems Poor Circulation Respiratory Distress
Liver Problems
What does hypoxemia mean? Low iron in blood Low iron in body tissue Low oxygen in blood Low oxygen in body tissue
Low oxygen in blood Hypoxia refers to low oxygen in body tissue. Hypoxemia refers specifically to low oxygen in blood.
What does hypoxia mean? Low calcium in blood Low iron in blood Low iron in body tissue Low oxygen in blood Low oxygen in body tissue
Low oxygen in body tissue
The term ''wheezing'' typically refers to which type of airway obstruction? Upper Lower
Lower Wheezing is a high-pitched, whistling sound that occurs when the small airways of the lungs become narrow or constricted. It is most commonly heard when exhaling. Wheezing can be a symptom of asthma, but asthma isn't the only cause of wheeze.
A disadvantage of asking ''closed ended'' questions when gathering patient history is they: Are difficult for mentally challenged patients Are inappropriate when time is limited Elicit a dishonest answer to a direct question Elicit a long answer to a direct question May lead your patient toward certain answers
May lead your patient toward certain answers A closed-ended question can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no." For example, asking, "Does it hurt when you inhale?" versus asking, "When does it hurt?"
The direction of life support procedures by a physician that are carried out by emergency medical technicians and paramedics, including online and off-line supervision, is called: Duty to Act Implied Consent Medical Control Scope of Practice Standing Orders
Medical Control
A child with projectile vomitting, a stiff neck, and a fever causes you to suspect: Croup Dendritis Epiglottis Meningitis Rheumatic fever
Meningitis
A traction splint is indicated in which of the following: Angulated ankle Dislocated knee Open fracture of the tibia/fibula Mid-thigh closed fracture Swollen knee with displaced patella
Mid-thigh closed fracture A traction splint should only be used on a mid-shaft femur fracture. (There is debate on whether a traction split is appropriate for an open femur fracture.)
The term abduct means to Bend a joint Move away from midline Move toward midline Rotate a joint Straighten a joint
Move away from midline
What is the generic name for Narcan? Nabilone Nafarelin Naloxone Nubain Nutropin
Naloxone
You are treating a triathlete who has an upset stomach the day before a race. His pulse is 48 beats per minute. Should you begin treatment for bradycardia? Yes No
No A resting heart rate of 48 is not uncommon for a well conditioned athlete. Treating for bradycardia should be based on whether the patient has signs and symptoms that are the result of the bradycardia.
Is activated charcoal appropriate with lithium poisoning? Yes No
No Activated charcoal is contraindicated in numerous situations, including lithium poisoning.
Are infants obligatory mouth or nose breathers? Mouth Nose
Nose
What is epistaxis associated with? Genitals Myocardial Infarction Nose Pregnancy Stroke
Nose Epistaxis is the medical term for a nose bleed.
Approximately how often should you give breaths to a child when ventilating? Once every 1 to 3 seconds Once every 3 to 5 seconds Once every 5 to 7 seconds Once every 7 to 10 seconds
Once every 3 to 5 seconds
How often should you give breaths to an adult when ventilating? Once every 1 to 3 seconds Once every 4 to 5 seconds Once every 5 to 6 seconds Once every 6 to 7 seconds Once every 8 to 10 seconds
Once every 5 to 6 seconds
Most arteries carry: Oxygen-rich blood Oxygen-poor blood
Oxygen-rich blood
The ''P'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Pain Response Past History Presents Provokes
Past History
What is the name of the knee cap? Femur Fibula Humerus Patella Tibia
Patella
Organisms that cause diseases are called: Antibodies Inflamogens Pathogens Neurogens Toxins
Pathogens
In which of the following situations might you consult with medical control before inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? Patient has COPD Patient has gag reflex Patient has severe trauma to head and face Patient is overweight Patient is under the age of 10 or less than 20 kg
Patient has severe trauma to head and face "Patient has severe trauma to head and face"). Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway into a patient with severe facial trauma might cause further harm.
The sacrum is located in the: Abdomen Ear Pelvis Penis Shoulde
Pelvis The sacrum is the lower portion of the spine.
The ''ischium'' is located in the: Abdomen Ear Foot Pelvis Shoulder
Pelvis The ischium is the lower, rear part of the pelvis. Laypeople sometimes call them the "sit bones."
The term PPE refers to: Perineum Perforation Edema Peritonial Perforation Edema Personal Protective Equipment Proprietary Performance Equation Pulmonary Perforation Embolism
Personal Protective Equipment
What is placenta previa? Excessively large placenta Excessively small placenta Placenta bleeding Placenta covering the cervix Placenta detaching from the uterus
Placenta covering the cervix
Which fluid carries blood cells? Aqueous humour Cerumen Lymph Plasma Synovial
Plasma Blood plasma is the pale-yellow liquid component of blood that holds the blood cells in suspension. It makes up about 55% of the body's total blood volume.
The term plantarflex means to: Point the toes downward Point the toes inward Pull the toes upward Roll the foot inward Roll the foot outward
Point the toes downward
head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver
Prevent tongue from obstructing upper airways. Tilt head backwards in unconscious patients (by applying pressure to forehead and chin)
Shocking news can lead to: Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Neurogenic Shock Psychogenic Shock
Psychogenic Shock A more accurate term for the body's response to "shocking" news is acute stress response (ASR).
This heart valve is located where the blood leaves the right ventricle: Aortic valve Mitral (bicuspid) valve Pulmonary valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic
Pulmonary valve
This heart valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery: Aortic valve Mitral (bicuspid) valve Pulmonic valve Tricuspid valve Zygomatic
Pulmonic valve
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is called the: Base Pressure Inverse Pressure Orthostatic Pressure Pulse Pressure Zygomatic Pressure
Pulse Pressure
The ''Q'' in OPQRST stands for Quadratus Quality Quiet Quinolinol Quit
Quality
Your patient has a heart rate of less than 50 beats per minute. The ECG shows a variation between R waves of 3 small boxes. Is this rhythm: Regular Irregular
Regular A variation of three small boxes (or less) in rate is generally considered a regular rhythm (although this patient appears to be experiencing bradycardia, the rhythm appears normal).
Your patient is showing signs of accessory muscles and nasal flaring. You suspect: Appendicitis Cardiac Insufficiency Respiratory Distress Upper Airway Blockage
Respiratory Distress
The diaphragm is a part of the: Endocrine System Integumentary System Nervous System Respiratory System Skeletal System
Respiratory System
RTS
Revised Trauma Score
The coarse rattling sound (somewhat like snoring) that can be heard when auscultating lungs is called: Stridor Wheezing Kussmaul breathing Rhonchi
Rhonchi
The SA node is located near the: Left Atrium Left Ventricle Right Atrium Right Ventricle
Right Atrium
The right atrium sends blood to the: Aorta Inferior Vena Cava Left Ventricle Right Atrium Right Ventricle
Right Ventricle
our trauma patient is complaining of pain in the LUQ. They are showing signs of hypoperfusion. You suspect: Airway obstruction Appendicitis Cardiac compromise Gastritis Ruptured spleen
Ruptured spleen The spleen is located in the Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ).
Which of the following is NOT used to report LOR? AVPU Glasgow RTS SALT
SALT (doesn't mean anything)
''Ipsilateral'' means: Above midline Away from midline Opposite side of midline Same side of midline Toward the midline
Same side of midline ipsi = self/same
Care that an EMT can provide is legally defined as: Duty to Act Implied Consent Medical Control Scope of Practice Standing Orders
Scope of Practice Scope of Practice is a term used by government licensing boards that defines the procedures, actions, and processes that are permitted for the licensed individual.
A patient with a nose bleed should be positioned: On his back On his side (the recovery position) Seated, leaning back Seated, leaning forward Seated, with head between knees
Seated, leaning forward In the "good old days" mom had us lean back (probably so we didn't get blood on her carpet), but the correct position is to lean forward.
In which stage of labor does ''crowning'' occur? First stage Second stage Third stage Fourth stage Fifth stage
Second stage
Penetrating trauma to the eye should be treated by: Quickly and carefully removing the penetrating object Remove the object if it is less than 2 mm in diameter Securing the penetrating object in place
Securing the penetrating object in place
The postictal state is associated with: Anaphylaxis Asthma Cerebral Vascular Accidents Myocardial Infarctions Seizures
Seizures The postictal state is the altered level of consciousness following a seizure.
What is ''status epilepticus''? Seizures lasting less than 1 minute Seizures lasting 1 to 2 minutes Seizures lasting 2 to 3 minutes Seizures lasting 3 to 5 minutes Seizures lasting 5+ minutes
Seizures lasting 5+ minutes Status epilepticus is an epileptic seizure of greater than five minutes OR more than one seizure within a five-minute period without the person returning to normal between them.
What is ''eclampsia''? Hypertension during pregnancy Infantile cerebral hemorrhaging Infection during pregnancy Seizures relating to pregnancy Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy
Seizures relating to pregnancy Preeclampsia is a complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Eclampsia is the onset of seizures (convulsions) in a woman with preeclampsia.
Which off the following types of nerves carry information from the body to the brain? Central Motion Motor Sensory Somatic
Sensory he central nervous system is made up of the spinal cord and brain. The sensory nerves are nerves that receive sensory stimuli, such as how something feels and whether it is painful, smooth, rough, etc.
When packaging a young child to a spine board, you should consider padding under the: Feet Head Pelvis Shoulders
Shoulders Because young children have relatively larger heads, you may need to pad under their shoulders (upper back) to keep the spine aligned.
You see vomit running out of your patient's mouth. This is a: Sign Symptom
Sign
Is wheezing a sign or a symptom? Sign Symptom
Sign Signs are things that you can see, feel, hear, smell, etc. Symptoms are things that only your patient feels. Since you can hear wheezing, it is a sign.
The ''S'' in SAMPLE history stands for: Stabilize the Spine Signs and Symptoms Supine Superior
Signs and Symptoms
Crepitus and false motion are: Seen only with open fractures Signs of a dislocation ` Signs of severe pain Symptoms of severe pain
Signs of a fracture Crepitus is a grating sound produced by friction between the fractured parts of a bone. False motion is a bone bending where it shouldn't. Both are signs of a fracture.kul890-=87iuyjmn nyt76545e6rdtfxcSEAq
A sound typically associated with an obstructed airway is: Gurgling Snoring Wheezing
Snoring
Palpation is: Something you feel Something you hear Something you see Something you smell Something you taste
Something you feel
The stage of labor when a woman reaches complete dilation and is pushing is called: Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4 Stage 5
Stage 2 Stage 1: Onset of labor to complete dilation. Stage 2: Pushing to delivery of baby. Stage 3: Delivery of baby to delivery of placenta.
A written document containing rules, policies, procedures, regulations, and orders for the conduct of patient care in the prehospital environment is called: Duty to Act Implied Consent Medical Control Scope of Practice Standing Orders
Standing Orders
The PR Interval on an ECG starts at the: End of the P wave Peak of the P wave Peak of the R wave Start of the P wave Start of the R wave
Start of the P wave
The PR interval on an ECG begins at the: Start of the P wave Peak of the P wave End of the P wave Start of the R wave Peak of the R wave
Start of the P wave The PR segment begins at the end of the P wave. The PR interval begins at the start of the P wave.
What shape is a Miller laryngoscope blade? Curved Straight
Straight
Nubain is a: Opioid Antagonist Synthetic Opioid
Synthetic Opioid Nubain is a synthetic opioid. Don't confuse this with Narcan, which reverses the effects of opioids.
In which case might you want to remove a penetrating object? The object is in a large muscle The object is in a lung The object is in an eye The object is in the airway
The object is in the airway You should consider removing a penetrating object is if it interferes with the airway, for example, a penetrating object in the mouth.
How many ribs do men have? Fewer than women The same as women More than women
The same as women
How many ribs do men have? Fewer than women The same as women More than women
The same as women
The dorsalis pedis pulse is located on: Behind the ankle Top of the foot
Top of the foot The dorsalis pedis pulse can be palpated on the lateral side of the large tendon on the top of the foot.
Plasma: Destroys germs Transports oxygen Transports platelets
Transports platelets Plasma transports platelets, red and white blood cells.
Core body temperature is one of the four key vital signs? True False
True
It may be possible to resuscitate somebody who has been in cardiac arrest for more than 30 minutes if they are submerged in cold water. True False
True
Many EMT-B protocols allow them to administer activated charcoal. True False
True
Most EMT-B protocols allow EMTs to administer oral glucose. True False
True
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to assist patients with prescribed epinephrine. True False
True
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to assist patients with prescribed inhalers. True False
True
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to assist patients with prescribed nitroglycerin. True False
True
People living with Type I diabetes typically take insulin daily. True False
True
The atria are superior to the ventricles. True False
True
The epiglottis superior to the larynx. True False
True
The systolic blood pressure indicates the pressure when the left ventricle contracts: True False
True
The use of an emergency move (e.g., the shoulder drag) is warranted if you are unable to reach other critically injured patients. True False
True
The pharynx is located inferior to the nasopharynx.
True The pharynx is comprised of both the nasopharynx and the oropharynx.
You should avoid warming the limbs of a patient with moderate hypothermia. True False
True Warming the extremities of moderate or severe hypothermic patients may result in shock or arrhythmias.
Tuberculosis can be transmitted by inhalation. True False
True You should wear a NIOSH approved N-95 or HEPA (high efficiency particulate air) respirator if you suspect your patient has TB.
Most patients experiencing chest pain will not be having a heart attack. True False
True Although it is true that most patients that complain of chest pain are not having a heart attack, you should treat these patients as if it is a serious cardiac event.
When triaging multiple patients, black means: Immediate (highest priority) Delayed (second priority) Hold (third priority) Unsurvivable (no treatment)
Unsurvivable (no treatment)
The term stridor typically refers to which type of airway obstruction? Upper Lower
Upper In medicine, "stridor" refers to "a harsh vibrating noise when breathing, caused by obstruction of the windpipe or larynx."
The manubrium is near the: Frontal Lobe Lower Sternal Notch Upper Jaw Bone Upper Sternum
Upper Sternum . The manubrium is the upper part of the breastbone. Don't confuse this with the mandible which is the jaw bone.
The correct placement of a curved laryngoscope blade is normally the: Epiglottis Maxilla Tongue Uvula Vallecula
Vallecula The correct placement of a curved laryngoscope blade is the vallecula while the straight laryngoscopic blade is used to lift the epiglottis.
Nitroglycerin is a: Vasoconstrictor Vasodilator
Vasodilator
Which drug class does nitroglycerin belong? Catecholamines Diuretics Renin Inhibitors Vasodilators Vasopressors
Vasodilators
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is: a cardiac necrosis due to an imbalance in oxygen supply and demand. a condition relating to the alveoli. a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough oxygenated blood to the body. a result of inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree. an enlargement of air spaces within the lungs.
a condition relating to the alveoli.
CHF is: a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough oxygenated blood to the body. a result of inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree. an enlargement of air spaces within the lungs. cardiac necrosis due to an imbalance in oxygen supply and demand. characterized by airway obstruction.
a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough oxygenated blood to the body.
The epigastric region is: between the scapulae. between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process. in the digestive system. in the nasopharynx. in the reproductive system
between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process.
Myocardial infarction is: a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough oxygenated blood to the body. a result of inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree. an enlargement of air spaces within the lungs. cardiac necrosis due to an imbalance in oxygen supply and demand. characterized by airway obstruction.
cardiac necrosis due to an imbalance in oxygen supply and demand. Myocardial infarction is a heart attack.
The term midaxillary refers to a line draw from: the armpit to the ankle the chin to the navel the clavicle to the great toe the scapula to the buttocks the thorax to the femur
the armpit to the ankle
The term midaxillary refers to a line draw from: the armpit to the ankle the chin to the navel the clavicle to the great toe the scapula to the buttocks the thorax to the femur
the armpit to the ankle
