Unit 4 Questions Ch 17-20 combined

antigens presented with MHC I molecules

Cytotoxic T cells will bind with their TCR to which of the following? antigens presented with MHC I molecules antigens presented with MHC II molecules free antigen in a soluble form haptens only

cell membrane

Defensins target which process or structure of a microbial cell? cell membrane cell wall DNA synthesis protein synthesis

macrophage

Kupffer cells residing in the liver are a type of ________.

dryness, Keratin, many layers of cells, pH

List factors of skin that help prevent infection

neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils, dendritic cells

List the phagocytic cells

chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, elimination

List the steps of phagocytosis in order

processed foreign antigens from proteasomes.

MHC I molecules present: processed foreign antigens from proteasomes. processed self-antigens from phagolysosome. antibodies. T cell antigens.

β2 microglobulin

MHC II molecules are made up of two subunits (α and β) of approximately equal size, whereas MHC I molecules consist of a larger α subunit and a smaller subunit called ________.

processed foreign antigens from phagolysosomes.

MHC II molecules present: processed self-antigens from proteasomes. processed foreign antigens from phagolysosomes. antibodies. T cell receptors.

presentation

MHC molecules are used for antigen ________ to T cells.

CD8+ cytotoxic T cell

A cell that has been infected with an intracellular pathogen will be targeted for destruction by which type of lymphocyte? B cell CD4+ regulatory T cell CD8+ cytotoxic T cell plasma cell

variable

A TCR is a protein dimer embedded in the plasma membrane of a T cell. The ________ region of each of the two protein chains is what gives it the capability to bind to a presented antigen.

cytotoxic

A ________ T cell will become activated by presentation of foreign antigen associated with an MHC I molecule.

helper

A ________ T cell will become activated by presentation of foreign antigen in association with an MHC II molecule.

preventative

A ________ cancer vaccine is one that stops the disease from occurring in the first place.

theraputic

A ________ cancer vaccine is one that will help to treat the disease after it has occurred.

cluster of differentiation

A ________ molecule is a glycoprotein used to identify and distinguish white blood cells. T-cell receptor B-cell receptor MHC I cluster of differentiation

memory

Both ________ and effector T cells are produced during differentiation of activated T cells.

classical only

Which complement cascade begins with antibodies binding to a pathogen? alternative only classical only lectin only all three pathways (alternative, classic, and lectin)

paracrine

Which is the best term to describe the process that occurs when an immune cell releases cytokines to nearby cells to trigger a response? autocrine endocrine hormonal paracrine

epitope

Which molecular fragment on an antigen molecule do antibodies recognize and respond to? epitope Fab region Fc region variable region

antibodies

Which of the following are the main mediators/initiators of type II hypersensitivity reactions? A. antibodies B. mast cells C. erythrocytes D. histamines

agglutination

Which process describes the cross-linking of pathogens by antibodies so the kidney and spleen can filter them from the blood? agglutination complementation neutralization transformation

perforin

Which protein released by CD8+ cytotoxic T cells generates pores in target cells? granzyme hyaluronidase perforin phospholipase

edema

Which refers to swelling as a result of inflammation? erythema edema granuloma vasodilation

the viral hemagglutination inhibition assay

Which test can be used to determine titers of antiviral antibodies in a patient's serum? the Coombs test the cross-matching test the direct hemagglutination assay the viral hemagglutination inhibition assay

Precipitation test

Which test would yield a positive result that looks like a cloudy white line?

MHC I

Which type of antigen-presenting molecule is found on all nucleated cells? MHC II MHC I antibodies B-cell receptors

MHC II

Which type of antigen-presenting molecule is found only on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells? MHC I MHC II T-cell receptors B-cell receptors

acute

Which type of inflammation occurs at the site of an injury or infection? acute chronic endogenous exogenous

Attenuated whole agent vaccine

Which type of vaccine could cause the disease it is trying to prevent?

toxoid

Which vaccine would be most protective against diphtheria? conjugate inactivated live attenuated toxoid

conjugate

Which vaccine would be most protective against the capsule-forming pathogen Neisseria meningitis? conjugate inactivated live attenuate toxoid

leukocytes

White blood cells are also referred to as which of the following? platelets erythrocytes leukocytes megakaryocytes

cilia

______ are the hair-like appendages of cells lining parts of the respiratory tract that sweep debris away from the lungs.

T-dependent

________ antigens can stimulate B cells to become activated but require cytokine assistance delivered by helper T cells.

bacteriocins

________ are antimicrobial peptides produced by members of the normal microbiota.

Humoral

________ immunity involves the production of antibody molecules that bind to specific antigens.

Artificial passive

________ immunity occurs when antibodies from one individual are harvested and given to another to protect against disease or treat active disease.

plasma

________ is the fluid portion of a blood sample that has been drawn in the presence of an anticoagulant compound.

PRRs

________ on phagocytes bind to PAMPs on bacteria, which triggers the uptake and destruction of the bacterial pathogens? PRRs AMPs PAMPs PMNs

extravasation

________, also known as diapedesis, refers to the exit from the bloodstream of neutrophils and other circulating leukocytes.

mast cells

_____________ are similar to basophils, but reside in tissues rather than circulating in the blood.

any microbe that can make the body ill

a pathogen is

polysaccharides, glycoprotein, protein, & lipids

an antigen is made of

body makes antibodies against its own cells-3rd line of defense in own body

an autoimmune disease occurs when

can mark a pathogen for opsonization that find and attach to antigens are made of specific WBCs

antibodies are usually proteins that

b cells macrophages dendritic cells

antigen presenting cells are...

nope, they attach to specific antigen determinants

can any antibody find, attach to, and destroy any pathogen

classical pathway

complement activation that results from antigen-antibody reactions

a normally harmless substance initiates an immune response

how do allergies relate to the immune system

variolation

material injected to induce immunity

intact skin & mucous membranes

the "first line of defense" is

immune response by cells & chemicals

the "second line of defense" is

prevent & respond to substances that can upset homeostasis

the purpose of the immune system is to

isograft

transplant between identical twins

a weakened or dead sample of the pathogen into a person

vaccines stimulate active immunity and antibodies by introducing

block fever

vaccinia viruses, including smallpox, have receptors that bind to interleukin-1 and prevent its activity in the body, therefore an infection caused by these viruses would be expected to_______

pathogen

PAMPs would be found on the surface of which of the following? pathogen phagocyte skin cell blood vessel wall

neutrophils

PMNs are another name for ________.

CD8 cells make up about one-fourth of the total number of cells.

Suppose you need to quantify the level of CD8 T cells in the blood of a patient recovering from influenza. You treat a sample of the patient's white blood cells using a fluorescent mAb against CD8, pass the cells through a flow cytometer, and produce the histogram shown below. The area under the peak to the left (blue) is three times greater than the area of the peak on the right (red). What can you determine from these data There are no detectable CD8 cells. There are three times as many CD4 cells than CD8 cells. There are three times as many CD8 cells than CD4 cells. CD8 cells make up about one-fourth of the total number of cells.

IgA

What class of antibodies is secreted in breast milk?

a protein that activates T cells in a nonspecific and uncontrolled manner

What is a superantigen? a protein that is highly efficient at stimulating a single type of productive and specific T cell response a protein produced by antigen-presenting cells to enhance their presentation capabilities a protein produced by T cells as a way of increasing the antigen activation they receive from antigen-presenting cells a protein that activates T cells in a nonspecific and uncontrolled manner

visible accumulation of leukocytes, cell debris, and bacteria at the site of infection

What is pus? a watery, salty liquid that inhibits bacterial growth an oily substance released from sebaceous glands that contributes to defense proteins that are involved in bacterial cell division visible accumulation of leukocytes, cell debris, and bacteria at the site of infection

an oily substance released from sebaceous glands that contributes to defense

What is sebum? a watery, salty liquid that inhibits bacterial growth an oily substance released from sebaceous glands that contributes to defense proteins that are involved in bacterial cell division visible accumulation of leukocytes, cell debris, and bacteria at the site of infection

class II

Which MHC class is mostly likely found on macrophages? class I class II both class I and class II neither class I nor class II

IgG

Which class of antibody is the most abundant in serum? IgA IgE IgG IgM

IgE

Which class of antibody provides protection against parasitic pathogens? IgA IgE IgG IgM

proteins

Which class of molecules is the most antigenic? polysaccharides lipids proteins carbohydrates

xenograft

a graft from another species

True

A typical home pregnancy test is a lateral flow test that detects human chorionic gonadotrophin in urine. True False

immunoglobulins/antibodies and/or complements

Coombs' reagent is an antiserum with antibodies that bind to human ________.

C, A, B, D

.Match each type of vaccine with the corresponding example. ___inactivated vaccine ___live attenuated vaccine ___toxoid vaccine ___subunit vaccine A. Weakened influenza virions that can only replicate in the slightly lower temperatures of the nasal passages are sprayed into the nose. They do not cause serious flu symptoms, but still produce an active infection that induces a protective adaptive immune response. B. Tetanus toxin molecules are harvested and chemically treated to render them harmless. They are then injected into a patient's arm. C. Influenza virus particles grown in chicken eggs are harvested and chemically treated to render them noninfectious. These immunogenic particles are then purified and packaged and administered as an injection. D. The gene for hepatitis B virus surface antigen is inserted into a yeast genome. The modified yeast is grown and the virus protein is produced, harvested, purified, and used in a vaccine.

hapten; allergies

A molecule that is too small to be antigen is known as a(n) ________. These molecules are typically associated with ________. adjuvant; allergies adjuvant; viruses hapten; allergies hapten; viruses

Natural active immunity

A patient gets a cold, and recovers a few days later. The patient's classmates come down with the same cold roughly a week later, but the original patient does not get the same cold again. This is an example of: Natural active immunity Artificial active immunity Natural passive immunity Artificial passive immunity

Artificial passive immunity

A patient is bitten by a dog with confirmed rabies infection. After treating the bite wound, the physician injects the patient with antibodies that are specific for the rabies virus to prevent the development of an active infection. This is an example of: Natural active immunity Artificial active immunity Natural passive immunity Artificial passive immunity

IgM

A person who had a recent infection with a pathogen would have high amounts of which type of antibody in the blood?

epitopes

A single antigen molecule may be composed of many individual ________. T-cell receptors B-cell receptors MHC II epitopes

granuloma

A(n) ________ is a walled-off area of infected tissue that exhibits chronic inflammation.

attenuated

A(n) ________ pathogen is in a weakened state; it is still capable of stimulating an immune response but does not cause a disease.

A-Basophil B-Eosinophil C-Natural Killer Cells D-Macrophage

A. stains with basic dye methylene blue, has large amounts of histamine in granules, and facilitates allergic responses and inflammation B. stains with acidic dye eosin, has histamine and major basic protein in granules, and facilitates responses to protozoa and helminths C. recognizes abnormal cells, binds to them, and releases perforin and granzyme molecules, which induce apoptosis D. large agranular phagocyte that resides in tissues such as the brain and lungs ___eosinophil ___macrophage ___basophil ___natural killer cell

False

After a cell produces alpha-interferon it is protected from viral attack

plasma cells

After antigen presentation and activation, antibodies are produced and secreted by which cells? CD4 T cells memory T cells naïve B cells plasma cells

True

An inherited genetic defect that prevented the production of C3 would be expected to result in greater numbers of microbial infections

plasma cells

Antibodies are produced by ________. plasma cells T cells bone marrow Macrophages

antimicrobial peptides

Bacteriocins and defensins are types of which of the following? leukotrienes cytokines inflammation-eliciting mediators antimicrobial peptides

T Cells

Cellular adaptive immunity is carried out by ________. B cells T cells bone marrow neutrophils

C5a

Chemoattractant for phagocytes

leukocyte

Granulocytes are which type of cell? lymphocyte erythrocyte megakaryocyte leukocyte

erythema

Heat and redness, or ________, occur when the small blood vessels in an inflamed area dilate (open up), bringing more blood much closer to the surface of the skin.

bone marrow

Hematopoiesis occurs in which of the following? liver bone marrow kidneys central nervous system

chemical mediators that promote inflammation

Histamine, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and bradykinin are examples of which of the following? chemical mediators primarily found in the digestive system chemical mediators that promote inflammation antimicrobial peptides found on the skin complement proteins that form MACs

lectin

Identify the complement activation pathway that is triggered by the binding of an acute-phase protein to a pathogen. classical alternate lectin cathelicidin

A. APC produces Il-1

If the following steps of T-h cell activation are put in order, which one would be 3rd? A. APC produces Il-1 B. Th binds to MHC-antigen complex C. Th produces IL2 D. APC places antigen in MHCII E. APC encounters antigen

histamine

Mast cells and basophils release which chemical moderator? defensins histamine interferon leukocidin

A-Natural killer B-Eosinophil C-Neutrophil

Match each cellular defense with the infection it would most likely target. ___natural killer cell A. virus-infected cell ___neutrophil B. tapeworm in the intestines ___eosinophil C. bacteria in a skin lesion

d, e, c, a, b

Match the antibody class with its description. ___IgA ___IgD ___IgE ___IgG ___IgM A. This class of antibody is the only one that can cross the placenta. B. This class of antibody is the first to appear after activation of B cells. C. This class of antibody is involved in the defense against parasitic infections and involved in allergic responses. D. This class of antibody is found in very large amounts in mucus secretions. E. This class of antibody is not secreted by B cells but is expressed on the surface of naïve B cells.

TH2

Name the T helper cell subset involved in antibody production. TH1 TH2 TH17 CTL

Fc region

On an antibody, where do phagocytic cells bind during antibody-mediated opsonization? disulfide bond Fab region Fc region variable region

thymus

Peripheral tolerance mechanisms function on T cells after they mature and exit the ________.

thrombocytes

Platelets are also called ________.

goblet

Secretions that bathe and moisten the interior of the intestines are produced by _______ cells.

thymus

T cells mature in which location? bone marrow testes thymus thyroid

repetitive

T-independent antigens can stimulate B cells to become activated and secrete antibodies without assistance from helper T cells. These antigens possess ________ antigenic epitopes that cross-link BCRs.

True

T/F: Natural killer cells produce perforin

False

T/F: T-dependent antigens are small molecules that must combine with larger molecules to trigger antibodies

hypothalamus

The ________ is the part of the body responsible for regulating body temperature.

pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)

The cell in the bone marrow that gives rise to all other blood cell types is the ________.

constant

The heavy chains of an antibody molecule contain ________ region segments, which help to determine its class or isotype.

peristalsis

The muscular contraction of the intestines that results in movement of material through the digestive tract is called ________.

chemotaxis

The process by which cells are drawn or attracted to an area by a microbe invader is known as ________.

Memory B cells

The secondary immune response relies on which type of cell?

epitopes

The subunits of antigens that trigger unique populations of antibodies are called

antigen-binding

The variable regions of the heavy and light chains form the ________ sites of an antibody.

memory

There are two critically important aspects of adaptive immunity. The first is specificity, while the second is ________.

antigens presented with MHC II molecules

To what does the TCR of a helper T cell bind? antigens presented with MHC I molecules antigens presented with MHC II molecules free antigen in a soluble form haptens only

pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs)

Toll-like receptors are examples of ________.

active artificially acquired

Vaccines are an example of which class of immunity? active artificially acquired active naturally acquired passive artificially acquired passive naturally acquired

A pathogen is first coated with a molecule such as a complement protein, which allows it to be recognized by phagocytes.

Which of the following best characterizes the mode of pathogen recognition for opsonin-dependent phagocytosis? Opsonins produced by a pathogen attract phagocytes through chemotaxis. A PAMP on the pathogen's surface is recognized by a phagocyte's toll-like receptors. A pathogen is first coated with a molecule such as a complement protein, which allows it to be recognized by phagocytes. A pathogen is coated with a molecule such as a complement protein that immediately lyses the cell.

a generalized and nonspecific set of defenses against a class or group of pathogens

Which of the following best describes the innate nonspecific immune system? a targeted and highly specific response to a single pathogen or molecule a generalized and nonspecific set of defenses against a class or group of pathogens a set of barrier mechanisms that adapts to specific pathogens after repeated exposure the production of antibody molecules against pathogens

sebum

Which of the following chemical mediators is secreted onto the surface of the skin? cerumen sebum gastric acid prostaglandin

epidermis

Which of the following constantly sheds dead cells along with any microbes that may be attached to those cells? epidermis dermis hypodermis mucous membrane

hematopoiesis

Which of the following describes the differentiation of stem cells into various blood cells? autopoiesis biopoiesis galactopoiesis hematopoiesis

class switching to IgG

Which of the following does not occur during the lag period of the primary antibody response? activation of helper T cells class switching to IgG presentation of antigen with MHC II binding of antigen to BCRs

D. Destruction of pathogen by Tc Cells

Which of the following is not triggered by antigen-antibody reactions? A. Opsonization B. Neutralization C. Agglutination D. Destruction of pathogen by Tc Cells E. Activation of complement

phagosome

Which of the following is the initial compartment a pathogen enters after being engulfed by a macrophage? inclusion lysosome phagolysosome phagosome

mast cell

Which of the following leukocytes initiates inflammation? eosinophil mast cell monocyte neutrophil

monocyte

Which of the following leukocytes is an agranulocyte? basophil eosinophil monocyte neutrophil

eosinophil

Which of the following leukocytes is used for protection against protozoa and helminths? basophil eosinophil monocyte neutrophil

cytokines

Which of the following serve as chemical signals between cells and stimulate a wide range of nonspecific defenses? cytokines antimicrobial peptides complement proteins antibodies

the blood-brain barrier

Which of the following uses a particularly dense suite of tight junctions to prevent microbes from entering the underlying tissue? the mucociliary escalator the epidermis the blood-brain barrier the urethra

IgD

Which of the following would be a BCR? CD4 MHC II MHC I IgD

protein

Which of the following would be a T-dependent antigen? lipopolysaccharide glycolipid protein carbohydrate

transferrins

during a fever, the body releases iron-binding proteins called

increased vasodilation

during inflammation, redness is a result of _____

antibodies may attack it organ may be rejected organ's surface antigens may be read as foreign

what is a concern when people get an organ transplant

diapedesis (emigration)

when phagocytes squeeze through capillary walls it is termed

getting a vaccine

which of the following confers artificially acquired immunity: A. getting sick B. getting a vaccine C. getting a shot of antibodies (gamma globulin) D. breastfeeding E. none of the above

agglutination

which outcome of antigen-antibody reactions clumps pathogens

Cytotoxic T cells

which type of t cells can cause cell to cell destruction

body learns to make its own antibodies (after an exposure)

you get active immunity when your

antibodies diffuse from mom's blood to fetus blood & your body is given an injection of antibodies

you get passive immunity when

perceived risk, real risk

A father reads on the internet about a woman who claims her child developed autism after receiving the MMR vaccine. This makes the father afraid to have his child vaccinated. Then, the father heard about the result of a study that examined all children born in Denmark from Jan 1991 through Dec 1998. There were a total of 537,303 children in the study: 440,655 of the children were vaccinated with MMR, 96,648 were not. The researchers did not find any higher risk of autism in the vaccinated group than in the unvaccinated group. The father made the decision to have the child vaccinated. The initial fear the parent felt about MMR was the result of _____ _____, while the statistical results from the study on Danish children represented ____ ______.

a fusion of normal B Cell and myeloma cell

A hybridoma is which of the following? a cancerous cell a fusion of a B cell and a T cell a fusion of a normal B cell and a myeloma cell a hybrid of two cancerous cells

B cell with myeloma cell

A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an) antigen with a B cell B cell with a myeloma cell myeloma cell with a virus B cell with a T cell

B

A person who is blood type A would have IgM hemagglutinin antibodies against type ________ red blood cells in their plasma.

epitopes

A polyclonal response to an infection occurs because most antigens have multiple ________.

acquired

A secondary immunodeficiency is ________, rather than genetic.

chronic granulomatous disease

All but which one of the following are examples of secondary immunodeficiencies? A. HIV/AIDS B. malnutrition C. chronic granulomatous disease D. immunosuppression due to measles infection

Transplant rejections

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT0sec transplant rejections dust allergies asthma. penicillin allergic reactions

Sensitized T Cells

Allergic contact dermatitis is due to activated macrophages IgG antibodies. sensitized T cells IgM antibodies

IgG

Allergy shots work by shifting antibody responses to produce ________ antibodies.

a type I sensitivity

An allergy is an example of which of the following? a type I hypersensitivity a type II hypersensitivity a type III hypersensitivity a type IV hypersensitivity

antibody and antigen molecules

An immune complex is an aggregate of which of the following? A. antibody molecules B. antigen molecules C. antibody and antigen molecules D. histamine molecules

IgE

Antibodies involved in type I hypersensitivities are of the ________ class.

graft-versus-host

Because it is a "transplant" that can include APCs and T cells from the donor, a bone marrow transplant may induce a very specific type of rejection known as ________ disease.

loss of cell cycle control

Cancer results when a mutation leads to which of the following? A. cell death B. apoptosis C. loss of cell-cycle control D. shutdown of the cell cycle

hyposensitization therapy

Desensitization treatment is also known by which of the following terms? allografting autoimmunity hyposensitization therapy serum treatment

serology

Diagnostic testing to detect antigens or antibodies in the blood is known as hematology immunology serology cytology

genetic

Diseases due to ________ abnormalities are termed primary immunodeficiencies.

ouchterlony assay

Double immunodiffusion is also known as which of the following? flocculation assay Ouchterlony assay precipitin ring test radial immunodiffusion assay

fragments

Fluorescence in a flow cytometer is measured by a detector set at an angle to the light source. There is also an in-line detector that can detect cell clumps or ________.

MHC

For a transplant to have the best chances of avoiding rejection, the genes coding for the ________ molecules should be closely matched between donor and recipient.

specificity

For many uses in the laboratory, polyclonal antibodies work well, but for some types of assays, they lack sufficient ________ because they cross-react with inappropriate antigens. a. specificity b. sensitivity c. accuracy d. reactivity

Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus AB mother with a B fetus Rh- mother and an A fetus.

Antibody-producing B cells from a mouse are fused with myeloma cells and then the cells are grown in tissue culture.

How are monoclonal antibodies produced? a. Antibody-producing B cells from a mouse are fused with myeloma cells and then the cells are grown in tissue culture. b. A mouse is injected with an antigen and then antibodies are harvested from its serum. c. They are produced by the human immune system as a natural response to an infection. d. They are produced by a mouse's immune system as a natural response to an infection.

a hemolytic transfusion reactio

If someone were accidentally given blood of the wrong type, which of the following is likely to occur? an autoimmune disorder anaphylaxis a hemolytic transfusion reaction a type I hypersensitivity

neutralizing antibodies

If we used normal mouse mAbs to treat human disease, multiple doses would cause the patient to respond with ________ against the mouse antibodies.

the antibody would not be visible even if present

If you performed a direct ELISA but failed to add the chromogen, which of the following would happen? The antibody would be less visible in the wells if present. The antibody would be unable to bind to the antigen. The antibody would detach from the enzyme. The antibody would not be visible even if present.

bacteria in a patient sample

In a direct fluorescent antibody test, which of the following would we most likely be looking for using a fluorescently-labeled mAb? a. bacteria in a patient sample b. bacteria isolated from a patient and grown on agar plates c. antiserum from a patient smeared onto a glass slide d. antiserum from a patient that had bound to antigen-coated beads

negative

In a lateral-flow pregnancy test, you see a blue band form on the control line and no band form on the test line. This is probably a ________ test for pregnancy. a. positive b. false-positive c. false-negative d. negative

is bound to the constant region of the secondary antibody

In an enzyme immunoassay, the enzyme a. is bound by the antibody's antigen-binding site. b. is attached to the well of a microtiter plate. c. is conjugated to the suspect antigen. d. is bound to the constant region of the secondary antibody.

laser

In flow cytometry, cell subsets are labeled using a fluorescent antibody to a membrane protein. The fluorogen is activated by a(n) ________ as the cells pass by the detectors.

Immune complex autoimmunity

In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of cell-mediated autoimmunity immune complex autoimmunity cytotoxic autoimmunity acquired immunodeficiency

graft versus host disease

In some cases, transplanted tissue (such as bone marrow) can produce cytotoxic T cells that attack the host cells of the recipient. Which of the following describes such an attack? a hemolytic transfusion reaction an autograft reaction graft versus host disease transplant rejection

The precipitin lattice is to large to diffuse through the agar

In the Ouchterlony assay, we see a sharp precipitin arc form between antigen and antiserum. Why does this arc remain visible for a long time? a. The antibody molecules are too large to diffuse through the agar. b. The precipitin lattice is too large to diffuse through the agar. c. Methanol, added once the arc forms, denatures the protein and blocks diffusion. d. The antigen molecules are chemically coupled to the gel matrix.

100 times

In the data described in the previous question, the average fluorescence intensity of cells in the second (red) peak is about ________ that in the first (blue) peak. a. three times b. 100 times c. one-third d. 1000 times

patient serum

In the major cross-match, we mix ________ with the donor red blood cells and look for agglutination.

cell lysis (cytotoxicity)

Inflammatory molecules are released by mast cells in type I hypersensitivities; type II hypersensitivities, however, are characterized by which of the following? A. cell lysis (cytotoxicity) B. strong antibody reactions against antigens C. leukotriene release upon stimulation D. localized tissue reactions, such as hives

a single epitope

Monoclonal antibodies bind to which of the following? a single epitope a single hybridoma multiple epitopes variable numbers of epitopes

more than two

Most antigens have how many epitopes? none one two more than two

systemic type III hypersensitivity

Serum sickness is which of the following? systemic type I hypersensitivity systemic type II hypersensitivity systemic type III hypersensitivity systemic type IV hypersensitivity

indirect Elisa

To detect antibodies against bacteria in the bloodstream using an EIA, we would run a(n) ________, which we would start by attaching antigen from the bacteria to the wells of a microtiter plate.

cytokines

Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to antigens cytokines neutrophils IgE antibodies

True

T/F: Herd immunity benefits everyone in a population, even those who are not vaccinated?

False

T/F: If an unvaccinated person got polio today, they would get a very mild case of the disease because vaccination has prevented major polio epidemics in the US for about 40 years?

False

T/F: Vaccines prevent disease because they block processes essential to pathogen reproduction such as synthesis of PTG?

is not making antibodies against antigens outside the ABO or Rh systems

The antibody screening test that is done along with pretransfusion blood typing is used to ensure that the recipient a. does not have a previously undetected bacterial or viral infection. b. is not immunocompromised. c. actually does have the blood type stated in the online chart. d. is not making antibodies against antigens outside the ABO or Rh systems.

Found in basophils and mast cells

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are antigens. antigen-antibody complexes found in basophils and mast cells. Antibodies

Complement fixation

The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to phagocytosis complement fixation antibodies against self. Cytokines

produce antibodies that bind to their own red blood cells

The direct Coombs' test is designed to detect when people have a disease that causes them to a. have an excessively high fever. b. quit making antibodies. c. make too many red blood cells. d. produce antibodies that bind to their own red blood cells.

flocculant

The formation of ________ is a positive result in the VDRL test. a. flocculant b. precipitin c. coagulation d. a bright pink color

IV

The itchy and blistering rash that develops with contact to poison ivy is caused by a type ________ hypersensitivity reaction.

antigen

The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of IgE. antihistamine. antigen. IgG.

false

The production time for monoclonal antibodies is much faster than the production time for polyclonal antibodies. True False

antiserum

The radial immunodiffusion test quantifies antigen by mixing ________ into a gel and then allowing antigen to diffuse out from a well cut in the gel.

the ability to recognize and prevent immune attack on ones own cell

The term immune tolerance means which of the following? becoming sensitized with repeated exposures developing autoimmune disease after repeated exposures having an unusually weak immune response to common antigens the ability to recognize self and prevent immune attack on ones own cell

thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor

The thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin that acts like thyroid-stimulating hormone and causes Graves disease is an antibody to the ________.

that reduces plaque formation by 50%

The titer of a virus neutralization test is the highest dilution of patient serum a. in which there is no detectable viral DNA. b. in which there is no detectable viral protein. c. that completely blocks plaque formation. d. that reduces plaque formation by at least 50%.

activated macrophages

Tissue damage caused by delayed type hypersensitivities is largely the result of which of the following? activated macrophages antibodies direct attack by sensitized memory TH1 cells reactions involving CD4 TH2 cells

self antigens

Tumor antigens are ________ that are inappropriately expressed and found on abnormal cells. A. self antigens B. foreign antigens C. antibodies D. T-cell receptors

sensitization

Type I hypersensitivities require which of the following initial priming events to occur? A. sensitization B. secondary immune response C. cellular trauma D. degranulation

the virus must be able to cross-link red blood cells directly

Viral hemagglutination assays only work with certain types of viruses because a. the virus must be able to cross-link red blood cells directly. b. the virus must be able to lyse red blood cells. c. the virus must not be able to lyse red blood cells. d. other viruses are too dangerous to work with in a clinical lab setting.

serovars

We use antisera to distinguish between various ________ within a species of bacteria. a. isotypes b. serovars c. subspecies d. lines

chromogenic substrate

When performing an FEIA, the fluorogen replaces the ________ that is used in an EIA. a. antigen b. chromogenic substrate c. enzyme d. secondary antibody

equivalence zone or zone of equivalence

When slowly adding antigen to an antiserum, the amount of precipitin would gradually increase until reaching the ________; addition of more antigen after this point would actually decrease the amount of precipitin.

It makes holes in the cell membrane large enough for antibodies to pass.

When using an EIA to study microtubules or other structures inside a cell, we first chemically fix the cell and then treat the cells with alcohol. What is the purpose of this alcohol treatment? a. It makes holes in the cell membrane large enough for antibodies to pass. b. It makes the membrane sticky so antibodies will bind and be taken up by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. It removes negative charges from the membrane, which would otherwise repulse the antibodies. d. It prevents nonspecific binding of the antibodies to the cell membrane.

latex beads

When using antisera to characterize bacteria, we will often link the antibodies to ________ to better visualize the agglutination. a. latex beads b. red blood cells c. other bacteria d. white blood cells

humanized

When using mAbs to treat disease in humans, the mAbs must first be ________ by replacing the mouse constant region DNA with human constant region DNA.

affinity maturation

When we inject an animal with the same antigen a second time a few weeks after the first, ________ takes place, which means the antibodies produced after the second injection will on average bind the antigen more tightly.

they are produced in tissue cultures, using B cells extracted from living animals

Which best describes monoclonal antibodies? They are produced in living animals only. They are produced in tissue cultures, using B cells extracted from living animals. They are rarely used, so polyclonal antibodies are preferred. They can be produced in either living animals or tissue cultures.

exposure to cleaning chemicals results in greater allergy risk

Which of the following hypothetical statements would not be predicted by the hygiene hypothesis? Children in smaller families are more likely to have autoimmune diseases. Children who attend daycare have a lower risk of allergies than those who stay home until they reach school age. Exposure to cleaning chemicals results in greater allergy risk. Living on a farm is associated with reduced risk of hay fever.

accumulation of immune complexes in tissues and small blood vessels

Which of the following induces a type III hypersensitivity? A. release of inflammatory molecules from mast cells B. accumulation of immune complexes in tissues and small blood vessels C. destruction of cells bound by antigens D. destruction of cells bound by antibodies

anti-inflammatory steroid treatments

Which of the following is a common treatment for type III hypersensitivity reactions? A. anti-inflammatory steroid treatments B. antihistamine treatments C. hyposensitization injections of allergens D. RhoGAM injections

HIV/AIDS

Which of the following is a genetic disease that results in almost no adaptive immunity due to lack of B and/ or T cells? A. agammaglobulinemia B. severe combined immunodeficiency C. HIV/AIDS D. chronic granulomatous disease

agammaglobulinemia

Which of the following is a genetic disease that results in lack of production of antibodies? A. agammaglobulinemia B. myasthenia gravis C. HIV/AIDS D. chronic granulomatous disease

delayed type hypersensitivity

Which of the following is an example of a CD4 Th1-mediated reaction? anaphylactic reaction chronic asthma delayed type hypersensitivity transplant rejection

myasthenia gravis

Which of the following is an example of a systemic autoimmune disease? A. Hashimoto thyroiditis B. type I diabetes mellitus C. Graves disease D. myasthenia gravis

Addison disease

Which of the following is an example of an organ-specific autoimmune disease? A. rheumatoid arthritis B. psoriasis C. Addison disease D. myasthenia gravis

mast cell

Which of the following is the type of cell largely responsible for type I hypersensitivity responses? A. erythrocyte B. mast cell C. T lymphocyte D. Antibody

shock

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? asthma shock hay fever immunodeficiency

autograft

Which of the following types of transplants has the lowest risk of rejection? allograft autograft isograft xenograft

hemolytic disease of the newborn

Which one of the following is not an example of a type IV hypersensitivity? A. latex allergy B. Contact dermatitis (e.g., contact with poison ivy) C. a positive tuberculin skin test D. hemolytic disease of the newborn

antigen; antibody

direct ELISA test detects___ by using____

antibody; antigen

indirect ELISA test detects___ by using____

autograft

skin graft from a person's own body

allograft

skin graft from another person or a cadaver

1. antigen to microtiter well 2. sample to be tested is added-if antibodies attach they will bind to antigen and remain during rinse. 3. enzyme linked antibodies are added; they bind and remain during rinse 4. substrate for enzyme is added; producing visible reaction (color change)

what are the steps in the indirect ELISA test

precipitation

what test for the presence of free soluble antigen

agglutination

what test yield a positive result that look like cell clumping

direct agglutination, indirect ELISA, Direct ELISA, indirect fluorescent antibody

which test(s) could be used to detect antigen in a patients serum?