test 1 missed questions review
All of the following are associated with hereditary spherocytosis, EXCEPT? Increased osmotic fragility An MCHC greater than 37% Intravascular hemolysis Extravascular hemolysis
Intravascular hemolysis
The biochemical testing results of an alpha-hemolytic streptococcus show that the isolate is bile esculin-positive, but does not grow in the presence of 6.5% NaCl. The MOST PROBABLE identity of this isolate is: Group B streptococcus Group D streptococcus, enterococcus Group D streptococcus, non-enterococcus Viridans streptococcus group
Group D streptococcus, non-enterococcus
Which of the following cells demonstrate an increase in osmotic fragility? Target cells Reticulocytes Spherocytes Macrocytes
Spherocytes
Illustrated in the upper blood agar plate are large, spreading, gray-white colonies with a buttery consistency and fimbriated edges. Each colony is surrounded by broad zones of beta hemolysis. The Gram stain in the lower image reveals long, box-car shaped, spore-forming Gram-positive bacilli. Lecithinase is produced on egg yolk agar. These findings are most consistent with a presumptive identification of which of the following? Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Corynebacterium jeikeium Bacillus cereus Lactobacillus species
Bacillus cereus
The mediator cell type that binds to IgE antibodies is the: Basophil Eosinophil Polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN) Macrophage
Basophil
A 33-year-old livestock farmer, native to central Illinois, gave a one month history of diurnal fever, peaking in the evening and during the night, but subsiding during the daytime. He also complained of muscle aches and easy fatigability. After several negative blood cultures, an organism was finally recovered after 9 days incubation. The colonies shown in the upper photograph appeared on chocolate agar after 48 hours incubation in CO2. Growth was poor on blood agar. The Gram stain prepared from one of the colonies is shown in the lower photomicrograph. The most likely identification is: Moraxella catarrhalis Brucella abortis Aggregatibacter aphrophilus (formerly Haemophilus aphrophilus) Neisseria cinerea
Brucella abortis
Which is the most commonly reported organism in cases of laboratory-acquired bacterial infection? Francisella tularensis Brucella species Burkholderia species Yersinia pestis
Brucella species
In blood, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with: Sodium Potassium Chloride Phosphorus
Chloride
What is the purpose of a t-test? Determining the mean of two different groups Comparison of two means from matched groups Comparison of frequency data Preparing a Chi-square test
Comparison of two means from matched groups
The least immunogenic transplant tissue is: Kidneys Bone marrow Corneas Lung
Corneas
Which of the following casts is characteristically associated with acute pyelonephritis? Red cell White cell Fatty Waxy
White cell
All of the following are examples of preanalytic errors, EXCEPT: Misidentified patient Underfilled tube Prolonged tourniquet application Wrong test performed
Wrong test performed
A reaction is in ____________ kinetics when the reaction rate depends only on enzyme concentration. Zero-order First-order Second-order Mixed-order
Zero-order
Which of the following dimorphic molds produces spherical or oval conidia, each supported by an individual conidiophore ("lollipop") as represented in this image? Blastomyces dermatitidis Coccidioides immitis Histoplasma capsulatum Sporothrix schenckii
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Which of the following tumor markers is associated with testicular cancer? PSA CEA Beta hCG CA-125
Beta hCG
The top image is characteristic of the clinical presentation of oropharyngeal thrush that may be observed in patients with AIDS. Specimen samples sent to the mycology laboratory for culture often grow yeast colonies on agar plates within 2 - 3 days of incubation at 30° C. Observed in the bottom photograph is the surface of a niger seed agar plate growing two different yeast species. The one to the left represents the clinical isolate and the one to the right is a control strain. It is important to recognize the colonies of the clinical isolate as it may be potentially resistant to commonly used anti-fungal agents. Select the species of yeast involved in this infection. Candida dubliniensis Candida glabrata Candida albicans Candida parasilosis
Candida dubliniensis
Electrophoretic separation of hemoglobin fundamentally relies on: Weight differences of molecules Electrical charge differences of molecules Concentration differences of molecules Shape variations of molecules
Electrical charge differences of molecules
When a polyclonal gammopathy is compared to a monoclonal gammopathy, a patient with a polyclonal gammopathy has: A single class and type of immunoglobulin. Elevated levels of several classes of immunoglobulin molecules. Bence Jones protein in the urine M spike on serum protein electrophoresis
Elevated levels of several classes of immunoglobulin molecules.
Which of the following assays is commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of Activated Protein C resistance? Factor V Leiden Mutation Assay Antithrombin Activity Assay Antithrombin Antigen Assay Anticardiolipin Antibody Immunoassay
Factor V Leiden Mutation Assay
Which of the following is considered an indirect hazard of electrical energy? Death Fire Shock Burns
Fire
Which of the following abnormal CBC tests typically occurs in patients with chronic pulmonary disease ? Increased MCV Increased hematocrit Decreased MCHC Decreased hemoglobin
Increased hematocrit
Which one of the following statements about acetaminophen metabolism is false? It is metabolized in the kidney It is largely metabolized in the liver to glucuronide and sulfonate conjugates A small amount is metabolized via cytochrome oxidase to a reactive benzoquinoneimine intermediate The benzoquinoneimine intermediate becomes toxic to the liver once tissue glutathione becomes depleted
It is metabolized in the kidney
All of the following statements describe a method by which platelets aid coagulation EXCEPT: Lower blood pressure by releasing heparin Catalyze coagulation by releasing Platelet Factor 3 Cause blood vessels to constrict by releasing serotonin Form a plug to stop the flow of blood
Lower blood pressure by releasing heparin
All of the following statements are true regarding the hepatic system and drug metabolism, EXCEPT? Changes in hepatic status will affect the concentration of circulating drugs eliminated. Hepatic disease states characterized by a loss of functional tissue may result in slower rates of clearance. Hepatic disease states characterized by a loss of functional tissue may result in a longer drug half-life. Metabolism of acetaminophen by the MFO system is altered by alcohol and makes it less toxic.
Metabolism of acetaminophen by the MFO system is altered by alcohol and makes it less toxic.
Which condition is caused by the increased Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1) and fibrinogen often present in metabolic syndrome? Hyperglycemia Proinflammatory state Prothrombotic state Atherogenic dyslipidemia
Prothrombotic state
Which subset of effector lymphocytes is predominantly responsible for regulation of antibody production? TH1 TH2 TH17 CD8+
TH2
The fastidious Gram-negative bacillus featured here has been recovered from individuals in pandemic outbreaks of diarrhea after ingestion of contaminated stream, lake, or well water. In many cases, life-threatening profuse diarrhea resulting in dehydration and electrolyte loss is experienced. Smooth, entire, convex light gray-yellow colonies are observed on blood agar (left upper image). Note the yellow pigmentation of the colonies growing on TCBS agar (Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Sucrose) on the right of the composite image, indicating strong acid production from sucrose. Cytochrome oxidase is also positive. Small, curved, and S-shaped, gram-negative bacilli are seen on the Gram stain. From these observations, select the correct genus/species identification of this isolate. Aeromonas hydrophila Plesiomonas shigelloides Vibrio cholerae Non-Vibrio cholerae
Vibrio cholerae
A Proficiency Testing Service (e.g., CAP) reported the following results for a Cholesterol test (unknown Control) reported by your laboratory. Your results were compared with 648 other labs using the same type of instrumentation and methodology: Your Result = 168 mg/dLGroup Mean = 155 mg/dLGroup SD = 11 mg/dL (SD = One Standard Deviation)Group ± 2 SD Range = 22 mg/dL Calculate the value for your Standard Deviation Index and choose the correct answer below: Please select the single best answer - 1.18 + 0.59 + 0.85 + 1.18
+ 1.18
pH alteration of normal blood in a closed vessel standing at 37oC for 1 hour is approximately: 0.01 to 0.02 pH units 0.02 to 0.04 pH units 0.04 to 0.08 pH units 0.08 to 0.12 pH units
0.04 to 0.08 pH units
What is the normality (N) of a 250 mL solution that contains 6 g of NaOH (gmw=39.997 g/mol, valence=1)? 0.173 N 0.482 N 0.600 N 0.760 N
0.600 N
What is the half-life of IgG? Why is the duration of the half-life significant? The correct answer is highlighted below 1-3 days; it is the first antibody produced in an immune response. 5-6 days; it participates in an immediate hypersensitivity reaction. 18-23 days; it is important for B-cell activation and/or regulation. 18-23 days; it binds with neonatal Fc receptor.
18-23 days; it binds with neonatal Fc receptor.
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is characterized by all of the following immunodeficiencies EXCEPT: T-cell reduction or dysfunction B-cell reduction or dysfunction Natural killer (NK) cell reduction A deficiency of stem cells
A deficiency of stem cells
Significant risk factors for potential development of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) include the following factors except: Source of immunocompetent lymphocytes Human leukocyte antigen (HLA)differences Inability to reject donor lymphocytes A strong ability of the host to destroy foreign lymphocytes
A strong ability of the host to destroy foreign lymphocytes
Blast cells found in a spinal fluid differential are most likely associated with which of the following? Bacterial meningitis Acute Leukemia Viral meningitis Metastatic carcinomas
Acute Leukemia
Antibodies directed against granulocyte antigens have been implicated for all of the following EXCEPT? Febrile transfusion reactions Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) Neonatal alloimmune neutropenia (NAN)
Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions
All of the following tests are affected by the pneumatic tube system transport, EXCEPT? Albumin Potassium Plasma hemoglobin Acid phosphatase
Albumin
Illustrated in the upper image is a stained histological section of a bowel showing a heavy inflammatory reaction within which 10 - 12 µm spherical cysts are observed. The lower image is a close-up view of one of the organisms from a smear preparation of the exudate. There is a distinctive central karyosome, even distribution of the ring of chromatin, and the finely granular cytoplasm. What disease can be presumptively reported? Giardiasis Balantidiasis Amebiasis Cysticercosis
Amebiasis
The enzymatic process in each Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) cycle consists of the following steps EXCEPT: DNA denaturation Primer annealing Extension of primed DNA sequence Analysis of PCR product
Analysis of PCR product
Acquired hemophilia A (not classic hemophilia A) may result from which of the following conditions? Anti-factor VIII inhibitor Factor VIII deficiency Warfarin therapy Thrombosis complications
Anti-factor VIII inhibitor
A 64-year old man lost 15 pounds, became weaker, and his face became fuller with a ruddy complexion. His laboratory tests revealed: Serum cortisol 8 AM: 880 nmol/L, 138-635 nmol/L (reference range)4 PM: 828 nmol/L, 83-414 nmol/L (reference range) After these results, an overnight dexamethasone suppression test gave a cortisol level of 773 nmol/L. The MOST probable diagnosis for this patient is: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia Addison's disease Cushing's Syndrome Conn's Syndrome
Cushing's Syndrome
The Lutheran b antigen (Lub) is a high incidence antigen. A patient has developed an anti-Lub. All of the screening cells and antibody identification panel cells are positive at AHG. What can be used in testing so that the blood bank can determine if there are other clinically significant antibodies present in this patient? Proteolytic enzymes such as ficin and papain DTT PEG Albumin
DTT
Which of the following is true regarding a normal distribution curve? Data points are randomly dispersed within the distribution curve. Data tend to cluster at the top and bottom of the distribution curve. Data are more likely to fall closer to the mean. No predictions can be made about data distribution.
Data are more likely to fall closer to the mean.
In which of the following condition(s) would an increased serum osmolality be an expected finding? Dehydration and Diabetes insipidus Hyponatremia and Dehydration Increased arginine vasopressin hormone (AVP formerly ADH) secretion and in Hyponatremia AVP and Diabetes insipidus
Dehydration and Diabetes insipidus
A hemoglobin F concentration of 100% may be seen in which beta thalassemia? Beta thalassemia minor (ß0/ß) Beta thalassemia major (ß0/ß0) Delta-beta thalassemia minor (dß0/ß) Delta-beta thalassemia major (dß0/dß0)
Delta-beta thalassemia major (dß0/dß0)
The packets of small, spherical immature ova (upper image) may be observed in the ovaries of tapeworms indigenous in dogs and cats. Human infections are uncommon but on occasion stool specimens of young children with mild diarrhea who have had contact with household pets may include proglottids as represented by the lower image. Select the presumptive identification of this tapeworm from the choices listed below. Diphyllobothrium latum Dipylidium caninum Taenia saginata Hymenolepis nana
Dipylidium caninum
In 1996, which of the following was adopted by the United States Department of Health and Human Services to provide standards for facilitating healthcare-related electronic transactions and to ensure health insurance coverage after leaving an employer? Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act National Labor Relations Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
A spectrophotometric scan of amniotic fluid may be valuable in the determination of which of the following conditions: Neural tube defects Maternal hypertension Hemolytic disease of the newborn Maternal diabetes
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
All of the following are considered to be important protein regulators of iron metabolism, EXCEPT? Hemosiderin Hepcidin Transferrin receptor Ferroportin
Hemosiderin
What role does lipase play in the body? Transferring animo acid groups between compounds Catalyzing the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate Hydrolyzes fat esters to produce water Hydrolyzes fat esters to produce alcohol and fatty acids
Hydrolyzes fat esters to produce alcohol and fatty acids
The chief purpose of performing a serologic crossmatch is to: Identify antibodies in donor blood Identify antibodies in recipient red blood cells Identify recipient antibodies against donor cells Identify donor antibodies against recipient cells
Identify recipient antibodies against donor cells
What is the mechanism of action for methotrexate? Inhibits ribosome function Inhibits RNA synthesis Inhibits protein synthesis Inhibits DNA synthesis
Inhibits DNA synthesis
A patient admitted to the hospital for ongoing fever produces the following laboratory results: RBC count: 3.56 x 1012/L WBC count: 57.5 x 109/L Platelet count: 375,000/uL Differential count: 3 blasts, 10 myelocytes, 6 metamyelocytes, 12 bands, 64 segs, 4 lymphocytes, and 1 monocyte LAP score = 155. Which of the following conditions correlates closely with this patient's results? Leukemoid Reaction Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia Genetic translocation (9;22)(q34;q11) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
Leukemoid Reaction
What part of an immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule exists as kappa or lambda chains? Fc Fab Heavy chains Light chains
Light chains
Effusion fluids are classified as transudates or exudates. According to Light's criteria, all of the following applies to an exudate EXCEPT? Pleural fluid/serum protein ratio >0.5 Pleural fluid/serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) ratio >0.6 Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) <2/3 the normal upper limit for serum Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAGG) <1.1 g/dL
Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) <2/3 the normal upper limit for serum
A liquid ion-exchange membrane electrode using the antibiotic valinomycin is MOST selective for: Sodium Glucose Chloride Potassium
Potassium
Washing red cells may be performed to remove what from the unit? White blood cells Platelets Plasma Proteins
Proteins
CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) codes: Provide the laboratory with an accurate method of measuring productivity Provide a uniform method of coding medical, surgical, and diagnostic services Are reported to the College of American Pathologists (CAP), as workload units Are used by medical records to classify patients for filing and identification purposes
Provide a uniform method of coding medical, surgical, and diagnostic services
A patient had a transfusion reaction to red blood cells and the remains from the unit of blood were sent to the microbiology laboratory for culture. The organism that grew was a gram-negative bacilli that was catalase and oxidase positive and was negative for gelatin hydrolysis. The organism was inoculated on a Pseudo F agar slant and incubated for 24 hours. Fluorescence was observed when using a UV light as seen in the image. This organism is most likely: Pseudomonas putida Pseudomonas stutzeri Burkholderia cepacia Pseudomonas alcaligenes
Pseudomonas putida
A copper reduction method (e.g. Clinitest® or Benedict's) is performed on pediatric specimens in order to check for the presence of: Reducing substances Aspirin Protein Ketones
Reducing substances
An assessment of the myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio is part of every bone marrow evaluation. Which of the following does not apply to the M:E ratio? Please select the single best answer The erythroid total used in calculating the M:E ratio is the sum of all the nucleated red cell precursors. The myeloid total used in calculating the M:E ratio is the sum of all non-RBC cell types found in the marrow. White blood cells used in the myeloid tally/total used to calculate the M:E ratio include neutrophil precursors as well as eosinophil precursors and basophil precursors. The M:E should always be interpreted in context with the overall bone marrow cellularity.
The myeloid total used in calculating the M:E ratio is the sum of all non-RBC cell types found in the marrow.
All of the following descriptions are characteristic of monocytes, EXCEPT? Vacuoles are common. Cytoplasm may have pseudopods. Granules in the cytoplasm give a ground glass appearance. The nuclear chromatin appears very condensed.
The nuclear chromatin appears very condensed.
Which one of the following is the correct definition of isoelectric point (pI)? Buffer formation of a positively charged ionic cloud that can affect the migration of the negative ionic cloud of the sample The ability of a molecule to have both negatively and positively charged groups The pH where a molecule has a net charge of zero The movement of charged particles in an electrical field
The pH where a molecule has a net charge of zero
The range between a drug's effective dose and its toxic dose is called? Drug half-life Therapeutic window Pharmacokinetics Pharmacogenomics (Pharmacogenetics)
Therapeutic window
Which of the following statements is true regarding CYP450 enzymes? They are the only hepatic enzymes involved in drug metabolism. They are few in number but very important in metabolism. They are very specific in the substrates they accept. They are able to make compounds more water-soluble and therefore enhance excretion.
They are able to make compounds more water-soluble and therefore enhance excretion.
Brucella suis and Salmonella typhi can commonly infect the spleen, liver, and bone marrow. Which of the following reasons allows these two organisms to cause a systemic infection? They both can only infect the spleen, liver, or bone marrow They are ingested by eosinophils and the eosinophils take them to the spleen, liver, and bone marrow They are both ingested by monocytes and/or macrophages within the spleen, liver, and bone marrow They both have the capability to suppress interleukins of the immune system, which will allow the spread of the organisms throughout the bloodstream causing infections of the spleen, liver, and bone marrow
They are both ingested by monocytes and/or macrophages within the spleen, liver, and bone marrow
Acetest® can be used to test for ketones in: Urine Urine and serum Urine, serum, and whole blood Urine, serum, whole blood, and CSF
Urine, serum, and whole blood
Which type of healthcare occupational exposure has the greatest risk of HIV transmission? Percutaneous injury Mucous membrane exposure Abraded skin exposure Inhalation of droplets
Percutaneous injury
To properly use a volumetric pipette calibrated "to deliver" (TD), one should: Let the pipette drain in a vertical position and blow out the last drop. Drain the contents in the vertical position but do not blow out. Drain the pipette after rinsing out the contents several times and blow out the last drop .Contain a specified amount of liquid but are not necessarily calibrated to deliver that exact amount.
Drain the contents in the vertical position but do not blow out.
Acceptable sources for urine culture from a patient with suspected urinary tract infection include all EXCEPT: Suprapubic aspiration Straight catheter Voided mid-stream clean catch Drainage bag from nephrostomy catheter
Drainage bag from nephrostomy catheter
Thromboelastography (TEG) is a methodology used to assess blood coagulation. The prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) are more commonly used. All of the following are things that TEG can assess that the PT and APTT cannot assess EXCEPT? Platelet function Clot strength Fibrinolysis Factor deficiencies
Factor deficiencies
Which of the following conditions is associated with the defective erythrocytes that are indicated by the arrows in this image? G6PD deficiency Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Abetalipoproteinemia Beta thalassemia
G6PD deficiency
An autopsy of a 1-year-old female admitted to the emergency room 4 hours prior to her death revealed Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Blood and nasopharyngeal cultures taken prior to her death should reveal an oxidase-positive, Gram-negative diplococcus with the following biochemical reactions: Glucose positive, Maltose positive, ONPG positive and DNase negative Glucose positive, Maltose positive, Sucrose positive and Lactose negative Glucose positive, Maltose positive, Lactose negative and Sucrose negative Glucose positive, Maltose negative, Lactose negative and Sucrose negative
Glucose positive, Maltose positive, Lactose negative and Sucrose negative
A small portion of HIV-infected individuals are termed 'elite controllers' due to only mildly depressed CD4 T cell counts and low viral loads. The presence of which of the following genetic factors is thought to contribute to this (low viral load and mildly depressed CD4 T cell counts)? HLA-B57-01 and HLA-B27-05 t(15;17) t(9;22) JAK2 mutatio
HLA-B57-01 and HLA-B27-05
A patient is admitted to the emergency room with severe lethargy, glossitis, and muscle dysfunction. After the physician orders a complete blood count with differential, the hematology technologist observes cells matching the image to the right. Which condition is most consistent with the clinical and laboratory findings? Sickle cell anemia Megaloblastic anemia Iron deficiency anemia Aplastic anemia
Iron deficiency anemia
Which one of the following statements about E.coli O157:H7 is false? It has been reported in contaminated unpasteurized milk, unpasteurized apple juice, and undercooked hamburger It can cause hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) in children It causes hemorrhagic diarrhea, abdominal pain, and other symptoms It ferments sorbitol rapidly
It ferments sorbitol rapidly
You are working to validate a new method for detecting C-reactive protein (CRP) in serum. To assess precision, you run a medium-level control 30 times and determine the mean to be 4.0 mg/dL with a standard deviation of 0.04 mg/dL. What could be said about the precision of this run, assuming a CV less than 3% is acceptable? It is not acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 100%. It is not acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 10%. It is acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 0.1%. It is acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 1%.
It is acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 1%.
Quality control lockout is a desirable feature in a POCT (point of care testing) analyzer because: It prevents operators from altering QC records. It prevents QC from being recorded when outside 2 standard deviations. It prevents the wrong QC material from being used. It prevents testing when QC has not been performed.
It prevents testing when QC has not been performed.
With the development of fetal lung maturity, which of the following phospholipid concentrations in amniotic fluid increases? Sphingomyelin Phosphatidyl ethanolamine Phosphatidylinositol Lecithin
Lecithin
The indicator(s) used in the pH test region of the chemical reagent strips for urine is/are: Methyl red and bromthymol red Methyl blue and bromthymol blue Methyl red and bromthymol blue Methyl blue and bromthymol red
Methyl red and bromthymol blue
Entire, smooth, convex Mycobacterium species colonies growing on 7H10 agar were observed to be dark yellow pigmented early in culture even before exposure to light. This isolate was found to be Tween-80 positive as seen in the reaction tubes in the bottom photograph. Select from the multiple choices the presumptive identification of this isolate: Mycobacterium gordonae Mycobacterium fortuitum Mycobacterium kansasii Mycobacterium marinum
Mycobacterium gordonae
Which of the following is the most likely identification of an acid fast bacilli recovered from an induced sputum with these culture findings? Slow growth at 37o CNiacin test = negativePigmented photochromogenicNitrate test = positiveCatalase = positive Mycobacterium kansasii Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium simiae Mycobacterium chelonei
Mycobacterium kansasii
What coenzyme does LD use when converting lactate to pyruvate? The correct answer is highlighted below FAD+ NAD+ NADH FADH2
NAD+
Proteins in a buffer that sets the pH at 8.6 will become ___________ charged and migrate to the ____________. Negatively; Anode Negatively; Cathode Positively; Anode Positively; Cathode
Negatively; Anode
When in the Fisher Projection, which carbon is used to determine if the molecule is in D or L formation? Anomeric carbon First chiral carbon Central Carbon Penultimate carbon
Penultimate carbon
The following aerobic, branching, filamentous gram-positive species is weakly acid fast and known to cause mycetomas and lung infections in immunocompromised individuals: Nocardia species Mycobacterium species Streptomyces species Corynebacterium species
Nocardia species
This suspicious form was recovered from a nodule biopsy. It measures 300 µm in length and lacks a sheath. Identify the suspicious form. Trypanosoma trypomastigote Pseudoparasite Wuchereria bancrofti microfilaria Onchocerca volvulus microfilaria
Onchocerca volvulus microfilaria
This photomicrograph is a high-power view of a stained peripheral blood smear showing two erythrocytes that are infected with malarial parasites. This infection tends to occur in patients who are Duffy antigen negative. Based on this microscopic observation, select the species identification from the multiple choices listed below. Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium malariae Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium ovale
A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal thrombin time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear. Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant? Factor VIII assay Mixing studies with factor-deficient plasmas Antinuclear antibody test Platelet neutralization test
Platelet neutralization test
The OF dextrose activity is a key initial assessment in the presumptive identification of the nonfermentative gram-negative bacilli. Which of the following bacterial species utilizes dextrose oxidatively? (yellow reaction in the open tube) The correct answer is highlighted below Comamonas testosteroni Ralstonia pickettii (formerly Burkholderia pickettii) Alcaligenes faecalis Moraxella osloensis
Ralstonia pickettii (formerly Burkholderia pickettii)
Patients who undergo urologic procedures, as well as those with genitourinary tract diseases such as prostate cancer can sometimes be prone to diffuse hemorrhage. A possible cause of this could be which of the following? Dysfunction of platelets Release of urokinases Initiation of tissue factor released from endothelial cells Release of PGL (a prostacyclin ) from endothelial cells
Release of urokinases
You are evaluating the effectiveness of a new, office-based rapid test for Influenza B. Among 1000 patients tested for Influenza B, 20 tested positive using this rapid test, whereas the remaining 980 patients tested negative. In addition to the 20 patients who tested positive, 10 more patients were infected with influenza B but tested negative when using this particular rapid test. What is the sensitivity and specificity of this test? The correct answer is highlighted below Sensitivity = 66% and Specificity = 100% Sensitivity = 100% and Specificity = 75% Sensitivity = 66% and Specificity = 75% Sensitivity = 75% and Specificity = 2%
Sensitivity = 66% and Specificity = 100%
Ideally, what testing should be done prior to starting a new lot of control material in order to establish its mean and standard deviation? Should be tested consecutively by 20 different technologists Should be tested in 20 separate runs Should be tested 10 consecutive times on each of three work shifts Should be tested 10 times by the same person
Should be tested in 20 separate runs
Out of the given choices below, which one of the following bacteria is the MOST frequent cause of prosthetic heart valve infections occurring after heart surgery? Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Small, gray, alpha hemolytic colonies with indented centers were isolated on sheep blood agar from a peritoneal fluid. The following biochemicals were performed: Gram Stain: Gram positive lancet-shaped cocci in chains and pairs Catalase: Negative Optochin susceptibility: Sensitive >14 mmIdentify the organism from the choices provided. Alpha hemolytic streptococcus species Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pyogenes Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
A hemocytometer is generally used for all of the following, EXCEPT? Cell counts in CSF Synovial fluid crystal counts RBC/WBC counts Platelet counts
Synovial fluid crystal counts
Which of the following identifies a major mechanism of electricity-induced injury? Electrical energy causing indirect tissue damage Conversion of electrical energy into thermal energy causing minimum tissue destruction Direct trauma resulting from falls or violent muscle spasms Burns that do not cause tissue or nerve damage
Direct trauma resulting from falls or violent muscle spasms
Which of the following would you find in a primary hyperparathyroidism case? Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus Elevated serum calcium and elevated serum phosphorus Decreased serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus Decreased serum calcium and increased serum phosphorus
Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus
Which of the following descriptions is matched correctly to its corresponding organism? Enterobius vermicularis ova - ovoid in shape with one side flattened. The embryo is separated from the shell by a clear space. Trichomonas vaginalis - is considered an important factor in the etiology of carcinoma of the bladder. The ova are elongated and are 60 X 160 microns. They are a yellowish color, slightly transparent, and possess a delicate terminal spine. Schistosoma haematobium ova - have a characteristic oval body with a long thin tail and are 50 microns in length. Sperm - are highly motile, measuring 8 - 15 microns with a characteristic pear shape. They possess multiple anterior flagella and the nucleus is often apparent.
Enterobius vermicularis ova - ovoid in shape with one side flattened. The embryo is separated from the shell by a clear space.
A technologist performed urine microscopic testing on a patient who submitted a urine sample following strenuous exercising. Which of the following casts is most likely to be found in this urine sample? Hyaline casts White cell casts Granular casts Waxy casts
Hayline cast
The gel electrophoresis pattern for hemoglobin S (HbS) shows which of the following migration patterns? HbS migrates alone in alkaline and with HbD in acid electrophoresis. HbS migrates with HbD in alkaline and with HbA in acid electrophoresis. HbS migrates with HbD in alkaline and alone in acid electrophoresis. HbS migrates with HbA in alkaline and HbD in acid electrophoresis.
HbS migrates with HbD in alkaline and alone in acid electrophoresis.
The laboratory compliance plan states that an employee can be disciplined for violating laws and compliance policies up to and including: Verbal warning Written notice Disciplinary probation Immediate termination
Immediate termination
Which of the following is a common cause of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions? Bacterial contamination of the blood Antibody to a platelet antigen Reaction to plasma proteins Immune response to leukocytes
Immune response to leukocytes
All of the following are laboratory findings in cases of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) EXCEPT: Thrombocytopenia Increased serum bilirubin Decreased haptoglobin Increased uric acid
Increased uric acid
Which of the following is necessary for the absorption of Vitamin B12: Intrinsic factor Folic acid Gastrin Insulin
Intrinsic factor
All of the following are causes of hypernatremia EXCEPT: Excess water loss Low aldosterone production Decreased water intake Increased sodium intake or retention
Low aldosterone production
The following results correlate with which of the following myelodysplastic syndromes?2 cyotpenias in the peripheral blood11% blasts in the peripheral blood18% blasts in the bone marrowAuer rods present MDS-EB-2 MDS-SLD MDS-MLD MDS-U
MDS-EB-2
Antigen processing is primarily accomplished by what type of cells? Basophils Eosinophils Polymorphonuclear neutrophils Macrophages
Macrophages
A cause of FALSE-POSITIVE result in the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test for syphilis is: Gastroenteritis Gonococcal urethritis Malaria Streptococcal pharyngitis
Malaria
A track star was in the locker room after a competition when one of his teammates noticed light brown circular lesions on his upper back. The agent MOST likely responsible for this condition is: Candida albicans Tinea versicolor Sporobolomyces spp. Malassezia furfur
Malassezia furfur
All of the following are advantages of performing the computer crossmatch EXCEPT? Greater flexibility in staffing One determination of recipient's ABO group is made Better management of blood bank inventory Reduced volume of sample needed on large crossmatch orders
One determination of recipient's ABO group is made
How should an ammonia specimen be transported to prevent alteration of the ammonia level in the blood plasma? Wrap it in a heel warmer so it can be transported above 37° C. Place it into a container on top of a block of ice. Protect it from light. Place it into an ice slurry.
Place it into an ice slurry.
The colonies illustrated in the photograph on the surface of an anaerobic blood agar plate are relatively small, measuring 1 - 2 mm in diameter, round, smooth with a shiny surface, and are non-hemolytic. The Gram stain photomicrograph reveals small Gram-positive bacilli in short chains and loose diphtheroidal-like clusters. The indole reaction was found to be strongly positive. This isolate is part of the normal flora of the skin, nasopharynx, oral cavity, and gastrointestinal and urinary tracts. It is commonly recovered as a contaminant from blood cultures, but on occasion may be the cause of skin and shunt infections. From these observations, select the presumptive identification of this isolate. Bifidobacterium species Clostridium septicum Actinomyces israelii Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes
Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes
Illustrated in the photograph to the right is the growth of bacterial colonies on blood and MacConkey agars. The media on the bottom left with the red pigmentation on MacConkey agar indicates lactose fermentation. Note the colonies on the sorbitol MacConkey agar plate on the right, which are growing non-pigmented, gray-white colonies. The isolate presented in this exercise is representative of the bacterial species that have been recovered from stool specimens in several outbreaks of patients with diarrhea following ingestion of contaminated ground beef. Which of the following is the identification of this isolate? The correct answer is highlighted below Shigella dysenteriae Escherichia coli Enterohemorhragic E.coli (EHEC) Klebsiella aerogenes
Enterohemorhragic E.coli (EHEC)