Test #6 Immunology
Which condition is an early manifestation of HIV encephalopathy?
Early manifestations of HIV encephalopathy include headache, memory deficits, difficulty concentrating, progressive confusion, psychomotor slowing, apathy, and ataxia. Later stages include hyperreflexia, a vacant stare, and hallucinations.
The nursing instructor is discussing the development of human immunodeficiency disease (HIV) with the students. What should the instructor inform the class about helper T cells?
Helper T cells are activated on recognition of antigens and stimulate the rest of the immune system.
A patient has enlarged lymph nodes in his neck and a sore throat. This inflammatory response is an example of a cellular immune response whereby:
Lymphocytes migrate to areas of the lymph node
This type of T lymphocyte is responsible for altering the cell membrane and initiating cellular lysis. Choose the T lymphocyte.
The cytotoxic T cells (also known as killer T cells) attack the antigen directly and release cytotoxic enzymes and cytokines.
What treatment option does the nurse anticipate for the patient with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)?
Treatment options for SCID include stem cell and bone marrow transplantation.
Which body substance causes increased gastric secretion, dilation of capillaries, and constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle?
Histamine When cells are damaged, histamine is released. Bradykinin is a polypeptide that stimulates nerve fibers and causes pain. Serotonin is a chemical mediator that acts as a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor. Prostaglandins are unsaturated fatty acids that have a wide assortment of biologic activities
The nurse is gathering data from laboratory studies for a client who has HIV. The clients T4-cell count is 200/mm³, and the client has been diagnosed with pneumocystis pneumonia. What does this indicate to the nurse?
AIDS is the end stage of HIV infection. Certain events establish the conversion of HIV infection to AIDS: a markedly decreased T4 cell count from a normal level of 800 to 1200/mm³ and the development of certain cancers and opportunistic infections. The client does not have advanced HIV; they meet the criteria for the development of AIDS. The T4-cell count is not decreasing due to an infection
A female client comes to the clinic and tells the nurse, "I think I have another vaginal infection and I also have some wart like lesions on my vagina. This is happening quite often." What should the nurse consult with the physician regarding?
Abnormal results of Papanicolaou tests, genital warts, pelvic inflammatory disease, and persistent vaginitis may correlate with HIV infection. Wearing cotton underwear can help with the prevention of candidiasis but does not address the recurrent vaginal infection that may not be caused by a fungus. Abstaining from sexual intercourse does not address the recurrent vaginal infection. A medicated douche can alter the normal flora of the vaginal wall.
The nurse practitioner treating a patient with allergic rhinitis decides pharmacologic therapy would be helpful. Which of the following is she most likely to prescribe?
Allegra is the only antihistamine choice. Sudafed and Afrin are over-the-counter, and Rhinocort is a corticosteroid
Which allergic reaction is potentially life threatening?
Angioedema is potentially life threatening. Medical management would include intubation, subcutaneous epinephrine, and aminophylline in severe reactions.
An older adult has developed a sacral pressure ulcer. What should the nurse assess in order to ensure adequate wound healing and prevent poor outcomes for this patient?
Nutritional status Caloric intake Quality of food ingested
The nurse completes a history and physical assessment on a patient with AIDS who was admitted to the hospital with respiratory complications. The nurse knows to assess for the most common infection in persons with AIDS (80% occurrence). This is
Pneumocystic pneumonia (PCP) is one of the first and most common opportunistic infections associated with AIDS. It may be present despite the absence of crackles. If untreated, PCP progresses to cause significant pulmonary impairment and respiratory failure.
A client is prescribed antihistamines, and asks the nurse about administration and adverse effects. The nurse should advise the client to avoid:
The nurse should advise a client taking antihistamines not to take it with alcohol or other central nervous system depressants because additive sedative effects can occur.
A male patient has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for HIV infection. The patient asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood, this indicates what?
The patient has been infected with HIV. Positive test results indicate that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood, HIV is probably active in the body, the patient does not necessarily have AIDS, the patient is not immune to AIDS, and the patient may not necessarily get AIDS in the future. The patient is not immune to HIV, and the patient may not have unprotected intercourse.
A client has begun sensitivity testing to determine the allergen which caused an anaphylactic reaction 3 weeks ago. In scratch testing, which part of the body is more sensitive to allergens?
back. The scratch or prick test involves scratching the skin and applying a small amount of the liquid test antigen to the scratch. The tester applies one allergen per scratch over the client's forearm, upper arm, or back. The back is more sensitive than the arms.
A client is prescribed didanosine (Videx) as part of his highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). Which instruction would the nurse emphasize with this client?
"Be sure to take this drug about 1/2 hour before or 2 hours after you eat." Didanosine should be taken 30 to 60 minutes before or 2 hours after meals. Other antiretroviral agents, such as abacavir, emtricitabine, or lamivudine can be taken without regard to meals. High-fat meals should be avoided when taking amprenavir. Atazanavir should be taken with food and not with antacids
When obtaining a health history from a patient with possible abnormal immune function, what question would be a priority for the nurse to ask?
"Have you ever received a blood transfusion?" A history of blood transfusions is obtained, because previous exposure to foreign antigens through transfusion may be associated with abnormal immune function.
A client reports to a physician's office for intradermal allergy testing. Before testing, the nurse provides client teaching. Which client statement indicates a need for further education?
"If I notice tingling in my lips or mouth, gargling may help the symptoms."
The nurse receives a phone call at the clinic from the family of a patient with AIDS. They state that the patient started "acting funny" after complaining of headache, tiredness, and a stiff neck. Checking the temperature resulted in a fever of 103.2°F. What should the nurse inform the family member?
A fungal infection, Cryptococcus neoformans is another common opportunistic infection among patients with AIDS, and it causes neurologic disease. Cryptococcal meningitis is characterized by symptoms such as fever, headache, malaise, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, mental status changes, and seizures.
Which of the following cell types are involved in humoral immunity?
B lymphocytes B lymphocytes are involved in the humoral immune response. T lymphocytes are involved in cellular immunity.
Which of the following cell types are involved in humoral immunity?
B lymphocytes are involved in the humoral immune response. T lymphocytes are involved in cellular immunity.
What treatment option does the nurse anticipate for the patient with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)?
Bone marrow transplantation
The nurse is administering a sympathomimetic drug to a patient. What areas of concern does the nurse have when administering this drug?
Causes bronchodilation Constricts integumentary smooth muscle Dilates the muscular vasculature The patient must be aware of the effects caused by overuse of the sympathomimetic agents in nose drops or sprays, because a condition referred to as rhinitis medicamentosa may result. After topical application of the medication, a rebound period occurs in which the nasal mucous membranes become more edematous and congested than they were before the medication was used.
Which of the following is considered the most serious manifestation of angioneurotic edema?
Diffuse swelling can affect many regions: lips, eyelids, cheeks, hands, feet, genitalia, tongue, larynx, bronchi, and the gastrointestinal canal. The most serious is the larynx because of the potential for compromised breathing.
The nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a hospitalized client who states that he has a latex allergy. The nurse notes that the skin of the client's hands is dry, thick, and cracked. The nurse documents the client's reaction to latex as which condition?
Dry, thickened, and cracked skin is a symptom of a chronic irritant contact dermatitis, a common reaction to latex. Symptoms of allergic contact dermatitis in reaction to latex include pruritus, swelling, crusting and thickened skin, blisters, and other lesions. Symptoms of latex allergy include rhinitis, flushing, urticaria, laryngeal edema, bronchospasms, asthma, and cardiovascular collapse.
A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to a dose of penicillin. What should the nurse look for in the patient's initial assessment?
Dyspnea, bronchospasm, and/or laryngeal edema.
Which blood test confirms the presence of antibodies to HIV?
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) ELISA and Western blotting identify and confirm the presence of antibodies to HIV. ESR is an indicator of the presence of inflammation in the body. The p24 antigen test is a blood test that measures viral core protein. Reverse transcriptase is not a blood test. Rather, it is an enzyme that transforms single-stranded RNA into double-stranded DNA.
While caring for a patient with pneumocystis pneumonia, the nurse assesses flat, purplish lesions on the back and trunk. What does the nurse suspect these lesions indicate?
Kaposi's sarcoma, the most common HIV-related malignancy, is a disease that involves the endothelial layer of blood and lymphatic vessels. Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestation of HIV; they can appear anywhere on the body and are usually brownish pink to deep purple. They may be flat or raised and surrounded by ecchymoses (hemorrhagic patches) and edema (Fig. 37-3).
T-cell deficiency occurs when which gland fails to develop normally during embryogenesis?
Thymus
The nurse practitioner who is monitoring the patient's progression of HIV is aware that the most debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS patients is:
Chronic diarrhea is believed related to the direct effect of HIV on cells lining the intestine. Although all gastrointestinal manifestations of AIDS can be debilitating, the most devastating is chronic diarrhea. It can cause profound weight loss and severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
Immunoglobulins (also known as antibodies) promote the destruction of invading cells in various ways, using different mechanisms. Which mechanism is used by immunoglobulins to destroy pathogenic antigens?
Immunoglobulins bind with antigens and promote the destruction of invading cells in one of two ways. First, immunoglobulins may hinder antigens physically by (1) neutralizing their toxins; (2) linking them together in a process called agglutination and (3) causing them to precipitate, or become solid. Second, antibodies can facilitate the destruction of antigens with other mechanisms; for example, those performed by nonantibody proteins such as the complement system and cytokines
Which of the following is considered the most serious manifestation of angioneurotic edema?
Laryngeal swelling. Diffuse swelling can affect many regions: lips, eyelids, cheeks, hands, feet, genitalia, tongue, larynx, bronchi, and the gastrointestinal canal. The most serious is the larynx because of the potential for compromised breathing.
During assessment of a patient with Kaposi's sarcoma, the nurse knows to look for the initial sign of
Localized cutaneous lesions may be the first manifestation of this HIV-related malignancy, which appears in 90% of patients as immune function deteriorates. Other symptoms develop over time as the lesions increase in size and spread to other locations.
HIV is harbored within which type of cell?
Lymphocyte. Because HIV is harbored within lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, any exposure to infected blood results in significant risk of infection. HIV infection is not harbored in platelets, erythrocytes, or nerve cells.
The nurse is aware that the phagocytic immune response, one of the body's responses to invasion, involves the ability of cells to ingest foreign particles. Which of the following engulfs and destroys invading agents?
Macrophages move toward the antigen and destroy it. Eosinophils are only slightly phagocytic.
A client comes in to get an EIA test done because the physician suspects AIDS. Which nursing action is essential before an EIA test is performed?
Obtaining a general consent for medical care from the client, Separate written consent for HIV testing should not be required; general consent for medical care should be considered sufficient to encompass consent for HIV testing. Western blotting is performed if the results of the EIA test are positive. A polymerase chain reaction test, which measures viral loads, is used if diagnosis is confirmed as positive
The nurse completes a history and physical assessment on a patient with AIDS who was admitted to the hospital with respiratory complications. The nurse knows to assess for the most common infection in persons with AIDS (80% occurrence). This is:
Pneumocystic pneumonia (PCP) is one of the first and most common opportunistic infections associated with AIDS. It may be present despite the absence of crackles. If untreated, PCP progresses to cause significant pulmonary impairment and respiratory failure.
Which condition is associated with impaired immunity relating to the aging client?
Renal function decreases
Nursing students are reviewing the pathophysiology of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). They demonstrate understanding of the information when they state which of the following as containing the genetic viral material?
Ribonucleic acid (RNA). HIV is a retrovirus that carries its genetic material in the form of RNA rather than DNA. HIV consists of a viral core containing the viral RNA, surrounded by an envelope consisting of protruding glycoproteins.
A client will be having a hysterectomy and wants her daughter to provide directed donor blood. What factor would eliminate her daughter from donating the blood?
The donor must be at least 17 years of age, weigh 110 lb. or more, and test negative for HIV; and the client's physician must be informed of the procedure.
A client with a history of IV drug use is HIV-positive. The client has been following an antiretroviral medication regimen faithfully and is doing well, attending college to get a social work degree, and focused on a bright future. In regular CD counts, what factor will indicate that this client has progressed from HIV to AIDS?
A CD (T-cell) count of less than 500/mm indicates immune suppression; a CD (T-cell) count of 200/mm or less is an indicator of AIDS.
An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack the antigen directly by altering the cell membrane and causing cell lysis. Which cells should be isolated?
Cytotoxic T cells (killer T cells) attack the antigen directly by altering the cell membrane and causing cell lysis (disintegration) and by releasing cytolytic enzymes and cytokines. Lymphokines can recruit, activate, and regulate other lymphocytes and white blood cells. These cells then assist in destroying the invading organism
A nurse is implementing appropriate infection control precautions for a client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The nurse demonstrates a need for a review of transmission routes by identifying which body fluid as a means of transmission?
HIV is transmitted in body fluids that contain free virions and infected CD4+ T cells. These fluids include blood, seminal fluid, vaginal secretions, amniotic fluid, and breast milk. Urine is not a body fluid responsible for HIV transmission.
A client on antiretroviral drug therapy admits to skipping medication doses, sometimes for days at a time. What can occur when medications are not taken as prescribed?
The client is risking the development of drug resistance and drug failure. Clients who neglect to take antiretroviral drugs as prescribed risk development of drug resistance. When drug levels are not adequately maintained, viral replication and mutations increase. Funding will not cease for noncompliance. The medications are not all available in IV form.
A client has discussed therapy for HIV-positive status. The goal of antiretroviral therapy is to:
The goal of antiretroviral therapy is to keep the CD4 cell count above 350/mm3 and bring the viral load to a virtually undetectable level. This level is no more than 500 or 50 copies, depending on the sensitivity of the selected viral load test. It is not possible to reverse the status to a negative, and it cannot eliminate the risk of AIDS but can help with prolonging the asymptomatic stage of HIV. Antiretroviral therapy does not treat mycobacterium avium complex.
What types of cells are the primary targets of the healthy immune system? Select all that apply.
The immune system's primary targets are infectious, foreign, or cancerous cells.
A client has been diagnosed with AIDS and tuberculosis (TB). A nursing student asks the nurse why the client's skin test for TB is negative if the client's physician has diagnosed TB. The nurse's correct reply is which of the following?
The inflammatory response is a major function of the immune system that is elicited in response to invading foreign material. A person with AIDS has a poorly functioning or non-functioning immune system that will not respond to the injected skin test. Any TB organisms should cause a reaction to the skin test in people with intact immune systems. The nurse cannot accurately speculate on how the skin test was performed or that the solution was outdated.
A patient with HIV develops a nonproductive cough, shortness of breath, a fever of 101°F and an O2 saturation of 92%. What infection caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci does the nurse know could occur with this patient
The most common life-threatening infection in those living with AIDS is Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), caused by P. jiroveci (formerly P. carinii) (Durham & Lashley, 2010). Without prophylactic therapy (discussed later), most people infected with HIV will develop PCP. The clinical presentation of PCP in HIV infection is generally less acute than in people who are immunosuppressed as a result of other conditions. Patients with HIV infection initially develop nonspecific signs and symptoms, such as nonproductive cough, fever, chills, shortness of breath, dyspnea, and occasionally chest pain. Arterial oxygen concentrations in patients who are breathing room air may be mildly decreased, indicating minimal hypoxemia.
A client undergoing a skin test has been intradermally injected with a disease-specific antigen on the inner forearm. The client becomes anxious because the area begins to swell. What advice should the nurse give to calm the client?
The nurse should assure the client that this is a normal reaction. When disease-specific antigens are injected, the injection area swells as a result of the client developing antibodies against the antigen introduced. The nurse should also keep in mind that the client is not necessarily actively infectious if the test results are positive.
Which option should the nurse encourage to replace fluid and electrolyte losses in a client with AIDS?
The nurse should encourage clients with AIDS to consume liquids in order to help replace fluid and electrolyte losses. Gluten and sucrose may increase the complication of malabsorption. Large doses of iron and zinc should be avoided because they can impair immune function.
A client is prescribed an oral corticosteroid for 2 weeks to relieve asthma symptoms. The nurse educates the client about side effects, which include
The nurse should instruct the client that side effects of oral corticosteroid therapy include adrenal suppression, fluid retention, weight gain, glucose intolerance, hypertension, and gastric irritation.
Which statement accurately reflects current stem cell research?
The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body's entire supply of both red and white cells. Stem cells comprise only a small portion of all types of bone marrow cells. Research conducted with mouse models has demonstrated that once the immune system has been destroyed experimentally, it can be completely restored with the implantation of just a few purified stem cells. Stem cell transplantation has been carried out in human subjects with certain types of immune dysfunction, such as severe combined immunodeficiency. Clinical trails are underway in clients with a variety of disorders with an autoimmune component, including systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, and multiple sclerosis.
A client has undergone diagnostic testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) using the enzyme immunoassay (EIA) test. The results are positive and the nurse prepares the client for additional testing to confirm seropositivity. The nurse would prepare the client for which test?
Western blot assay A positive EIA test indicates seropositivity. To confirm this, a Western blot assay would be done. The OraSure test uses saliva to perform an EIA test. The p24 antigen test and nucleic acid sequence-based amplification test are used to test viral load and evaluate response to treatment. However, the reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) and nucleic acid sequence-based tests have replaced the p24 antigen test. The RT-PCR tests may be used to confirm a positive EIA result.
A client has ankylosing spondylitis (AS), an inflammatory joint disease.The client has been receiving treatment for AS since the age of 14 years. In addition to having AS, the client has recently developed primary immune deficiency disorder and receives immunoglobulin infusions weekly. Which type of immunity develops from receiving immunoglobulin treatments?
passive immunity Passive immunity develops when ready-made antibodies are given to a susceptible person. Ready-made antibodies are obtained from the serum of another organism, either animal or human. Immune serum globulin, also called gamma globulin or immunoglobulin, is recovered from pooled human plasma.
A client is having an allergic response to an unknown allergen. Which body structures are primarily involved in allergic reactions? Select all that apply.
gastrointestinal tract skin Organs and structures that are primarily involved in allergic reactions include the skin, respiratory passageways, gastrointestinal tract, blood, and vascular system.
A client is distressed and frustrated reporting severe, ongoing fatigue that doesn't subside with rest. The nurse explains that chronic fatigue syndrome results from:
immune system dysregulation. a combination of immune defects and viral assaults. impaired activation of three neuroendocrine structures: the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal gland
A client is distressed and frustrated reporting severe, ongoing fatigue that doesn't subside with rest. The nurse explains that chronic fatigue syndrome results from:
immune system dysregulation. a combination of immune defects and viral assaults. impaired activation of three neuroendocrine structures: the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal glands.
A 10-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance in apparent anaphylaxis after accidentally eating a snack bar that contained peanuts. The ED nurse should be aware that this patient's signs and symptoms are attributable to:
A massive release of histamine
An infant is born to a mother who had no prenatal care during her pregnancy. What type of hypersensitivity reaction does the nurse understand may have occurred?
A type II hypersensitivity, or cytotoxic, reaction, which involves binding either the IgG or IgM antibody to a cell-bound antigen, may lead to eventual cell and tissue damage. The reaction is the result of mistaken identity when the system identifies a normal constituent of the body as foreign and activates the complement cascade. Examples of type II reactions are myasthenia gravis, Goodpasture syndrome, pernicious anemia, hemolytic disease of the newborn, transfusion reaction, and thrombocytopenia.
A mother has come to the emergency department (ED) with her 2-year-old who appears to be having a hypersensitivity reaction. The ED nurse knows that a hypersensitivity reaction may be characterized by an immediate reaction beginning within minutes of exposure to an antigen. What condition is an example of such a reaction?
Anaphylactic reaction immediately following a bee sting Anaphylactic (type I) hypersensitivity is an immediate reaction mediated by IgE antibodies and requires previous exposure to the specific antigen. Type II reactions, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, occur when the system mistakenly identifies a normal constituent of the body as foreign. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs as the result of two factors, the increased amount of circulating complexes and the presence of vasoactive amines. Type IV, or delayed-type hypersensitivity, occurs 24 to 72 hours after exposure to an allergen and is mediated by sensitized T-cells and macrophages.
Immunoglobulins (also known as antibodies) promote the destruction of invading cells in various ways, using different mechanisms. Which mechanism is used by immunoglobulins to destroy pathogenic antigens?
Immunoglobulins bind with antigens and promote the destruction of invading cells in one of two ways. First, immunoglobulins may hinder antigens physically by (1) neutralizing their toxins; (2) linking them together in a process called agglutination and (3) causing them to precipitate, or become solid. Second, antibodies can facilitate the destruction of antigens with other mechanisms; for example, those performed by nonantibody proteins such as the complement system and cytokines.
A patient in the clinic states, "My boyfriend told me he went to the clinic and was treated for gonorrhea." While testing for the sexually transmitted infection (STI), what else should be done for this patient?
Inform the patient that it would be beneficial to test for HIV. HIV screening is recommended for all persons who seek evaluation and treatment for STIs. HIV testing must be voluntary and free of coercion. Patients must not be tested without their knowledge. HIV screening after notifying the patient that an HIV test will be performed (unless the patient declines) is recommended in all health care settings. Specific signed consent for HIV testing should not be required. In most settings, general informed consent for medical care is considered sufficient.
The body has several mechanisms to fight disease, one of which is sending chemical messengers. The messengers released by lymphocytes, monocytes, and macrophages have differing roles in the immune response. Which messenger enables cells to resist viral replication and slow viral replication?
Interferons are chemicals that primarily protect cells from viral invasion. They enable cells to resist viral infection and slow viral replication. They have been used as adjunctive therapy in the treatment of AIDS. Interferons also have been used to treat some forms of cancer such as leukemia because they stimulate NK cell activity. Interferon is administered parenterally because digestive enzymes destroy its protein structure.
After teaching a client how to self-administer epinephrine, the nurse determines that the teaching plan has been successful when the client demonstrates which of the following?
Jabs the autoinjector into the outer thigh at a 90-degree angle. To self-administer epinephrine, the client should remove the autoinjector from its carrying tube, grasp the unit with the black tip (injectiing end) pointed downward, form a fist around the device, and remove the gray safety release cap. Then the client should hold the black tip near the outer thigh and swing and jab firmly into the outer thigh at a 90-degree angle until a click is heard. Next, the client should hold the device firmly in place for about 10 seconds, remove the device, and massage the site for about 10 seconds.
A 20-year-old client cut a hand while replacing a window. While reviewing the complete blood count (CBC) with differential, the nurse would expect which cell type to be elevated first in an attempt to prevent infection in the client's hand?
Neutrophils (polymorphonuclear leukocytes [PMNs]) are the first cells to arrive at the site where inflammation occurs. Eosinophils and basophils, other types of granulocytes, increase in number during allergic reactions and stress responses.
The parents of a 3-year-old boy have just been informed that allergy testing suggests their son has multiple food allergies. When providing health education for this family, what subject should the nurse prioritize?
Possible sources of food allergens and strategies for avoiding offending foods A teaching priority for individuals with food allergies surrounds the accurate identification and avoidance of possible allergens. Coping strategies are also likely relevant but avoiding allergens is a priority. Antihistamine use is secondary, and alternative nutritional delivery systems are almost never indicated.
Which of the following disorders is characterized by an increased autoantibody production?
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) SLE is an immunoregulatory disturbance that results in increased autoantibody production. Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death. Rheumatoid arthritis results from an autoimmune response in the synovial tissue, with damage taking place in body joints. In polymyalgia rheumatic, immunoglobulin is deposited in the walls of inflamed temporal arteries.
A middle-aged woman will soon begin treatment for a gastric tumor that has just been discovered by endoscopy. The woman's natural killer (NK) cells are already actively opposing the tumor cells, because the tumor cells lack "self" markers of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I. This aspect of the patient's immune response is characteristic of:
The action of NK cells is a component of natural immunity.
The nurse is talking with a group of teens about transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What body fluids does the nurse inform them will transmit the virus? Select all that apply.
There are only four known body fluids through which HIV is transmitted: blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. HIV may be present in saliva, tears, and conjunctival secretions, but transmission of HIV through these fluids has not been implicated. HIV is not found in urine, stool, vomit, or sweat.
Which body substance causes increased gastric secretion, dilation of capillaries, and constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle?
When cells are damaged, histamine is released. Bradykinin is a polypeptide that stimulates nerve fibers and causes pain. Serotonin is a chemical mediator that acts as a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor. Prostaglandins are unsaturated fatty acids that have a wide assortment of biologic activities.
Lymphoid tissues, which perform a function within the immune response, are found throughout the body. While the thymus gland, tonsils and adenoids, spleen, and lymph nodes are lymphoid tissues, where else in the body can lymphoid tissues be found? Select all that apply.
intestines lungs
