Uworld Neuro #2
The nurse is caring for a client with absence seizures. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) asks if the client will "shake and jerk" when having a seizure. Which response from the nurse is the most helpful? a. No, abscense seizures can look like daydreaming or staring off into space b. No, you are wrong. Don't worry about that c. Yes, so please let me know if you see the client do that d. You don't have to monitor the client for seizures.
Absence seizures typically occur in children. The presentation is classic and includes the following: Daydreaming episodes or brief (<10 seconds) staring spells Absence of warning and postictal phases Absence of other forms of epileptic activity (no myoclonus or tonic-clonic activity) Unresponsiveness during the seizure No memory of the seizure The most helpful response by the nurse is one that corrects while educating the UAP (Option 1). The UAP may be present when a client has a seizure, and understanding of what to expect will aid client care. (Options 2 and 4) Although it is not the responsibility of the UAP to monitor the client, the UAP may witness a seizure and call for help if needed. (Option 3) Seizures may include tonic (body stiffening), clonic (muscle jerking), atonic (loss of muscle tone or "drop attack"), myoclonic (brief muscle jerk), or tonic-clonic (alternating stiffening and jerking) body motions. Absence seizures do not typically involve these body motions. Educational objective:Absence seizures are brief periods of staring; there is no evidence of tonic-clonic activity or postictal confusion. The UAP should be educated about absence seizures when involved in the care of such clients. Answer - A
The nurse in the outpatient clinic is speaking with a client diagnosed with cerebral arteriovenous malformation. Which statement would be a priority for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. I got short of breath this morning when I worked out b. I have cut down on smoking to 1/2 pack per day c. I haven't been feeling well, so I have been sleeping a lot d. I took an acetaminophen in the waiting room for this bad headache.
An arteriovenous malformation (AVM) is a tangle of veins and arteries that is believed to form during embryonic development. The tangled vessels do not have a capillary bed, causing them to become weak and dilated. AVMs are usually found in the brain and can cause seizures, headaches, and neurologic deficits. Treatment depends on the location of the AVM, but blood pressure control is crucial. Clients with AVMs are at high risk for having an intracranial bleed as the veins can easily rupture because they lack a muscular layer around their lumen. Any neurologic changes, sudden severe headache, nausea, and vomiting should be evaluated immediately as these are usually the first symptoms of a hemorrhage (Option 4). (Option 1) The report of dyspnea may prompt further evaluation depending on the type of exercise performed, but it is not the priority. Clients with AVMs should be discouraged from engaging in heavy exercise as it increases blood pressure. (Option 2) Clients with AVMs should avoid smoking to prevent hypertension. This client needs education on smoking cessation, but it is not the priority. (Option 3) Reports of not feeling well and sleeping a lot may be related to the headache and possible hemorrhage, but this alone would not prompt a call to the health care provider. Educational objective:An arteriovenous malformation is a congenital deformity of tangled blood vessels often occurring in the brain. These vessels may weaken and rupture, causing an intracranial hemorrhage. Any neurologic changes and severe headache need to be addressed immediately as these may indicate hemorrhage. Answer: D
The nurse is caring for an assigned team of clients. Which client is the priority for the nurse at this time? a. Client admitted with Guillain -Barré syndrome yesterday is paralyzed to the knees b. Client admitted with multiple sclerosis exacerbation had scanning speech c. Client with epilepsy puts on call light and reports having an aura d. Client with fibromyalgia reports pain in the neck and shoulders
An aura is a sensory perception that occurs prior to a complex or generalized seizure. The client will most likely have a tonic-clonic seizure soon, and the nurse should attend to this client first to ensure safety measures (ie, seizure precautions) are in place. (Option 1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is an ascending symmetrical paralysis. It can move upward rapidly or relatively slowly (over days/weeks). Respiratory compromise is the worst complication. A client with paralysis at the level of the knee after 24 hours would not take priority over a client who will have a seizure in few minutes. (Option 2) Scanning speech is a dysarthria in which there are noticeable pauses between syllables and/or emphasis on unusual syllables. It is an expected finding with multiple sclerosis. (Option 4) Fibromyalgia involves neuroendocrine/neurotransmitter dysregulation. Clients experience widespread pain with point tenderness at multiple sites, including the neck and shoulders. This client is not a priority. Educational objective:An aura is a sensory warning that a complex or generalized seizure will occur. It is a priority over stable or expected findings such as point tenderness in fibromyalgia, low-level location of paralysis in Guillain-Barré syndrome, or scanning speech in multiple sclerosis. Answer: C
The nurse is preparing for the admission of a 9-year-old client with new-onset tonic-clonic seizures. It is important for the nurse to ensure that what is in the room? Select all that apply. a. Oral bite prevention device b. Oxygen delivery system c. Padding on the bed side rails d. Soft arm and leg restraints e. Suction equipment
Client safety is a priority when caring for a client with seizure activity. Protecting the airway and improving oxygenation includes turning the client on the side and providing oxygen and oral suctioning as needed. Padding the bed siderails provides the client protection and decreases the potential for injury from the metal in the event that the head or extremities hit the siderails during seizure activity. (Option 1) During seizure activity, nothing should be placed in the client's mouth. Placing objects in the mouth could result in injury to the client or health care provider. Maintaining an open airway is important and can be accomplished by turning the client on the side and providing oral suctioning to the inside of the cheeks as necessary. (Option 4) A client should never be restrained during seizure activity. Restraints could cause muscle or tissue injury. Educational objective:Turning the client on the side, providing oxygen and suctioning as needed, and padding the siderails or removing objects that are near the client can decrease the risk for injury during a seizure. Avoid restraints. Answers: B,C,E
The nurse is planning care for an 8-year-old client with mild cognitive impairment who is hospitalized for diagnostic testing. Which of the following interventions are appropriate to include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. a. Consistently a ssign the same nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel to care for the client b. Give direct procedural education and explanations to the parent rather than the client c. Provide appropriate toys based on developmental level rather than chronological age d. Reinforce parental limit-setting measures for preventing self-injurious behaviour e. Use a picture board to facilitate communication and promote understanding of procedures.
Clients with cognitive impairment (intellectual disability) are diagnosed prior to adulthood and have limited levels of intellectual functioning and adaptive skills for their chronological age. Manifestations may include a decreased ability to perform abstract or logical reasoning, interpret complex ideas, and learn by experience. Cognitive impairment results in developmental delays of varying levels (eg, mild, moderate) and types (eg, cognitive, physical, social, emotional, behavioral) and requires the nurse to assess the client's skills and abilities and provide individualized care. Appropriate nursing interventions for a client with cognitive impairment include: Promoting the staff's understanding of client behavior/needs and maintaining a familiar environment for the client by consistently assigning the same staff (eg, nurse) for care (Option 1) Fostering playtime by providing toys that are developmentally appropriate, not necessarily age appropriate (Option 3) Preventing self-injury by reinforcing the parents' limit-setting measures (eg, time-outs) and positively reinforcing good behavior (Option 4) Facilitating communication and learning by using visual demonstration (eg, picture board) rather than complex explanations (Option 5) (Option 2) The nurse should involve parents in preprocedural education but avoid excluding the client; explaining procedures using methods appropriate for the client's cognitive ability is encouraged. Educational objective:Appropriate nursing interventions when caring for a pediatric client with cognitive impairment include providing consistency in staff assignments, providing toys appropriate for the client's developmental (not chronological) age, preventing self-injurious behavior (eg, reinforce parental limit setting), and using visual demonstration (eg, picture board) and simple explanations to facilitate communication and learning. Answers - A,C,D,E
The nurse completes a neurological examination on a client who has suffered a stroke to determine if damage has occurred to any of the cranial nerves. The nurse understands that damage has occurred to cranial nerve IX based on which assessment finding? a. A tongue blade is used to touch the client's pharynx; gag reflex is present b. Only one side of the mouth moves when the client is asked to smile and frown c. The absence of light touch and pain sensation on the left side of the client's face d. When the client shrugs against resistance, the left shoulder is weaker than the right.
Cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus) are related to the movement of the pharynx and tongue. To evaluate cranial nerves IX and X, the nurse assesses for the presence of a gag reflex and symmetrical movements of the uvula and soft palate, and listens to voice quality. A tongue blade can be used to touch the posterior pharyngeal wall to assess for a gag reflex. Asking the client to say "ah" will allow assessment of the uvula and soft palate. Harsh or brassy voice quality indicates dysfunction with the vagus nerve (X) (Option 1). (Option 2) The facial nerve (VII) is assessed by observing for symmetrical movements during facial expressions (eg, smile, frown, close eyes). (Option 3) The trigeminal nerve (V) has both sensory and motor functions. The nurse assesses for equal jaw strength by palpating the masseter muscle while the client clenches the jaw. To assess sensory function, the nurse touches the client's face with the client's eyes closed to determine if sensations are equal. (Option 4) The spinal accessory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and part of the trapezius muscles. The nurse applies resistance during shrugging and head turning and assesses for equal strength. Educational objective:Cranial nerves IX and X work together to create movement of the pharynx and tongue. An absent gag reflex, asymmetrical uvular and palate movement, or a change in voice quality indicates damage. Answer: A
A highly intoxicated client was brought to the emergency department after found lying on the sidewalk. On admission, the client is awake with a pulse of 70/min and blood pressure of 160/80 mm Hg. An hour later, the client is lethargic, pulse is 48/min, and blood pressure is 200/80 mm Hg. Which action does the nurse anticipate taking next? a. Administer atropine for bradycardia b. Administer nifedipine for HTN c. Have CT scan performed to rule out an intracranial bleed d. Perform hourly neurologic checks with Glasgow coma scale
Cushing's triad is related to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Early signs include change in level of consciousness. Later signs include bradycardia, increased systolic blood pressure with a widening pulse pressure (difference between systolic and diastolic), and slowed irregular (Cheyne-Stokes) respirations. Cushing's triad is a later sign that does not appear until the ICP is increased for some time. It indicates brain stem compression. The skull cannot expand after the fontanels close at age 18 months, so anything taking up more space inside the skull (eg, hematoma, tumor, swelling, etc.) is a concern for causing pressure on the brain tissue/brain stem and potential herniation. In this scenario, hidden head trauma causing an intracranial bleed must be ruled out with diagnostic testing. The client's intoxication could blunt an accurate history or presentation of a head injury. (Option 1) Atropine is used to stimulate the sinoatrial node in bradycardia with systemic symptoms. An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be obtained prior to administering atropine. In this client, there is no evidence of a cardiac etiology or systemic symptoms of poor perfusion/circulation from the bradycardia. (Option 2) Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker that is a potent vasodilator. However, all components must be considered in this scenario as to the etiology of the hypertension rather than just treating that sign. Ruling out a cerebral cause of the hypertension is most important. (Option 4) The nurse would continue to perform neurologic assessments (including GCS). However, it is more important to obtain appropriate diagnostic tests and initiate treatment for the changing neurologic symptoms than to just monitor and document. In addition, the nurse should be performing these assessments more frequently than hourly in this rapidly changing client. Educational objective:Cushing's triad/reflex indicates increased intracerebral pressure. Classic signs include bradycardia, rising systolic blood pressure, widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations (such as Cheyne-Stokes). Answer - C
The nurse is caring for a young adult who is considering becoming pregnant. The client expresses concern, stating, "One of my parents has Huntington disease, and I am afraid my child will get it." How should the nurse respond? a. Genetic counseling is recommended. You will receive a referral before you leave b. Huntington disease inheritance requires both biological parents to carry the gene c. There are other ways to grow your family. You should consider adoption d. This disease occurs spontaneously and is not likely to affect your children
Huntington disease (HD) is an incurable autosomal dominant hereditary disease that causes progressive nerve degeneration, which results in impaired movement, swallowing, speech, and cognitive abilities. Chorea (involuntary, tic-like movement) is a hallmark sign. The onset of active disease is usually at age 30-50, and death from neuromuscular and respiratory complications typically occurs within 20 years of diagnosis. HD is confirmed by genetic testing. Clients who have a parent with HD and are considering having biological children should receive genetic counseling (Option 1). (Option 2) Autosomal dominant traits require only one copy of the affected gene (from one carrier parent) to manifest (eg, cause disease). (Option 3) Although adoption may be considered, the nurse's opinion is not appropriate or therapeutic for the client. After genetic testing and further education from a genetic counselor, the client can make an informed decision about starting a family. (Option 4) HD is hereditary, not spontaneous. The offspring of a client with the HD gene have at least a 50% chance of inheritance. Educational objective:Huntington disease is an incurable autosomal dominant disease that causes progressive nerve degeneration, which impairs movement, swallowing, speech, and cognitive abilities. Death typically occurs within 20 years. Clients who have a parent with this disease should receive genetic counseling, especially when planning to start a family. Answer - A
The nurse is reinforcing education to a client newly prescribed levetiracetam for seizures. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further instruction? a. Drowsiness is a common side effect of this medication and will improve overtime b. I can begin driving again after I have been on this medication for a few weeks c. I need to immeidately report any new or increased anxiety when on this medication d. I need to immediately report any new rash when on this medication
Levetiracetam (Keppra) is an anticonvulsant prescribed for seizure disorders. As with other antiseizure medications, levetiracetam has a depressing effect on the central nervous system (CNS), which may cause drowsiness, somnolence, and fatigue as clients adjust to the medication. Clients should be assured that this is common and typically improves within 4-6 weeks (Option 1). However, the CNS-depressing effects of levetiracetam may be enhanced if taken with other CNS-depressing substances (eg, alcohol) or medications. New or increased agitation, anxiety, and/or depression or mood changes should be reported immediately as levetiracetam is associated with suicidal ideation (Option 3). Like other anticonvulsants, levetiracetam can trigger Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but life-threatening blistering reaction of the skin. Rash, blistering, muscle/joint pain, or conjunctivitis should be reported and assessed immediately (Option 4). (Option 2) Clients with seizure disorders should avoid driving or operating heavy machinery until they have permission from their health care provider and have met the requirements of their department of transportation. Typically, the client must be free from seizures for an allotted time period. Educational objective:Levetiracetam is an anticonvulsant prescribed for seizure disorders. It may have depressing effects on the central nervous system (eg, drowsiness) as the body adjusts to therapy. Serious adverse effects include suicidal ideation and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Clients with seizure disorders must meet the guidelines of their department of transportation and receive permission from their health care provider prior to legally operating a motor vehicle. Answer: B
During shift report it was noted that the off-going nurse had given the client a PRN dose of morphine 2 mg every 2 hours for incisional pain. What current client assessment would most likely affect the oncoming nurse's decision to discontinue the administration every 2 hours? a. Client reports burning during injection into the IV line b. Client reports dizziness when getting up to use the bathroom c. Client's BP is 106/68 d. Client's RR is 11
Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can be given intravenously for moderate to severe pain. An adverse reaction to morphine administration is respiratory depression. A respiratory rate <12/min would be a reason to hold morphine administration. The nurse should perform a more in-depth assessment of the client's pain and causes. The morphine dose may need to be decreased or the time between administrations may need to be increased. The nurse should not administer additional doses until the respiratory rate increases. (Option 1) Morphine can cause burning during IV administration. This can be reduced by diluting the morphine with normal saline and administering it slowly over 4-5 minutes. (Option 2) The nurse should instruct the client to call for help before getting up to go to use the bathroom to avoid falls caused by dizziness from the morphine. (Option 3) Morphine can lower blood pressure, and clients receiving it should have blood pressure monitored. This blood pressure reading is not severely low and is not a priority over the respiratory depression. Educational objective:Morphine administration can cause respiratory depression. The nurse should hold a dose of morphine for a client whose respiratory rate is <12/min. Answer: D
The nurse is providing care for a client with Alzheimer disease who often becomes angry and agitated 20 minutes or more after eating. The client accuses the nurse of not providing food, saying, "I'm hungry. You didn't feed me." The nurse should take which action? a. Give the client gentle reminders that the client has already eaten b. Say that the client can have a snack in a couple of hours c. Serve the client half of the meal initially and offer the other half later d. Take a picture of the client having a meal and show it when the client becomes upset
Most clients with Alzheimer disease experience eating and nutritional problems throughout the course of their disease. During the earlier stages, it is common for clients to forget that they have eaten recently. The best approach is for caregivers to give clients something to eat when they say they are hungry. Smaller meals throughout the day, along with low-calorie snacks, are effective strategies for clients who forget that they have eaten. (Option 1) Reality orientation has been recommended in the past as a way to deal with confusion (eg, dementia, Alzheimer disease), but research has shown that it may cause anxiety and distress. Validation therapy is a newer and more therapeutic approach that validates and accepts the client's reality. (Option 2) Offering to provide a snack later does not address the client's stated need to eat now. Delay in giving food will only further increase the client's anger and frustration. (Option 4) Showing a picture of the client having a meal is confrontational and will have no meaning to the client. Educational objective:Clients with Alzheimer disease experience eating and nutritional problems throughout the course of the disease. During the earlier stages, it is common for them to forget that they have eaten recently. The best approach is for caregivers to give clients something to eat when they say they are hungry. Answer C
A client is admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of myasthenia gravis. What are the appropriate nursing actions? Select all that apply. a. Administer an anticholinesterase drug AC b. Anticipate a need for anticholinergic drug c. Develop a bladder training schedule d. Encourage a semi-solid food consumption e. Teach the necessity for annual flu vaccination
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease involving a decreased number of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. As a result, there is fluctuating weakness of skeletal muscles, most often presented as ptosis/diplopia, bulbar signs (difficulty speaking or swallowing), and difficulty breathing. Muscles are stronger in the morning and become weaker with the day's activity as the supply of available acetylcholine is depleted. Treatment includes anticholinesterase drugs (pyridostigmine [Mestinon]) that are administered before meals so that the client's ability to swallow is strongest during the meal (Option 1). Semi-solid foods (easily-chewed foods) are preferred over solid foods (to avoid stressing muscles involved in chewing and swallowing) or liquids (aspiration risk)(Option 4). All clients with a serious chronic co-morbidity should receive the annual flu vaccine (also the pneumonia vaccine if appropriate) as they are more likely to have a negative outcome if the illness is contracted. It is especially important in clients with myasthenia gravis as the flu (or pneumonia) would tax the already compromised respiratory muscles(Option 5). (Option 2) An anticholinergic drug, such as atropine, is used for treatment in a cholinergic crisis (eg, the medication is too high or there is excess acetylcholine). The need would not be anticipated during a myasthenic crisis (eg, exacerbation of myasthenia gravis), which is usually a result of too little medication related to noncompliance, illness, or surgery. (Option 3) The skeletal muscles are involved in myasthenia gravis; dysfunction of the reflexes or central nervous system affects bowel and bladder control. This issue is classic with multiple sclerosis. Educational objective:Myasthenia gravis involves reduction of acetylcholine receptors in the skeletal muscles; this decreases the strength of muscles used for eye and eyelid movements, speaking, swallowing, and breathing. Treatment includes administration of anticholinesterase drugs before meals, easily-chewed foods, and appropriate vaccinations. Answer - A,D,E
A nurse working in a neurology clinic receives the following telephone messages. Which client should the nurse call back first? a. Client prescribed sumatriptan who has a throbbing left temple pain preceded by an aura b. Client taking carbidopa-levodopa who has dizziness when rising from a sitting or lying position c. Client with Myasthenia Gravis who has a fever and increasing difficulty swallowing d. Client with trigeminal neuralgia who reports burning cheek pain after eating an ice cream
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease of the neuromuscular junction resulting in fluctuating muscle weakness. Autoantibodies are formed against the acetylcholine receptors, so fewer receptors are available for acetylcholine to bind. It is treated with pyridostigmine (Mestinon), which increases the amount of acetylcholine at the synaptic junction, augmenting neuromuscular signals and improving muscle strength. Infection, undermedication, and stress can precipitate a life-threatening myasthenic crisis, which is characterized by oropharyngeal and respiratory muscle weakness and respiratory failure. This client's infection and increasing difficulty swallowing indicate the need for immediate intervention. (Option 1) Sumatriptan is prescribed for moderate to severe, acute migraine headaches that are characterized by severe pulsatile, throbbing unilateral head pain with or without auras, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. The client with uncontrolled migraine headaches requires a change in treatment regimen (eg, ergotamine). (Option 2) Carbidopa-levodopa is prescribed to decrease symptoms of Parkinson disease (eg, bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity). Orthostatic hypotension is an adverse effect of the drug and may also occur from disease-related autonomic nervous system dysfunction. This client should be taught to slowly change positions; this is not the priority action. (Option 4) Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by intermittent severe, unilateral facial pain precipitated by light touch, hot or cold foods, chewing, and swallowing. This client may require a change in treatment regimen (eg, carbamazepine, gabapentin, baclofen) for improved pain relief. Educational objective:Myasthenia gravis is a chronic neurologic autoimmune disease in which acetylcholine receptors are blocked, causing muscle weakness. Infection, undermedication, and stress can lead to a myasthenic crisis, which is characterized by oropharyngeal and respiratory muscle weakness and respiratory failure. Answer C
A newborn has a large myelomeningocele. What nursing intervention is priority? a. Assess the anus for muscle tone b. Cover the area with a sterile, moist dressing c. Measure the occipital frontal circumference d. Place the newborn supine with the HOB elevated
Myelomeningocele occurs when the neural tube fails to fuse properly during fetal development. An outpouching of spinal fluid, spinal cord, and nerves covered by only a thin membrane occurs, typically in the lumbar area. The newborn is at high risk for infection at this area. A priority nursing intervention is to cover the area with a sterile, moist dressing to decrease the risk of infection until surgical repair can occur. (Option 1) Assessing for an anal wink will assist in the assessment of the level of neurologic deficit but is not a priority intervention. (Option 3) Myelomeningocele may decrease the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid, which would place the newborn at risk for hydrocephalus from the excess cerebrospinal fluid. An occipital frontal circumference is needed as a baseline measurement but is not a priority. (Option 4) The newborn would be placed in the prone position (with face turned to the side) to prevent rupture of the myelomeningocele. Educational objective:The newborn with a myelomeningocele is at risk for infection. Covering the myelomeningocele with a sterile, moist dressing is indicated to decrease the risk of infection at the site. The infant should be placed on the abdomen (prone) with the face turned to the side. Answer: B
The home health nurse prepares to give benztropine to a 70-year-old client with Parkinson disease. Which client statement is most concerning and would warrant health care provider notification? a. I am going to repeat testing to confirm glaucoma b. I am not able to exercise as much as I used to. c. I started taking esomeprazole for heartburn d. My bowel movements are not regular
Parkinson disease (PD) is a progressive neurological disorder characterized by bradykinesia (loss of autonomic movements), rigidity, and tremors. Clients with PD have an imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine in which dopamine is not produced in high enough quantities to inhibit acetylcholine. Anticholinergic medications (eg, benztropine, trihexyphenidyl) are commonly used to treat tremor in these clients. However, in clients with benign prostatic hyperplasia or glaucoma, caution must be taken as anticholinergic drugs can precipitate urinary retention and an acute glaucoma episode. As a result, such medications are contraindicated in these clients. (Option 2) Decreased ability to exercise is common in clients with PD due to tremors and bradykinesia, and they require physical and occupational therapy consultations. However, acute glaucoma can be sight threatening and is the priority. (Option 3) Esomeprazole is safe to take with benztropine and will not cause an adverse reaction. (Option 4) Constipation is a common side effect of benztropine. Due to the characteristic decreased mobility, PD can also cause constipation. The client should be instructed to increase dietary fiber intake and drink plenty of water. However, this is not the most concerning issue. Educational objective:Anticholinergic medications (eg, benztropine, trihexyphenidyl) are used to treat Parkinson disease tremor. However, they can precipitate acute glaucoma and urinary retention and are therefore contraindicated in susceptible clients (eg, those with glaucoma or benign prostatic hyperplasia). Answer: A
The clinic nurse is assessing a previously healthy 60-year-old client when the client says, "My hand has been shaking when I try to cut food. I did some research online. Could I have Parkinson's disease?" Which response from the nurse is the most helpful? a. It can't be Parkinson's disease because you aren't old enough b. Make sure you tell the physician about your concerns c. Parkinson's disease does not cause that kind of hand shaking d. Tell me more about your symptoms. When did they start?
Parkinson's disease (PD) is a chronic, progressive neurodegenerative disorder that involves degeneration of the dopamine-producing neurons. Damage to dopamine neurons makes it difficult to control muscles through smooth movement. PD is characterized by a delay in initiation of movement (bradykinesia), increased muscle tone (rigidity), resting tremor, and shuffling gait. The most helpful response by the nurse is the one that acknowledges the concern of the client and also asks for more information. The nurse should assess for additional information and perform a more focused physical assessment given this new information (Option 4). (Option 1) It is incorrect to say that the client is too young to have PD although it is usually seen after age 60; about 15% of PD cases are diagnosed before age 50. (Option 2) Although the nurse should encourage the client and family to discuss concerns with the health care provider, this is not the most helpful response. (Option 3) Although the typical parkinsonian tremor occurs at rest and not during purposeful movement, it is not helpful to dismiss a concern without probing for more information. Educational objective:Therapeutic communication includes acknowledging concerns and probing for additional information as part of an assessment. Answer- D
The office nurse, while reviewing a client's health information, notices that the client has recently started taking St. John's wort for symptoms of depression. What additional information is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Ask if the client is currently taking any prescription antidepressant medications b. Ask if the client has been diagnosed by a mental health care provider c. Ask if the client takes a multivitamin with iron d. Ask if the client uses tanning beds
St. John's wort is an herbal product commonly used by many clients to treat depression. However, it may interact with medications used to treat depression or other mood disorders, including tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin and/or norepinephrine receptor inhibitors (SSRIs/SNRIs), and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). Taking St. John's wort with these medications tends to increase side effects and could potentially lead to a dangerous condition called serotonin syndrome. Serotonin is a chemical produced by the body that is needed for the nerve cells and brain to function. Excessive serotonin causes symptoms that can range from mild (shivering and diarrhea) to severe (muscle rigidity, fever, and seizures). Severe serotonin syndrome can be fatal if it is not treated. (Option 2) The nurse can ask the client if a diagnosis of depression has been made by an HCP, but inquiring about possible medications that can interact with St. John's wort is more important at this time. (Option 3) St. John's wort may interfere with the absorption of iron and other minerals. This is a teaching point, but it is not the highest priority question to ask the client. (Option 4) St. John's wort can cause photosensitivity which could be exacerbated by use of tanning beds. However, this is not the highest priority question to ask the client. Educational objective:St. John's wort interferes with many prescription medications. It is a priority for the nurse to assess for concomitant use of St. John's wort with prescription SSRIs, MAOIs, or tricyclic antidepressants as such combinations can cause serotonin syndrome. Answer: A
A nurse cares for a client with impairment of cranial nerve VIII. What instructions will the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel prior to delegating interventions related to the client's activities of daily living? a. Be aware of the client's shoulder weakness and provide support as needed b. Ensure that the client sits upright and tucks the chin when swallowing food c. Explain all procedures in step-by-step detain before performing them d. Make sure the items needed by the client are within reach
The client has an impairment of cranial nerve (CN) VIII, the vestibulocochlear (or auditory) nerve. Symptoms of impairment may include loss of hearing, dizziness, vertigo, and motion sickness, which place the client at a high risk for falls. Therefore, when instructing the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about helping the client with activities of daily living, the nurse emphasizes the need to keep items at the bedside within the client's reach (Option 4). (Option 1) Weakness of the shoulder muscle occurs with impairment of CN XI, the spinal accessory nerve. Impairment of CN VIII does not affect shoulder strength. (Option 2) Dysphagia may occur with impairment of CN IX (glossopharyngeal) and CN X (vagus), not CN VIII. Instructing the client to tuck the chin while eating is a technique for those who have difficulty swallowing. (Option 3) Impairment of visual acuity occurs with disorders affecting CN II (optic). Because impairment of CN VIII does not affect visual acuity, providing a detailed, step-by-step explanation of procedures may be helpful but is not the most appropriate instruction to give the UAP. Educational objective:Impairment of cranial nerve (CN) VIII, the vestibulocochlear or auditory nerve, may cause dizziness, vertigo, loss of hearing, and motion sickness. To assist the client with impairment of CN VIII, needed items should be placed nearby to decrease the risk of the client getting out of bed and falling. Answer: D
The daughter of an 80-year-old client recently diagnosed with Alzheimer disease (AD) says to the nurse, "I guess I can anticipate getting this disease myself at some point." What is an appropriate response by the nurse? a. Engaging in regular exercise decreases the risk of AD b. Having a family hx of AD is not a risk factor c. Try not to worry about this now as you can't do anything to prevent AD d. You should avoid aluminum cans and cookware to prevent AD
The development of Alzheimer disease (AD) is related to a combination of genetic, lifestyle, and environmental factors. Clients with AD are usually diagnosed at age ≥65. Early-onset AD is a rare form of the disease that develops before age 60 and is strongly related to genetics. Children of clients with early-onset AD have a 50% chance of developing the disease. For late-onset AD, the strongest known risk factor is advancing age. Having a first-degree relative (eg, parent, sibling) with late-onset AD also increases the risk of developing AD (Option 2). Trauma to the brain has been associated with the development of AD in the future. Brain trauma may be prevented by wearing seat belts and sports helmets and taking measures to prevent falls. Research suggests that healthy lifestyle choices (eg, smoking cessation, avoiding excessive alcohol intake, exercising regularly, participating in mentally challenging activities) reduce the risk for developing AD (Options 1 and 3). (Option 4) Research has failed to confirm that exposure to aluminum products (eg, cans, cookware, antiperspirant deodorant) is related to the development of AD. Educational objective:Research suggests that healthy lifestyle choices (eg, smoking cessation, avoiding excessive alcohol intake, exercising regularly, participating in mentally challenging activities) reduce the risk for developing Alzheimer disease. Answer A
The emergency department nurse receives several prescriptions for a client who was found unresponsive after drinking beer and consuming unidentified pills. Which prescription should the nurse implement first? Click on the exhibit button for additional information. VS: T- 96.4 F (35.8 C) P- 53/min R- 6/min BP- 90/62 O2 sat% - 92% a. Administer IVP naloxone once now b. Draw specimen for blood alcohol content testing STAT c. Initiate continuous LR solution infusion d. Obtain urine sample for drug abuse screening ASAP
The goals of emergency care for the client with suspected substance abuse who exhibits signs of central nervous system depression (eg, altered level of consciousness, bradypnea, hypotension, bradycardia) are to promote adequate ventilation and oxygenation and preserve hemodynamic stability. Interventions are prioritized according to the ABCs (ie, airway, breathing, circulation). Initial actions involve maintaining patency of the client's airway, including appropriate positioning, oropharyngeal suctioning, and artificial airway placement (if needed). Respiratory depression occurring after the ingestion of an unknown substance (eg, depressants [opioids, benzodiazepines, barbiturates]) should initially be treated with administration of reversal agents (eg, naloxone, flumazenil). Naloxone rapidly reverses the effects of opioids and may restore spontaneous respiration and normal ventilatory pattern, averting initiation of mechanical ventilation, the possibility of respiratory arrest, and death (Option 1). (Options 2 and 4) Obtaining blood and urine for toxicology screening assists in guiding care decisions but should occur after interventions that support the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. (Option 3) Administration of IV fluids to support blood pressure and prevent dehydration should be performed after securing the client's airway and supporting effective breathing. Educational objective:Nurses providing emergency care to clients with suspected substance abuse who exhibit signs of central nervous system depression (eg, bradypnea, bradycardia) prioritize interventions according to the ABCs (ie, airway, breathing, circulation). Administration of naloxone is a priority action in the setting of respiratory depression from an unknown substance because it rapidly reverses the depressant effects of opioids. Answer - A