Urden Questions #4
A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism was admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse is developing a patient education plan. Which topic would the nurse include in the plan? a. Diabetes management b. Alcohol cessation c. Occult blood testing d. Anticoagulation management
B As the patient moves toward discharge, teaching should focus on the interventions necessary for preventing the recurrence of the precipitating disorder. If an alcohol abuser, the patient should be encouraged to stop drinking and be referred to an alcohol cessation program.
A patient was admitted with severe epigastric pain and has been diagnosed with cancer. The patient is scheduled for an esophagectomy. The patient asks about the procedure. What would be an appropriate response from the nurse? a. "This procedure is usually performed for cancer of the proximal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction." b. "This procedure is usually performed for cancer of the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction." c. "This procedure is usually performed for cancer of the pancreatic head." d. "The procedure is usually performed for varices of the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction."
B Esophagectomy is usually performed for cancer of the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction.
A patient is admitted with a gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to esophagogastric varices. What medication would the nurse expect the practitioner to order for this patient? a. Histamine2 (H2) antagonists b. Vasopressin c. Heparin d. Antacids
B In acute variceal hemorrhage, control of bleeding can be accomplished through the use of pharmacologic agents. Intravenous vasopressin, somatostatin, and octreotide have been shown to reduce portal venous pressure and slow variceal hemorrhaging by constricting the splanchnic arteriolar bed.
The nurse is caring for a patient after an esophagectomy. In the immediate postoperative period, which nursing intervention would have the highest priority? a. Preventing atelectasis b. Managing pain c. Promoting ambulation d. Preventing infection
B It is imperative to appropriately manage the patient's pain after gastrointestinal (GI) surgery. Adequate analgesia is necessary to promote the mobility of the patient and decrease pulmonary complications. Initial pain management may be accomplished by intravenous opioid (morphine, hydromorphone) administration by means of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump or through continuous epidural infusion of an opioid and local anesthetic (bupivacaine).
A patient with acute pancreatitis is complaining of a pain in the left upper quadrant. Using a 1- to 10-point pain scale, the patient states the current level is at an 8. What intervention would the nurse include in the patient's plan of care to facilitate pain control? a. Administer analgesics only as needed. b. Administer analgesics around the clock. c. Educate the patient and family on lifestyle changes. d. Teach relaxation and distraction techniques.
B Pain management is a major priority in acute pancreatitis. Administration of around-the-clock analgesics to achieve pain relief is essential. Morphine, fentanyl, and hydromorphone are the commonly used narcotics for pain control. Relaxation techniques and the knee-chest position can also assist in pain control. However, the patient's pain needs to be addressed first.
A patient is admitted with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. Which disorder is the leading cause of upper gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage? a. Stress ulcers b. Peptic ulcers c. Nonspecific erosive gastritis d. Esophageal varices
B Peptic ulcer disease (gastric and duodenal ulcers), resulting from the breakdown of the gastro mucosal lining, is the leading cause of upper gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage, accounting for approximately 21% of cases.
Which nursing intervention is a priority for a patient with gastrointestinal hemorrhage? a. Positioning the patient in a high-Fowler position b. Ensuring the patient has a patent airway c. Irrigating the nasogastric tube with iced saline d. Maintaining venous access so that fluids and blood can be administered
B Priorities in the medical management of a patient with gastrointestinal hemorrhage include airway protection, fluid resuscitation to achieve hemodynamic stability, correction of comorbid conditions (eg, coagulopathy), therapeutic procedures to control or stop bleeding, and diagnostic procedures to determine the exact cause of the bleeding.
A patient was admitted with acute lung failure secondary to pneumonia. What is the single most important measure to prevent the spread of infection between staff and patients? a. Place the patient in respiratory isolation. b. Ensure everyone is using proper hand hygiene. c. Use personal protective equipment. d. Initiate prompt administration of antibiotics.
B Proper hand hygiene is the single most important measure available to prevent the spread of bacteria from person to person.
The nurse is caring for a patient after an esophagectomy. The nurse knows the patient is at risk for an anastomotic leak. Which finding would indicate this occurrence? a. Crackles in the lung bases b. Subcutaneous emphysema c. Incisional bleeding d. Absent of bowel sounds
B The clinical signs and symptoms include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, abdominal pain, anxiety, and restlessness. In a patient who had an esophagectomy, a leak of the esophageal anastomosis may manifest as subcutaneous emphysema in the chest and neck.
What is the major hemodynamic consequence of a massive pulmonary embolus? a. Increased systemic vascular resistance leading to left heart failure b. Pulmonary hypertension leading to right heart failure c. Portal vein blockage leading to ascites d. Embolism to the internal carotids leading to a stroke
B The major hemodynamic consequence of a pulmonary embolus is the development of pulmonary hypertension, which is part of the effect of a mechanical obstruction when more than 50% of the vascular bed is occluded. In addition, the mediators released at the injury site and the development of hypoxia cause pulmonary vasoconstriction, which further exacerbates pulmonary hypertension.
A trauma victim has sustained right rib fractures and pulmonary contusions. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. Bulging intercostal muscles are noted on the right side. Heart rate (HR) is 130 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR) is 32 breaths/min, and breathing is labored. In addition to oxygen administration, what procedure should the nurse anticipate? a. Thoracentesis b. Chest tube insertion c. Pericardiocentesis d. Emergent intubation
B The patient is experiencing a pneumothorax and will need immediate chest tube insertion. Chest tubes are inserted into the pleural space to remove fluid or air, reinstate the negative intrapleural pressure, and re-expand a collapsed lung.
A patient was admitted with acute liver failure. The patient is lethargic, confused, and has marked asterixis. The nurse suspects the patient is in what stage of hepatic encephalopathy. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4
B The patient is in Stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy as evidenced by lethargy, moderate confusion, marked asterixis, and abnormal electroencephalography (EEG).
For which situation does a patient with acute lung failure require a bronchodilator? a. Excessive secretions b. Bronchospasms c. Thick secretions d. Fighting the ventilator
B Bronchodilators aid in smooth muscle relaxation and are of particular benefit to patients with airflow limitations. Mucolytics and expectorants are no longer used because they have been found to be of no benefit in this patient population
Which diagnostic criteria is indicative of mild adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? a. Radiologic evidence of bibasilar atelectasis b. PaO2/FiO2 ratio less than or equal to 200 mm Hg c. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure greater than 18 mm Hg d. Increase in static and dynamic compliance
B The Berlin Definition of ARDS is as follows: timing—within 1 week of known clinical insult or new or worsening respiratory symptoms; chest imaging—bilateral opacities not fully explained by effusions, lobar or lung collapse, or nodules; origin of edema—respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload; need objective assessment to exclude hydrostatic edema if no risk factor present; oxygenation—mild (200 mg Hg less than PaO2/FiO2 less than or equal to 300 mm Hg with positive end-respiratory airway pressure (PEEP) or constant positive airway pressure greater than or equal to 5 cm H2O), moderate (100 mg Hg less than PaO2/FiO2 less than or equal to 200 mm Hg with PEEP greater than or equal to 5 cm H2O), or severe (PaO2/FiO2 less than or equal to 100 mm Hg with PEEP greater than or equal to 5 cm H2O). The mortality rate for ARDS is estimated to be 34% to 58%.
A patient has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which interventions would the nurse expect as part of the interprofessional collaborative management plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Benzodiazepines for agitation b. Pulse oximetry and serial arterial blood gas measurements c. Insulin drip for hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia d. Monitoring electrolyte blood levels e. Assessing for signs of cerebral edema
B, D, E The patient may experience a variety of other complications, including cerebral edema, cardiac dysrhythmias, acute respiratory failure, sepsis, and acute kidney injury. Cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure develop as a result of breakdown of the blood-brain barrier and astrocyte swelling. Circulatory failure that mimics sepsis is common in acute liver failure and may exacerbate low cerebral perfusion pressure. Hypoxemia, acidosis, electrolyte imbalances, and cerebral edema can precipitate the development of cardiac dysrhythmias. Acute respiratory failure, progressing to acute respiratory distress syndrome, intrapulmonary shunting, ventilationperfusion mismatch, sepsis, and aspiration may be attributed to the universal arterial hypoxemia.
Which finding confirms the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism (PE)? a. Low-probability ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan b. Negative pulmonary angiogram c. High-probability V/Q scan d. Absence of vascular markings on the chest radiograph
C A definitive diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism requires confirmation by a high-probability ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan, an abnormal pulmonary angiogram or computed tomography scan, or strong clinical suspicion coupled with abnormal findings on lower extremity deep venous thrombosis studies.
A patient is admitted with a gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to esophagogastric varices. The patient has been started on a vasopressin drip. The nurse would monitor the patient for which side effect of the medication? a. Constipation b. Diarrhea c. Chest pain d. Bleeding
C A major side effect of the medication is systemic vasoconstriction, which can result in cardiac ischemia, chest pain, hypertension, acute heart failure, dysrhythmias, phlebitis, bowel ischemia, and cerebrovascular accident. These side effects can be offset with concurrent administration of nitroglycerin. Other complications include bradycardia and fluid retention.
What is the medical treatment for a pneumothorax greater than 15%? a. Systemic antibiotics to treat the inflammatory response b. An occlusive dressing to equalize lung pressures c. Interventions to evacuate the air from the pleural space d. Mechanical ventilation to assist with re-expansion of the collapsed lung
C A pneumothorax greater than 15% requires intervention to evacuate the air from the pleural space and facilitate re-expansion of the collapsed lung. Interventions include aspiration of the air with a needle and placement of a small-bore (12 to 20 Fr) or large-bore (24 to 40 Fr) chest tube.
A patient was admitted in acute lung failure. The patient is receiving 40% oxygen via a simple facemask. The morning chest radiography study reveals right lower lobe pneumonia. Which test would the nurse expect the practitioner to order to identify the infectious pathogen? a. CBC with differential b. Wound culture of surgical site c. Sputum Gram stain and culture d. Urine specimen
C A sputum Gram stain and culture are done to facilitate the identification of the infectious pathogen. In 50% of cases, though, a causative agent is not identified. A diagnostic bronchoscopy may be needed, particularly if the diagnosis is unclear or current therapy is not working. In addition, a complete blood count (CBC) with differential, chemistry panel, blood cultures, and arterial blood gas analysis is obtained.
A patient was admitted after a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGBP). A nursing student asks the nurse what type of surgery an RYGBP is. What would be an appropriate response from the nurse? a. "It is an esophagectomy performed using the transthoracic approach." b. "It is an esophagectomy performed using a transhiatal approach." c. "It is a combination of restrictive and malabsorption types of bariatric surgery." d. "It is a standard operation for pancreatic cancer."
C Bariatric procedures are divided into three broad types: (1) restrictive, (2) malabsorptive, and (3) combined restrictive and malabsorptive. The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass combines both strategies by creating a small gastric pouch and anastomosing the jejunum to the pouch. Food then bypasses the lower stomach and duodenum, resulting in decreased absorption of digestive materials. The standard operation for pancreatic cancer is a pancreaticoduodenectomy, also called the Whipple procedure.
A patient was admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse understands that pancreatitis occurs as a result of what pathophysiologic mechanism? a. Uncontrolled hypoglycemia caused by an increased release of insulin b. Loss of storage capacity for senescent red blood cells c. Premature activation of inactive digestive enzymes, resulting in autodigestion d. Release of glycogen into the serum, resulting in hyperglycemia
C In acute pancreatitis, the normally inactive digestive enzymes become prematurely activated within the pancreas itself, creating the central pathophysiologic mechanism of acute pancreatitis, namely autodigestion.
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute liver failure. The patient has elevated ammonia levels. Which medication would the nurse expect the practitioner to order for this patient? a. Insulin b. Vitamin K c. Lactulose d. Lorazepam
C Lactulose, a synthetic ketoanalogue of lactose split into lactic acid and acetic acid in the intestine, is given orally through a nasogastric tube or as a retention enema. The result is the creation of an acidic environment that results in ammonia being drawn out of the portal circulation. Lactulose has a laxative effect that promotes expulsion. Vitamin K is used to help control bleeding. Insulin would be given to control hyperglycemia. Use of benzodiazepines and other sedatives is discouraged in a patient with acute liver failure because pertinent neurologic changes may be masked, and hepatic encephalopathy may be exacerbated.
An older patient reports taking cimetidine for several years. The nurse knows that this medication can cause central nervous system side effects. For what side effect would the nurse monitor the patient? a. Tremors b. Dizziness c. Confusion d. Hallucinations
C Side effects of histamine antagonists include central nervous system (CNS) toxicity (confusion or delirium) and thrombocytopenia.
A Salem sump nasogastric tube has two lumens. The first lumen is for suction and drainage. What is the purpose of the second lumen? a. Allows for administration of tube feeding b. Allows for testing of gastric secretions c. Prevents the tube from adhering to the gastric wall d. Prevents the tube from advancing
C The Salem sump has one lumen that is used for suction and drainage and another that allows air to enter the patient's stomach and prevents the tube from adhering to the gastric wall and damaging the mucosa.
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute liver failure. The practitioner asks the nurse to assess the patient for asterixis. How should the nurse assess for this symptom? a. Inflate a blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm. b. Have the patient bring the knees to the chest. c. Have the patient extend the arms and dorsiflex the wrists. d. Dorsiflex the patient's foot.
C The patient should be evaluated for the presence of asterixis, or "liver flap," best described as the inability to voluntarily sustain a fixed position of the extremities. Asterixis is best recognized by downward flapping of the hands when the patient extends the arms and dorsiflexes the wrists.
Depending on the patient's risk for the recurrence of pulmonary embolism (PE), how long may a patient remain on warfarin once they are discharged from the hospital? a. 1 to 3 months b. 3 to 6 months c. 3 to 12 months d. 12 to 36 months
C The patient should remain on warfarin for 3 to 12 months depending on his or her risk for thromboembolic disease.
Which therapeutic measure would be the most effective in treating hypoxemia in the presence of intrapulmonary shunting associated with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? a. Sedating the patient to blunt noxious stimuli b. Increasing the FiO2 on the ventilator c. Administering positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP) d. Restricting fluids to 500 mL per shift
C The purpose of using positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP) in a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome is to improve oxygenation while reducing FiO2 to less toxic levels. PEEP has several positive effects on the lungs, including opening collapsed alveoli, stabilizing flooded alveoli, and increasing functional residual capacity. Thus, PEEP decreases intrapulmonary shunting and increases compliance.
Patients with left-sided pneumonia may benefit from placing them in which position? a. Reverse Trendelenburg b. Supine c. On the left side d. On the right side
D Patients with unilateral lung disease should be positioned with the healthy lung in a dependent position. Because gravity normally facilitates preferential ventilation and perfusion to the dependent areas of the lungs, the best gas exchange would take place in the dependent areas of the lungs. Thus, the goal of positioning is to place the least affected area of the patient's lung in the most dependent position. Patients with unilateral lung disease should be positioned with the healthy lung in a dependent position.
What nursing intervention can facilitate the prevention of aspiration? a. Observing the amount given in the tube feeding b. Assessing the patient's level of consciousness c. Encouraging the patient to cough and to breathe deeply d. Positioning a patient in a semirecumbent position
D Semirecumbency has been shown to decrease the risk of aspiration and inhibit the development of hospital-associated pneumonia.
A patient is admitted with a severe head injury. The nurse knows that critically ill patients are at risk for gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to stress-related mucosal disease. The nurse would monitor the patient for which signs and symptoms? a. Metabolic acidosis and hypovolemia b. Decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit c. Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia d. Hematemesis and melena
D The initial clinical presentation of the patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage is that of a patient in hypovolemic shock; the clinical presentation depends on the amount of blood lost. Hematemesis (bright red or brown, coffee grounds emesis), hematochezia (bright red stools), and melena (black, tarry, or dark red stools) are the hallmarks of GI hemorrhage.
A patient has been admitted with severe abdominal pain. When examining the patient, the nurse notes hypoactive bowel sounds, abdominal guarding, distention, and a discoloration around the umbilicus. The nurse suspects the patient may have which condition? a. Peptic ulcer disease b. Esophageal varices c. Acute liver failure d. Acute pancreatitis
D The results of physical assessment of a patient with pancreatitis usually reveal hypoactive bowel sounds and abdominal tenderness, guarding, distention, and tympany. Findings that may indicate pancreatic hemorrhage include Grey Turner sign (gray-blue discoloration of the flanks) and Cullen sign (discoloration of the umbilical region); however, they are rare and usually seen several days into the illness.
A patient was admitted after a left pneumonectomy. The patient is receiving 40% oxygen via a simple facemask. The morning chest radiography study reveals right lower lobe pneumonia. After eating breakfast, the patient suddenly vomits and aspirates. What action should the nurse take next? a. Lavage the airway with normal saline. b. Place the patient supine in a semi-Fowler position. c. Manually ventilate the patient. d. Suction the airway
D When aspiration is witnessed, emergency treatment should be instituted to secure the airway and minimize pulmonary damage. The patient's head should be turned to the side, and the oral cavity and upper airway should be suctioned immediately to remove the gastric contents.
A patient has been admitted with the diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Arterial blood gasses (ABGs) revealed an elevated pH and decreased PaCO2. The patient is becoming fatigued, and the practitioner orders a repeat ABG. Which set of results would be indicative of the patient's current condition? a. Elevated pH and decreased PaCO2 b. Elevated pH and elevated PaCO2 c. Decreased pH and decreased PaCO2 d. Decreased pH and elevated PaCO2
D Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a low PaO2 despite increases in supplemental oxygen administration (refractory hypoxemia). Initially, the PaCO2 is low as a result of hyperventilation, but eventually the PaCO2 increases as the patient fatigues. The pH is high initially but decreases as respiratory acidosis develops.
Supplemental oxygen administration is usually effective in treating hypoxemia related which situation? a. Physiologic shunting b. Dead space ventilation c. Alveolar hyperventilation d. Ventilation-perfusion mismatching
D Supplemental oxygen administration is effective in treating hypoxemia related to alveolar hypoventilation and ventilation-perfusion mismatching. When intrapulmonary shunting exists, supplemental oxygen alone is ineffective. In this situation, positive pressure is necessary to open collapsed alveoli and facilitate their participation in gas exchange. Positive pressure is delivered via invasive and noninvasive mechanical ventilation.
What condition develops when air enters the pleural space from the lung on inhalation and cannot exit on exhalation? a. Tension pneumothorax b. Sucking chest wound c. Open pneumothorax d. Pulmonary interstitial empyema
A A tension pneumothorax develops when air enters the pleural space from either the lung or the chest wall on inhalation and cannot escape on exhalation. Open pneumothorax is a laceration in the parietal pleura that allows atmospheric air to enter the pleural space; it occurs as a result of penetrating chest trauma. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema is air in the pulmonary interstitial space.
A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism was admitted with acute pancreatitis. What intervention would the nurse include in the patient's plan of care? a. Monitor the patient for hypovolemic shock from plasma volume depletion. b. Observe the patient for hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia. c. Initiate enteral feedings after the nasogastric tube is placed. d. Place the patient on a fluid restriction to avoid the fluid sequestration.
A Because pancreatitis is often associated with massive fluid shifts, intravenous crystalloids and colloids are administered immediately to prevent hypovolemic shock and maintain hemodynamic stability. Electrolytes are monitored closely, and abnormalities such as hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia are corrected. If hyperglycemia develops, exogenous insulin may be required.
A patient is admitted with a gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to esophagogastric varices. The nurse knows that varices are caused by which pathophysiologic mechanism? a. Portal hypertension resulting in diversion of blood from a high-pressure area to a low-pressure area b. Superficial mucosal erosions as a result of increased stress levels c. Loss of protective mechanisms resulting in the breakdown the mucosal resistance d. Inflammation and ulceration secondary to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug use
A Esophagogastric varices are engorged and distended blood vessels of the esophagus and proximal stomach that develop as a result of portal hypertension secondary to hepatic cirrhosis, a chronic disease of the liver that results in damage to the liver sinusoids. Without adequate sinusoid function, resistance to portal blood flow is increased, and pressures within the liver are elevated. This leads to a rise in portal venous pressure (portal hypertension), causing collateral circulation to divert portal blood from areas of high pressure within the liver to adjacent areas of low pressure outside the liver, such as into the veins of the esophagus, spleen, intestines, and stomach.
A patient was admitted following an aspiration event on the medical-surgical floor. The patient is receiving 40% oxygen via a simple facemask. The patient has become increasingly agitated and confused. The patient's oxygen saturation has dropped from 92% to 84%. The nurse notifies the practitioner about the change in the patient's condition. What interventions should the nurse anticipate? a. Intubation and mechanical ventilation b. Change in antibiotics orders c. Suction and reposition the patient d. Orders for a sedative
A Given the significant drop in oxygen saturation, increasing agitation and confusion, the nurse should anticipate the patient will need to be intubated and mechanically ventilated. Administering antibiotics, suctioning and repositioning, and administering a sedative would not address the development of severe hypoxemia.
What two pathogens are most frequently associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia? a. Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Escherichia coli and Haemophilus influenzae c. Acinetobacter baumannii and Haemophilus influenzae d. Klebsiella spp. and Enterobacter spp.
A Pathogens that can cause hospital-associated pneumonia (HAP) include Escherichia coli, H. influenzae, methicillin-sensitive S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, P. aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA), Klebsiella spp., and Enterobacter spp. Two of the pathogens most frequently associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) are S. aureus and P. aeruginosa.
What are the most common presenting signs and symptoms associated with a pulmonary embolism (PE)? a. Tachycardia and tachypnea b. Hemoptysis and evidence of deep vein thromboses c. Apprehension and dyspnea d. Right ventricular failure and fever
A The patient with a pulmonary embolism may have any number of presenting signs and symptoms, with the most common being tachycardia and tachypnea. Additional signs and symptoms that may be present include dyspnea, apprehension, increased pulmonic component of the second heart sound (P1), fever, crackles, pleuritic chest pain, cough, evidence of deep vein thrombosis, and hemoptysis. Syncope and hemodynamic instability can occur as a result of right ventricular failure.
Which nursing intervention should be used to optimize oxygenation and ventilation in the patient with acute lung failure? a. Provide adequate rest and recovery time between procedures. b. Position the patient with the good lung up. c. Suction the patient every hour. d. Avoid hyperventilating the patient.
A Providing adequate rest and recovery time between various procedures prevents desaturation and optimizes oxygenation. In acute lung failure, the goal of positioning is to place the least affected area of the patient's lung in the most dependent position. Patients with unilateral lung disease should be positioned with the healthy lung in a dependent position. Hyperventilate the patient before suctioning; suction patients as needed.
What psychologic factors contribute to long-term mechanical ventilation dependence? (Select all that apply.) a. Fear b. Delirium c. Lack of confidence d. Depression e. Trust in the stuff
A, B, C, D Psychologic factors contributing to long-term mechanical ventilation dependence include a loss of breathing pattern control (anxiety, fear, dyspnea, pain, ventilator asynchrony, lack of confidence in ability to breathe), lack of motivation and confidence (inadequate trust in staff, depersonalization, hopelessness, powerlessness, depression, inadequate communication), and delirium (sensory overload, sensory deprivation, sleep deprivation, pain medications).
Medical management of a patient with status asthmaticus includes which treatments? (Select all that apply.) a. Oxygen therapy b. Bronchodilators c. Corticosteroids d. Antibiotics e. Intubation and mechanical ventilation
A, B, C, E Medical management of a patient with status asthmaticus is directed toward supporting oxygenation and ventilation. Bronchodilators, corticosteroids, oxygen therapy, and intubation and mechanical ventilation are the mainstays of therapy.
Nursing management of the patient with acute lung failure includes which interventions? (Select all that apply.) a. Positioning the patient with the least affected side up b. Providing adequate rest between treatments c. Performing percussion and postural drainage every 4 hours d. Controlling fever e. Pharmaceutical medications to control anxiety
A, B, D, E The goal of positioning is to place the least affected area of the patient's lung in the most dependent position. Patients with unilateral lung disease should be positioned with the healthy lung in a dependent position. Patients with diffuse lung disease may benefit from being positioned with the right lung down because it is larger and more vascular than the left lung. For patients with alveolar hypoventilation, the goal of positioning is to facilitate ventilation. These patients benefit from nonrecumbent positions such as sitting or a semierect position. In addition, semirecumbency has been shown to decrease the risk of aspiration and inhibit the development of hospital-associated pneumonia. Frequent repositioning (at least every 2 hours) is beneficial in optimizing the patient's ventilatory pattern and ventilation/perfusion matching. These include performing procedures only as needed, hyperoxygenating the patient before suctioning, providing adequate rest and recovery time between various procedures, and minimizing oxygen consumption. Interventions to minimize oxygen consumption include limiting the patient's physical activity, administering sedation to control anxiety, and providing measures to control fever.
A patient has been admitted with pancreatitis. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to observe in support of this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Epigastric and abdominal pain b. Nausea and vomiting c. Diaphoresis d. Jaundice e. Hyperactive bowel sounds f. Fever
A, B, D, F Clinical manifestations of acute pancreatitis include pain, vomiting, nausea, fever, abdominal distention, abdominal guarding, abdominal tympany, hypoactive or absent bowel sounds, severe disease, peritoneal signs, ascites, jaundice, palpable abdominal mass, Grey-Turner sign, Cullen sign, and signs of hypovolemic shock. There may be peritonitis involved with pancreatitis and percussion will reveal a tympanic abdomen; bowel sounds will be decreased or absent.
Which disorders or conditions are potential causes of acute liver failure? (Select all that apply.) a. Ischemia b. Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E, non-A, non-B, non-C c. Acetaminophen toxicity d. Wilson disease e. Reye syndrome f. Diabetes
A, B, C, D, E Diabetes is not a primary cause of acute liver failure but is associated with pancreatitis.
How would the nurse administer sucralfate through a gastric tube? a. Crushed and mixed with 10 mL of water b. Dissolved in 10 mL of water to form a slurry c. Mixed in 15 mL of water to form a solution d. Administered as a whole pill with a 35-mL water flush
B Sucralfate should not be crushed but may be dissolved in 10 mL of water to form a slurry. It is also available as a suspension.
A patient is admitted with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse expects which laboratory values to be elevated? (Select all that apply.) a. Calcium b. Serum amylase c. Serum glucose d. Potassium e. White blood cells f. Serum triglycerides
B, C, E, F Calcium and potassium decrease with acute pancreatitis
Which cause of hypoxemia is the result of blood passing through unventilated portions of the lungs? a. Alveolar hypoventilation b. Dead space ventilation c. Intrapulmonary shunting d. Physiologic shunting
C Hypoxemia is the result of impaired gas exchange and is the hallmark of acute respiratory failure. Hypercapnia may be present, depending on the underlying cause of the problem. The main causes of hypoxemia are alveolar hypoventilation, ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatching, and intrapulmonary shunting. Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when blood passes through a portion of a lung that is not ventilated. Physiologic shunting is normal and not a cause of hypoxemia.
