VETM 801 FINAL Practice Questions

Which of the following items are an example of fluid disturbances that are changes in fluid content ? (Check all that apply) A. Urinary obstruction B. Dehydration from any cause C. Renal disease D. Disease causing pulmonary or peripheral edema E. Heart disease F. Blood loss G. Diabetes H. Disease causing pleural or peritoneal effusion

A, C, G

Which of the following molecules can serve as a second messenger? A. Calcium ion B. G protein C. GTP D. GPCR

A. Calcium ion

Long bones develop by the process of A. Endochondral ossification B. Intramembranous ossification C. Provisional calcification D. Resorption

A. Endochondral ossification

Which of the following correctly lists the related receptor, pathway and outcome? A. RTK, Ras - MAP kinase, cell proliferation B. Cytokine receptor, JAK-STAT pathway, neurotransmission C. Nuclear receptor, second messenger cAMP, sense of smell D. GPCR, second messengers DAG and IP3, pain relief

A. RTK, Ras - MAP kinase, cell proliferation

Tolerance and tachyphylaxis are similar processes, with the main difference being the time-scale with which they develop in patients. A. True B. False

A. True

Name the neurotransmitter that is released at all skeletal neuromuscular junctions

Acetylcholine

Which of the following items are an example of fluid disturbances that are changes in volume? (Check all that apply) A. Urinary obstruction B. Dehydration from any cause C. Renal disease D. Disease causing pulmonary or peripheral edema E. Heart disease F. Blood loss G. Diabetes H. Disease causing pleural or peritoneal effusion

B, E, F

The final stage of bone healing is: A. Bony callus formation B. Bone remodeling C. Fibrocartilaginous callus formation D. Hematoma formation

B. Bone remodeling

Cartilage is a specialized form of connective tissue produced by differentiated fibroblast-like cells called: A. Adipocytes B. Chondrocytes C. Osteoblasts D. Osteocytes

B. Chondrocytes

A severe viral infection which damages the microvilli of the small intestine would be expected to result in A. Inability to sweep intestinal contents down the gastrointestinal tract B. Decrease in the absorptive surface area C. Increased contact time with ingesta D. Increased fluid absorption by the gut

B. Decrease in the absorptive surface area

What is the most common cell type of connective tissue, which synthesizes the collagen and ground substance of the extracellular matrix? A. Blastocyst B. Fibroblast C. Macrophage D. Osteoblast

B. Fibroblast

Which of the following components is the most influential factor in transmitting information from one cell to another? A. Specific ligand B. Ligand-receptor complex C. Second messenger D. Class of receptor

B. Ligand-receptor complex

If the pulmonary artery were blocked with something - heart worms for example (yuck!) - which chambers of the heart would experience backup of blood?

Because blood should normally be ejected from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery, any blockage of the outflow of the pulmonary artery will cause back up of blood and pressure into the right ventricle and right atrium of the heart. The left side of the heart is mostly unaffected in cases of heart worm disease. Did you see any of the cadavers with heart worms in their pulmonary artery! Hard to believe those dogs could live!

When blood enters the left atrium, where has it come from? When it exits the left ventricle, where is it going?

Blood enters the left atrium via the pulmonary veins which are carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs. Blood is ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta where it heads to the rest of the body

When blood enters the right atrium, where has it come from? When it exits the right ventricle, where is it going?

Blood from the cranial and caudal vena cava dump into the right atrium. Blood exits the pulmonary artery and heads to the lungs.

Which of the following is a characteristic of ion-channel receptors that best distinguishes them from the other important classes of receptors? A. Becomes activated by ligand binding B. Involved in normal physiological processes C. Allows passage of molecules into the cell D. Located in the plasma cell membrane

C. Allows passage of molecules into the cell

Which of the following best describes the role of a ligand in cell communication? A. Undergoes conformational change which initiates a chain of events B. Phosphorylates proteins to transmit signals intracellularly C. Binds to receptor and functions as a signaling molecule D. Activates G protein by exchanging GDP for GTP

C. Binds to receptor and functions as a signaling molecule

Which of the following is an example of a nuclear receptor ligand? A. Calcium ion B. Epinephrine C. Estrogen D. Morphine

C. Estrogen

What is the material composed of glycoproteins and proteoglycans which occupies the space between the cellular and fiber elements of connective tissue is called? A. Collagen B. Fibroblasts C. Ground substance D. Reticular fibers

C. Ground substance

Connective tissue is of ______________ embryonic origin. A. Ectodermal B. Endodermal C. Mesodermal

C. Mesodermal

A lung alveoli must allow rapid gas exchange across its surface. What kind of epithelium is this? (Arrows are showing examples) A. Pseudostratified columnar B. Simple cuboidal C. Simple squamous D. Stratified squamous

C. Simple squamous

Which of the following items are an example of fluid disturbances that are changes in fluid distribution? (Check all that apply) A. Urinary obstruction B. Dehydration from any cause C. Renal disease D. Disease causing pulmonary or peripheral edema E. Heart disease F. Blood loss G. Diabetes H. Disease causing pleural or peritoneal effusion

D, H

Which of following best describe the action of opioids in regulating cAMP? A. Hydrolysis of cAMP by PDE B. Activation of adenylyl cyclase C. Conversion of cAMP to ATP D. Inhibition of cAMP production

D. Inhibition of cAMP production

Which term best describes the process by which an extracellular signal that does not cross the plasma membrane leads to an intracellular response? A. Cell proliferation B. DNA transcription C. Protein phosphorylation D. Signal transduction

D. Signal transduction

Which of the following terms best describes the type of cellular communication represented in B? A. Apocrine B. Autocrine C. Endocrine D. Exocrine E. Paracrine F. Posacrine

E. paracrine

In the healthy, functioning heart, what mechanical events are associated with the p wave, QRS wave, and the T wave on an ECG?

P wave = atrial depolarization and atrial contraction; QRS complex = ventricular depolarization and ventricular contraction (systole); T wave = ventricular repolarization and relaxation (diastole).

Name the muscular projections that connect the chordae tendinae to the walls of the ventricles.

Papillary muscles

You decide to extract the sewing needle from LeeLoo's stomach using an endoscope (a long scope with a camera and grabbing device). If the needle is located in the pyloric area of the stomach, what anatomical regions and structures will the needle and scope pass by as both are pulled out of LeeLoo's mouth? Be as specific as possible. (Separate the regions with a comma)

Pylorus, Body of stomach, Fundus, Cardia, (lower) Esophageal Sphincter, Thoracic esophagus, Cervical esophagus, Epiglottis, Pharynx, (Salivary ducts), Soft palate, Hard palate, Tongue, Teeth, Lips

Which heart valves are closing when we hear the first heart sound (S1)? Which heart valves are closing when we hear (S2)

S1 indicates closure of the AV valves (Mitral and Tricuspid) and the beginning of systole. S2 indicates closure of the semilunar valves (Aortic and Pulmonic), marking the end of systole and the beginning of diastole.

Fill in the blanks: When the S1 occurs, it marks the beginning of contraction of the heart also known as ________. When S2 occurs, it marks the end of contraction of the ventricles and beginning of relaxation, also known as ________.

Systole; Diastole

Based on your answer - what do you think would be most likely to see clinically?: A. Distention of the jugular vein B. High systemic arterial blood pressure (the blood pressure that gets measured when you go to the doctor)

The buildup of pressure in the right side of the heart will eventually lead to a backup of pressure and volume into the venous system. Remember that it is the veins that are all eventually dumping into the cranial and caudal vena cava, including the jugular vein. Looking for distention of the jugular vein is part of a thorough assessment of the cardiovascular system in our patients!

The chordae tendinae attach to the atrioventricular valves. What role do you think they play?

The chordae hold the valve leaflets in place sort of like the spokes in an umbrella. They are essential for maintaining the integrity of the of the valves.

How does the wall thickness of the left ventricle compare to the right ventricle? Thinking about the role of each ventricle, why do you think the wall thicknesses are different?

The left ventricular wall is significantly thicker than the right because it requires much more force to eject blood to the entire systemic arterial blood supply, and also works against the resistance of the systemic arterial circulation.

Which chamber of the heart does the venous blood from the coronary blood enter? Did you have a chance to see it in lab?

The venous blood returns via the great cardiac vein then enters the coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium.

Which label indicates the chordae tendinae? a. b. c. d.

a.

Which of the following suffixes indicates a record or report? a. -gram b. -graph c. -graphy d. -graphio

a. -gram

How many hormones are produced in the neurohypophysis? a. 0 b. 2 c. 5 d. 6

a. 0

Based on what was discussed in the prework, if a measurement was taken from the catheter at image A, what would most likely be the pressure measurement? (Assume the patient's heart is normal) a. 0-3 mmHg b. 5-15 mmHg c. 35-45 mmHg d. 80-120 mmHg

a. 0-3 mmHg

There are many places in the animal body that contains a selectively permeable membrane for water. If water moves from "side a" to "side b", which side has the lowest osmotic pressure for this to occur. a. A b. B c. C d. The membrane

a. A

This is a nephron. Which letter labels the gromerulus? a. A b. B c. C d. C

a. A

In the JVECC article, the control dog given apomorphine vomited 7 times with one dose of apomorphine and vomiting started 2 minutes after administration. The test group of dogs given hydrogen peroxide vomited an average 1.8 times and vomiting started on average 4.5 minutes after administration. Additionally, one dog required a second dose of hydrogen peroxide to induce vomiting. Compared to apomorphine, hydrogen peroxide would be considered: (select all that are correct) a. A Less effective emetic b. A More effective emetic c. A Less potent emetic d. A More potent emetic e. To have a quicker onset of action f. To have a slower onset of action

a. A Less effective emetic c. A Less potent emetic f. To have a slower onset of action

You would like to rule out Cryptosporidium as a cause of diarrhea in a group of calves. What kind of test would be the best choice to rule out Cryptosporidium? a. A highly sensitive test b. A highly specific test

a. A highly sensitive test

Which of the following best describes a highly sensitive test? a. A test that will detect all animals that truly have the disease b. A test that correctly gives a negative result for all animals without the disease c. A test that has a low rate of false positives d. A test that cries easily

a. A test that will detect all animals that truly have the disease

Methylxanthines are rapidly taken up from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, although fat present in chocolate products may slow digestion. When large quantities of chocolate are consumed, formation of a chocolate bezoar (wad) in the stomach may also slow its gastrointestinal transit time. Because of this, you consider inducing emesis (vomiting). Emesis aims at decreasing: a. Absorption b. Decontamination c. Elimination c. Metabolism d. Redistribution

a. Absorption

An emergency therapy for ivermectin toxicity is intravenous lipids. What is the basic building block for all lipids that allow them to cross the blood brain barrier and help with ivermectin toxicity? a. Acetyl-CoA b. Arginine c. Nucleic acid d. Phosphorus e. Water

a. Acetyl-CoA

Prior to today's exposure, Fabio, the 6 month old Golden Retriever, snarfed up 3 milk chocolate chips at 4 months of age and never experienced or showed any signs of toxicity. Taking into account his history and today's exposure to milk and dark chocolate, this is what kind of toxicity? a. Acute toxicity b. Subacute toxicity c. Chronic toxicity

a. Acute toxicity

Cells of the epiblast will develop into: a. All the tissues of the embryo. b. Hypoblast c. The embryonic component of the placenta Trophectoderm

a. All the tissues of the embryo.

Arnie and Percy are two cats that presented to your clinic with a large amount of fluid in their pleural cavity. The fluid in Arnie's pleural cavity contains large numbers of neutrophils with intracellular bacteria. The fluid in Percy's fluid contains large numbers of macrophages with intracellular yeast organisms. Which fluid is indicative of acute inflammation? a. Arnie's fluid because neutrophils are the cells most commonly seen in acute inflammation b. Percy's fluid because macrophages are the cells most commonly associated with acute inflammation. c. Both fluids because infectious organisms in general are associated with acute inflammation. d. Neither fluid because the cellular characteristics of a fluid do not determine the type of inflammation

a. Arnie's fluid because neutrophils are the cells most commonly seen in acute inflammation

Which vessels are considered the capacitance vessels of the circulatory system? (Be ready to justify your answer.) a. Arterioles b. Arteries c. Veins and venules d. Capillaries

a. Arterioles

Which of the following describes the most correct order of vessels a red blood cell would travel through? a. Artery, arteriole, capillary bed, venule, vein b. Arteriole, artery, capillary bed, vein, venule c. Artery, capillary bed, arteriole, venule, vein d. Artery, arteriole, venule, capillary bed, vein

a. Artery, arteriole, capillary bed, venule, vein

Select the FALSE statement below: a. Asparginase is an acidic amino acid that is also hydrophobic b. Branched-chain amino acids are dietarily essential c. Most mammalian proteins contain the L-isomers of amino acids d. The structures of all amino acids (except Gly) are asymmetrically arranged around the a-carbon atom.

a. Asparginase is an acidic amino acid that is also hydrophobic

What type of disease would you expect to see this cell type respond to? a. Bacterial Infection b. Parasitic Infection c. Viral Infection d. Neoplasia

a. Bacterial Infection

Which of the following are examples of factors that might predispose an animal to an infection? Select all that apply: a. Being young, old, pregnant or immune-compromised b. Being fully vaccinated c. Having a cut on the skin d. Being in a crowded environment

a. Being young, old, pregnant or immune-compromised c. Having a cut on the skin d. Being in a crowded environment

The formation of a central fluid-filled cavity within the trophectoderm of the morula results in the formation of the: a. Blastocyst b. Blastomere c. Gastrula d. Zygote

a. Blastocyst

The pathophysiological mechanism responsible for clinical signs related to botulism can most accurately be described as: a. Blockade of Ach release from presynapse of NMJ b. Inhibit action of acetylcholinesterase c. Blockade of Ach release from autonomic synapses d. Immune mediated breakdown of Ach receptors

a. Blockade of Ach release from presynapse of NMJ

This image is from 'Governer', who had an abdominal effusion (fluid in the abdominal cavity). The structures within the abdomen cannot be clearly visualized because fluid is the same opacity as soft tissue. What is the artifact when two structures of the same opacity overlie each other and are obscured? a. Border effacement b. Sublimination c. Loss of volumetric perception d. Fluid wave

a. Border effacement

Which of the following are derivatives of ectoderm? (Choose all that apply) a. Brain b. Epithelial lining of the bladder c. Hair d. Tooth enamel

a. Brain c. Hair d. Tooth enamel

How is the fragment of bone (yellow arrow) positioned relative to the rest of the bone? a. Caudally b. Cranially c. Medially d. Laterally

a. Caudally

What would be an expected consequence of prolonged ischemia (lack of blood flow) in a tissue? a. Cellular apoptosis and tissue necrosis b. Build-up of tissue oxygen c. Decreased lactic acid production d. Increased blood pH (alkalemia)

a. Cellular apoptosis and tissue necrosis

These apical cell structures help sweep debris from the respiratory tract. What are these apical cell structures called? a. Cilia b. Keratinocytes c. Microvilli d. Tight junctions

a. Cilia

Teratogens are a. Compounds toxic to embryological growth b. Stem cells which can develop into any cell of the body c. The cells which become the embryonic portion of the placenta d. The compact outer layer of the morula

a. Compounds toxic to embryological growth

Which of the following is an example of a target organ hormone? a. Cortisol b. Thyroid releasing hormone c. Luteinizing hormone d. Prolactin

a. Cortisol

The cell cycle is regulated through many mechanisms. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Cyclins are positive cell cycle regulators by binding to any available cyclin dependent kinase to activate a kinase cascade. b. One of the end results of Rb activation is transcription of S phase genes, allowing the cell cycle to progress. c. Cyclin dependent kinases positively regulate the cell cycle by phosphorylating other proteins. d.p53 is a negative cell cycle regulator by triggering apoptosis if vital cell cycle events do not occur.

a. Cyclins are positive cell cycle regulators by binding to any available cyclin dependent kinase to activate a kinase cascade.

Transcription is regulated at several levels. Which of the following is TRUE? a. DNA methyltransferases add methyl groups, which represses transcription b. Histone acetyl transferases add acetyl groups, which represses transcription c. Localization of a transcription factor to the cytoplasm typically yields its most active form d.Transcription factors are constitutively active, regardless of cell type

a. DNA methyltransferases add methyl groups, which represses transcription

Select the choice which pairs the pineal gland hormone with the stimulus which promotes hormone secretion a. Darkness - melatonin b. Daylight - serotonin c. Darkness - serotonin d. Daylight - melatonin

a. Darkness - melatonin

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the general way that almost all drugs work? a. Drugs modify existing biological processes b. Drugs create unique, new biological processes c. Drugs inhibit biological processes d. Drugs accelerate biological processes

a. Drugs modify existing biological processes

The myelin sheath (select all that apply) a. Enables faster conduction velocity b. Is made by oligodendrocytes in the CNS c. Is made by Schwann (neurolemmocytes) in the PNS d. Slows the nerve impulse traveling along axons

a. Enables faster conduction velocity b. Is made by oligodendrocytes in the CNS c. Is made by Schwann (neurolemmocytes) in the PNS

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius is a common cause of skin disease in dogs. These skin infections are commonly referred to as 'pyoderma'. Is pyoderma caused by S.pseudintermedius more likely to be an endogenous or an exogenous infection? a. Endogenous b. Exogenous

a. Endogenous

The inside of the aorta is lined with which type of epithelium? a. Endothelium b. Mesothelium c. Pseudostratified d. Simple cuboidal

a. Endothelium

Based on your current knowledge and prework, if instead of removing the sewing needle, we were able to let the needle carefully navigate through the gastrointestinal tract, what are the sphincters it would pass through from mouth to anus? a. Esophageal -> Pyloric -> Ileocecal -> External anal b. External anal -> Ileocecal -> Pyloric -> Esophageal c. Oral -> Esophageal -> Pyloric -> Anal d. Oropharyngeal -> Gastric -> Duodenal -> Colic e. Pharyngeal -> Pyloric -> Ileocolic -> Rectal

a. Esophageal -> Pyloric -> Ileocecal -> External anal

Which of the following are functions of the kidney? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. a. Excretion of metabolic waste b. Regulation of volume of body fluids c. Production of urea d. Delivery of oxygenated blood to organs in the body

a. Excretion of metabolic waste b. Regulation of volume of body fluids

If the basement membrane of an epithelial tissue (like the renal tubular epithelium) is irreparably damaged with is the usual outcome of the inflammatory response? a. Fibrosis with loss of function b. Abscess formation c. Transition to chronic granulomatous inflammation d. Return to normal function with no loss of function

a. Fibrosis with loss of function

Which of the following best describes the driving force of bulk flow within the circulatory system? a. Fluid moves from areas of high pressure to low pressure b. Substances of high concentration move to areas of low concentration c. Fluid moves from areas of low pressure to areas of high pressure d. Substances of low concentration move to areas of high concentration.

a. Fluid moves from areas of high pressure to low pressure

Blastula (a single-layered hollow sphere of cells) is reorganized into a multilayered structure known as the a. Gastrula b. Hypoblast c. Morula d. Zygote

a. Gastrula

Which of the following combines two a-chains, two b-chains, and four heme groups, and is an example of a functional protein having a quaternary structure? a. Hemaglobin b. Immunoglobulins c. Keratin d. Myosin

a. Hemaglobin

Which one of the following would cause a dog to start drinking water (become thirsty) if it were given IV? a. Hypertonic saline b. Isotonic saline c. Hypotonic saline

a. Hypertonic saline

Archie, a 2-year-old intact male Golden Retriever, is submitted to the diagnostic laboratory for a necropsy. The clinical history from the submitting veterinarian was sudden death. Archie appeared healthy in the morning but died during the day while his owners were at work. On examination of Archie's heart, the pathologist found a distinct ring of fibrous tissue that forms a constriction just as the aorta leaves the heart. What would be the most likely physiological response by the heart to compensate for the increased workload needed to pump blood through the constricted outflow tract into the aorta? a. Hypertrophy b. Hyperplasia c. Metaplasia d. Dysplasia

a. Hypertrophy

In the leukocyte adhesion cascade, which of the following adhesion molecules are found on the endothelial cell surface. CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY. a. ICAM-1 b. Beta2 Integrin c. PECAM-1 d. P-Selectin

a. ICAM-1 c. PECAM-1 d. P-Selectin

While the cat is still sedated, you examine the cat's thoracic radiographs that were just performed to ensure the technique is optimal. You are concerned that while there is enough blackness, there are not enough shades of grey (i.e. the film has high contrast, less shades of grey). You conclude that you need higher energy x-rays. How will you change your radiographic technique? a. Increase kVp b. Increase mAs c. Increase both kVp and mAs d. Decrease both kVp and mAs

a. Increase kVp

Cheeto a middle-aged cat has become very thin despite an increased appetite. A blood sample reveals an excessively high level of thyroid hormone. Which of the following statements best describes what is occurring in Cheeto's feedback loop? a. Increased production of thyroid hormones will negatively feedback to the hypothalamus, hypothalamus will decrease TRH production b. Increased production of thyroid hormones will positively feedback to the pituitary, pituitary will increase TSH production c. Increased production of thyroid hormones will positively feedback to the thyroid, thyroid will increase thyroid hormone production d. Increased production of the thyroid hormones will not feedback to the hypothalamus, hypothalamus production of TRH is not affected

a. Increased production of thyroid hormones will negatively feedback to the hypothalamus, hypothalamus will decrease TRH production

What is the purpose of the collimator on the x-ray machine? a. It adjusts and focuses the x-ray beam to the area of interest on the patient b. It filters out low energy x-rays which are of little diagnostic benefit c. It measures the amount of x-ray photons coming from the tube d. It bends the x-ray beam to focus the x-rays to the patient

a. It adjusts and focuses the x-ray beam to the area of interest on the patient

6. Oxygen therapy is often provided to animals that are having difficulty breathing. Inhaled oxygen is quickly absorbed from an animal's lungs into the blood stream. This is because it can easily diffuse down its concentration gradient. What is it about oxygen that allows it to easily diffuse across the cell membrane? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. It is small b. It is large c. It is polar d. It is non-polar

a. It is small d. It is non-polar

In healthy calves, the positive predictive value of an ETEC antigen test is low. What is the best way to define 'positive predictive value (PPV)'? a. It is the likelihood of a patient actually having the disease if they receive a positive test result b. It is the ability of a test to detect animals that are positive for the disease c. It is the prevalence of positive animals in a population d. It is the likelihood of a patient receiving a false positive test result

a. It is the likelihood of a patient actually having the disease if they receive a positive test result

During the volvulus injury, Fabio's pancreas was irreparably damaged by an embolus. Without blood supply, the pancreas will atrophy to basically nothing. Based on your knowledge of this organ, what disease/s might you expect to develop in the months to come? Select all that apply. a. Lack of digestive enzyme secretion (Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency- EPI) b. Delayed gastric emptying c. Lack of insulin production (Diabetes mellitus) d. Lack of thyroid production (Hypothyroidism) e. Overproduction of insulin (insulinoma)

a. Lack of digestive enzyme secretion (Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency- EPI) c. Lack of insulin production (Diabetes mellitus)

In human and veterinary cardiology, it is possible to pass a catheter into the heart via the circulatory system. For example, a catheter can be passed to place an intracardiac pacemaker (electrical device that maintains steady heart rate and rhythm). If a catheter were to be passed via the femoral artery (major artery that supplies blood to the leg), which heart chamber would the catheter arrive first? (the catheter will be passed retrograde - ie towards the heart, against flow of blood). a. Left ventricle b. Left atrium c. Right atrium d. Right ventricle

a. Left ventricle

Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) and phenobarbital (a barbiturate) target which category of molecules? a. Ligand-gated ion channels b. G-protein-coupled receptors c. Enzymes d. Nuclear receptors

a. Ligand-gated ion channels

Which of the following properties are true for both enzyme-associated receptors and GPCRs? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. a. Located in the plasma membrane b. Phosphorylation starts when ligands bind c. Ligand binding leads to signal transduction d. Require second messengers

a. Located in the plasma membrane c. Ligand binding leads to signal transduction

You are visiting a farm with a goat. You only have bags of half strength saline left in your vet box. Will you use these fluids? a. NO b. YES

a. NO

Governor has an abdominal effusion because he had protein-losing enteropathy, which led to hypoproteinemia. Which Starling force is the one that keeps fluid inside blood vessels? a. Oncotic pressure b. Hydrostatic pressure c. Under pressure d. Whatever the force is that comes out of light sabers

a. Oncotic pressure

Which of the following statements is false? a. Only 10 "essential" amino acids are used in the synthesis of proteins b. Some polysaccharides are complex polymers in that they contain several different types of sugars c. Triglycerides are considered to be "simple" lipids d. Virtually every reaction in a living cell requires an enzyme

a. Only 10 "essential" amino acids are used in the synthesis of proteins

Which of the following terms indicates decreased numbers of all cells in the blood. a. Pancytopenia b. Hypocytopenia c. Acytopenia d. Polycytopenia

a. Pancytopenia

Which of the following is true about the pathogenesis of a Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) persistent infection? a. Persistently infected animals are created when they are infected as a fetus at 3-4 months of gestation by non-cytoplasmic biotypes of Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV) b. An adult animal becomes persistently infected after the immune system is unable to eliminate the BVDV from their body after 3 weeks c. Transient infections develop into persistent infection from multiple infections by any BVDV d. Infection with a Type 1 genotype BVDV causes a transient infection. Infection with a Type 2 genotypes causes a persistent infection.

a. Persistently infected animals are created when they are infected as a fetus at 3-4 months of gestation by non-cytoplasmic biotypes of Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV)

If the number of IPSPs on the dendritic membrane decreases while the number of EPSPs remains the same, what will happen to the action potentials on that neuron? a. Probability of triggering action potentials increases. b. Probability of triggering action potentials decreases. c. Probability of triggering action potentials remains unchanged. d. Action potentials would be eliminated. e. Action potentials would be conducted with increased velocity

a. Probability of triggering action potentials increases.

Which of the following hormones require transport proteins to carry them in the vascular system? Choose all which apply. a. Progesterone b. Follicle stimulating hormone c. Thyroid hormones d. Oxytocin

a. Progesterone c. Thyroid hormones

In order to ensure passage of the sewing needle through her GI tract and out her rectum without needing surgery, LeeLoo makes a deal with the Old Gray cat wizard. She agrees to give up one protective mechanism in her intestinal tract and bear the consequences of such. Which of the following should LeeLoo be MOST willing to give up? a. Prostaglandins b. Epidermal growth factor c. Trefoil proteins d. Paneth cells e. Nitric Oxide

a. Prostaglandins

In which of the following areas of the cardiac system would you expect to find deoxygenated blood? a. Pulmonary artery b. Coronary artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Aorta

a. Pulmonary artery

Which of the following choices describes metaplasia? a. Replacement of one type of well-differentiated tissue by another type of well-differentiated tissue of the same origin. b. Abnormal differentiation of a tissue with cellular atypia and disorganized growth of an epithelial tissue. c. An increase in the number of cells within a tissue due to a physiological process d. An increase in the size of cells within a tissue due to a pathological process.

a. Replacement of one type of well-differentiated tissue by another type of well-differentiated tissue of the same origin.

A benign tumor of striated muscle would be called? a. Rhabdomyoma b. Adenoma c. Papilloma d. Hemangioma

a. Rhabdomyoma

What is the diameter of a capillary vessel in comparison to a red blood cell size? a. Roughly the same b. Half the size of a red blood cell c. Twice the size of a red blood cell d. 10 x larger than a red blood cell

a. Roughly the same

In addition to aiding the release of Ach at presynaptic terminals, calcium acts to facilitate muscle contraction, Where is the calcium required for muscle contraction stored> a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum b. Ion channels c. Intracellular vesicles d. Extracellular vesicles

a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

The four main jobs of the gastrointestinal (GI) system are Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, and Elimination (Excretion). If you had to add a fifth job of the GI system based on the role of the accessory organs, it would be: a. Secretion b. Homeostasis c. Reproduction d. Metabolism e. Distribution

a. Secretion

A 12-year-old castrated male dog was presented to you for steadily decreasing appetite progressing to anorexia (absence of appetite) in the last few days. On physical exam, the dog has a body condition score of 2/9 (emaciated, very thin). You recommend abdominal radiographs. How would you expect the dog's body condition will affect the serosal detail (visibility or delineation of the borders of abdominal organs) of the images? a. Serosal detail will be decreased (harder to see organs) b. Lack of fat will improve serosal detail (easier to see organs) c. Soft tissues (such as muscles, organs, blood) will be more visible d. Body condition should have no effect on serosal detail

a. Serosal detail will be decreased (harder to see organs)

The epithelial layer of the skin that keep microorganisms out and essential body fluids in is the a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum granulosum c. Stratum spinosum d. Stratum basale

a. Stratum corneum

You are working on developing a new drug that attacks rapidly dividing cells. Which of the following hallmarks would be impacted most directly? a. Sustained proliferating signaling b. Avoiding immune destruction c. Deregulating cellular energetics d. Inducing angiogenesis

a. Sustained proliferating signaling

Which of the following statements is not true? a. Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. b. Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers. c. Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers. d. Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS; parasympathetic are close to visceral organs served.

a. Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.

A cat is taking a nap in a sun beam, when the mail truck drives up. The dog in the house starts barking causing the cat to spring in the air and bolt from the room. The cat's sympathetic nervous system is fired up. Based on what you have learned about the autonomic nervous system and cardiac output, which of the following statements is the most accurate? a. The heart rate will be increased, which will increase cardiac output b. The heart rate will be increased, which will decrease cardiac output c. The heart rate will be increased, but cardiac output will stay the same d. The heart rate will be decreased, but cardiac output will increase

a. The heart rate will be increased, which will increase cardiac output

You are happy to report that Laika's heart sounds normal but her owner would like to know more about how her heart works. You draw a diagram of the heart and explain how the shape of each structure in the heart helps to facilitate its function. Which of the following statements best explains the relationship between the anatomic structure of the heart to the function of the circulatory system? * a. The left ventricular wall is thicker than the right because it needs to provide enough force to send the blood to the systemic circulation b. The left atrium is larger than the right because it is the chamber where all the systemic venous blood from the body returns to the heart c. The papillary muscles in the atria help direct blood flow from the ventricles towards the atria d. The chordae tendinea help to hold the semilunar valves in place during ventricular systole.

a. The left ventricular wall is thicker than the right because it needs to provide enough force to send the blood to the systemic circulation

What do you need to know in order to calculate the sensitivity and specificity of a diagnostic test? Select all that apply: a. The number of animals that are truly diseased and truly not diseased, as determined by a gold standard test b. The number of animals that receive a positive test result and the number that receive a negative test result c. The likelihood that a positive test result is correct d. The likelihood that a negative test result is correct

a. The number of animals that are truly diseased and truly not diseased, as determined by a gold standard test d. The likelihood that a negative test result is correct

What is best definition of the pre-patent period? Select all that apply: a. The period between infection with a parasite and the production of eggs or larvae by the adult parasite b. The period between the initiation of an infection and the appearance of clinical signs of a disease c. The period between infection with a parasite and the point where that infection can be diagnosed d. The period between infection with a parasite and death of the animal

a. The period between infection with a parasite and the production of eggs or larvae by the adult parasite c. The period between infection with a parasite and the point where that infection can be diagnosed

Plasma cells are a type of white blood cell that can be identified by the position of their nucleus, which is usually pushed to one side rather than being centrally located. Plasma cells are also recognizable because of the pale zone around their nucleus, which is known as the 'perinuclear halo' (black arrow). Which organelle creates the effect of the perinuclear halo? a. The peroxisome, which is storing water b. The lysosome, which is storing water c. The mitochondrion, which is producing ATP d. The Golgi apparatus, which is packaging proteins

a. The peroxisome, which is storing water b. The lysosome, which is storing water

Which of the following is a virulence factor shared by bacteria and fungi? Select all that apply: a. The production of protease, which is an enzyme that breaks down protein b. The presence of pili, which aids adhesion to host cells c. The presence of a flagellum, which aids motility d. The presence of a capsule, which aids in evasion of host immunity

a. The production of protease, which is an enzyme that breaks down protein d. The presence of a capsule, which aids in evasion of host immunity

The dog is considered the definitive (final) host for heartworms because: a. The reproductive stage of the parasite occurs in the dog b. The parasite kills the dog and it can't go any further c. The dog is not the definitive host, cats are the definitive host d. The dog is not the definitive host, as the mosquito is part of the parasite life cycle

a. The reproductive stage of the parasite occurs in the dog

In the following PICO question, which is the INTERVENTION component of the question? 'Does treatment with a probiotic ointment decrease signs of skin inflammation in dogs with atopic dermatitis compared to treatment with a placebo?' a. Treatment with a probiotic ointment b. Having atopic dermatitis c. Signs of skin inflammation d. Being a dog

a. Treatment with a probiotic ointment

Regarding bacteria classification, is the following statement true or false? Gram positive bacteria have a thick cell wall, while Gram negative bacteria have a thinner cell wall and an additional outer layer called lipopolysaccharide a. True b. False

a. True

True or false: X-rays cannot be felt, are invisible, and penetrate all substances to some degree. a. True b. False

a. True

Why is tubular reabsorption of sodium important? a. Tubular reabsorption allows the body to maintain appropriate amounts of sodium. b. Tubular reabsorption allows the body to excrete sodium appropriately. c. Tubular reabsorption allows the body to secrete sodium appropriately. d. Tubular reabsorption of sodium is not important because sodium is not freely filtered by the glomerulus.

a. Tubular reabsorption allows the body to maintain appropriate amounts of sodium.

Partial agonists are distinguished from full agonists primarily by each drug's _______. a. efficacy b. potency c. affinity d. antagonism

a. efficacy

The kitty with the chin acne is in your exam room and leaves footprints on the stainless-steel exam table when she walks across. Sweat glands are an example of merocrine glands which: a. excrete their compounds without damaging the cell b. bud off a portion of their cell membranes to form the secretion c. excrete their contents by cell rupture d. excrete directly into the bloodstream

a. excrete their compounds without damaging the cell

In our example of epinephrine acting at its adrenergic receptor, which of the following terms could be correctly used to define epinephrine? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) a. ligand b. antagonist c. agonist d. enzyme

a. ligand c. agonist

For a drug to be clinical useful and relatively safe, the MEC should be _______ the MTC. a. lower than b. higher than c. equal to

a. lower than

In what region of the heart are these heartwroms located? a. right side b. left side c. auricle d. pericardial space

a. right side

What is the name of fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without a synapse? a. spinal nerves b. gray rami communicantes c. white rami communicantes d. splanchnic nerves

a. spinal nerves

Which of the following is one of the factors that determines the of amount of potassium excreted in the urine? a. the concentration of potassium that is filtered by the glomerulus b. the amount of potassium secreted by the descending loop of Henle c. the amount of water reabsorbed by the proximal tubule d. the amount of hydrogen secreted by the proximal tubule

a. the concentration of potassium that is filtered by the glomerulus

Name the enzymes responsible for destroying the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction:

acetylcholinesterase

Select the choice which pairs the image with the correct communication method. a A - autocrine, B - paracrine, C - endocrine b. A - endocrine, B - paracrine, C- autocrine c. A - paracrine, B - endocrine, C - autocrine d. A - endocrine, B - autocrine, C - paracrine

b. A - endocrine, B - paracrine, C- autocrine

When referring to the kidneys' ability to clear waste, what is the difference between secretion and excretion of a substance? a. A substance is secreted into the tubular fluid to then be excreted in the urine. b. A substance is excreted into the tubular fluid to then be secreted in the urine. c. Substances can be either excreted or secreted into the tubular fluid, depending on the location in the nephron. d. Secretion and excretion can be used interchangeably and both refer to waste substances leaving the body via the urine.

b. A substance is excreted into the tubular fluid to then be secreted in the urine.

Which of the following is the best description of the proximal convoluted tubule? a. A small tubule in the medulla lined by squamous epithelial cells. b. A tubule in the cortex lined by cuboidal cells with a many microvilli. c. A tubule that is between the thin ascending loop of Henle and the distal tubule. d. A large tubule that spans both the cortex and medulla emptying urine into the renal pelvis.

b. A tubule in the cortex lined by cuboidal cells with a many microvilli.

Which neurotransmitter binds to a nicotinic receptor? a. Glutamate b. Acetylcholine c. Epinephrine d. Histamine

b. Acetylcholine

Which neurotransmitter generates a graded potential that depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane during transmission? a. Glycine b. Acetylcholine c. GABA d. All of these

b. Acetylcholine

Which neurotransmitter is an excitatory neurotransmitter? a. Glycine b. Acetylcholine c. GABA d. All of these

b. Acetylcholine

Whihc of the following describes a malignant cancer of gallbladder tissue? a. Adenoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Carcinoma

b. Adenocarcinoma

Which of the following statements is true? a. Afferent nerves take information away from the brain, efferent nerves take information to the brain b. Afferent nerves take information towards the brain, efferent nerves take information away from the brain

b. Afferent nerves take information towards the brain, efferent nerves take information away from the brain

A rancher vaccinated her herd with a BVD vaccine three months ago. Which test would you expect to detect a host immune response to the vaccine? Choose all that apply: a. Antigen-ELISA b. Antibody-ELISA c. Immunohistochemistry d. Serology testing

b. Antibody-ELISA d. Serology testing

There is a specialized catheter called a Swanz-Ganz catheter that can be passed through a peripheral vein (usually the jugular vein) through the venous system to the heart. At the very tip of the catheter there is a sensor that can detect chamber pressure. It is pictured in the diagram below. In which image will the catheter be measuring the pressure of the right ventricle? a. A b. B c. C d. D

b. B

Using the following picture, which is a cell body of an autonomic preganglionic neuron? a. A b. B c. C d. D E. e

b. B

Which one of the following is the boundary between the epithelium and the dermis? a. Apical membrane b. Basement membrane c. Simple cuboidal cells d. Stratum basale

b. Basement membrane

A 10-year-old Boxer dog is presented to you with edema of the right hind limb. Based on your knowledge about the Starling Forces, which of the following scenarios would likely result in fluid build-up in the interstitial space (edema) in the tissues of the hind limbs? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Dehydration resulting in relative increase in oncotic pressure in all the vessels b. Blockage of the femoral vein resulting in increased hydrostatic pressure in the peripheral veins c. Blockage of the femoral artery resulting in decreased blood flow and pressure to the lower limbs d. Blockage of the lymphatics secondary to a mass in the caudal abdomen e. Loss of protein from the blood resulting in decrease in oncotic pressure in the vessels

b. Blockage of the femoral vein resulting in increased hydrostatic pressure in the peripheral veins d. Blockage of the lymphatics secondary to a mass in the caudal abdomen e. Loss of protein from the blood resulting in decrease in oncotic pressure in the vessels

Which adaptation would you expect for a manatee (water adapted animal) compared to a cow (land adapted animal)? Compared to the cow, the manatee has a. Hollow bones for better floating b. Bones with a thicker cortex, for stabilization in water c. Loss of bone mass since they are floating around similar to astronauts in space d. No difference to cow bones because manatees are sea cows

b. Bones with a thicker cortex, for stabilization in water

Which of the following is true about cardiac output? a. Cardiac output is based on stroke volume plus heart rate b. Cardiac output is related to the efficiency and effectiveness of the pumping action of the heart c. Cardiac output is maintained at a constant level d. Cardiac output is the volume of blood that leaves one ventricle during contraction

b. Cardiac output is related to the efficiency and effectiveness of the pumping action of the heart

Which species is thought to be affected by the largest number of retroviruses of any companion animal? a. Dog b. Cat c. Horse d. Birds

b. Cat

A dog is presented for sudden and severe distention of its stomach. The outlet of the stomach has become twisted and cannot empty. This is called a gastric dilatation and volvulus (GDV). The stomach is so distended it is placing pressure on the vessels that run along the dorsal aspect of the abdominal cavity (caudal vena cava and the aorta). Based on your knowledge of arteries and veins, what would be the most likely secondary consequence of the stomach distention? a. Compression of the aorta resulting in decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. b. Compression of the caudal vena cava resulting in decreased return of blood flow to the heart. c. Compression of the caudal vena cava resulting in decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. d. Compression of the aorta resulting in decreased return of blood flow to the heart.

b. Compression of the caudal vena cava resulting in decreased return of blood flow to the heart.

In the following PICO question, which is the OUTCOME component of the question? 'In cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, do cats treated with clopidogrel have a decreased risk of fatal blood clots compared to cats who do not receive clopidogrel?' a. Treatment with clopidogrel b. Decreased risk of fatal blood clots c. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy d. Being a cat

b. Decreased risk of fatal blood clots

In a dairy cow, which of the following would NOT occur once she begins lactation? a. Decreased requirement for environmental heat sources as a result of increases in metabolism b. Decreased water loss (output) as a result of decreased fecal production/decreased feed intake c. Increased body water loss (output) as water is secreted into milk d. Increased water intake because metabolic water production compensates for loss of body water

b. Decreased water loss (output) as a result of decreased fecal production/decreased feed intake

Proper sample collection technique is an important part of ensuring the results of culture and susceptibility (C & S) are accurate and useful. Which of the following steps are part of proper sampling technique for C & S? Select all that apply: a. Maximizing contamination by normal flora when taking a sample b. Determining whether a site is sterile or non-sterile before taking a sample c. In a non-sterile site, looking for additional evidence of infection besides the presence of microorganisms d. Conducting a thorough examination to pinpoint where the infection is, prior to taking a sample

b. Determining whether a site is sterile or non-sterile before taking a sample c. In a non-sterile site, looking for additional evidence of infection besides the presence of microorganisms d. Conducting a thorough examination to pinpoint where the infection is, prior to taking a sample

Which part of the bone is indicated by the yellow arrow? a. Proximal b. Distal c. Medial d. Lateral

b. Distal

Which ALARA principle was violated when both of the following radiographs were performed? a. Time b. Distance c. Shielding d. There is no evidence of radiation safety violation on these radiographs

b. Distance

In the case of Michael, the dog with mitral valve disease, you applied the best available evidence to help answer a clinical question. What did the EPIC article find that was relevant to Michael's case? a. Dogs who received pimobendan had more side effects than dogs who did not receive pimobendan b. Dogs who received pimobendan lived longer than dogs who did not receive pimobendan c. Dogs who received pimobendan lived for less time than dogs who did not receive pimobendan d. Dogs who received pimobendan had less side effects than dogs who did not receive pimobendan

b. Dogs who received pimobendan lived longer than dogs who did not receive pimobendan

Teeth are derived from which two germ cell lines? a. Ectoderm and endoderm b. Ectoderm and mesoderm c. Endoderm and Mesoderm

b. Ectoderm and mesoderm

A feline patient presents to the emergency room in Tucson after having been stuck outside for a whole day (usually an indoor cat). Which of the following is likely occurring in your patient? a. Both water and electrolytes are being restored by the heart b. Electrolytes are being excreted by the kidneys c. Water is being excreted by the kidneys

b. Electrolytes are being excreted by the kidneys

The epidermis lining the gastrointestinal tract is derived from which embryological germ layer? a. Mesoderm b. Endoderm c. Ectoderm d. Keratinocytes

b. Endoderm

Which of the following terms indicates increased numbers of erythrocytes in circulating blood. a. Macrocytosis b. Erythrocytosis c. Leukocytosis

b. Erythrocytosis

When comparing two drugs, drug potency refers to the maximal effect that is achieved by each drug. a. TRUE b. FALSE

b. FALSE

Sodium and potassium are two important electrolytes in the body. How do they cross the cell membrane to enter a cell? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Passive diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion c. Ion channels d. Endocytosis

b. Facilitated diffusion c. Ion channels

True or False? Culture and susceptibility results can be obtained in a matter of hours after sample collection. a. True b. False

b. False

True or false? Environmental mastitis is more likely to occur in a clean, hygienic environment. a. True b. False

b. False

Here is a radiograph of a rabbit that broke a bone after jumping from the owner's arms. Which bine is fractured? a. Humerus b. Femur c. Tibia d. Fibula

b. Femur

At which of the cell-cycle checkpoints do cellular macromolecules have the greatest influence? a. G0 checkpoint b. G1 checkpoint c. G2 checkpoint d.M checkpoint

b. G1 checkpoint

In order to maintain neuronal function and to avoid clinical signs related to neurological deficits, which of the following do neurons require? These are also tightly regulated in the animal body. a. Creatinine b. Glucose c. Nitrogen d. Oxygen

b. Glucose d. Oxygen

A 4 year old Basenji is presented to you for increased drinking and urination (polyuria/polydipsia). You perform a urinalysis and see a large amount of glucose in the urine. A blood glucose is checked and is normal at 102mg/dL (normal range 70-143mg/dL). In a healthy dog, if the blood glucose is normal, there should not be glucose in the urine. Which of the following best describes what is happening at the level of the nephron? a. The proximal tubule is secreting glucose into the urine. b. Glucose is being excreted in the urine and not being reabsorbed by the proximal tubule. c. Glucose is being excreted in the urine and not being reabsorbed by the early distal tubule. d. Too much glucose is being filtered by the glomerulus.

b. Glucose is being excreted in the urine and not being reabsorbed by the proximal tubule.

Which of the following terms indicates hemoglobin in the urine? a. Hematuria b. Hemoglobinuria c. Hemoglobinemia d. Hemosiderosis

b. Hemoglobinuria

You would like to conduct a screening test to detect cows that carry Staphylococcus aureus. The best test to use as a screening test is one that is: a. Highly sensitive, which means it gives few false positives b. Highly sensitive, which means it gives few false negatives c. Highly specific, which means it gives few false positives d. Highly specific, which means it gives few false negatives

b. Highly sensitive, which means it gives few false negatives

A new test that detects rotavirus antibodies gives very few false positives. This means that the test is: a. Highly sensitive b. Highly specific c. Highly precise d. Highly accurate

b. Highly specific

After Fabio's GI tract has experienced an ischemic injury, his gastrointestinal microbiome is likely to be affected. Which of the following is not a role of the gastrointestinal microbiome? a. Energy metabolism and homeostasis b. Hormone production and signaling c. Metabolism of xenobiotic compounds d. Prevention of enteropathogenic colonization e. Synthesis of vitamins and other nutrients

b. Hormone production and signaling

As Laika reaches adulthood, some of her organs will adapt and grow by an increase in cell size, while others will grow by an increase in cell number. Which of the following terms describes an increase in cell number? * a. Hypertrophy b. Hyperplasia c. Atrophy d. Metaplasia

b. Hyperplasia

Which of the following adaptive responses can be both physiologic and pathologic? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY. a. Metaplasia b. Hyperplasia c. Atrophy d. Dysplasia

b. Hyperplasia c. Atrophy

A farmer calls you about a 'downer' cow. The dairy cow that has recently given birth has collapsed and is weak and unable to rise. Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to cause muscle weakness in an animal that has recently given birth? * a. Hypercalcemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyperglycemia

b. Hypocalcemia

Information about the Snortiblast genome is constantly increasing. A new mutation ("Ax8723Y") is found to INCREASE the risk of cancer. Which of the following could correctly characterize this mutation? i. The mutation leads to INHIBITION of an ONCOGENE ii. The mutation leads to ACTIVTION of an ONCOGENE iii. The mutation leads to INHIBITION of a TUMOR SUPPRESSOR iv. The mutation leads to ACTIVTION of a TUMOR SUPPRESSOR a. I and III b. II and III c. I and IV d.II and IV

b. II and III

You are formulating a fluid resuscitation plan for an animal that is hypovolemic, dehydrated, and hypotensive. The route of fluid administration best suited for this patient is: a. IM b. IV c. PO d. SQ

b. IV

Each protein formed in your patient's body is unique, with a specific structure and function. Which of the following proteins IS NOT matched with its correct function (IN CORRECT MATCH)? a. Enzymes - Catalyze reactions b. Immunoglobulin - Structural protein in cells c. Myoglobin - Binds and stores oxygen in muscle d. Myosin and Troponin - Contractile e. Transferrin - binds and distributes iron in plasma

b. Immunoglobulin - Structural protein in cells

Why are the articular cartilage and the lens and cornea of the eye protected from the direct damage by acute inflammation? a. The matrix in these tissues are resistant to the degradative enzymes released by inflammatory cells. b. Inflammatory cells lack access to these tissues because they are avascular (lack blood vessels). c. These tissues have increased numbers of resident inflammatory cells that prevent injury before inflammation can occur. d. The ground substance in these tissues is anti-inflammatory preventing acute inflammation from occurring.

b. Inflammatory cells lack access to these tissues because they are avascular (lack blood vessels).

The pathophysiological mechanism responsible for clinical signs related to organophosphate toxicity can most accurately be described as: a. Blockade of Ach release from presynapse of NMJ b. Inhibit action of acetylcholinesterase c. Blockade of Ach release from autonomic synapses d. Immune mediated breakdown of Ach receptors

b. Inhibit action of acetylcholinesterase

Which of the following cellular insults would NOT result in activation of necrotic cell death? a. Cancerous growth leading to cellular ischemic damage in the central portion of the lesion b. Ionizing radiation from the sun leading to DNA damage (aka sun burn) c. Frostbite to tissues leading to cytoplasmic crystallization and rupture of the cellular membrane d. Viral distemper infection leading to cardiomyopathy (changes to the heart cells) in young dogs

b. Ionizing radiation from the sun leading to DNA damage (aka sun burn)

When assessing the reliability of a study, you should assess whether the results of the study are likely to be accurate or whether they could be due to chance. Which of the following would make the results of a study LESS likely to be due to chance? a. Small sample size b. Large sample size c. The researcher chooses what treatment each animal gets d. The researcher knows which treatment an animal is getting

b. Large sample size

The suffix 'oma' designates a tumor or mass. FOr example, a lipoma is a mass made of fat and a carcinoma is a cancerous mass, Knowing this, a mesothelioma is a tumor of the epithelial (more than one answer may be correct) a. Lining of the blood vessels b. Lining of the abdominal cavity c. Surface of the pericardium d. surface of the cornea

b. Lining of the abdominal cavity c. Surface of the pericardium

Which organelle is responsible for breaking down and recycling aged cellular components? a. Peroxisome b. Lysosome c. Endosome d. Ribosome

b. Lysosome

Laika got such a fright when she heard the dog bark that she urinated on the consultation room floor. There is no glucose in her urine which shows you that it is being reabsorbed in her kidneys, as it should be. Which epithelial surface structure in the proximal convoluted tubule helps it to increase its surface area to maximize absorption capacity? * a. Cilia b. Microvilli c. Pili d. Fimbriae

b. Microvilli

What is a primary function of lymphatic system? a. Return fluid from the interstitial space back to the circulatory system via entrance into the aorta. b. Monitor the bloodstream for threats to the body such as viruses or bacteria. c. Maintain negative pressure in the interstitial space. d. Absorb proteins from the GI tract to aid in protein digestion.

b. Monitor the bloodstream for threats to the body such as viruses or bacteria.

What does NOT occur during the repolarization phase of an action potential? a. Na+ voltage gate become inactivated b. Na+ starts to leave the cell through open voltage gate c. Voltage gated K+ channels open and K+ leaves the cell d. The membrane potential moves closer to -90mV which is the K+ equilibrium potential

b. Na+ starts to leave the cell through open voltage gate

The hypothalamus senses the level of substance C is excessively high in the bloodstream. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary ( via the Releasing Hormone). The pituitary then decreases production of the stimulating hormone. The decreased stimulating hormone communicates with the target organ and results in decreased production of substance C until the level of substance C is within normal limits. Which type of feedback loop is described? a. Positive Feedback Loop b. Negative Feedback Loop

b. Negative Feedback Loop

When blood glucose increases, insulin is released to bring the blood glucose level down to homeostatic levels. Which of the following best describes this feedback loop? (or Control of blood glucose by insulin is an example of which feedback mechanism?) a. Positive feedback b. Negative feedback

b. Negative feedback

The central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) arise from which of the following? a. Neural crest cells b. Neural tube c. Notochord d. Placodes

b. Neural tube

In the prework you learned about the Starling Forces -the three factors that determine how fluid moves between capillaries and the interstitial tissue. These include hydrostatic pressure, oncotic pressure, and capillary permeability. Assuming that capillary permeability is relatively constant - Which of the Starling forces is responsible for keeping plasma part of blood (liquid part) INSIDE the vessel? a. Hydrostatic pressure b. Oncotic pressure

b. Oncotic pressure

Osteoblasts become trapped in the bony matrix during growth and become which cell type? a. Chondroblast b. Osteocyte c. Osteoclast c. Chondrocyte

b. Osteocyte

Secretion of adrenal medulla hormones is part of the reaction of the sympathetic nervous system to stress. The adrenal medulla cells are: a. Preganglionic parasympathetic nerve bodies b. Postganglionic sympathetic nerve bodies c. Preganglionic sympathetic nerve cell bodies d. Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve cell bodies

b. Postganglionic sympathetic nerve bodies

Which of the following terms found at the beginning of a word usually indicates number, location, time or status? a. Root b. Prefix c. Suffix d. Obex

b. Prefix

Select the choice which correctly pairs the hormone with the cells of the anterior pituitary. a. Growth hormone - thyrotropes b. Prolactin - lactotrophs c. Follicular stimulating hormone - somatotrophs d. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone - steroidotrophs

b. Prolactin - lactotrophs

Which of the following cytokines activates the nociceptors (pain receptors) causing the pain associated with acute inflammation? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY. a. Histamine b. Prostaglandin c. Bradykinin d. Nitric oxide

b. Prostaglandin c. Bradykinin

You are examining a canine patient with a burn wound that you have been treating for several weeks. The wound was healing well, but this week it is looking much worse. The wound is red, painful and has several areas of weeping scabs with purulent discharge (pus). You undertake cytology from one of the scabbed areas and you see many bacterial rods surrounded by inflammatory cells (neutrophils). You suspect that your patient's burn wound is infected with Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a common bacterial cause of burn wound infections. It is a strict aerobe. You take a sample from underneath one of the weeping scabs with a swab, place the swab in its container and tightly screw on the top of the container so that no air can get in. The lab result returns some days later. Nothing grew! No bacteria were isolated. What is the best explanation of why this occurred? a. There was no infection b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa requires oxygen, so it died in the air-tight container during sample transport c. The area has normal flora, so there is no way of knowing what happened d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa dies in the presence of oxygen, so air must have entered the container during transport

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa requires oxygen, so it died in the air-tight container during sample transport

Which of the following animals would you expect to use hindgut fermentation as their primary means of digestion? * a. Cow b. Rabbit c. Dog d. Chicken

b. Rabbit

In the hierarchy of evidence available to answer veterinary clinical questions, what types of sources are at the top of the hierarchy because they are the least prone to bias AND are more directly applicable to clinical situations? a. Single case reports b. Randomized control trials c. Editorials d. In vitro (test tube) research

b. Randomized control trials

A horse has a laceration with significant blood loss. The blood volume has fallen and the decrease in blood pressure is detected by baroreceptors (located in the aorta and carotid arteries) What is the role of the baroreceptors in the feedback loop? a. Variable b. Receptor c. Control d. Effector

b. Receptor

Ribosomes exist in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells and are the protein factories of the cell. Which of the following is a reason why ribosomes are clinically important? a. Ribosomal storage disease is common in certain breeds of dog b. Ribosomes are a target of many antibacterial drugs c. Most anesthetic drugs work by binding to ribosomes d. Rupture of ribosomes can cause cell and tissue damage

b. Ribosomes are a target of many antibacterial drugs

Cyt-o-Maim is a new drug developed by the Phazer Pharmaceutical Company. They find in Snortiblasts that it binds and inhibits helicase (an enzyme that unwinds, or "unzips" DNA). During which phase of the cell cycle would it be active? a. G1 b. S c. prophase d. telophase

b. S

Which of the following molecules can enter the cell via simple diffusion? a. Glucose b. Steroid hormones c. Chloride ions d. Food particles

b. Steroid hormones

An autoimmune disorder has resulted in antibodies binding to TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone. The thyroid is not stimulated to release T3/T4 and T3/T4 levels are low. Which of the following choices best present how hypothalamic TRH and pituitary TSH levels are impacted? a. TRH levels will increase and then TSH levels decrease b. TRH levels will increase and TSH levels will increase c. TRH levels will decrease then TSH levels will decrease d. TRH levels will decrease then TRH levels will increase

b. TRH levels will increase and TSH levels will increase

What is the complimentary sequence for the following DNA strand sequence: AATTGCGC? a. GGAACACA b. TTAACGCG c. CCGGTATA d. CCGGATAT

b. TTAACGCG

In cattle, research suggests that dosing the anti-G-I-ulcer drug, famotidine, every 8 hours results in a rapid, progressive reduction in the beneficial response to the drug. This likely represents _______. a. Partial agonist activity b. Tachyphylaxis c. Increased half-life d. Supersensitivity

b. Tachyphylaxis

Compare these two bones. Select the best statement: a. The animal from which bone A was acquired was older than the animal with bone B b. The animal from which bone A was acquired was younger than the animal with bone B c. You cannot tell from these two bones if one was older or younger.

b. The animal from which bone A was acquired was younger than the animal with bone B

What does it mean when a culture and susceptibility report says a bacterial isolate is 'resistant' to an antimicrobial? a. The bacteria is killed by the antimicrobial at a concentration that is achievable in the patient b. The bacteria can survive in the presence of the antimicrobial at a concentration that is achievable in the patient c. The bacteria may be killed by the antimicrobial, but only at concentrations that are higher than achievable in the patient d. The bacteria can resist the effects of the antimicrobial, no matter what the concentration of the antimicrobial

b. The bacteria can survive in the presence of the antimicrobial at a concentration that is achievable in the patient

You are managing a patient that has respiratory acidosis (blood pH is lower than normal due to decreased respiratory rate in increased CO2 build up). Hypothesis what might start happening to amino acids in the body. a. The carboxyl group will usually remain ionized (-COO-) or the amine group may become unionized (-NH2) b. The carboxyl group may become unionized (-COOH), while the amine group remains ionized (-NH3 +) c. All of the amino acids are dipolar d. All of the amino acids contain no polar groups

b. The carboxyl group may become unionized (-COOH), while the amine group remains ionized (-NH3 +)

In simple columnar epithelium: a. The cells appear flattened and are multilayered. b. The cells are taller than wide and in a single layer. c. The tissue is highly vascularized. d. Both 1 and 3.

b. The cells are taller than wide and in a single layer.

Fabio, a 6-month-old male intact Golden Retriever, loves to "inhale" his food, aka gobble his kibble down very quickly. What anatomic structure stops Fabio from literally "inhaling" his food? a. The arytenoids b. The epiglottis c. The upper esophageal sphincter d. The tongue e. The uvula

b. The epiglottis

While you are examining Laika, she hears a large dog bark in the waiting room. This scares her. Her heart begins to race. Which component of her nervous system has caused the unconscious response of her increased heart rate? * a. The somatic nervous system b. The sympathetic nervous system c. The parasympathetic nervous system d. The skeletal nervous system

b. The sympathetic nervous system

Which of the following makes cancer in dogs an attractive clinical model for cancer therapeutics in people? a. The time to gather response and survival time data is longer b. Their tumors occur spontaneously in the context of an intact immune system c. Canine tumors are biologically less complex than people d. Dogs share less ancestral DNA with people than mouse models

b. Their tumors occur spontaneously in the context of an intact immune system

Which of the following is true concerning prostaglandins? a. They are preformed and stored in neutrophil granules b. They are produced from degradation of cell membranes c. They are preformed stored in the Golgi body of macrophages d. They are produced from kinin molecules in the plasma.

b. They are produced from degradation of cell membranes

The central dogma of cell biology asserts that 'DNA makes RNA, and RNA makes proteins.' Which of the following terms describes the process of making mRNA from DNA? a. Translation b. Transcription c. Replication d. RNAification

b. Transcription

What is the major function of the cardiovascular system? a. Regulate organ function via hormones b. Transport cells and substances to tissues and carry waste products away c. Filter blood to excrete waste products from the body d. Defend the body against foreign invaders such as virus and bacteria

b. Transport cells and substances to tissues and carry waste products away

Which of the following is MOST accurate? a. Cancer is a genetic disease and always heritable b. Tumors arise from the accumulation of mutations c. Replicative risk remains constant with age d. Mutation caused by errors in DNA replication are predictable

b. Tumors arise from the accumulation of mutations

Which of the following choices rule out carbon dioxide classification as a hormone? a. Effective in minute quantities b. Unique to endocrine glands c. Travels in the vascular system d. Regulates target organs

b. Unique to endocrine glands

Evaluate this lateral projection of a canine abdomen, paying close attention to the area that has been circled in yellow. An object is being used to push the colon ventrally. Based on your knowledge of the radiographic opacities and densities, what do you think this object is? a. Metal spatula b. Wooden spoon c. Sandbag d. Lead glove

b. Wooden spoon

The zone of the developing bone indicated by A is a. Epiphyseal bone b. Zone of calcification c. Zone of hypertrophy d. Zone of proliferation

b. Zone of calcification

Which of the following does not describe the autonomic nervous system? a. involuntary nervous system b. a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells c. a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands d. general visceral motor system

b. a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

Where would you NOT find a cholinergeric nicotinic receptor? a. skeletal muscle motor end plates b. all parasympathetic target organs c. adrenal medulla hormone producing cells d. all postganglionic neurons

b. all parasympathetic target organs

What structure is the arrow pointing to? a. visceral pleura b. diaphragmatic pleura c. mediastinal pleura d. costal pleura

b. diaphragmatic pleura

Providing truly unique names for drugs is an important step in avoiding potentially harmful medication errors. The commonly used drug name that provides the most regulation to ensure uniqueness is _______. a. trade name b. generic name c. chemical name d. nickname

b. generic name

Which of the following is a clinically useful measure of renal function? a. blood pressure b. glomerular filtration rate c. net ultrafiltration pressure d. urinary excretion rate

b. glomerular filtration rate

Which of the following animals undertakes hindgut fermentation as theur primary needs of digestion? a. cow b. guinea pig c. dog d. chicken

b. guinea pig

Thinking back to the previous question, what is the term we use for that "red wine" colored urine in this specific case? a. anemia b. hemoglobinuria c. glycosuria d. proteinuria

b. hemoglobinuria

Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. a. parasympathetic nervous system b. sympathetic nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. cerebrum

b. sympathetic nervous system

What effect does constriction of the afferent arterioles have on glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a. the GFR will increase b. the GFR will decrease c. there will be no change in the GFR

b. the GFR will decrease

Approximately what percentage of cardiac output do the kidneys receive? a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50%

c. 25%

The minimum toxic dose needed to see clinical effects of chocolate (methylxanthine) toxicity in a dog is 20 mg/kg. Fabio weighs 50 lbs. What is the minimum dose (in mg) that Fabio would have to eat to exhibit clinical signs? * a. 1.1 mg b. 2.5 mg c. 454 mg d. 1000 mg e. 2200 mg

c. 454 mg (22.7 kg x 20 = 454mg)

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system is best described as which of the following? a. A portal vein carries blood from capillary beds in the adenohypophysis to capillary beds in the hypothalamus b. A portal vein carries blood from capillary beds in the hypothalamus to capillary beds in the neurohypophysis c. A portal vein carries blood from capillary beds in the hypothalamus to capillary beds in the adenohypophysis d. A portal vein carries blood from capillary beds in the neurohypophysis to capillary beds in the hypothalamus

c. A portal vein carries blood from capillary beds in the hypothalamus to capillary beds in the adenohypophysis

Which of the following hormones are immediately released? a. Prolactin b. Thyroid stimulating hormone c. Aldosterone d. Luteinizing hormone

c. Aldosterone

Which of the following statements correctly describes a commensal organism? a. An organism that directly causes disease to a host b. An organism that relies on the host for replication and protein production c. An organism that colonizes host tissue but does not cause disease d. An organism that relies on the host for nutrients, at the detriment of the host

c. An organism that colonizes host tissue but does not cause disease

Which choice describes hypothalamic - neurohypophysis communication and correctly pairs with an associated hormone. a. Axons leave the neurohypophysis and travel to the hypothalamus to release antidiuretic hormone b. Axons leave the hypothalamus and travel to the neurohypophysis to release corticotropic releasing hormone c. Axons leave the hypothalamus and travel to the neurohypophysis to release oxytocin d. Axons leave the neurohypophysis and travel to the hypothalamus to release thyroid stimulating hormone

c. Axons leave the hypothalamus and travel to the neurohypophysis to release oxytocin

Which of the following is true concerning hypertrophy and hyperplasia? a. Hypertrophy is the result of increased number of the cells in an organ. b. Hyperplasia is seen primarily in organs whose cells cannot divide. c. Both processes result in gross enlargement of an organ or tissue. d. Both processes are primarily seen in response to pathologic stimuli.

c. Both processes result in gross enlargement of an organ or tissue.

Use the table below to hypothesize which of the following fluids in the body has the lowest concentration of solutes dissolved? a. Bovine plasma b. Bovine urine c. Bovine milk d. Canine plasma e. Canine urine

c. Bovine milk

In the diagram, which ion is responsible for entering via ion chanels to facilitate acteylcholine release from persynaptic vesicles a. Na b. K c. Ca D. Cl

c. Ca

There are many factors that contribute to cancer development, including apoptosis. Applying what you know about apoptosis, which of the following MOST CLOSELY explains the relationship between apoptosis and cancer? a. Cancer cells promote apoptosis in surrounding stromal cells, allowing for further growth of cancer cells. b. Cancer is an example of uncontrolled apoptosis. c. Cell cycle checkpoints have failed to trigger normal apoptosis in cancer cells. d.Cancer cells arise from cells that aberrantly undergo necrosis rather than apoptosis.

c. Cell cycle checkpoints have failed to trigger normal apoptosis in cancer cells.

Which of the following describes an evidence-based approach to solving a clinical problem? a. Reading a chapter in a textbook from 1978 and following the recommended approach b. Asking a colleague what their approach would be c. Conducting a focused literature search to find relevant research papers on the problem d. Relying on remembering everything you learned at vet school

c. Conducting a focused literature search to find relevant research papers on the problem

What is the main prerequisite for passing the G2 checkpoint? a. the cell has reached sufficient size b. there is sufficient nucleotide stores c. DNA has been replicated accurately and completely d.chromatid pairs have aligned correctly at the metaphase plate

c. DNA has been replicated accurately and completely

Neurons have four distinct anatomical regions. Which of the following are not matched correctly? a. Axon - conducting unit of the neuron b. Cell body - place of manufacturing for proteins and contains organelles c. Dendrites - transmitting action potentials along the axon d. Presynaptic terminals - contains chemical transmitter-filled synaptic vesicles that can release contents into the synaptic cleft.

c. Dendrites - transmitting action potentials along the axon

Which is the most damaging form of DNA damage? a. Base substitutions; because these prevent the helix from forming b. Single strand breaks; because these happen most frequently, resulting in the largest global impact to the cell c. Double strand breaks; because there is no template strand and can lead to the most problematic mutations (genomic rearrangements) d. Deamination; because loss of the amino group leads to base mispairing and denaturation of the DNA double helix

c. Double strand breaks; because there is no template strand and can lead to the most problematic mutations (genomic rearrangements)

The epidermis of the skin is derived from which embryological germ layer? a. Mesoderm b. Endoderm c. Ectoderm d. Keratinocytes

c. Ectoderm

A 6 year old FS golden retriever presents to your clinic for progressive lethargy over one week. Today, she did not want to eat. Her owner usually takes her on walks on the ranch but today she refused to go. The owner also noted that she had a "red wine" colored urine. Owner is convinced she has a recurring urinary tract infection. Your patient is currently on monthly heartworm preventative and Benadryl for allergies. On physical exam, you notice panting and icteric/pale mucous membranes. A complete blood count and chemistry panel reveals red tinged plasma after blood centrifugation, a regenerative anemia and abundant spherocytes. Autoagglutination occurs with a sample. A send out Combs test is positive. Why did the plasma look red on your initial blood draw? a. Plasma naturally looks red b. Erythrocyte crenation was occurring c. Erythrocyte hemolysis was occurring leading to hemoglobinemia d. Anemia causes an increase in PCV and therefore a change in plasma

c. Erythrocyte hemolysis was occurring leading to hemoglobinemia

Which of the following is TRUE? a. TATAAAA is a nucleotide sequence used to keep the ends of chromosomes safe b. In order of size magnitude: DNA < nucleosome < chromosomes < chromatin c. Exons are the coding segments of DNA d.TTAGGG is a nucleotide sequence that indicates the location of initiation

c. Exons are the coding segments of DNA

Coccidia are common protozoal parasites in veterinary medicine. As you learned in the prework, coccidiosis (the disease caused by coccidia) commonly affects young animals. What transmission route does coccidia typically use to gain access to the body? a. Direct contact b. Direct inoculation c. Fecal-oral (ingestion) d. Fecal-oral (inhalation)

c. Fecal-oral (ingestion)

Think critically: If you were a cow, horse, rabbit, or goat, what other job might your gastrointestinal system have that species like dogs, cats, and ferrets don't depend on? (Though it is actually the microbiome doing this job) a. Deglutition b. Eructation c. Fermentation d. Lactation e. Trituration

c. Fermentation

Which one of the following is a purine found in both DNA and RNA? a. Adenosine b. Cytosine c. Guanine d. Uracil

c. Guanine

"Bosco" a bay 7-year-old Warmblood gelding presents with pruritis. "Bosco" has evidence of crust and alopecia on the ventral midline due to ventral feeding of Culicoides (small gnats). "Bosco" also has dermatitis resulting in urticaria and facial pruritus. You decide to administer intravenous steroid (dexamethasone) to alleviate the pruritis due to seasonal allergies. Select the choice which would occur in "Bosco's" hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal cortex axis? a. High blood cortisol (due to injected steroid) decreased CRH, increased ACTH, increased endogenous cortisol b. High blood cortisol (due to injected steroid) increased CRH, decrease ACTH, decreased endogenous cortisol c. High blood cortisol (due to injected steroid), decreased CRH, decreased ACTH, decreased endogenous cortisol d. High blood cortisol (due to injected steroid), increased CRH, decreased ACTH, and increased endogenous cortisol

c. High blood cortisol (due to injected steroid), decreased CRH, decreased ACTH, decreased endogenous cortisol

Which of the following mediators of the immune system is preformed and stored in mast cell granules? a. IL-1 b. Prostaglandins c. Histamine d. Bradykinin

c. Histamine

Bone is composed of organic and inorganic components. The primary inorganic component of bone is: a. Type I collagen b. Type II collagen c. Hydroxyapatite d. Proteoglycans

c. Hydroxyapatite

Which term would you use to indicate a decrease in serum albumin on a chemistry profile? a. Hyperalbuminemia b. Hyperproteinemia c. Hypoalbuminemia d. Hypoproteinemia

c. Hypoalbuminemia

A racing horse weighs 500 kg. After the race, you are asked to replace fluid losses. Therefore, you must calculate the estimated body fluid compartment volumes. The horse is estimated to have a total body water percent of 60%. Calculate what the volume of these body fluid compartment would be: intracellular fluid (ICF), extracellular fluid (ECF), interstitial fluid (IF), and intravascular (plasma) volume (P). Which of the following is correct? a. ICF: 500Kg; ECF: 300Kg; IF: 200Kg; P: 0 Kg b. ICF: 100 L; ECF: 200 L; IF: 25 L; P: 75 L c. ICF: 200 L; ECF: 100 L; IF: 75 L; P: 25 L d. ICF: 100 L; ECF: 50 L; IF: 25 L; P: 25 L

c. ICF: 200 L; ECF: 100 L; IF: 75 L; P: 25 L

Which of the following tests cannot be run on bodily fluids and can only be run on frozen or formalin fixed tissue? a. Antigen-ELISA b. Antibody-ELISA c. Immunohistochemistry d. PCR

c. Immunohistochemistry

Which test can detect BVD virus in the tissues of persistently infected animals but will not detect a transient infection of BVD? a. Antigen- ELISA b. Antibody- ELISA c. Immunohistochemistry test d. PCR test

c. Immunohistochemistry test

The 'PICO' format for asking clinical questions includes details about the Patient, Intervention, Comparison/control and Outcome. Which of the following questions is in PICO format? a. In dogs with mitral valve disease without signs of heart failure, what does pimobendan do? b. What is a treatment for heart disease? c. In dogs with mitral valve disease without signs of heart failure, do dogs who receive treatment with pimobendan survive longer than those who do not receive pimobendan? d. Does pimobendan make dogs live longer?

c. In dogs with mitral valve disease without signs of heart failure, do dogs who receive treatment with pimobendan survive longer than those who do not receive pimobendan?

Which of the following statements about an x-ray machine is most accurate? a. X-rays are produced by accelerating protons and rapidly decelerating or stopping them. b. Electrons are produced by a positively charged anode and accelerated towards a negatively charged cathode c. Increasing the mA (milliamperage, tube current) increases the number of x-ray photons produced by the tube. d. Increasing kVP (tube potential) will increase the number of x-rays produced by the tube.

c. Increasing the mA (milliamperage, tube current) increases the number of x-ray photons produced by the tube.

The morula stage of embryonic development is where the embryo ___________ a. Has not yet cleaved. b. Has cleaved into 2 cells c. Is a solid ball of blastomeres d. Is a hollow sphere of blastomeres

c. Is a solid ball of blastomeres

Hyaline cartilage has a matrix composed of type II collagen and a. Is distinguished by its high content and orderly arrangement of type I collagen fibers. b. Is especially elastic and is found in the pinna of the ear c. Is the cartilage which makes up the articular surfaces of joints. d. Is typically located in regions where tendons attach to bones.

c. Is the cartilage which makes up the articular surfaces of joints.

All of this stress over LeeLoo's sewing needle really has taken a toll on Fabio, the 6-month-old male intact Golden Retriever puppy. The stress has tied his guts in knots. No, literally, Fabio is experiencing an intestinal volvulus where his small intestines become twisted and the blood supply to his intestinal tract is cut off. This injury to the gut is best described as: a. Circulatory Shock b. Hypoxia c. Ischemia d. Reperfusion injury e. Sepsis

c. Ischemia

Which of the following best describes a neuron at the resting state? a. Na+/K+-ATPase pumps are not active b. The resting membrane potential is about +65 mV c. K+ ions leak out of a neuron via nongated channels d. Voltage-gated K+ channels are open e. The resting state represents the relative refractory period

c. K+ ions leak out of a neuron via nongated channels

In the male, follicle stimulating and luteinizing hormone released from the pituitary impact the testes. Select the correct pairing of FSH and LH with their target cell, and subsequent hormone production in the testes. Choose all which apply a. LH - Sertoli cells - inhibin b. FSH - Leydig cells -testosterone c. LH - Leydig cells - testosterone d. FSH - Sertoli cells - inhibin

c. LH - Leydig cells - testosterone d. FSH - Sertoli cells - inhibin

Your golden retriever patient gets into a pack of gum containing xylitol. His blood glucose plummets (he becomes hypoglycemic). Which one of the following organs do you know is most involved in regulating the plasma glucose concentration? a. Brain b. Kidney c. Liver d. Lung e. Stomach

c. Liver

A malignant tumor of the lymphocytes is called? A. Lymphangiosarcoma b. Leukemia c. Lymphoma d. Leiomyosarcoma

c. Lymphoma

Which of the following choices lists the steps in the leukocyte adhesion cascade in the correct order? a. Margination, stable adhesion, rolling, transendothelial cell migration b. Rolling margination, stable adhesion, transendothelial cell migration c. Margination, rolling, stable adhesion, transendothelial cell migration d. Stable adhesion, rolling, margination, transendothelial cell migration

c. Margination, rolling, stable adhesion, transendothelial cell migration

Supercat LeeLoo, sensing Fabio's distress, trades in her deal with the Old Grey Cat Wizard and, in a rare act of kitty selflessness, instead restores perfusion to Fabio's gut. His gut untwists and blood rushes in. Which of the following do you think is the WORST effect of reperfusion injury that Fabio will have to deal with? a. Increased vascular permeability in the vessels of the lamina propria b. Generation of reactive oxygen species within the mucosa c. Massive damage to epithelial cell membranes d. A transient change to the microbiome e. LeeLoo's constant reminders of how she saved Fabio's life

c. Massive damage to epithelial cell membranes

Lymphosarcoma, liposarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma and osteosarcoma are malignant cancers of white blood cells, fat, skeletal muscle and bone respectively. They all end in the same suffix because they arise from the same embryonic tissue layer. From which of the following layers do they arise? * a. Endoderm b. Ectoderm c. Mesoderm d. Sarcoderm

c. Mesoderm

These apical cell structures in the intestine are called a. Cilia b. Keratinocytes c. Microvilli d. Tight junctions

c. Microvilli

Chocolate contains two methylxanthines: theobromine and caffeine, which can be toxic to dogs. Effects of methylxanthines are noted in dogs at 20 mg/kg. 20 mg/kg is known as methylxanthine's _______. a. Effect b. LD50 c. Minimum toxic dose d. Toxicosis e. Half life

c. Minimum toxic dose

Using the table below, which of the following is HYPOTONIC to the canine erythrocyte? a. Molarity 0.3 b. Molarity 0.167 c. Molarity 0.15 d. Molarity 0.10

c. Molarity 0.15 d. Molarity 0.10

PARR (PCR for Antigen Receptor Rearrangements) is a test that can detect different populations (clones) of lymphocytes to determine if there is one clone, indicating neoplasia, or many clones, indicating an inflammatory process in a submitted tissue or blood sample. Which of the following terms would be suggestive of a neoplastic population of lymphocytes? a. Oligoclonal b. Polyclonal c. Monoclonal d. Aclonal

c. Monoclonal

Fabio's housemate LeeLoo, a 1-year-old female spayed DSH, swallowed a sewing needle while playing with string. As the radiograph shows, the sewing needle is currently sitting in the stomach. If the sewing needle were to penetrate the wall of the stomach, what would be the layers of GI tract that the needle would pass through on its journey from the inside of the stomach to the peritoneal cavity? a. Esophagus, Stomach, Duodenum, Small intestine, Large Intestine (Colon), Rectum b. Epithelium, Lamina Propria, Muscularis Interna c. Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscularis, Serosa d. Serosa, Inner Circular layer, Meissner's Plexus, Outer Longitudinal layer e. Serosa, Muscularis, Submucosa, Mucosa

c. Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscularis, Serosa

Which is the first system to develop in the embryo? a. Cardiovascular b. Musculoskeletal c. Nervous d. Respiratory e. Renal

c. Nervous

This is the same blood smear. What is indicated by the black arrow? a. Lymphocyte b. Erythrocyte c. Neutrophil d. Eosinophil

c. Neutrophil

After his ischemic bowel injury, you decide to feed Fabio foods high in prebiotic fiber to produce short chain fatty acids for their helpful properties. Which role of SCFA will be MOST important in supporting Fabio's recovery? a. Communicating with the brain b. Enhancing calcium absorption c. Nourishing epithelial cells d. Relieving constipation e. Regulating the systemic immune response and inflammation

c. Nourishing epithelial cells

As the unchewed kibble passes down Fabio's gastrointestinal tract, when does it change from a bolus to chyme? a. After it passes by the epiglottis b. As it travels down the esophagus c. Once it leaves the stomach d. Once it leaves the small intestine e. Once it leaves the large intestine for the rectum

c. Once it leaves the stomach

The main cells involved in the ossification process are: a. Osteophytes b. Osteoderms c. Osteoblasts d. Osteoclasts

c. Osteoblasts

What is the series of coordinated wave-like muscle contractions that squeeze Fabio's kibble in an aboard direction called? a. Contraction b. Digestion c. Peristalsis d. Regurgitation e. Secretion

c. Peristalsis

A dairy cow with mastitis receives a positive test result for Mycoplasma bovis. Which of the following measurements will tell you the probability that the cow truly has Mycoplasma bovis mastitis? a. Sensitivity b. Specificity c. Positive predictive value d. Negative predictive value

c. Positive predictive value

Which of the following measures are directly affected by the prevalence of a disease? Select all that apply: a. Sensitivity b. Specificity c. Positive predictive value d. Negative predictive value

c. Positive predictive value d. Negative predictive value

Which of the following components are the main facilitators of transport across the cell membrane? a. Phospholipids b. Cholesterol c. Proteins d. Glycolipids

c. Proteins

Which of the following statements describes the correct orientation of a lateral (lateromedial or mediolateral) radiograph of a patient's forelimb? a. Proximal portion of the limb pointing down, cranial/dorsal aspect of the limb to the interpreter's left b. Distal portion of the limb pointing up, caudal/palmar aspect of the limb to the interpreter's left c. Proximal portion of the limb pointing up, cranial/dorsal aspect of the limb to the interpreter's left d. Distal portion of the limb pointing down, cranial/dorsal aspect of the limb to the interpreter's right

c. Proximal portion of the limb pointing up, cranial/dorsal aspect of the limb to the interpreter's left

The macrophage plays an important role in which phase of the acute inflammatory process? a. Fluidic b. Cellular c. Reparative d. None of the above.

c. Reparative

Once a cell reaches the Hayflick limit, a. Apoptosis occurs b. Autophagy occurs c. Replicative senescence occurs d. Functional senescence occurs

c. Replicative senescence occurs

As the sewing needle passes through the duodenum, it nicks LeeLoo's intestinal mucosa in several places causing disruption of the mucosal barrier. What is the first step that is initiated in mucosal repair? a. Contraction b. Proliferation c. Restitution d. Stimulation e. Strangulation

c. Restitution

Chromosomes are duplicated during which phase of the cell cycle? a. G1 phase b. prophase c. S phase d. metaphase

c. S phase

Serum amyloid A (SAA) is a marker for inflammation in horses. Actually, Stablelab is a handheld equine blood test and is 50 times more sensitive at detecting infections than traditional tools and detects SAA. Which of the following is NOT true about SAA? a. SAA is an insoluble fibrillar protein that can accumulate in various organs and tissues when vital functions are compromised b. Amyloid proteins are manufactured by malfunctioning bone marrow c. SAA is a correctly folded protein that accumulates in the cell d. Amyloidosis in general refers to a group of pathologic conditions with accumulation of amyloid

c. SAA is a correctly folded protein that accumulates in the cell

Which of the following sites in the body would be expected to harbor commensals? (Select all that apply) a. Brain b. The pleural space c. Skin d. Gastrointestinal tract e. Upper respiratory tract f. Lower urinary tract

c. Skin d. Gastrointestinal tract e. Upper respiratory tract f. Lower urinary tract

Enlargement of the spleen would be described as: a. Splenitis b. Splenosis c. Splenomegaly d. Splenomalacia

c. Splenomegaly

Which cardinal sign is directly caused by increased vascular permeability a. Redness (Rubor) b. Heat (Calor) c. Swelling (Tumor) d. Pain (Dolor)

c. Swelling (Tumor)

How do the kidneys control electrolyte composition of the body fluids? a. The kidneys filter plasma and excrete electrolytes needed by the body. b. The kidneys filter plasma and remove electrolytes from the filtrate at steady rates. c. The kidneys filter plasma and remove electrolytes from the filtrate at variable rates. d. The kidneys only freely filter the plasma and prevent electrolytes from going into the urine.

c. The kidneys filter plasma and remove electrolytes from the filtrate at variable rates.

Why is the left ventricular wall thicker than the right ventricular wall? a. The left ventricle must contract to send blood to the pulmonary circulation, which is a high-pressure system b. The volume of blood in the left ventricle is greater than the right ventricle to supply the whole body with blood c. The left ventricle must contract to eject blood into the arterial/systemic circulation which is a high-resistance system. d. The left ventricle wall is NOT thicker than the right ventricular wall.

c. The left ventricle must contract to eject blood into the arterial/systemic circulation which is a high-resistance system.

The most damaging form of DNA damage will incite cellular apoptosis. Which of the following regarding the apoptotic pathway activated by DNA damage is TRUE? a. DNA damage will activate death receptors, activating the apoptotic pathway b. DNA damage will activate the extrinsic apoptotic pathway c. The pathway is mediated through the activity of apoptotic proteins that develop membrane pores d. The location of many activities of the activated apoptotic pathway is the endoplasmic reticulum

c. The pathway is mediated through the activity of apoptotic proteins that develop membrane pores

What is a key differentiating factor between prions and viruses? a. None, the only difference is in clinical signs seen in the animal b. Prions contain more than one protein while viruses are a single protein c. Viruses contain genetic material, prions do not d. Prions contain genetic material, viruses do not

c. Viruses contain genetic material, prions do not

Feline chin acne occurs when sebaceous gland follicles become plugged with material, causing blackheads. These lesions can become infected and require treatment. Sebaceous glands are an example of holocrine glands which a. excrete their compounds without damaging the cell b. bud off a portion of their cell membranes to form the secretion c. excrete their contents by cell rupture d. excrete directly into the bloodstream

c. excrete their contents by cell rupture

What part of the nephron reabsorbs essentially all the filtered glucose and amino acids? a. thick ascending loop of Henle b. early distal tubule c. proximal tubule d. medullary collecting duct

c. proximal tubule

Which of these terms means bursting forth and when combined with hemo would indicate bleeding. a. rrhexis b. rrhaphy c. rrhage d. rrhea

c. rrhage

Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? a. cardiac muscle b. most glands c. skeletal muscle d. smooth muscle

c. skeletal muscle

When a molecule of glucose moves from plasma in the blood into the filtrate in Bowman's space, what is the correct order of the layers of the filtration barrier that the molecule needs to pass through? a. the podocyte filtration slit, the endothelial cell fenestrations, the basement membrane. b. the basement membrane, the endothelial cell fenestrations, the podocyte filtration slit c. the endothelial cell fenestrations, the basement membrane, the podocyte filtration slit d. The basement membrane, the podocyte filtration slit, the endothelial cell fenestrations.

c. the endothelial cell fenestrations, the basement membrane, the podocyte filtration slit

Approximately what percentage of human cancers arise from mutations caused by intrinsic errors in DNA replication (replicative risk)? a. 0-20% b. 20-40% c. 40-60% d. 60-80%

d. 60-80%

Which of the following statements is true regarding the closure of growth plates? a. All growth plates close at the same time in the body. b. Injury to a growth plate is easily repaired as it is such a dynamic tissue c. The skull bones have many growth plates where they fuse to one another d. A growth plate closes once the bone reaches adult size. e. Both A and D are correct

d. A growth plate closes once the bone reaches adult size.

Epithelium performs which of the following functions? a. Protect b. Absorb c. Excrete d. All the above e. 1 and 2

d. All the above

The four steps of evidence-based practice in veterinary investigations includes everything EXCEPT: a. Ask an answerable question b. Acquire the best evidence to answer the question c. Appraise the evidence for its validity and applicability d. Allow time for new research to be published before answering the question e. Apply the evidence to clinical decision making

d. Allow time for new research to be published before answering the question

In the prework you read about the EPIC trial, which was a randomized clinical trial that evaluated the effectiveness of pimobendan treatment in dogs with mitral valve disease. When animals are randomized in a clinical trial, what does it mean? a. Animals are not equally distributed across the treatment group (pimobendan) and control group (control) b. Researchers do not know if their patient is receiving pimobendan or the placebo c. The trial takes place in more than one veterinary clinic d. An animal has equal chance of receiving the treatment (pimobendan) or the control (placebo)

d. An animal has equal chance of receiving the treatment (pimobendan) or the control (placebo)

Which one of the following anti-cancer strategies would NOT target the tumor cells directly? a. Antiproliferative drugs (chemotherapy) b. Radiation therapy c. Targeted surface receptor blockers d. Antiangiogenic drugs

d. Antiangiogenic drugs

If your animal is spayed/neutered, they are: a. At increased risk for traumatic events b. At decreased risk for multiple neoplasms besides those that arise from their sexual reproductive organs c. At increased risk for infectious diseases d. At increased risk for immune mediated diseases

d. At increased risk for immune mediated diseases

Many of the biological effects of glucocorticoids like prednisone take several hours, sometimes days, to occur. In part this is due to the mechanism of action of this category of drugs. What is that mechanism of action? a. Enzyme inhibition b. Binding receptor target on plasma membrane, followed by signaling cascade, followed by effect. c. Binding ion channel, altering its shape, changing its function d. Binding its receptor target in cytosol, moving to nucleus, altering rate of protein synthesis for specific proteins

d. Binding its receptor target in cytosol, moving to nucleus, altering rate of protein synthesis for specific proteins

Which of the following is an example of connective tissue? a. Nervous tissue b. Muscle c. Epithelium d. Blood

d. Blood

You have the pleasure of examining Laika, an 8-week-old Golden Retriever puppy who is here for her first check-up. You explain to her owners that you are going to undertake a full physical exam, checking each of the body systems. The first thing you will do is assess her cardiovascular system by listening to her heart. You hear two heart sounds, S1 and S2. What makes the first heart sound (S1)? * a. Closure of the mitral and semilunar valves b. Atrial contraction c. Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves d. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves e. Ventricular contraction

d. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves

Which of the following are true regarding the endocrine pancreas? a. Beta cells release glucagon in response to hyperglycemia b. Diabetes mellitus is a failure of alpha cells to produce glucagon c. Alpha cells release insulin in response to hypoglycemia d. Diabetes mellitus is a failure beta cells to produce insulin

d. Diabetes mellitus is a failure beta cells to produce insulin

What determines the rate at which different substances are excreted into the urine? a. Excretion = filtration - secretion + reabsorption b. Excretion = filtration - reabsorption - secretion c. Excretion = filtration + reabsorption + secretion d. Excretion = filtration - reabsorption + secretion

d. Excretion = filtration - reabsorption + secretion

Which of the following retroviruses is most likely to be transmitted in a multi-cat household? a. Feline Immunodeficiency virus (FIV) b. Feline sarcoma virus c. Rous sarcoma virus d. Feline Leukemia virus (FeLV)

d. Feline Leukemia virus (FeLV)

Select the choice which correctly pairs the adrenal cortex zone with the hormones the zone produces. a. Glomerulosa - estrogen, Fasciculata - cortisol, Reticularis - aldosterone b. Glomerulosa - testosterone, Fasciculata - aldosterone, Reticularis - epinephrine c. Glomerulosa - norepinephrine, Fasciculata - estrogen, Reticularis - aldosterone d. Glomerulosa - aldosterone, Fasciculata - cortisol, Reticularis - testosterone

d. Glomerulosa - aldosterone, Fasciculata - cortisol, Reticularis - testosterone

You are treating a 1-day old calf for severe watery diarrhea. You suspect that enterotoxigenic E. coli is the cause. How would you classify E. coli? * a. Gram-positive cocci b. Gram-negative cocci c. Gram-positive rod d. Gram-negative rod

d. Gram-negative rod

Which of the following correctly identifies characteristics of adrenocorticotrophic hormone ACTH? a. Lipophilic, vascular carrier protein, readily enters cell membrane, second messenger activation b. Hydrophilic, no vascular carrier protein, readily enters cell membrane, cell nucleus receptor c. Lipophilic, vascular carrier protein, cell membrane receptor, cytoplasmic receptor d. Hydrophilic, no vascular carrier protein, cell membrane receptor, second messenger activation

d. Hydrophilic, no vascular carrier protein, cell membrane receptor, second messenger activation

Which term would indicate decreased oxygen in the blood? a. Epoxemia b. Apoxemia c. Panoxemia d. Hypoxemia

d. Hypoxemia

The pathophysiological mechanism responsible for clinical signs related to myasthenia gravis can most accurately be described as: a. Blockade of Ach release from presynapse of NMJ b. Inhibit action of acetylcholinesterase c. Blockade of Ach release from autonomic synapses d. Immune mediated breakdown of Ach receptors

d. Immune mediated breakdown of Ach receptors

A local anesthetic, such as lidocaine, prevents generation of action potential. What is one way this is possible? a. Blocking receptors for GABA b. Inactivating nongated Na+ channels c. Activating Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels d. Inactivating Voltage-gated Na+ channels e. Increasing release of neurotransmitter acetylcholine

d. Inactivating Voltage-gated Na+ channels

Still on the case of the 1-day-old calf with watery diarrhea, what is the most likely way that the calf acquired the ETEC infection? * a. Direct inoculation b. Vector transmission c. Inhalation d. Ingestion

d. Ingestion

One of your technicians has just told you that she is pregnant. As her supervisor, you must now closely monitor both her radiation dose and the dose to the fetus. Which of the following statements best explains why pregnant women should be exposed to as little radiation as possible? a. Ionizing radiation can cause high blood pressure in pregnant women, which is bad for fetal development b. Ionizing radiation can cause damage to the thyroid gland in pregnant woman, which could affect fetal development c. Ionizing radiation can cause the fetus to develop cataracts d. Ionizing radiation can lead to DNA mutations which could result in fetal abnormalities or abortion

d. Ionizing radiation can lead to DNA mutations which could result in fetal abnormalities or abortion

You are treating a diabetic dog with insulin. Which statement is TRUE regarding this protein? a. The biologic action of this protein is dependent only upon its tertiary structure. b. There are normally only 20 different types of insulin in animals (since there are only 20 different amino acids). c. In mammalian organisms, mutations in insulin are prevented with misfolding of proteins d. It is a hormone containing 51 amino acid residues that have both intra- and interchain disulfide bonds. answer: d

d. It is a hormone containing 51 amino acid residues that have both intra- and interchain disulfide bonds.

Which of the following best describes the role of p53 in cell cycle regulation? * a. It is a protein kinase that prevents apoptosis despite danger signals such as DNA damage b. It is a proto-oncogene whose increased expression leads the cell cycle to stop at G1 c. It is a proto-oncogene whose decreased expression leads the cell cycle to stop at G1 d. It is a transcription factor that induces cell cycle arrest in response to danger signals such as DNA damage

d. It is a transcription factor that induces cell cycle arrest in response to danger signals such as DNA damage

Which one of the following tests would differentiate between antibodies to Type 1 BVD infection and Type 2 BVD infection? a. Pen-side antibody ELISA b. Pen-side antigen ELISA c. PCR d. Laboratory-based serology testing

d. Laboratory-based serology testing

Examine these thoracic radiographs of a cat who has been shot with an arrow. In the ventrodorsal projection (A) it appears that the arrow is piercing through the spinal column. However, in the left lateral projection, the true trajectory of the arrow is more superficial and passes dorsal to the cervical spine (luckily for the cat!). This demonstrates one of the artifacts that can occur in radiographic imaging. Which artifact does this example most specifically illustrate? a. Magnification and distortion b. Border effacement c. Superimposition d. Loss of volumetric perception

d. Loss of volumetric perception

The shaft of a long bone is joined to the growth plate by a transitional spongy bone termed the a. Diaphysis b. Epiphysis c. Medullary space d. Metaphysis

d. Metaphysis

To make Laika feel better, you feed her a treat. After the treat is swallowed, which layer of her stomach will it come into contact with first? * a. Serosa b. Muscularis c. Peritoneum d. Mucosa

d. Mucosa

When treating critically ill patients with intravenous fluids, which two ions are most important to the neuronal membrane potential? a. K+ and Cl- b. Ca2+ and Cl- c. K+ and Ca2+ d. Na+ and K+

d. Na+ and K+

Parvovirus is a common cause of severe gastrointestinal disease in puppies. Which of the following characteristics of parvovirus make it particularly hardy in the environment? It is a: a. DNA virus b. RNA virus c. Enveloped virus d. Non-enveloped virus

d. Non-enveloped virus

Which of the following is NOT a cause of diarrhea in neonatal calves? a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) b. Rotavirus c. Cryptosporidium d. Norovirus

d. Norovirus

Which of the following statements about diffusion of oxygen is correct? a. Metabolically active cells must be within 0.1 cm of capillaries to receive oxygen. b. Oxygen diffuses across the wall of the ventricle to provide oxygen to the heart muscle. c. Oxygen moves from the capillary to a neuron by active transport. d. Oxygen will diffuse from alveolus to capillary following its concentration gradient.

d. Oxygen will diffuse from alveolus to capillary following its concentration gradient.

Which of the following tests detects viral nucleic acid and can be part of a test that simultaneously screens for multiple pathogens in a single sample? a. Antigen- ELISA b. Antibody-ELISA c. Immunohistochemistry d. PCR

d. PCR

You are in the middle of a busy day at the clinic and one of your feline patients needs thoracic radiographs. Two of your technicians approach you to let you know that the cat has become fractious, and they were only able to perform one view of the chest. They are having difficulty restraining the cat while wearing the lead gloves. Which of the following would be the best recommendation for your team? a. One radiograph of the chest is all you need; there is no need to stress the patient to complete the exam. b. Try restraining the cat with their hands and drape the lead gloves over their hands c. Have a third technician help hold the patient wearing the appropriate shielding equipment d. Place the cat in a cage to cool down while you contact the client about using sedation to complete the exam.

d. Place the cat in a cage to cool down while you contact the client about using sedation to complete the exam.

This is a blood smear from a dog. What is indicated by the red arrow? a. Immature lymphocyte b. Bacteria c. Debris d. Platelet

d. Platelet

Caspase 8 is the initiator caspase of the extrinsic pathway. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding caspase 8? a. Procaspase 8 undergoes self-cleavage, rather than apoptosome activation b. Caspase 8 activation leads to activation of executioner caspases c. Caspase 8 activation leads to activation of the intrinsic pathway d. Procaspase 8 is activated by DNA damage

d. Procaspase 8 is activated by DNA damage

1. The majority of cells in the pancreas have abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum. What is the most likely primary function of a cell with abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. Energy production b. Lipid metabolism c. Waste disposal d. Protein production and secretion

d. Protein production and secretion

In a veterinary patient that has any of the following conditions, which electrolyte would be most important to supplement in your fluid replacement plan - dehydration from any cause, heart disease, blood loss. a. Leucine b. Potassium c. Selenium d. Sodium

d. Sodium

Which of the following hormones are synthesized from cholesterol? a. Paracrines b. Peptides c. Glycoproteins d. Steroids

d. Steroids

The region of epidermis where the cells are dividing (the germative layer) is the a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum granulosum c. Stratum spinosum d. Stratum basale

d. Stratum basale

This is an electron microscope image of a cell from the adrenal cortex. The cell has abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum. What is the most likely function of a cell with abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum? a. Synthesis of proteins for signaling pathways b. Detoxification of noxious materials c. Filtration of large proteins d. Synthesis of lipids for steroid hormone production

d. Synthesis of lipids for steroid hormone production answer: d

Examine this left lateral radiograph of a canine abdomen. The patient is a 9-month-old border collie mix dog who ingested something she should not have (yellow arrow pointing to object). Based on your knowledge of the radiographic opacities, which of the following statements is true about the ingested objects? a. They are more radiolucent than the bones of the spinal column b. They are soft tissue opaque c. They are mineral opaque d. They are likely highly effective at absorbing x-rays

d. They are likely highly effective at absorbing x-rays

All of the following is true regarding tumor suppressor genes EXCEPT? a. Their inactivation facilitates tumor formation b. Their mutation results in a loss of function c. Loss of function of 1 or more occurs in virtually every cancer d. They function in a dominant fashion (complete penetrance)

d. They function in a dominant fashion (complete penetrance)

What is one of the qualities of arteries and arterioles that make them excellent conduit vessels of the circulatory system? a. They are easily distensible and can hold a lot of volume. b. The walls contain striated muscle which can be influenced by the autonomic nervous system to regulate flow. c. They have very thick endothelium and can withstand high pressures and shear forces. d. They have elastic walls and will spring back to shape if stretched.

d. They have elastic walls and will spring back to shape if stretched.

A wild coyote is found starving after wildfires desolated his habitat. Which of the following amino acids are extensively being catabolized by muscle tissue for energy purposes during starvation? a. Asparagine and glutamine b. Proline, tyrosine and tryptophan c. Serine and threonine d. Valine, leucine, isolucine

d. Valine, leucine, isolucine

In relation to kidney function and urine formation, what happens to substances in the filtrate after glomerular filtration of the blood occurs? a. Waste products are excreted in the urine and substances that are needed are secreted back to the blood. b. All the substances that are filtered are excreted into the urine. c. All the filtered substances and substances secreted by the peritubular capillaries are excreted into the urine. d. Waste products are excreted in the urine and substances that are needed are reabsorbed back to the blood.

d. Waste products are excreted in the urine and substances that are needed are reabsorbed back to the blood.

Which of the following is the blood vessel that enters the glomerulus? a. renal artery b. efferent arteriole c. peritubular arteriole d. afferent arteriole

d. afferent arteriole

A 'totipotent' cell a. is another term for neural crest cells b. is pre-destined for a particular cell type in the body, like the heart. c. lives forever d. may become any one of the three germ cell lines

d. may become any one of the three germ cell lines

The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. a. peripheral nervous system b. somatic division c. sympathetic division d. parasympathetic division

d. parasympathetic division

Stun-cell-anib is a new drug being developed that seems to PREVENT Snortiblast cells from replicating. Which is NOT a possible mechanism of action? a. Produces a mutation that prevents binding of growth factors b. Produces a constitutively activating mutation in the p53 protein c. Produces a mutation that prevents dephosphorylation at inhibitory sites on CDKs (not able to be activated) d.Produces a constitutively activating mutation in the Rb protein

d.Produces a constitutively activating mutation in the Rb protein

The rising phase of an action potential (depolarization) is due to (Select all that apply): a. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSP) b. Na+/K+-ATPase pumps c. Opening of voltage-gated K+ channels d. Inactivation of voltage-gated Na+ channels e. Activation of voltage-gated Na+ channels f. Increased Na ion permeability

e. Activation of voltage-gated Na+ channels f. Increased Na ion permeability

Which of the following is an example of an exocrine gland? a. Mammary b. Prostate c. Sweat d. Salivary e. All the above f. c and d

e. All the above

Intraosseous fluid administration is a technique to allow a convenient way to administer fluids to an animal. Which of the following features of bone makes this technique so convenient? a. The medullary cavity is highly vascular for fluid absorption b. Bone has a periosteum that makes fluid absorption possible c. Bone will not collapse, like a vein d. All the above e. Both A and C

e. Both A and C

During her parvovirus treatment, Farrah is given Ampicillin-sulbactam and metronidazole intravenously to ward off bacteria that have translocated into the blood stream. What disease/s will Farrah definitely suffer from in the future based on the antibiotic administration? a. Asthma b. Atopy c. Obesity d. All of the above e. It is impossible to tell

e. It is impossible to tell

Fabio, the 6-month-old male intact Golden Retriever, presents to your clinic for eating 6 oz dark chocolate and 6 oz milk chocolate that were wrapped under the Christmas tree. Dogs cannot process the methylxanthines in chocolate, with symptoms ranging from GI upset to cardiac arrhythmias to seizures. Which of the following is the toxicant? a. Cocoa b. Dark chocolate c. Fabio, the Golden Retriever d. GI upset, Cardiac arrhythmias, +/- seizures e. Methylxanthine

e. Methylxanthine

The owner tried (unsuccessfully) to induce vomiting with hydrogen peroxide at home per the recommendation she found on Dr. Google. What is the most serious potential complication of owners inducing vomiting with hydrogen peroxide(H2O2) at home? a. Emesis is contraindicated due to the risk of aspirating vomitus at home. b. The time used to find and administer H2O2 is wasted, slowing decontamination at the clinic c. The time used to find and administer H2O2 is wasted, decreasing the volume of chocolate that could be recovered during emesis at the clinic d. The restraint necessary to administer H2O2 may increase adrenaline and speed absorption of the toxin. e. There is the potential for secondary hemorrhagic gastric or duodenal lesions with H2O2 administration.

e. There is the potential for secondary hemorrhagic gastric or duodenal lesions with H2O2 administration.

All of the following are accessory organs to the gastrointestinal tract, except the: a. Gallbladder b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Salivary glands e. Thyroid

e. Thyroid

Fabio, the 6-month-old male Golden Retriever, not only ingests his kibble quickly, but also is coprophagic (eats his own poop), resulting in the ingestion of a lot of unwanted fecal bacteria into his stomach. What part of the gastrointestinal barrier do you think is MOST important in preventing bacterial access to the circulatory highway contained in the lamina propria, where blood and lymph vessels reside? a. Bicarbonate maintaining a neutral pH along the subepithelial cells b. Hydrochloric acid destroying and breaking down bacteria c. IgA providing an antigenic barrier to bacteria d. Mucous binding bacteria to prevent colonization on epithelial cells e. Tight junctions between epithelial cells providing a physical barrier to bacteria

e. Tight junctions between epithelial cells providing a physical barrier to bacteria

Unfortunately, Fabio's sister, Farrah a 6-month-old female intact Golden Retriever, has contracted Parvovirus. Canine Parvovirus replicates in and destroys the intestinal crypt cells. What would be the MOST DETRIMENTAL consequence of intestinal crypt cell destruction? a. Decreased mucous production to prevent bacterial colonization b. Decreased mucosal permeability and ion exchange c. Increased efficiency in nutrient transport across the epithelium d. Impaired cell turnover in the intestinal villi e. Translocation of intestinal bacteria into the bloodstream

e. Translocation of intestinal bacteria into the bloodstream

Dehydration is a common clinical presentation in veterinary medicine (especially in Arizona!). This is an important condition to correct because which of the following is normally the most prevalent compound in your patient's cell? a. Lipid b. Nucleic acid c. Polysaccharide d. Protein e. Water

e. Water

Which of the following is true about the effects of calcium in the body? * a. It enables the release of acetylcholine from presynaptic membranes b. It facilitates the binding of myosin to actin to initiate muscle contraction c. As part of the sodium/calcium pump, it enables re-establishment of the resting membrane potential d. As part of the sodium/calcium pump, it facilitates reabsorption of glucose in the kidney e. a and b f. c and d

e. a and b

Evidence-based veterinary medicine uses the best available scientific evidence to help answer clinical questions. What else is required to make the best clinical decisions? a. Application of clinical expertise b. A disregard for the client's values c. An appreciation for the client-animal bond d. a and b e. a and c

e. a and c

Sodium and potassium are two key electrolytes in the body. Which of the following mechanisms allow sodium and potassium to cross the cell membrane? a. a Passive transport via simple diffusion b. Facilitated dissusion vis ion channels c. Active transport via endocytosis e. a and b f. b and c g. c and d

f. b and c

Sodium and potassium are two key electrolytes in the body. Which of the following mechanisms allow sodium and potassium to cross the cell membrane? * a. Passive transport via simple diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion via ion channels c. Active transport via ion pumps d. Active transport via endocytosis e. a and b f. b and c g. c and d

f. b and c

Fluid deficit in the interstitial and intracellular spaces causes clinical signs of dehydration. Physical findings are used to estimate the percentage of dehydration. Which of the following would indicate to you that an animal is severely dehydrated? a. Considerable loss of skin turgor b. Enophthalmos c. Tachycardia, d. Dry mucous membranes e. Weak/thready pulses f. Hypotension g. All of the above

g. All of the above