Volume 5, Chapter 16, Volume 5, Chapter 15, Volume 5, Chapter 14, Volume 5, Chapter 13, Volume 5, Chapter 12, Volume 5, Chapter 11, Volume 5, Chapter 10, Volume 5, Chapter 9

What is a threat in a confined space that atmospheric monitoring would not​ detect? A. Electricity B. Explosive limits C. Flammable atmosphere D. Insufficient oxygen levels

A. Electricity

Physicians who typically staff helicopters in the United States are generally of this​ specialty: A. Emergency medicine B. Trauma surgeons C. Anesthesiologists D. Nurse practitioners

A. Emergency medicine

When did the American College of Trauma Surgeons first release its recommendation of equipment that should be carried on an​ ambulance? A. 1992 B. 1970 C. 1936 D. 2001

B. 1970

What staff position is responsible for effective deployment of specialized resources at the scene of a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. The liaison officer B. The safety officer C. The section chief D. The information officer

A. The liaison officer

Which of the following variables can typically change at any time in an open​ incident? A. The number of patients B. The amount of available resources C. The number of destination hospitals D. The number of triage levels

A. The number of patients

What position is responsible for being in charge of a specific functional area of the​ NIMS? A. The section chief B. The information officer C. The safety officer D. The incident commander

A. The section chief

What is the basic function of a TEMS​ unit? A. Flight medical B. ​Long-distance critical care transport C. Law enforcement D. To work as medical adjuncts to the police or military

. To work as medical adjuncts to the police or military

You are considering air medial transport for a critical patient in need of care at a facility 60 miles away. It is​ 11:32 at night. What is the recommended minimum size of a night landing zone for a​ rotor-wing air​ ambulance? A. 100 feet by 100 feet B. 50 feet by 50 feet C. 100 square feet D. 150 feet by 150 feet

A. 100 feet by 100 feet

You are considering air medical transport for a patient at the site of a bridge collapse. There are power lines at the edge of the nearby field that would make the best landing zone for a helicopter. How far from​ 75-foot high power lines should the landing zone for a helicopter be​ located? A. 150 feet B. 100 feet C. 50 feet D. 200 feet

A. 150 feet

What percentage of HAA crews in the United States use a crew configuration consisting of a single​ pilot, a​ nurse, and a​ paramedic? A. 95 percent B. 75 percent C. 50 percent D. 80 percent

A. 95 percent

Which of the following statements is most correct regarding response to a possible biological​ attack? A. A biological attack should be handled much like an infectious disease outbreak B. Patient care for a patient affected by a biological attack is different from that of a patient suffering from an infectious disease. C. Biological attacks are easily determined by the​ patient's signs and symptoms. D. Biological attacks can be recognized by the plume or vapor release.

A. A biological attack should be handled much like an infectious disease outbreak

In which type of​ multiple-casualty incident have the injuries usually already occurred by the time you arrive on​ scene? A. A closed incident B. An open incident C. A limited scope incident D. A triage coordination incident

A. A closed incident

Which of the following descriptions best reflects the purpose of the mutual aid coordination center​ (MACC)? A. For exercising direction and control in an emergency or disaster B. For providing a staging area for emergency vehicles to ensure prompt dispatch C. For providing mutual aid from surrounding systems D. For providing a collection point for additional supplies

A. For exercising direction and control in an emergency or disaster

In accordance with the START triage​ system, which of the following victims would be transported last from a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. A conscious and​ well-oriented 28-year-old female with a respiratory rate of 28 and a radial pulse of 100 who is able to walk B. A conscious but disoriented​ 48-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 28 and a radial pulse of 97 C. A​ conscious, well-oriented​ 25-year-old female with a respiratory rate of 36 and a radial pulse of 87 D. An unconscious​ 37-year-old male with no spontaneous respirations after opening his airway

A. A conscious and​ well-oriented 28-year-old female with a respiratory rate of 28 and a radial pulse of 100 who is able to walk

Which of the following statements about a dosimeter is most​ accurate? A. A dosimeter is a​ pen-like device used to record your total radiation exposure. B. Dosimeters are easily read and do not require any extensive instructions to use. C. A dosimeter will immediately alert when a responder has met the maximum allowable exposure dose. D. A dosimeter measures the immediate dose rate from all types of ionizing radiation.

A. A dosimeter is a​ pen-like device used to record your total radiation exposure.

How does NIMS help to ensure that positions within the system are filled by people who meet the uniform requirements of the​ system? A. A qualifications and certification system B. Law enforcement C. A training system D. Supporting technology

A. A qualifications and certification system

Which of the following is an example of a place where an NFPA 704 placard should be​ expected? A. An outdoor storage tank holding liquid oxygen B. A railroad tanker carrying liquid nitrogen C. A​ semi-truck tanker carrying gasoline D. Barrels of methyl alcohol on a towed barge.

A. An outdoor storage tank holding liquid oxygen

What is the best way to mitigate common problems that may occur during an​ MCI? A. Anticipate their occurrence and plan for them. B. Formulate a disaster response plan for every type of disaster. C. Develop a redundant infrastructure. D. Inventory additional equipment.

A. Anticipate their occurrence and plan for them.

Your patient was injured while working on a farm tractor. You find him sitting beside the rear wheel of the tractor holding his arm. The engine of the tractor is still​ running, but the equipment is not in gear. His adult son arrives as you approach. What should be your first​ action? A. Ascertain whether the son knows how to turn off the tractor. B. Drag the patient by the long axis of the body to safety. C. Remain at a safe distance until the FD arrives to shut down and secure the tractor. D. Climb into the cab to shut off the motor.

A. Ascertain whether the son knows how to turn off the tractor.

What should be the first question you ask patients at a​ multiple-casualty incident in accordance with the START triage​ system? A. Ask all patients who can walk to come to you. B. Ask if they can speak. C. Ask if they can breathe. D. Ask what their name is.

A. Ask all patients who can walk to come to you.

A patient has been exposed to sarin gas. What is the definitive treatment for exposure to a nerve​ agent? A. Atropine and pralidoxime chloride B. Benzodiazepines and albuterol C. Supportive care and administration of​ antitoxins, if available D. Immediate irrigation of eyes and exposed areas with water

A. Atropine and pralidoxime chloride

Why is it recommended that SCBA equipment be part of the standard equipment found on ambulances that operate in rural​ areas? A. Because of the possible presence of hazardous gases on farms B. So that the paramedic can serve a dual role as a firefighter C. So that the rural system can bill the EMS run at a higher rate to increase EMS revenues D. Because rural ambulances are often​ larger, with more storage space for specialty equipment

A. Because of the possible presence of hazardous gases on farms

When faced with a potential disaster such as a​ hurricane, how can the impact on resources best be​ reduced? A. By advising people of safe routes out of the area to appropriate destinations B. By removing resources from the area until after the disaster C. By beginning an immediate forced evacuation of the area D. By removing as many people to hospitals as possible

A. By advising people of safe routes out of the area to appropriate destinations

You make the decision early on to call air medical transport but a few minutes later determine that the patients are in stable condition and that air transport is not necessary. What should you​ do? A. Cancel the inbound aircraft only if you are certain your agency will not be charged. B. Transport the patients by air because the call has already been made. C. Reassess in another five minutes and if the​ patients' condition is​ unchanged, cancel the inbound aircraft. D. Cancel the inbound aircraft.

A. Cancel the inbound aircraft only if you are certain your agency will not be charged.

Body armor protects you from many types of​ penetration, but you may still experience what type of​ injury? A. Cavitation B. Low impact C. Fragmentation D. Heavy metal poisoning

A. Cavitation

​It's 2:00 am and you are transporting a trauma victim with significant injuries from an automobile accident. The local ED is closed for the​ night, and it will take approximately 1 hour for the staff to arrive. Which option should you​ consider? A. Continue care and transport to a more distant trauma center about 1 hour away. B. Admit the patient to the critical care floor. C. Continue your care in the ED until arrival of the​ on-call staff. D. Request a surgical team.

A. Continue care and transport to a more distant trauma center about 1 hour away.

What is the first thing you should do if you suddenly fall into​ swift-running water? A. Cover your nose and mouth during entry. B. Float on your back with your feet pointing upstream. C. Attempt to keep your face above water. D. Float on your back with your feet pointing downstream.

A. Cover your nose and mouth during entry.

In rural areas of the United States where health care access is​ limited, the​ paramedic's skills may be utilized in what capacity to help alleviate gaps in health​ care? A. In prompt care facilities B. In sanitation department positions C. In grant fund writing D. In community​ extended-care facilities

A. In prompt care facilities

Body armor is typically manufactured from several layers​ of: A. Kevlar. B. ​dense-weave polyester. C. wool. D. carbon microfiber.

A. Kevlar.

Which of the following is the site from which civil government officials exercise direction and control in an emergency or​ disaster? A. MACC B. EOC C. NWCG D. ICS

A. MACC

Which of the following incident management concepts is the comprehensive standard currently utilized since​ 9/11? A. National Incident Management System​ (NIMS) B. FIRE SCOPE C. Incident Command System​ (ICS) D. Incident Management System​ (IMS)

A. National Incident Management System​ (NIMS)

What is your best tactical response to​ violence? A. Observation B. Concealment C. Pepper spray D. Engagement

A. Observation

At what point is it always unsafe to walk in​ fast-moving water? A. Over knee depth B. At hip depth C. Over waist depth D. At ankle depth

A. Over knee depth

What is the recommendation for the use of police escorts for emergency ambulance​ responses? A. Police escorts should not be used unless the responding ambulance is unfamiliar with the area. B. Police escorts should obstruct intersections until the ambulance passes. C. Police escorts should survey the intersections for other responding emergency vehicles. D. Police escorts should precede the ambulance by 500 feet.

A. Police escorts should not be used unless the responding ambulance is unfamiliar with the area.

What is an inexpensive vinyl tarp useful​ for? A. Protection from​ water, weather, and most debris B. Protection from water hazards C. Protection from fire D. Protection from heat loss

A. Protection from​ water, weather, and most debris

In a​ disaster, if operations have begun to return people who have been evacuated to their homes and​ communities, then you are in which​ phase? A. Recovery B. Planning C. Mitigation D. Response

A. Recovery

Which of the following would be the most important action to take while checking the ambulance at the beginning of the​ shift? A. Review all equipment locations with your partner. B. Talk with the​ off-going crew about what runs they completed. C. Make sure you have some food in the ambulance in case of a busy day. D. Clock in for your shift.

A. Review all equipment locations with your partner.

When conserving a wet garment worn by the victim of a​ crime, how should you store the​ item? A. Roll the item in a paper​ bag, place it in a second paper​ bag, and place both bags in a plastic bag. B. Place the item in a paper bag and then in a large plastic bag with the rest of the clothes. C. Place the item in a paper​ bag, then in a plastic bag. D. Place the item in a plastic bag.

A. Roll the item in a paper​ bag, place it in a second paper​ bag, and place both bags in a plastic bag.

What is the condition in which EMS providers are unable to stay abreast of current standards or previously taught​ practices? A. Rust out B. Ground out C. Flame out D. Brown out

A. Rust out

Patients can be exposed to an incredibly large number of chemicals. In any situation involving chemical​ exposure, what should you do after ensuring your own​ safety? A. See that all patients receive the necessary supportive measures. B. Review the decontamination process. C. Start all patients on oxygen. D. Find a second source to agree on medication delivery.

A. See that all patients receive the necessary supportive measures.

When removing an injured victim from rough​ terrain, the most appropriate device to package a patient and prepare for transport is​ a: A. Stokes basket B. scoop stretcher. C. standard backboard. D. ​extrication/rescue vest.

A. Stokes basket

The standard litter for transporting a patient across rough terrain is​ the: A. Stokes basket. B. SKED. C. slatted stretcher. D. wheeled stretcher.

A. Stokes basket.

Which of the following types of protective equipment offers the least amount of protection to hazardous materials​ exposure? A. Structural firefighting gear B. Nonpermeable​ suit, boots,​ gloves, and eye protection along with an​ air-purifying respirator C. Nonencapsulating​ chemical-resistant suit,​ boots, gloves, and eye and respiratory protection D. Fully​ encapsulated, impermeable chemical suit with​ self-contained breathing apparatus

A. Structural firefighting gear

Which of the following is a significant limitation in the use of​ fixed-wing aircraft for air medical​ transport? A. They must utilize established airports. B. IFR flight requires two pilots. C. The cabins must be pressurized. D. They typically utilize turbine engines.

A. They must utilize established airports.

In accordance with the START triage​ system, what should the disposition be for patients who respond to your request to come to​ you? A. They should be confined to one area. B. They should be asked to assist. C. They should be transported to the ED by bus. D. They should be tagged yellow.

A. They should be confined to one area.

Which of the following disaster resource coordination personnel would you least likely find at the​ MACC? A. Unit leaders B. Incident commander C. Operations section chief D. Jurisdictional officials

A. Unit leaders

How long may it take for abnormal signs and symptoms associated with traumatic stress from an MCI to​ develop? A. Up to two months B. Up to three days C. Up to one week D. No more than a day

A. Up to two months

If a program needs at least 3 miles of visibility to fly its​ aircraft, it is probably using which flight​ rules? A. Visual flight rules B. FLIR guidance flying C. Instrument flight rules D. ATC direction

A. Visual flight rules

You are performing primary triage at an​ MCI, utilizing the START triage​ system, when you encounter a​ pulseless, apneic patient who fails to breathe after you open the airway manually. How long should you perform CPR before moving on to the next​ victim? A. You should not perform CPR. B. 1 minute C. 5 cycles of​ 30:2 D. 2 minutes

A. You should not perform CPR.

Among which demographic group has there been a significant increase in commission of acts of violence over the past two​ decades? A. Youth B. ​Middle-aged men C. Teenage females D. The elderly

A. Youth

In working around smooth or swift​ water, the most important PPE to utilize​ is: A. a Type III PFD. B. a life ring ready to deploy if a rescue falls into the water. C. a rescue retrieval line attached to the rescuer. D. an insulated rescue coat to protect from hypothermia.

A. a Type III PFD.

You are a paramedic who maintains an EMS level 1 in hazardous materials. The incident commander assigns you to immediately initiate lifesaving care for a patient who is in the warm zone who is being prepared for decontamination. You​ should: A. advise the incident commander that you do not meet the training qualifications. B. refuse to follow the​ order, and report the infraction to your immediate supervisor. C. have the incident commander repeat the​ order, and only then comply. D. dress in the appropriate protective equipment and report to the leader of the warm zone.

A. advise the incident commander that you do not meet the training qualifications.

The local post office has called 911 to report that a letter with white powder has been opened and two postal workers were exposed. When you support the hazardous materials team you should take precautions​ for: A. anthrax. B. capsaicin. C. tabun. D. sarin

A. anthrax.

According to​ OSHA, a confined space​ is: A. any space with limited​ ingress/egress that is not designed for human occupancy or habitation. B. a commercial building that has been limited to all but private access. C. any indoor space that is artificially constructed. D. a residential structure with all its doors locked.

A. any space with limited​ ingress/egress that is not designed for human occupancy or habitation.

As you consider your strategy for gaining access to an unresponsive victim who appears to be lightly entrapped in the front seat of a passenger​ car, you​ should: A. attempt to open the front door closest to the patient using the door handle. B. gain access by breaking out the rear side window farthest from the victim. C. attempt to awaken the patient and have him open the nearest door. D. remove the roof in order to have more access for applying a patient extrication device.

A. attempt to open the front door closest to the patient using the door handle.

When advised of the potential for violence en route to the​ scene, the paramedic​ should: A. await law enforcement before approaching the area. B. refuse the trip. C. remain in the ambulance until law enforcement arrives. D. notify the ED.

A. await law enforcement before approaching the area.

You are performing triage at an MCI. A victim who is breathing but lacks a palpable pulse​ should: A. be categorized red. B. be reevaluated. C. be categorized gray. D. have his or her blood pressure checked.

A. be categorized red.

​Violence: A. can occur anywhere. B. is primarily confined to suburbs and rural areas. C. does not happen in wealthy areas. D. is mainly an inner city problem.

A. can occur anywhere.

A worker who has entered a grain elevator and then has fallen into the grain and is completely buried has become a victim​ of: A. engulfment. B. toxic conditions. C. machinery entrapment. D. structural instability.

A. engulfment.

One of the considerations in using an air ambulance that could be burdensome to the family is​ the: A. high cost of the transport. B. distance the family will have to travel to the hospital. C. type of aircraft used and how many family members can ride along. D. length of transport time.

A. high cost of the transport.

You and your partner are transporting an apneic patient from the scene of an exposure to chlorine gas. Decontamination was performed before you received the patient from the fire department. The most appropriate treatment for this patient​ involves: A. immediate intubation and ventilatory support. B. administering 0.5 mg of albuterol by nebulized inhalation. C. initiating an IV and administering fluids. D. administering​ high-flow O2 by nonrebreather mask.

A. immediate intubation and ventilatory support.

You and your partner have been dispatched by law enforcement to a report of several residents who have been exposed to the hazardous substances inside a confirmed meth lab. You​ should: A. immediately don protective equipment before making patient contact. B. transport contaminated patients to the nearest emergency department. C. begin immediate triage and treatment of affected victims. D. work with the fire department to set up a gross decontamination station.

A. immediately don protective equipment before making patient contact.

While engaging in a rescue​ operation, you observe a potentially hazardous situation developing that could affect the safety of the rescuers. It is most appropriate​ to: A. immediately notify the assigned safety officer of your concern. B. attempt to accomplish the mission quickly before the safety issue gets worse. C. abandon your assignment and attempt to correct the unsafe situation. D. stop the operation immediately and call all rescuers to staging until the safety issue has been corrected.

A. immediately notify the assigned safety officer of your concern.

While engaging in a rescue​ operation, you observe a potentially hazardous situation developing that could affect the safety of the rescuers. It is most appropriate​ to: A. immediately notify the assigned safety officer of your concern. B. stop the operation immediately and call all rescuers to staging until the safety issue has been corrected. C. abandon your assignment and attempt to correct the unsafe situation. D. attempt to accomplish the mission quickly before the safety issue gets worse.

A. immediately notify the assigned safety officer of your concern.

You arrive on scene of a traffic accident in which a passenger car has struck and severed a utility pole. There are lines down on the ground but not actually touching the vehicle. You​ should: A. isolate and stay away from the vehicle and wait for the utility department to declare that the electrical hazard is mitigated. B. throw ropes over and under the downed lines to pull them away from the vehicle. C. request that the victim get out of the vehicle and step cautiously over the downed wires. D. step over the electrical lines and gain access to the victim.

A. isolate and stay away from the vehicle and wait for the utility department to declare that the electrical hazard is mitigated.

Following a nuclear​ explosion, a patient presents with​ nausea, fatigue, and malaise. You​ should: A. keep the patient warm and hydrated. B. keep the patient cool and give her something to eat. C. induce vomiting. D. withhold all care because the​ patient's radiation exposure is terminal.

A. keep the patient warm and hydrated.

A CBRNE team has just decontaminated a patient who is complaining of​ dyspnea, coughing, and wheezing in all lung fields and has large painful blisters on his arms and upper chest. You suspect that the patient has been exposed​ to: A. lewisite. B. an organophosphate. C. chlorine. D. sarin.

A. lewisite.

Evacuation​ and/or relocation of uninjured victims of a disaster should be conducted with the primary goal​ of: A. maintaining social groupings. B. retaining individuals who may be beneficial to the emergency response. C. maintaining proximity to the disaster site. D. transportation to medical centers for evaluation.

A. maintaining social groupings.

The transport functional group of the EMS branch in an IMS is responsible​ for: A. medical communications. B. staging. C. medical equipment. D. delayed treatment.

A. medical communications.

Because of the cost of air medical​ transport, it is incumbent on providers to ensure that air medical transport is​ used: A. only for patients who stand to benefit from such care. B. only for patients with an ability to pay for their care. C. only when the distance to the receiving facility exceeds 100 miles. D. almost never except in the most extreme circumstances.

A. only for patients who stand to benefit from such care.

After patient​ disentanglement, you​ must: A. package the patient. B. transport the patient. C. gain access to the patient. D. identify and control potential hazards.

A. package the patient.

As a paramedic functioning on the scene of a hazardous materials incident at a fixed​ facility, you may be asked​ to: A. perform​ pre-entry and​ post-entry physical exams of the hazmat entry team. B. assist the entry team in identifying the product. C. research the properties of the hazardous substances. D. conducting decontamination on the entry team personnel coming out of the hot zone.

A. perform​ pre-entry and​ post-entry physical exams of the hazmat entry team.

Before approaching a vehicle during a roadside​ emergency, you​ should: A. plan your escape route. B. approach from the​ driver's side. C. make radio contact with law enforcement. D. have had verbal contact with the driver.

A. plan your escape route.

You and your partner have arrived on scene where a male victim has fallen over a steep bluff. The patient is lying on a narrow shelf approximately 50 feet below you and appears to be unresponsive. Bystanders have gathered what appears to be​ old, well-used utility rope and are offering to lower you down to assess the patient. You​ should: A. politely decline the offer and wait for the vertical rescue team to arrive with their specialized equipment. B. offer to allow one of the bystanders to tie the rope into a makeshift harness and assist in lowering the bystander down to assess the patient for you. C. use the rope if your visual assessment is that the​ patient's condition is critical. D. create a seat harness and allow yourself to be lowered down to the patient.

A. politely decline the offer and wait for the vertical rescue team to arrive with their specialized equipment.

Awareness training imparts enough knowledge about rescue operations to EMS personnel that they​ can: A. recognize hazards and realize the need for additional expertise at the scene. B. perform any rescue operation necessary to disentangle and extricate patients. C. avoid responding to emergencies that will involve rescues. D. always be the first to respond to any rescue emergency.

A. recognize hazards and realize the need for additional expertise at the scene.

As you are performing a​ pre-entry physical on the assigned entry​ team, you assess a team member who is exhibiting abnormal vital signs that are outside of the allowable parameters of the​ department's SOPs. You should​ immediately: A. report your findings to either the safety officer or the incident commander. B. reassess the vital signs 5 minutes later. C. allow for the entrant to don PPE and enter into the hot zone. D. overlook the findings.

A. report your findings to either the safety officer or the incident commander.

The ability to muster additional crews when all ambulances are on call or when a​ system's resources are taxed by a​ multiple-casualty incident is​ called: A. reserve capacity. B. system status management. C. due regard. D. standard operating procedure.

A. reserve capacity.

In some​ situations, a pediatric flight crew will have as part of their configuration​ a(n): A. respiratory therapist. B. intensivist. C. general nurse practitioner. D. attending physician assistant.

A. respiratory therapist.

If you are called to a scene of a domestic altercation and the scene becomes​ threatening: A. retreat to a place of safety. B. provide care if you see patients in need of treatment. C. ask that anyone uninjured stand against the wall until law enforcement arrives. D. explain that you are a paramedic and just there to provide assistance.

A. retreat to a place of safety.

While you are responding to a motor vehicle accident involving a tanker​ truck, the dispatcher notifies you that passing motorists are reporting that there are numerous bystanders experiencing acute respiratory distress. With this​ information, you​ should: A. stage at a safe distance off​ site, uphill and upwind of the​ incident, and attempt to view the incident scene using binoculars. B. activate the local MCI protocol. C. attempt to establish how many victims are affected and request additional resources. D. attempt to rescue the patients who are salvageable.

A. stage at a safe distance off​ site, uphill and upwind of the​ incident, and attempt to view the incident scene using binoculars.

While you are responding to a motor vehicle accident involving a tanker​ truck, the dispatcher notifies you that passing motorists are reporting that there are numerous bystanders experiencing acute respiratory distress. With this​ information, you​ should: A. stage at a safe distance off​ site, uphill and upwind of the​ incident, and attempt to view the incident scene using binoculars. B. attempt to establish how many victims are affected and request additional resources. C. attempt to rescue the patients who are salvageable. D. activate the local MCI protocol.

A. stage at a safe distance off​ site, uphill and upwind of the​ incident, and attempt to view the incident scene using binoculars.

You are approaching the scene of a​ night-time incident involving the release of an unknown chemical from a train tank car. Several people were exposed who are complaining of burning to the​ eyes, respiratory​ tract, and skin. You​ should: A. stage initially at least​ 2,000 feet​ away, uphill and​ upwind, until the product can be identified. B. begin to triage potentially critical patients. C. support​ airway, breathing, and circulation. D. prepare to set up a decontamination corridor.

A. stage initially at least​ 2,000 feet​ away, uphill and​ upwind, until the product can be identified.

You and your partner have been dispatched to a building that has exploded. You​ should: A. suspect that it is a potential terrorist event and use caution when approaching in case there are secondary devices. B. suspect that a dirty bomb has been used. C. arrive and report to the assigned staging area. D. arrive on scene and perform a walk around the perimeter.

A. suspect that it is a potential terrorist event and use caution when approaching in case there are secondary devices.

You have gained access to the patient and are preparing to initiate care with the goal of providing psychological support to the patient throughout the operation. As you establish rapport with the​ patient, you should consider all of the following tips​ except: A. telling the patient that rescue is doubtful. B. staying calm and maintaining a professional demeanor. C. attempting to connect with the patient by learning the​ patient's name and using it during the operation. D. when​ necessary, explaining the technical aspects of the operation that could frighten the patient.

A. telling the patient that rescue is doubtful.

As you arrive on scene of a motor vehicle incident involving a package delivery​ truck, you observe liquids dripping from the rear of the truck and forming a visible vapor as they hit the ground. With this​ information, you would​ suspect: A. that this could involve hazardous materials because not all delivery trucks are required to display placards. B. if you work​ quickly, you and your partner can perform a rescue of the driver before you are affected by any potential harmful vapors. C. that it is highly unlikely that any hazardous materials are being carried in the truck. D. that there may be shipping papers that you could access in the cab that list the contents of the truck.

A. that this could involve hazardous materials because not all delivery trucks are required to display placards.

Standards for the NIMS are assigned​ by: A. the Department of Homeland Security. B. the International Association of Firefighters. C. the NTSB. D. FEMA.

A. the Department of Homeland Security.

In considering which type of personal protective equipment to use at a hazmat​ incident, you should base your decision​ on: A. the chemical or substance involved. B. the ease of donning and doffing the equipment. C. the outside environmental conditions. D. the cost of the ensemble.

A. the chemical or substance involved.

The greatest danger from radioactive contamination is​ that: A. the nature of the risk may not be recognized until well after the incident. B. burns will incapacitate rescue workers as well as patients. C. nausea and vomiting will interfere with rescue efforts. D. choking and coughing will make provision of patient care impossible.

A. the nature of the risk may not be recognized until well after the incident.

Extrication is best defined​ as: A. the process of physically removing a patient from an entrapment. B. a technique of lifting a heavy load from on top of a victim. C. the process of removing dirt or soil from a trench. D. the process of​ cutting, manipulating, or removing debris or components that prevent a victim from being removed.

A. the process of physically removing a patient from an entrapment.

On arrival at the scene of a biological​ scene, your first priority​ is: A. the safety of you and your partner. B. the safety of affected patients. C. public relations. D. the safety of bystanders.

A. the safety of you and your partner.

One of the concepts introduced by Dr. R. Adams Cowley that helped to drive modern trauma care in the United States​ was: A. the​ "Golden Hour." B. the Cardiac Arrest Survival Network. C. the​ "Platinum Ten​ Rule." D. the creation of​ pediatric-specific facilities.

A. the​ "Golden Hour."

An EMS agency has an ALS system that responds when requested to assist on ALS calls. The paramedic unit arrives within 8 minutes of the call and assists the first responders. This type of system is called​ a: A. tiered response system. B. backup agreement. C. mutual aid agreement. D. priority response system.

A. tiered response system.

One of the most rapidly expanding areas of air medical transport​ is: A. transfer of patients between health care facilities. B. assisting ambulances with scene​ size-up. C. replacing the need for ground transport. D. ​high-altitude rescue efforts.

A. transfer of patients between health care facilities.

You and your partner have arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving a hybrid electric vehicle. The easiest way for you to inactivate the​ high-voltage component is​ to: A. turn the ignition off and remove the keys. B. open the hood and disconnect the​ 12-volt battery. C. gain access to the inside of the​ high-voltage battery and disconnect the main circuit breaker. D. use linesman pliers to cut the main voltage line that travels down the undercarriage of the vehicle.

A. turn the ignition off and remove the keys.

In responding to a reported terror incident involving the release of a biological​ agent, the safest approach to the incident scene is​ from: A. uphill and upwind. B. downhill and downwind. C. uphill and downwind. D. downhill and upwind.

A. uphill and upwind.

Body armor has a higher level of​ performance: A. when it is dry. B. if it is wet. C. after it is broken in. D. when it is new.

A. when it is dry.

If the ambulance or any equipment needs​ repair, it is your responsibility to report the failure​ to: A. your supervisor. B. the emergency department at the first receiving hospital. C. the next shift. D. your shift partner.

A. your supervisor.

Body armor offers little or no protection​ against: A. ​high-velocity bullets. B. revolver rounds. C. semiautomatic pistol rounds. D. shotgun pellets.

A. ​high-velocity bullets.

Before approaching a potentially violent​ scene, you​ should: A. ​stop, listen, and observe for signs of danger. B. have dispatch put the local PD on standby. C. announce your presence loudly. D. send your partner in while you wait outside so that you can call for backup if needed.

A. ​stop, listen, and observe for signs of danger.

As the reimbursement for air medical helicopter transport increased in​ 2010, approximately how many helicopter air ambulance​ (HAA) aircraft were flying in the United​ States? A. 500 B. 900 C. ​2,000 D. 100

B. 900

Which of the following is an example of an incendiary​ agent? A. Plastic explosives B. A Molotov cocktail made with gasoline C. Fertilizer and diesel fuel mixture D. Dynamite

B. A Molotov cocktail made with gasoline

What is​ CONTOMS? A. An elite police unit B. A certification program C. An elite military unit D. An agency regulating TEMS units

B. A certification program

In developing an understanding of​ MCI, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the response phase of a​ disaster? A. A​ well-conceived MCI plan prevents the overwhelming of response resources in a disaster. B. A disaster is an event that overwhelms regional emergency response resources. C. Response resources​ shouldn't be overwhelmed at an MCI if the emergency management plan is activated early. D. A properly trained incident commander can prevent the overwhelming of response resources in a disaster.

B. A disaster is an event that overwhelms regional emergency response resources.

Which of the following crew configurations is generally inadequate except for transporting extremely stable​ patients? A. A​ pilot, a​ paramedic, and a nurse B. A pilot and a paramedic C. Two​ pilots, a​ paramedic, and a nurse D. A​ pilot, a​ nurse, and a physician

B. A pilot and a paramedic

What should you do if you are administering care to a patient who is not prepared for transport and the scene becomes​ dangerous? A. Protect the patient B. Abandon the patient C. Package and remove the patient as soon as you can D. Call law enforcement

B. Abandon the patient

You are on your local 911​ ambulance, and you are called to the local emergency department to transport a patient to a cardiac center that is two hours away by ground. The ED doctor tells you that the patient is actively infarcting and needs catheterization. What other recommendation could you make to the ED staff for this​ patient? A. Contact a mobile intensive care unit to complete the transfer. B. Activate an HAA agency to complete the transfer. C. Advise the ED doctor that it is unsafe for the patient to move while actively​ infarcting, as the transport will create more stress for the patient. D. Advise the ED doctor that an additional crew member will be needed to accompany the patient.

B. Activate an HAA agency to complete the transfer.

What is a local effect of a chemical​ agent? A. An effect that cannot be evaluated by standard criteria B. An effect involving the area around the immediate site of exposure C. An effect involving multiple body systems D. An effect occurring throughout the body

B. An effect involving the area around the immediate site of exposure

In preplanning for disaster​ response, what should the initial activity​ include? A. Inventory of all available resources B. Assessment of potential hazards C. Evaluation of local field resources D. Training of response personnel

B. Assessment of potential hazards

You are responding to a scene involving an overturned railway​ tanker, and you want to identify the material the tanker was transporting. Which of the following is a disadvantage of relying on shipping papers for information about a hazardous​ material? A. They do not give information about the amount of the substance involved. B. Because they are kept onboard the vehicle​ (ship, train,​ tractor-trailer), they may be inaccessible in the event of a spill. C. They do not carry the UN identification number of the substance. D. They are not required to list the hazard class or division of the material.

B. Because they are kept onboard the vehicle​ (ship, train,​ tractor-trailer), they may be inaccessible in the event of a spill.

What piece of​ equipment, seldom used in EMS a few years​ ago, are more and more EMS agencies providing for their employees as a measure to prevent​ injuries? A. Vehicle tracking B. Body armor C. Mechanical CPR machines D. Demand valve resuscitators

B. Body armor

What single item is the cornerstone of the Incident Management System and must be established as early as​ possible? A. An appropriate disaster plan B. Communications C. Adequate resources D. Training

B. Communications

Which of the following is an initial injury pattern due to an explosive​ agent? A. Penetrating injuries causing blood loss B. Compression and decompression injuries as it passes through the hollow organs of the body C. ​Coup-contrecoup injuries to the brain D. Crush injuries to the torso and extremities

B. Compression and decompression injuries as it passes through the hollow organs of the body

Gangs with a history of arrest may make every effort to prevent you from transporting one of their members to a hospital or any other place beyond the reach of the gang. How should you​ respond? A. Attempt to gently reason with them B. Do not force the issue C. Offer to let a member accompany you D. Radio for law enforcement

B. Do not force the issue

Which of the following statements regarding documentation of evidence is​ incorrect? A. Follow local policies regarding confidentiality surrounding any criminal case. B. Document your judgment as to who may have committed a crime. C. Describe the shape and anatomic location of any puncture or cut. D. Use quotation marks to indicate any remarks made by the patient.

B. Document your judgment as to who may have committed a crime.

Which person supervises all operations involved with patient care and​ transfer? A. Liaison officer B. EMS branch director C. Information officer D. Safety officer

B. EMS branch director

Which of the following is not a common way in which rural EMS systems attempt to increase their recruitment of EMS​ providers? A. Incorporating Internet education when classroom courses are not available B. Each agency keeping its resources only for its own needs C. Implementing a​ "ride-along" program for interested individuals D. Designing flexible training sessions to work around​ providers' other obligations

B. Each agency keeping its resources only for its own needs

What is the role of the paramedic responding to an act of terrorism after insuring his and the​ patient's safety? A. Provide emergency care B. Ensure patient decontamination C. Transportation of patients to local emergency departments D. Preserve the crime scene

B. Ensure patient decontamination

You have arrived on scene of an accident involving a​ hospital-owned vehicle carrying radioisotopes in which the driver is injured. With the sources still in the vehicle and secured in a small undamaged lead​ container, what type of radiation would you​ suspect? A. Alpha radiation B. Gamma radiation C. Neutron radiation D. Beta radiation

B. Gamma radiation

You are summoned to an old stone quarry that flooded years ago and was abandoned. Although it posted no​ trespassing, teenagers often go there to jump off the cliffs into the water. Your patient is a​ 16-year-old male who has sustained a spinal cord injury while engaged in this activity. Although the quarry is remote and there is a suitable landing zone​ nearby, why would you not call a helicopter for this​ patient? A. The injury is to the​ spine, not to the brain. B. Helicopter transport would need to cover a long distance. C. The patient is not in cardiac arrest. D. You do not suspect decompression syndrome.

B. Helicopter transport would need to cover a long distance.

Which of the following would not be considered part of managing an active biological WMD​ incident? A. Initiating the incident command system B. Identifying those responsible for the incident C. Managing the available resources in view of the type and severity of injuries and the number of patients D. Establishing sectors for​ extrication, decontamination,​ triage, treatment, and transportation of patients

B. Identifying those responsible for the incident

What does a system status management system do to help an EMS​ agency? A. It helps to track CME hours that the employees have earned. B. It acts as a personnel management and ambulance deployment system. C. It monitors the EMS​ agency's vehicle fleet and schedules maintenance. D. It ensures that all providers are current in their training requirements.

B. It acts as a personnel management and ambulance deployment system.

What is the primary reason you can still be seriously injured or killed when wearing body​ armor? A. You may not be able to flee. B. It​ doesn't cover your entire body. C. Cavitation injuries can be serious. D. An ice pick can penetrate it.

B. It​ doesn't cover your entire body.

What level of hazardous materials personal protective equipment provides chemically resistant splash​ protection, but not full​ encapsulation, and includes​ SCBA? A. Level C B. Level B C. Level D D. Level A

B. Level B

What is required by a TEMS unit in order for it to begin​ operations? A. Volunteers to operate in the unit B. Local protocols and standing orders C. Sniper training D. Live fire training

B. Local protocols and standing orders

Which of the following conditions is contributing to the increase in ambulance collisions over the last​ decade? A. Drivers are tired of yielding for emergency vehicles. B. Modern automobiles are more sealed and​ soundproof, which makes it more difficult for drivers to hear the approaching ambulance. C. EMS drivers are less educated about driving than were drivers in previous years. D. There are too many emergency vehicles on the roadway.

B. Modern automobiles are more sealed and​ soundproof, which makes it more difficult for drivers to hear the approaching ambulance.

In assessing a​ patient, you begin to recall the components of the mnemonic​ SLUDGE, which is used to assist with remembering the signs and symptoms for which type of chemical​ agents? A. Vesicants or blistering agents B. Nerve agents C. Pulmonary agents D. Biotoxins

B. Nerve agents

In which type of accident can you immediately rule out a suspicion of the presence of hazardous​ materials? A. Accidents involving​ tractor-trailers B. No transportation accident C. Accidents involving​ alternative-fuel vehicles D. Accidents involving pest control vehicles

B. No transportation accident

What role does psychological debriefing or diffusing provide within the scope of an​ MCI? A. Providing psychological first aid B. None C. Triaging of victims D. Monitoring the mental condition of rescuers

B. None

Which of the following statements regarding recirculating currents is​ true? A. Recirculating currents result from water flowing around and under large obstructions. B. On first​ appearance, recirculating currents can look quite tame. C. Once caught in recirculating​ currents, most people can easily escape. D. Rescue from recirculating current is dangerous except for specially trained rescuers.

B. On first​ appearance, recirculating currents can look quite tame.

What is the critical responsibility of the logistics section of​ NIMS? A. Accounting and administration B. Operating the medical supply unit C. Tactical objectives D. Command

B. Operating the medical supply unit

What disease may have a mortality rate of 100​ percent? A. Cholera B. Pneumonic plague C. Tularemia D. Anthrax

B. Pneumonic plague

What is the main purpose of the tail rotor on a​ rotor-wing aircraft? A. Prevent autorotation. B. Prevent the fuselage from rotating opposite the direction of the main rotor. C. Stabilize the boom. D. Permit acrobatic moves.

B. Prevent the fuselage from rotating opposite the direction of the main rotor.

You are requesting air medical transport at the scene of a collision involving two vehicles. You have several injured patients. What launch information should you be prepared to​ provide? A. ​Patient's name B. Requesting agency identity C. The address of the requesting agency D. Number of EMS personnel on the scene

B. Requesting agency identity

As you approach the driver of a vehicle involved in an​ MVC, you notice that he is being belligerent with the passenger and sounds intoxicated. As you get​ closer, the driver turns his attention to you in the same​ fashion, making you concerned for your safety. What should you​ do? A. Threaten to leave if the driver​ doesn't calm down. B. Retreat to the ambulance until law enforcement​ arrives, and be prepared to leave. C. Act nonthreatening and try to calm the driver. D. Shout the driver down.

B. Retreat to the ambulance until law enforcement​ arrives, and be prepared to leave.

You have not worked for a couple of months at the EMS station to which you are assigned. What is the most important thing you should do at the beginning of your​ shift? A. Review the map book with other members of your shift to try to learn all the streets in that district. B. Review the location of equipment to familiarize yourself with the ambulance. C. Review the station protocols to ensure that you know where everything is located in the station. D. Call a shift meeting with the other members at that station to go over the expectations for the shift.

B. Review the location of equipment to familiarize yourself with the ambulance.

During a wilderness rescue​ situation, what type of technique will a helicopter rescue agency use instead of more dangerous​ rappel-based rescue​ methods? A. Long hauls B. Short hauls C. Sling loading D. Ground extractions

B. Short hauls

Which of the following pieces of equipment would most likely cause an amputation due to a shearing​ mechanism? A. Tractor PTO shaft B. Sickle bar mower C. Tractor rollover D. Fall into an abandoned well

B. Sickle bar mower

Which of the following concepts would not typically be associated with an incident requiring the full resources of the NIMS​ system? A. Situational awareness B. Singular command C. An open incident D. Unified command

B. Singular command

You are a paramedic in a rural farming community. One particular​ afternoon, you are summoned to a farm for a worker who is pinned under a piece of heavy machinery he was working on. The local sheriff meets you near the location to guide you in and tells you to​ hurry, as the patient is reportedly unresponsive. What should you consider first when making patient​ contact? A. Possible internal injuries the patient may have B. Sizing up the scene to look for potential dangers C. Onset of compartment syndrome D. Putting the local HAA program on standby

B. Sizing up the scene to look for potential dangers

To which type of training would a paramedic least likely be exposed before becoming part of a TEMS​ unit? A. Clan labs B. Sniper C. Pyrotechnics D. Helicopter operations

B. Sniper

Where did​ large-scale emergency organization first take​ place? A. Within FEMA B. Southern California C. Northern Washington State D. At the NTSB

B. Southern California

An ambulance that is classified as a Type III would have this type of chassis. A. ​Medium-duty rescue B. Specialty van C. Standard van D. Conventional truck cab

B. Specialty van

You are dispatched to stand by at a demonstration that has turned violent. What steps can you take to protect​ yourself? A. Carry a Taser. B. Stage at a location away from the crowd until summoned. C. Show support for the crowd. D. Use your lights and siren.

B. Stage at a location away from the crowd until summoned.

If you spot danger at any time during your approach to a​ scene, what should you immediately​ do? A. Leave the scene in the ambulance B. Stop and reevaluate the situation C. Continue in a confident manner D. Identify yourself loudly

B. Stop and reevaluate the situation

How can you anticipate and address problems in your regional disaster​ plan? A. Compare it to other plans. B. Test your preplan. C. Retain a professional IMS planner. D. Learn from critiques of your previous responses.

B. Test your preplan.

Which of the following statements is true about the typical budget for EMS services in rural areas of the United​ States? A. The budget has no effect on the EMS system as a​ whole, as all paramedics must be adequately equipped. B. The budget is typically too low. C. The budget typically exceeds the EMS resource needs. D. The budget is mandated by each state government and must be sufficient.

B. The budget is typically too low.

Which of the following statements best describes due​ regard? A. The driver cannot be held criminally responsible. B. The exemption from certain laws is not an exemption from safety standards. C. The employer is​ liable, but the individual employee is not. D. Public employees are protected by governmental immunity.

B. The exemption from certain laws is not an exemption from safety standards.

You and your partner receive notification from dispatch that a biological agent may have been released in your area and to have a high index of suspicion for contamination if patients exhibit certain symptoms. Which statement is NOT a difficulty in identification of a biologic​ release? A. Signs and symptoms of the disease occur at the end of the incubation​ period, often days or weeks after the initial contact. B. The existence of a biological attack is recognized when numerous patients report to the emergency department or medical clinic with similar signs and symptoms. C. Signs and symptoms of biological agents are typically similar to those of influenza or many other common and general illnesses. D. Biological agents do not release a noticeable cloud of gas or a noticeable odor.

B. The existence of a biological attack is recognized when numerous patients report to the emergency department or medical clinic with similar signs and symptoms.

In the process of attempting to rescue a fellow worker from a chemical​ tank, additional workers were exposed to the same product through contact with the original worker. For gross decontamination of these​ workers, what is the first​ step? A. Rescuers drop equipment in a​ tool-drop area and remove outer gloves. B. The patients remove all clothing and​ jewelry, including shoes and socks. C. Rescuers enter the decon area and mechanically remove contaminants from the patients. D. Rescuers wash and rinse the patients with soap and water.

B. The patients remove all clothing and​ jewelry, including shoes and socks.

What does disaster mitigation refer​ to? A. The return of your community to normal as soon as possible. B. The prevention or limiting of disasters C. Setting up an IMS plan for your community D. The return of your department to normal as soon as possible.

B. The prevention or limiting of disasters

You notice an NFPA 704 placard that has a 4 in the red area. How should you interpret that​ information? A. The substance has a low flammability risk. B. The substance poses an extreme flammability hazard. C. The substance poses an extreme health risk. D. The substance is highly reactive to water.

B. The substance poses an extreme flammability hazard.

Which statement regarding incident impact is most​ accurate? A. A hurricane is typically considered to be a​ high-impact incident. B. The techniques and tools used to respond to a​ multiple-patient MVC can also be used to manage a more extensive MCI. C. All motor vehicle accidents are​ low-impact incidents. D. The typical​ low-impact incident involves a single patient.

B. The techniques and tools used to respond to a​ multiple-patient MVC can also be used to manage a more extensive MCI.

Who is responsible for arranging movement of patients from treatment areas at the scene of an MCI to area​ hospitals? A. ​On-scene physicians B. The transportation unit supervisor C. The treatment unit supervisor D. The staging officer

B. The transportation unit supervisor

What is the goal of performing EMS at a crime​ scene? A. To conserve the crime scene with a minimal impact on patient care B. To provide​ high-quality patient care while preserving evidence C. To perform patient care with disregard for the following investigation D. To assist in evidence gathering

B. To provide​ high-quality patient care while preserving evidence

You and your partner respond to a garage behind a home in a rural section of town. When you enter the​ building, it becomes immediately apparent that you have entered a methamphetamine lab. What should you​ do? A. Await law enforcement. B. Vacate the building. C. Notify dispatch using your portable radio. D. Initiate​ treatment, keeping your scene time minimal.

B. Vacate the building.

What is the universal decon​ method? A. Isopropyl alcohol B. Water C. Dry brush D. Vegetable oil

B. Water

A helicopter is departing the emergency scene with your trauma patient inside. You are the LZ officer. At what point may you break contact with the​ helicopter? A. When you can no longer see it B. When it is completely clear of the area C. When you can no longer hear it D. When the crew give you the okay

B. When it is completely clear of the area

What type of additional training should be provided to a rural paramedic who works near the borders of a large mountainous state​ park? A. Fire suppression B. Wilderness rescue C. Trench rescue D. Water rescue

B. Wilderness rescue

What is the type of mechanism of injury that may occur if a hand gets entangled within a tractor​ PTO? A. Pinch point B. Wrap point C. Crush point D. Shear point

B. Wrap point

You respond to a patient in hypovolemic shock from significant blood loss from a traumatic injury involving a piece of agricultural equipment. The patient is compensating for the time​ being, but you suspect may become decompensated at any moment. You are in a remote rural area more than an hour away from any medical​ facility, and two hours away from a trauma center. Which of the following should you​ expect? A. Definitive care will occur at a rural ED. B. You will provide definitive care for this patient. C. Definitive care will occur at a trauma center. D. Definitive care will occur at a prompt care facility.

B. You will provide definitive care for this patient.

The inadvertent mixing of blood samples at a crime scene will result​ in: A. questionable blood typing. B. a useless sample. C. the DNA return on the sample being accurate only for the largest volume of blood in the mixed sample. D. a sample that will require purification before testing.

B. a useless sample.

As you conduct a​ low-angle evacuation of a patient using a Stokes​ basket, you​ should: A. use only two people at a time to move the​ litter, as this reduces the profile of the​ litter, making it much safer to navigate. B. after applying a harness and leg stirrups to the​ patient, secure the patient to the litter to prevent movement. C. remove any long spine board before transport for patient comfort. D. move the patient in a​ feet-elevated position over any rough terrain.

B. after applying a harness and leg stirrups to the​ patient, secure the patient to the litter to prevent movement.

The respirator designed for use in conjunction with Level C protective equipment that can be utilized during transport of patients with the potential of secondary contamination​ is: A. a​ self-contained breathing apparatus​ (SCBA). B. an​ air-purifying respirator​ (APR). C. a​ supplied-air breathing apparatus​ (SABA). D. an​ N-90 filter mask.

B. an​ air-purifying respirator​ (APR).

You have fallen into the water that has a swift current. As you are rapidly floating downriver and being carried toward what appears to be a fallen tree that is partially​ submerged, you​ should: A. attempt to swim under the tree trunk. B. attempt to swim over the tree trunk. C. swim sideways and attempt to avoid the obstacle. D. put your feet down in an effort to stop yourself.

B. attempt to swim over the tree trunk.

In decontaminating a​ patient, the​ water's ability to dissolve the chemical best​ defines: A. the specific gravity of a chemical substance. B. a​ chemical's water solubility. C. the reduction level of a compound. D. the vapor pressure of a chemical.

B. a​ chemical's water solubility.

The most common crew configuration for a helicopter EMS agency in the United States​ is: A. two​ pilots, two​ nurses, and a respiratory therapist. B. a​ pilot, a​ nurse, and a paramedic. C. a​ pilot, a​ paramedic, and a physician. D. two pilots and two nurses.

B. a​ pilot, a​ nurse, and a paramedic.

When approaching a vehicle crash involving a single driver with the ambulance in gang territory at​ night, you can help protect yourself​ by: A. judging the reaction of the crowd as you approach. B. bypassing the location and waiting for law enforcement. C. stopping and treating the patient. D. placing the patient on a cot and returning to the ambulance.

B. bypassing the location and waiting for law enforcement.

Nuclear​ radiation: A. can be felt. B. cannot be detected by the senses. C. can be seen. D. can be tasted.

B. cannot be detected by the senses.

You have arrived on the scene of a trench​ cave-in where two injured but conscious workers are partially trapped at the bottom of a​ 10-foot trench. You​ should: A. crawl toward the lip of the trench to assess the condition of the trapped workers while being careful not to cause an additional​ cave-in. B. control as many hazards as possible that are within your training. C. approach the narrow end of the trench and throw a rescue line to the workers so that they can attempt to extricate themselves from the trench. D. crawl down to the trapped workers to begin patient care.

B. control as many hazards as possible that are within your training.

In decontaminating a patient who has been exposed to a liquid​ chemical, application of large quantities of water best​ describes: A. isolation. B. dilution. C. neutralization. D. absorption.

B. dilution.

You are a paramedic working on an ambulance who has just arrived first on the scene of a person who has fallen off a boat dock into the lake. As the patient is attempting to stay afloat just a few feet from the edge of the​ dock, you should​ initially: A. jump into the water and swim to where the patient is located. B. grab a long pole or oar if available and attempt to get the patient to grab hold of it. C. find a rope that can be tossed to the patient. D. locate a small rowboat and go out to the patient.

B. grab a long pole or oar if available and attempt to get the patient to grab hold of it.

As the hazmat entry team completes the decontamination​ process, they doff their personal protective equipment and move to the cold zone for you to conduct their​ post-entry evaluation. Because the hazmat incident is occurring in​ July, your greatest concern for the entry team members​ is: A. abnormal heart rate. B. heat stress. C. nausea and vomiting. D. respiratory distress.

B. heat stress.

You are acting as transportation supervisor at a MCI. One of your first actions should be​ to: A. contact local hospitals to determine available resources. B. implement a​ patient-tracking system. C. establish a staging area for vehicles. D. contact bus companies for transportation of the uninjured.

B. implement a​ patient-tracking system.

If your ambulance is the first emergency vehicle on the​ scene, make sure you​ park: A. 50 feet past the wreckage. B. in front of the wreckage. C. opposite the wreckage. D. 100 feet past the wreckage.

B. in front of the wreckage.

The DOT KKK 1822F specs standardize the way ambulances look and​ also: A. specify the traffic regulations for ambulance drivers. B. influence safety standards. C. indicate the guidelines for ambulance purchase decisions. D. dictate the standards for medical equipment.

B. influence safety standards.

According to statistics gathered by the state of New​ York, the most dangerous places for emergency​ vehicles, with regard to risk of​ collision, are: A. ​two-lane rural highways. B. intersections. C. city streets. D. interstate highways.

B. intersections.

Fasciculations are a symptom of nerve agent exposure best described​ as: A. muscle degradation. B. involuntary muscle contractions. C. complete paralysis. D. altered mental status.

B. involuntary muscle contractions.

At the point of primary​ contamination, the​ contamination: A. has traveled beyond the hot zone. B. is limited. C. is in the cold zone. D. has spread to others.

B. is limited.

The single most important step for a paramedic to remember when functioning at any hazardous materials scene is​ to: A. identify the hazardous substance. B. maintain a safe distance uphill and upwind of the scene until safe. C. function in the warm zone. D. remove critical victims from the hot zone.

B. maintain a safe distance uphill and upwind of the scene until safe.

You and your partner encounter several patients with​ fever, chills,​ cough, malaise, and vomiting. You suspect Venezuelan equine encephalitis is the​ cause, possibly from a biological attack. To treat these​ patients, you: A. administer epinephrine. B. maintain body​ temperature, administer​ oxygen, and provide hydration. C. intubate and provide ventilator assistance. D. administer a Mark I kit.

B. maintain body​ temperature, administer​ oxygen, and provide hydration.

Recent research has shown that improved outcomes are​ associated: A. with response times of 4 to 8 minutes. B. only with response times of less than 4 minutes. C. only with response times of less than 8 minutes. D. with response times of less than an hour.

B. only with response times of less than 4 minutes.

A plan​ should: A. not involve more than local incidents. B. outline the SOPs and protocols for potential incidents. C. anticipate and address every possible scenario. D. account for all but the​ worst-case scenarios.

B. outline the SOPs and protocols for potential incidents.

The HAA crew configuration of a​ pilot, a​ nurse, and a physician is found more​ often: A. in private HAA programs. B. outside of the United States. C. at rural hospitals. D. at​ university-based programs.

B. outside of the United States.

One important factor in considering ambulance staffing requirements is​ the: A. number of schools in the district. B. peak load each day. C. amount of cars registered in the district. D. number of elderly people who live in the district.

B. peak load each day.

The highest volume of calls is​ the: A. call volume maximum. B. peak load. C. call volume average. D. frequent flier days.

B. peak load.

A chemical that remains a liquid is poses a contact or absorption threat and is said to​ be: A. transient. B. persistent. C. malleable. D. volatile.

B. persistent.

A tactic used by terrorists to disrupt emergency service operations at the scene of an initial terrorist event​ is: A. disruption of communications. B. positioning a secondary explosive device for rescue workers. C. disseminating a chemical WMD. D. creating response delays for emergency vehicles.

B. positioning a secondary explosive device for rescue workers.

In the decontamination​ process, once the rescuers have dropped their equipment in a​ tool-drop area and removed their outer​ gloves, they can​ then: A. remove and isolate their SCBAs. B. proceed to the gross decontamination phase that is carried out by decon personnel. C. doff all personal protective clothing and proceed to the cold zone. D. prepare to assist the decon personnel with washing any contaminated victims.

B. proceed to the gross decontamination phase that is carried out by decon personnel.

A patient has been exposed to some sort of pulmonary agent and is​ coughing, wheezing, and exhibiting inflammation and pulmonary edema. After ensuring your safety and donning necessary​ PPE, you first need to​ : A. get the patient to rest. B. remove the patient from the environment. C. administer​ high-concentration oxygen. D. expose the patient to fresh air.

B. remove the patient from the environment.

If you become aware of your own exposure to a biological​ agent, you​ should: A. retreat to an isolated location and assess vital signs. B. report the exposure to the proper health resource. C. keep working at the scene. D. ask your partner to assess your vital signs.

B. report the exposure to the proper health resource.

As an awareness level responder to hazardous materials​ incidents, you respond to an incident involving the release of a corrosive substance from a derailed train tanker car. Your first priority should​ be: A. identification of the product while using binoculars from a safe distance. B. rescuer safety. C. establishing incident command. D. the care of victims exposed to the hazardous substances.

B. rescuer safety.

During the​ post-entry physical, you discover that an entry team member has an altered level of​ consciousness, hypotension, and tachycardia. You​ should: A. immediately assist the team member with drinking water or an energy drink. B. restrict the team member from being allowed to reenter the hot zone. C. reevaluate the team​ member's vital signs in 15 minutes for improvement. D. check the team​ member's body weight before allowing reentry into the hot zone.

B. restrict the team member from being allowed to reenter the hot zone.

The nuts and bolts of effective EMS practice​ are: A. crew assignments. B. standard operating procedures. C. personal protective equipment. D. personal protective equipment.

B. standard operating procedures.

You are responding to a report of numerous people sick with nausea and dyspnea. As you approach the​ facility, you observe the NFPA 704 placard located on the exterior of the building that identifies the blue left segment of the placard with the number 3. You should​ suspect: A. that if the product is​ inhaled, there should not be any significant problems. B. that exposure to a product within the facility may cause serious or permanent injury. C. that there is no hazard beyond normal combustion. D. that any contact with the product within the facility will be lethal.

B. that exposure to a product within the facility may cause serious or permanent injury.

In the​ ICS, the command staff report​ to: A. FEMA. B. the incident commander. C. the section chief. D. the battalion chief.

B. the incident commander.

The greatest concern about biological agents​ is: A. the ability to track the spread of the infected patients. B. their ability to be extremely​ contagious, which gives them the capability of being spread from human to human. C. treatment of infected patients. D. their ease in identification.

B. their ability to be extremely​ contagious, which gives them the capability of being spread from human to human.

In the case of topical​ absorption, a toxic substance has entered the​ body: A. by ingestion. B. through the skin. C. by injection. D. through inhalation.

B. through the skin.

When approaching the scene of a potential hazardous materials incident that has a light whitish haze coming from​ it, you​ should: A. approach the scene and position as close as needed to visually read the placards with the naked eye if binoculars are not available. B. use binoculars to make a visual inspection of the scene from a safe distance. C. approach the scene from a downwind and uphill direction. D. establish a safety zone of initially 50 feet with the ability to increase it as necessary.

B. use binoculars to make a visual inspection of the scene from a safe distance.

To protect against contact with nuclear​ fallout, you​ should: A. be aware of structural collapse. B. watch cloud movement. C. stay downwind. D. wear a HEPA filter mask.

B. watch cloud movement.

During a roadside​ emergency, when approaching the vehicle from the​ rear, you should not move forward of the C post​ until: A. you communicate with the driver. B. you are sure there are no threats in the rear seat. C. the car is stable. D. law enforcement arrives.

B. you are sure there are no threats in the rear seat.

Which of the following is a common associated injury pattern of an explosion due to an explosive​ agent? A. Penetrating injuries causing blood loss B. ​Coup-contrecoup injuries to the brain C. Compression and decompression of the lungs and hollow organs of the body D. Crush injuries to the torso and extremities

B. ​Coup-contrecoup injuries to the brain

​Past, present, and future information about an incident is provided by which functional area of​ NIMS? A. Logistics B. ​Planning/intelligence C. Operations D. ​Finance/administration

B. ​Planning/intelligence

Hazardous terrain that consists of steep slopes that may have rocks or boulders as obstructions is known​ as: A. ​high-angle. B. ​low-angle. C. flat with obstructions. D. mountainous.

B. ​low-angle.

In accordance with the START triage​ system, which of the following victims would be transported from a​ multiple-casualty incident in a delayed​ capacity? A. A​ conscious, well-oriented​ 22-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 36 and a radial pulse of 88 B. An unconscious​ 42-year-old female with no spontaneous respirations after opening her airway C. A conscious and​ well-oriented 30-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 28 and a radial pulse of 100 who cannot walk D. A​ conscious, disoriented​ 54-year-old female with a respiratory rate of 26 and a radial pulse of 96

C. A conscious and​ well-oriented 30-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 28 and a radial pulse of 100 who cannot walk

In accordance with the START triage​ system, which of the following victims would be transported first from a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. An unconscious​ 47-year-old male with no spontaneous respirations after opening her airway B. A conscious​ 44-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 28 and a radial pulse of 97 who is capable of following commands but who cannot walk C. A conscious​ 59-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 37 and a radial pulse of 95 who is capable of following commands D. A conscious and​ well-oriented 32-year-old female with a respiratory rate of 28 and a radial pulse of 100 who can walk

C. A conscious​ 59-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 37 and a radial pulse of 95 who is capable of following commands

What is​ ADAMS? A. An agency that sets flight regulations B. A protocol C. A database D. A pilots organization

C. A database

What is a secondary explosive​ device? A. A backup bomb used if the first device fails to detonate. B. A device that produces burn injuries C. An explosive device designed to target rescuers D. A device with two detonation mechanisms

C. An explosive device designed to target rescuers

When performing JumpSTART​ triage, for a patient who is not breathing and who does not begin to breathe after positioning the​ airway, how is this patient​ classified? A. Delayed B. Deceased C. Apneic D. Immediate

C. Apneic

You have been dispatched to an office complex with a report of multiple victims complaining of similar signs and symptoms of respiratory distress and nausea. What would you do​ first? A. Begin providing treatment for the most critical patients. B. Quickly enter the complex to assist in evacuating occupants to safety outdoors. C. Avoid entering until the scene has been made safe. D. Immediately begin triaging victims who have evacuated the complex.

C. Avoid entering until the scene has been made safe.

An analysis of data collected by New York State over 22 years shows that which of the following weather conditions has the greatest correlation to ambulance​ accidents? A. Snowy conditions B. Thunderstorms C. Clear day D. Ice storms

C. Clear day

In a hazardous materials​ incident, normal patient triage takes place in which​ zone? A. Warm B. Contamination reduction C. Cold D. Exclusionary

C. Cold

Which of the following is not part of providing psychological first aid at an​ MCI? A. Ensuring that basic physical needs are met B. Conveying compassion C. Critical incident stress debriefing D. ​Encouraging, but not​ forcing, social support

C. Critical incident stress debriefing

Ambulance manufacturing and design are standardized by​ the: A. NFPA specs. B. OSHA specs. C. DOT KKK 1822F specs. D. ​DOT/NHTSA specs.

C. DOT KKK 1822F specs.

An analysis of data collected by New York State over 22 years shows that during which hours of the day do ambulance collisions occur most​ frequently? A. Nighttime hours B. Evening hours C. Daylight hours D. Early morning hours

C. Daylight hours

A patient has ingested a​ corrosive, can​ swallow, and is not drooling. How should you treat this​ patient? A. Administer furosemide. B. Induce vomiting. C. Direct the patient to drink water. D. Administer sodium bicarbonate via IV push.

C. Direct the patient to drink water.

You are assigned to assist with a medical helicopter landing at the scene of a​ multiple-vehicle collision. Which of the following actions is​ correct? A. Mark the landing zone with spotlights aimed upward. B. Always approach the aircraft from the tail rotor. C. Do not hold equipment over shoulder height. D. Close and secure the doors when you get the thumbs up from the crew.

C. Do not hold equipment over shoulder height.

Which statement regarding siren use is​ correct? A. Use the siren continuously in heavy traffic. B. Assume that motorists will heed the siren and yield right of way. C. Drivers may panic and behave erratically when they hear the siren. D. Motorists always hear sirens.

C. Drivers may panic and behave erratically when they hear the siren.

On what system is the current ICS​ based? A. NIMS B. START C. FIRE SCOPE D. FEMA

C. FIRE SCOPE

You are being carried downriver by a strong current after accidently falling into the water. Which of the following is the most appropriate technique that should be employed to attempt a​ self-rescue? A. Attempt to steer toward a large object such as a tree or rock. B. Lie on your chest and steer with your legs and arms toward the nearest bank. C. Float on your back with your feet pointed downstream. D. Attempt to stand up as you near a shallow section.

C. Float on your back with your feet pointed downstream.

In an abandoned strip mine in the corner of a state​ park, an ATV enthusiast has sustained a severe head injury from overturning his​ vehicle, and ground transport lacks protocols for rapid sequence intubation. What is the best option for this​ patient? A. Transport to a park ranger station B. ALS intercept C. Helicopter transport D. Immobilize the spine and provide rapid transport.

C. Helicopter transport.

You are transporting a patient with chest pain to a local rural hospital. You have found ST elevation on two​ 12-lead ECGs that you obtained while en route. On arrival at the​ ED, you find out that their only​ 12-lead ECG machine is being repaired. What might you have to do in this​ situation? A. Treat the patient on the basis of the current symptoms only. B. Summon a helicopter air ambulance to bring their monitor to the hospital. C. Keep the patient on your cardiac monitor for the time being. D. Remove the monitor and have the ED staff treat the patient for an MI.

C. Keep the patient on your cardiac monitor for the time being.

Which protective ensemble offers the highest level of respiratory and splash protection against unknown​ substances? A. Level B B. Level D C. Level A D. Level C

C. Level A

You are responding to a home in a​ middle-class neighborhood for an​ "unknown problem." Your initial survey reveals nothing out of the​ ordinary, but a​ middle-aged man, dressed only in​ shorts, is frantically waving you to come inside. You enter the living​ room, where you see two other people sitting in chairs and a woman lying on the couch unconscious. Strewn on the coffee table is various drug​ paraphernalia, and the two people seated in the room are arguing quietly over whose fault​ "it" was. It is obvious to you that the activities in the room were drug related. What should you​ do? A. Remove the patient to your ambulance B. Retreat from the room and radio dispatch to have law enforcement put on standby C. Maintain awareness of activities in the room and treat the patient D. Leave the scene and go back into service

C. Maintain awareness of activities in the room and treat the patient

Which of the following conditions would be your most important consideration when preparing to transport a victim a long distance over wilderness terrain during subfreezing​ weather? A. Pharmacological pain management B. Continual treatment of minor traumatic injuries C. Management of patient hypothermia D. Rotation of the litter crew to prevent exhaustion

C. Management of patient hypothermia

In​ 1970, the U.S. Congress passed the following​ act, which allowed the​ military-proven system of helicopter evacuation to augment the civilian EMS system with helicopter​ evacuation: A. Mobile Army Surgical Hospital B. Military Congressional Partnership for Trauma Care C. Military Assistance to Safety and Traffic D. Homeland Helicopter Services

C. Military Assistance to Safety and Traffic

Which National Fire Protection Association standard deals with the training standards for EMS personnel assigned to hazmat​ incidents? A. NFPA 472 B. NFPA 1561 C. NFPA 473 D. NFPA 1006

C. NFPA 473

To help improve the quality of medical oversight and support that physicians can provide to urban and rural EMS​ systems, what national organization has developed​ physician-level courses specifically designed for​ this? A. National Association of​ EMT's B. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services C. National Association of EMS Physicians D. American College of Emergency Physicians

C. National Association of EMS Physicians

What governing body ensures that ambulances carry items such as disinfecting agents and sharps collections​ containers? A. NHTSA B. DOT C. OSHA D. NFPA

C. OSHA

What is a duty of the cover provider while the contact provider is delivering patient​ care? A. Provides direct patient care B. Assesses the patient C. Observes the scene for danger D. Prepares the unit and the cot

C. Observes the scene for danger

Which of the following statements regarding the cold zone is most​ correct? A. Patient decontamination is conducted in the cold zone. B. Once​ decontaminated, responders should remove their personal protective clothing in the cold zone. C. Only care that is not lifesaving should be performed. D. Lifesaving care should be withheld until the patient reaches the cold zone.

C. Only care that is not lifesaving should be performed.

What key element of NIMS carries out tactical​ objectives, directs​ front-end activities, participates in​ planning, modifies the action​ plan, maintains​ discipline, and accounts for​ personnel? A. Staffing B. Logistics C. Operations D. Administration

C. Operations

Why is patient assessment provided by the contact​ provider? A. The cover provider does not wear PPE. B. The cover provider retrieves the cot from the ambulance. C. Patient care duties can prevent observation of the scene by the cover provider. D. The cover provider handles radio traffic.

C. Patient care duties can prevent observation of the scene by the cover provider.

Which of the following situations would be particularly problematic during a rescue at a​ farm? A. Patient with a shard of metal impaled in her arm from a sudden breakage of a piece of farming equipment B. Patient with a leg trapped between the ground and a fallen tree he was cutting C. Patient pinned under a large farming tractor D. Patient with finger amputations from contact with a power saw

C. Patient pinned under a large farming tractor

Which of the following statements regarding operations within the hot zone is most​ inaccurate? A. Only highly trained responders can operate within the hot zone. B. The size of the hot zone is based on the magnitude of the contamination. C. Patients found with compromised airways should be addressed before being moved to the warm zone. D. Only personnel with appropriate PPE will be allowed in the hot zone.

C. Patients found with compromised airways should be addressed before being moved to the warm zone.

Which of the following is a common injury pattern from debris thrown by the blast of an​ explosion? A. burn injury to the skin B. Crush injuries to the torso and extremities C. Penetrating injuries causing blood loss D. Compression and decompression of the lungs and other hollow organs of the body

C. Penetrating injuries causing blood loss

You are first on the scene of a​ single-car vehicle crash. As you approach the​ scene, you notice that the car has sustained moderate​ front-end damage and the​ occupants, a​ middle-aged man and​ woman, are standing beside the car arguing. The woman has a bloody lip as well as a cut over one eye that is bleeding. Dispatch informs you that law enforcement is about 2 minutes out. How would you approach the scene if you decide it is safe to do​ so? A. Position your vehicle to protect the​ scene, notify dispatch of the activity at the​ scene, and both you and your partner cautiously approach the couple. B. Position your vehicle to protect the scene and use a bullhorn to inform the couple that you are EMS and will now approach to begin assessment and treatment. C. Position your vehicle to protect the​ scene, notify dispatch of the activity at the​ scene, and have your partner exit the vehicle and cautiously approach the couple while you remain in the vehicle. D. Position your vehicle near the​ couple, roll down the​ window, and inform them that you are paramedics and need to approach them to assess and treat their injuries.

C. Position your vehicle to protect the​ scene, notify dispatch of the activity at the​ scene, and have your partner exit the vehicle and cautiously approach the couple while you remain in the vehicle.

If you are utilizing the START system at an​ MCI, what type of evaluation are you​ performing? A. Condition assessment B. Secondary triage C. Primary triage D. Reassessment

C. Primary triage

Which of the following is generally an advantage of the​ fixed-wing over the​ rotary-wing aircraft? A. Cost B. Parts quality C. Speed D. Maneuverability

C. Speed

In terms of reducing your exposure to an alpha radioactive​ source, what is the best​ method? A. Several inches of lead B. A full protective suit with SCBA C. Standard Precautions D. A concrete barrier

C. Standard Precautions

Of all the different types of technical rescue​ situations, which of the following is most likely to not require the involvement of​ EMS? A. Hazardous atmosphere rescues B. Vehicle rescue operations C. Surface water rescues D. Structural collapse rescue

C. Surface water rescues

Which of the following best explains the role of EMS providers in preventing secondary contamination at a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Decontaminating patients B. Rescuing patients from the hot zone C. Taking initial actions to contain and isolate the hazardous material and patients D. Creating a definitive plan of action for controlling the release of the hazard.

C. Taking initial actions to contain and isolate the hazardous material and patients

Regardless of the type of Stokes basket selected for your​ service, these devices typically require which of the​ following? A. Additional flotation provisions B. Additional padding C. The addition of adequate restraints D. A lift mechanism

C. The addition of adequate restraints

What type of structure provides the best protection from​ fallout? A. Any roofed structure with intact windows B. Any structure with a roof C. The central areas of​ large, structurally sound buildings D. The periphery of​ large, structurally sound buildings

C. The central areas of​ large, structurally sound buildings

Who often determines the course of an MCI​ event? A. The staging officer B. The incident commander C. The first responders D. The local EDs

C. The first responders

Why do methamphetamine labs pose a risk for​ rescuers? A. Rescuers may become intoxicated. B. They are in difficult to access locations. C. The solvents and reagents can be toxic and explosive. D. There is no treatment for meth toxicity.

C. The solvents and reagents can be toxic and explosive.

What do metal​ clipboards, chemical​ agents, and other tools have in common for the TEMS​ medic? A. They are ruggedized. B. They have compact designs. C. They can be used as defensive weapons. D. They have patient care applications.

C. They can be used as defensive weapons.

What is not part of the basic IMS organization at many EMS​ incidents? A. Treatment B. Transport C. Timing D. Triage

C. Timing

What functional area of the NIMS EMS branch is activated when there are not enough ambulances to transport the​ injured? A. Logistics B. Planning C. Treatment D. Operations

C. Treatment

Which of the following disaster resource people would you not likely find at the mutual aid coordination center​ (MACC)? A. Information officer B. Incident commander C. Triage personnel D. Government officials

C. Triage personnel

You and your partner are preparing to provide direct patient care during the disentanglement phase of a motor vehicle crash. What type of​ flame/flash protection is most​ appropriate? A. Leather gloves B. Goggles C. Turnout gear D. A compact firefighting helmet

C. Turnout gear

What type of ambulance is a standard​ van, forward control integral​ cab-body ambulance? A. Type III B. Type I C. Type II D. ​Medium-duty ambulance

C. Type II

Which of the following is a strategy that an EMS system can use to reduce accidents while backing up an​ ambulance? A. Install at least three cameras. B. Have the driver turn on the siren while backing up. C. Use a spotter. D. Back up the ambulance only when it is an emergency.

C. Use a spotter.

If a​ disaster-level MCI results in a regional failure of communications​ systems, which of the following should be​ done? A. Call for satellite phones. B. Await a portable radio system. C. Use message runners. D. Gather victims into small groups and await rescue.

C. Use message runners.

Which of the following is an example of an​ encephalitis-like agent? A. Plague B. Cholera C. Variola major​ (smallpox) D. Botulinum toxin

C. Variola major​ (smallpox)

Which of the following statements is most accurate about water​ temperature? A. A victim can remain immersed in water that is 35degreesF for over 60 minutes without negative health effects. B. People can typically maintain their own body heat when immersed in water that has a temperature of 85degreesF and above. C. Water can cause heat loss 25 times faster than air. D. The use of a PFD can prevent hypothermia in cold water.

C. Water can cause heat loss 25 times faster than air.

You respond to an emergency involving a patient injured while servicing a wind turbine on a stretch of farmland 20 miles away from the nearest town. Which of the following should you expect for this call that you​ wouldn't in an urban​ environment? A. Other EMS crews are likely to respond to the scene. B. Any​ close-by town will have emergency department facilities. C. You will be in contact with this patient for a longer period of time. D. You must contact air support for any emergency.

C. You will be in contact with this patient for a longer period of time.

Nitrile​ gloves, a​ well-fitting HEPA​ mask, and a Tyvek coverall are appropriate protections​ for: A. nuclear radiation. B. the hot zone. C. a chemical release. D. fallout.

C. a chemical release.

As you arrive on scene of a multiple vehicle​ rear-end crash with one vehicle partially off the​ roadway, you observe a large amount of fluid on the roadway coming from the rear of one of the vehicles. Your greatest concern should​ be: A. a toxic atmosphere being created from the​ off-gassing of the leaking fluid. B. a slipping hazard created by the fluids on the roadway. C. a flammability hazard created by leaking fuel. D. the instability of the vehicle sitting partially off the roadway.

C. a flammability hazard created by leaking fuel.

A patient is exhibiting inappropriate​ affect, dilated​ pupils, slurred​ speech, disorientation, blurred​ vision, and facial flushing. You suspect exposure to BZ or QNB. Treatment consists​ of: A. 1 g of pralidoxime chloride every hour. B. administration of albuterol by nebulized inhalation. C. administration of physostigmine. D. administration of atropine.

C. administration of physostigmine.

You are a paramedic who maintains an EMS Level 1 in hazardous materials. The incident commander assigns you to immediately initiate lifesaving care for a patient who is in the warm zone who is being prepared for decontamination. You​ should: A. dress in the appropriate protective equipment and report to the leader of the warm zone. B. have the incident commander repeat the​ order, and only then comply. C. advise the incident commander that you do not meet the training qualifications. D. refuse to follow the​ order, and report the infraction to your immediate supervisor.

C. advise the incident commander that you do not meet the training qualifications.

For retreating to be​ effective, the paramedic​ should: A. rely on law enforcement for directions. B. retreat away from the ambulance. C. at least be concealed from sight. D. remain 500 feet from the incident.

C. at least be concealed from sight.

Services that use scheduled medications should require paramedics to sign for​ these: A. at the beginning of each shift. B. before and after each use. C. at the beginning and end of each shift. D. at the end of each shift.

C. at the beginning and end of each shift.

You have arrived on the scene of an MVA involving an automobile and a tractor trailer carrying a hazardous substance that appears to be leaking from a valve. You are staging at a safe distance uphill and upwind of the incident. You​ should: A. order victims using the PA system on your ambulance to walk toward you if able. B. make a decision to approach the scene carefully to rescue any critical victims. C. attempt to identify the hazardous substance using binoculars. D. Begin triaging victims and creating an evacuation plan.

C. attempt to identify the hazardous substance using binoculars.

During a mass casualty​ incident, mental health personnel​ should: A. stay out of the area until the recovery phase. B. initiate a critical incident stress debriefing immediately after the incident. C. be available on site for rescuers and victims. D. initiate critical incident stress management​ (CISM) during the incident.

C. be available on site for rescuers and victims.

As you are dispatched and begin your response to a potentially​ high-risk confined-space​ incident, you should​ immediately: A. identify and control hazards. B. gain access to the patient or patients. C. begin​ size-up of the situation before even arriving at the scene. D. confer with the safety officer on the strategy to use to effect a rescue.

C. begin​ size-up of the situation before even arriving at the scene.

To ensure safe entry into a confined space where an electrical hazard has been​ identified, the rescue crew should​ first: A. ventilate the space. B. shut down all machinery. C. blank out the flow of all power into the site. D. dissipate stored energy.

C. blank out the flow of all power into the site.

As the hazardous materials team prepares to make entry into the hot zone to mitigate an active​ leak, the process of the​ pre-entry physical should include documenting all of the following information​ except: A. ​pulse, blood​ pressure, and respirations. B. ECG and​ mental/neurological status. C. current and past medical history. D. body temperature and weight.

C. current and past medical history.

When hazardous materials are involved in or threatened by​ fire, the size of the danger zone​ is: A. a​ 100-foot radius from the site of the fire. B. anywhere with flames or smoke from the fire. C. dictated by the nature of the materials. D. a​ 1-mile square area with the site of the fire at the center.

C. dictated by the nature of the materials.

When arriving on scene of a potential biological​ attack, your most correct first step should be​ to: A. conduct initial assessment of the affected​ patients' ABCs. B. isolate potential victims from others who are not infected. C. don appropriate personal protective equipment before making patient contact. D. begin immediate triage of affected patients.

C. don appropriate personal protective equipment before making patient contact.

You and your partner are first to arrive on scene at a​ single-vehicle crash. The vehicle has struck a retaining wall and has come to rest on all four wheels in the middle of the roadway. You​ should: A. build box cribs under each of the four corners of the vehicle just inside of the front and rear wheels. B. manually immobilize the​ patient's cervical spine and assess the airway. C. ensure that the vehicle ignition is turned​ off, the transmission is in​ park, and the emergency brake is activated. D. place wheel chocks in place in front of the front tires and behind the rear tires.

C. ensure that the vehicle ignition is turned​ off, the transmission is in​ park, and the emergency brake is activated.

Augers or screws​ may: A. present an engulfment risk. B. electrocute a victim. C. entrap a victim. D. explode.

C. entrap a victim.

If a chemical agent release is small and​ contained, then: A. evacuate the general populace to a distance of 1.5 miles downwind. B. evacuate the general populace to a radius of​ 2,000 feet. C. evacuate the immediate area. D. the area does not need to be evacuated.

C. evacuate the immediate area.

The paramedic should check medication expiration​ dates? A. every two weeks. B. once a month. C. every shift. D. once a week.

C. every shift.

You suspect a patient may have been exposed to the SARS​ virus, which health officials have warned may have been deliberately introduced into the area by terrorists. After ensuring scene safety and donning appropriate​ PPE, you​ should: A. request a helicopter ambulance to transport the patient. B. immediately transport this patient to the nearest ED. C. follow medical direction and local protocol in providing care for this patient. D. drive the patient to his home and ask him to remain quarantined there until further notice.

C. follow medical direction and local protocol in providing care for this patient.

You are providing direct care for a victim who is entrapped in a car after an automobile crash. Rescuers are preparing to remove the front windshield with a rescue saw. In addition to other protective​ measures, to give this patient respiratory​ protection, you​ should: A. cover the​ patient's mouth with your gloved hand. B. cover the patient with a wool blanket. C. give the patient a surgical mask or commercial dust mask. D. give the patient a face shield.

C. give the patient a surgical mask or commercial dust mask.

What area does a safety officer​ (SO) not monitor for safety​ compliance? A. Infection control B. Lifting of patients and equipment C. government agencies D. Quality of scene lighting

C. government agencies

The flexibility of the IMS is based​ on: A. planning for all eventualities. B. organization of all resources within a single command. C. implementation of only those areas necessary to address the incident. D. bringing all functional areas to bear on every incident.

C. implementation of only those areas necessary to address the incident.

A​ slow-speed course would not ensure that​ operators; A. accurately estimate braking distance and turn radius. B. know how to use mirrors. C. know the primary and backup routes to all hospitals in the service area. D. are able to back​ up, park, and handle​ ambulance-sized vehicles.

C. know the primary and backup routes to all hospitals in the service area.

You have arrived on scene of a technical rescue as the paramedic on an ambulance. Once the known and potential hazards have been​ mitigated, you​ must: A. establish the​ hot, warm, and cold zones. B. immediately begin requested additional resources. C. make access to the patient and assess the extent of the entrapment and injuries. D. initiate disentanglement using specific rescue tools.

C. make access to the patient and assess the extent of the entrapment and injuries.

System status management​ (SSM) is a computerized personnel and ambulance deployment system designed​ to: A. justify higher spending on EMS. B. review the quality of treatment. C. meet service demands. D. allocate spending on EMS.

C. meet service demands.

Pulmonary agents attack​ the: A. nervous system. B. circulation of the blood. C. mucous membranes of the respiratory system. D. integumentary system.

C. mucous membranes of the respiratory system.

The American College of Surgeons​ (ACS) has revised its essential equipment​ list: A. once in 1970 and again in 1994. B. every ten years since 1970. C. once in 1994. D. every year since 1970.

C. once in 1994.

All of the following should be the fundamental elements of technical rescue training that paramedics should possess​ except: A. personal protective equipment. B. initiating the incident command system on a specific event. C. performing disentanglement techniques for an entrapped victim. D. patient access and assessment.

C. performing disentanglement techniques for an entrapped victim.

If you see rescuers about to use a frayed​ rope, you​ should: A. immediately take the rope and cut it at the frayed portion to keep it from being used. B. allow its use only if no other rope is available on the scene. C. point out the damage to the rescuers in a​ polite, professional manner D. alert them to try to use only the part of the rope below the frayed portion.

C. point out the damage to the rescuers in a​ polite, professional manner

During the disentanglement process of any technical​ rescue, the paramedic has all the following responsibilities​ except: A. ability to request and effectively use special rescue resources. B. maintaining readiness to provide care until either the paramedic is relieved or the patient is extricated. C. remaining with the patient even if the paramedic cannot fulfill the requirements of the operation due to his or her own limitations. D. maintaining personal and professional confidence.

C. remaining with the patient even if the paramedic cannot fulfill the requirements of the operation due to his or her own limitations.

It is five hours after a nuclear​ detonation, and several patients are beginning to present with​ nausea, fatigue, and malaise. The radiation exposure for these patients should be​ considered: A. moderate. B. nonexistent. C. severe. D. mild.

C. severe.

As a paramedic trained to the hazardous materials awareness​ level, you should be able​ to: A. coordinate the activities on the scene of a hazardous materials incident. B. make entry into a toxic atmosphere and perform a rescue of a victim. C. size up the​ incident, assess the toxicologic​ risk, and activate the incident management system. D. perform medical interventions on patients who are contaminated.

C. size up the​ incident, assess the toxicologic​ risk, and activate the incident management system.

The Commission on Accreditation of Ambulance Services provides voluntary guidelines that require ambulance services to comply​ with: A. National Fire Protection Agency guidelines. B. National Institute of Occupational Safety guidelines. C. state and local guidelines. D. Department of Transportation guidelines.

C. state and local guidelines.

You are caring for a​ 500-pound patient who is having a heart attack. The closest cath lab is over two hours away by ground transport. You are considering an air​ ambulance, but the greatest concern that you have is​ whether: A. the aircraft is a jet​ fixed-wing aircraft. B. the patient will weigh the aircraft down too much. C. the aircraft can accommodate the​ patient's girth. D. the patient has insurance.

C. the aircraft can accommodate the​ patient's girth.

The primary reason for a daily ambulance checklist is to ensure​ that: A. the state guidelines for essential equipment carried on an ambulance are being adhered to daily. B. the​ off-going crew did their job of stocking the unit after each call. C. the ambulance is stocked and ready to respond to emergencies as required. D. the ambulance does not need any preventive maintenance that day.

C. the ambulance is stocked and ready to respond to emergencies as required.

The hot​ zone, also referred to as the exclusionary​ zone, is best described​ as: A. the site where lifesaving emergency care is performed. B. the area where rescuers must dispose of contaminated gear before entering the warm zone. C. the area of contamination where only responders equipped with appropriate PPE can enter to perform rescue operations. D. the area that lies immediately adjacent to the hot zone where decontamination occurs.

C. the area of contamination where only responders equipped with appropriate PPE can enter to perform rescue operations.

You are responding to a sudden outbreak of illness in the downtown area of a major city and you suspect a biological agent release. The greatest concern about biological agents​ is: A. their ease in identification. B. treatment of infected patients. C. their ability to be extremely​ contagious, which gives them the capability of being spread from human to human. D. the ability to track the spread of the infected patients.

C. their ability to be extremely​ contagious, which gives them the capability of being spread from human to human.

Your ambulance has just arrived at a hazmat scene where incident command has established​ hot, warm, and cold zones. Both you and your partner are hazmat awareness level trained. Your most likely duty assignment will​ be: A. to move critical patients from the hot zone to your ambulance for transport. B. to perform lifesaving patient care in the warm zone. C. to perform triage and treatment in the cold zone. D. to conduct decontamination of potentially injured patients.

C. to perform triage and treatment in the cold zone.

Triage personnel report directly to​ the: A. treatment unit leader. B. incident commander. C. triage unit leader. D. EMS branch director

C. triage unit leader.

Studies have shown that the siren on an ambulance is typically not heard by​ motorists: A. until after they have pulled to the curb. B. unless the windows are down and the radio is off. C. until the ambulance is 50 to 100 feet away. D. unless the windows are down.

C. until the ambulance is 50 to 100 feet away.

A patient has been decontaminated with large quantities of water. The next step should be​ to: A. immediately move the patient to the ambulance for further treatment. B. move the patient to the warm zone for further decontamination. C. utilize the absorption process to further reduce the contamination levels. D. allow the patient time to see whether any acute effects occur before transportation.

C. utilize the absorption process to further reduce the contamination levels.

EMS agency participation in the Commission on Accreditation of Ambulance Services​ is: A. state mandated. B. nationally mandated. C. voluntary. D. federally mandated.

C. voluntary.

An awareness level for highway operations would not​ include: A. volatile fuels. B. unstable vehicles. C. ​"low head" dams. D. hazardous cargoes.

C. ​"low head" dams.

Without the benefit of the​ Internet, agencies or units can purchase interactive​ CD-ROMs and EMS computer simulation programs to​ train: A. paramedics as physicians. B. paramedics as​ EMT-Basics or​ EMT-Intermediates. C. ​EMT-Basics or​ EMT-Intermediates as paramedics. D. physicians as paramedics.

C. ​EMT-Basics or​ EMT-Intermediates as paramedics.

Which states in the Northeast United States have large rural​ populations? A. ​Alaska, Montana, and the Dakotas B. ​Arkansas, Kentucky,​ Mississippi, NorthCarolina, South​ Carolina, and West Virginia C. ​Maine, New​ Hampshire, and Vermont D. New​ York, Massachusetts, and Rhode Island

C. ​Maine, New​ Hampshire, and Vermont

The signs and symptoms of anthrax​ include: A. ​chills, cough,​ malaise, and vomiting. B. ​fever, chills,​ cough, malaise, and nausea C. ​fever, cough, and malaise. D. chills and nausea.

C. ​fever, cough, and malaise.

A patient who has undergone field decontamination prior to receiving medical treatment is best described as​ a: A. fully decontaminated patient not requiring any additional decontamination. B. patient who should not receive any care until he or she has been further decontaminated. C. ​semi-decontaminated patient requiring a more invasive decon process. D. patient who is ready to be moved to the cold zone for initial treatment.

C. ​semi-decontaminated patient requiring a more invasive decon process.

What piece of equipment is an inflatable​ high-pressure pillow that can help lift a large piece of machinery that has trapped a​ patient? A. Cribbing B. Compartment expanders C. Rope and tackle D. Air bags

D. Air bags

You are caring for a person who is on vacation and was seriously injured at night. The closest hospital is 2.5 hours away by​ ground, so you decide to use the local HAA program for transport. In which of the following situations may this not be the best idea for​ transport? A. The patient was injured while bungee jumping. B. The patient was injured at a lake. C. The patient was injured when he wrecked his car on the freeway while returning to his vacation cabin. D. The patient was injured while completing a nighttime hike through the woods.

D. The patient was injured while completing a nighttime hike through the woods.

A patient has been exposed to tabun. A Mark I kit contains which of the following medications used to reverse the effects of nerve​ agents? A. 2 mg of epinephrine and 2 mg of atropine B. 10 mg of atropine and​ 1,200 mg of pralidoxime chloride C. 1 mg of epinephrine and 100 mg of lidocaine D. 2 mg of atropine and 600 mg of pralidoxime chloride

D. 2 mg of atropine and 600 mg of pralidoxime chloride

Which of the following statements is most correct regarding response to a possible biological​ attack? A. Patient care for a patient affected by a biological attack is different from that of a patient suffering from an infectious disease. B. Biological attacks are easily determined by the​ patient's signs and symptoms. C. Biological attacks can be recognized by the plume or vapor release. D. A biological attack should be handled much like an infectious disease outbreak

D. A biological attack should be handled much like an infectious disease outbreak

You are responding to a fire at a chemical factory involving an unknown substance. Your partner opens the copy of the Emergency Response Guidebook you have in the ambulance. In the Emergency Response​ Guidebook, what information is provided within this reference​ book? A. Chemical compounds along with the periodical table B. Guidelines for cleaning up specific hazardous substances C. Treatment protocols for chemical exposure D. A list of hazardous materials substance​ names, placard​ identification, and evacuation distances for most substances

D. A list of hazardous materials substance​ names, placard​ identification, and evacuation distances for most substances

Which of the following is a primary way in which TEMS varies from​ EMS? A. TEMS personnel more frequently encounter medical patients. B. TEMS operates closely with law enforcement. C. Treatment and transport considerations are at the discretion of TEMS personnel. D. A major priority in TEMS is extraction of the patient from the hot zone.

D. A major priority in TEMS is extraction of the patient from the hot zone.

What is a TEMS​ unit? A. A crime scene unit that specializes in gathering evidence from a victim in the ED B. A Taser that fires barbs C. An electronic nerve stimulator D. A unit that provides medical support to law enforcement

D. A unit that provides medical support to law enforcement

A patient inhales​ chlorine, which causes the patient to develop pulmonary edema. What is a specific means of treating this pulmonary​ edema? A. Maintaining and supporting the ABCs B. Completing a primary decontamination C. Establishing an IV and administering fluids to dilute the irritants D. Administering furosemide

D. Administering furosemide

You have responded to a patient stranded on the slope of a rapidly rising creek bed. When requesting water rescue​ response, which of the following information should you not report to​ them? A. The movement and depth of the water B. The water temperature C. Any debris in the water D. An exact assessment of the​ patient's injuries

D. An exact assessment of the​ patient's injuries

What is the best way to mitigate common problems that may occur during an​ MCI? A. Formulate a disaster response plan for every type of disaster. B. Develop a redundant infrastructure. C. Inventory additional equipment. D. Anticipate their occurrence and plan for them.

D. Anticipate their occurrence and plan for them.

You are waiting for a helicopter to land before attempting an approach. Which of these actions is appropriate at the landing zone for a medical​ helicopter? A. When directing the​ pilot's landing, face into the wind. B. If the landing zone is not​ flat, approach from the uphill side. C. It is safe to approach as soon as the helicopter skids touch the ground. D. Approach the aircraft from the 2dash3 ​o'clock position, allowing the pilot to maintain visual contact.

D. Approach the aircraft from the 2-3 ​o'clock position, allowing the pilot to maintain visual contact

You have called air medical transport for a patient with a spinal injury ejected from a car in an area of hilly terrain. The only place the helicopter can land is on a level portion of hillside near the summit. Which of these actions must be avoided in assisting at the landing​ zone? A. Approach the helicopter from the front. B. Wait to approach until directed to do so by the pilot. C. Direct the pilot to land the aircraft facing into the wind. D. Approach the helicopter from the uphill side of the landing zone.

D. Approach the helicopter from the uphill side of the landing zone.

Which of the following incidents would not typically require the activation of a mutual aid coordination center​ (MACC) center? A. A disaster B. ​Large-scale civil unrest C. A​ high-impact incident D. A​ low-impact incident

D. A​ low-impact incident

Which of the following does current research indicate to be the most accurate statement about critical incident stress management​ (CISM)? A. CISM is most effective if administered during the incident. B. CISM is most effective immediately after the incident. C. CISM is recommended for even minor MCIs. D. CISM does not appear to mitigate the effects of traumatic stress.

D. CISM does not appear to mitigate the effects of traumatic stress.

A patient with which type of primary exposure typically does not require​ decontamination? A. Organophosphate exposure B. Hydrocarbon solvent exposure C. Corrosive exposure D. CO exposure

D. CO exposure

Which of the following functional areas of the NIMS system is ultimately responsible for dealing with an​ incident? A. Operations B. Administration C. Logistics D. Command

D. Command

How can a paramedic practice tactical​ options? A. Carry a personal defensive weapon B. Attend workshops regularly C. Develop your own strategies D. Consider tactical options on routine calls

D. Consider tactical options on routine calls

What is the objective of the emergency medical services at an​ MCI? A. Operate the triage area. B. Manage the food and water supplies. C. Maintain the rehabilitation area. D. Do the most good for the most people.

D. Do the most good for the most people.

The technician level of training in hazardous materials is equivalent​ to: A. EMS level 1. B. EMS level 3. C. a hazardous materials operational level training. D. EMS level 2.

D. EMS level 2.

You are a paramedic in a rural setting where the main source of income for many families is farming. One particular​ afternoon, you are summoned to a farm for a worker who became entangled in a piece of machinery. Other workers are frantically waving you over to their location as you exit the ambulance. What should you consider​ first? A. How many workers are involved B. ​Turn-off and tag C. Mechanism of injury D. EMS provider safety

D. EMS provider safety

Which of the following best describes the concept of due regard when operating emergency​ vehicles? A. It is acceptable to travel in the opposite lane of​ travel, as long as you use your warning lights and sirens. B. It is acceptable to travel through controlled intersections against the light as long as you use your warning lights and sirens. C. Use of lights and sirens exempts the emergency vehicle driver from liability in the event of a collision. D. Even with lights and​ sirens, an emergency vehicle operator is responsible for anticipating the reactions of other drivers and for driving defensively.

D. Even with lights and​ sirens, an emergency vehicle operator is responsible for anticipating the reactions of other drivers and for driving defensively.

Paramedics should be proficient in which aspects of the water rescue​ model? A. ​Throw, row, and go B. Throw and row C. ​Reach, throw, and row D. Reach and throw

D. Reach and throw

What is the highest level of civil government officials who may exercise direction and control in an emergency or disaster from a mutual aid coordination center​ (MACC)? A. Municipal B. County C. State D. Federal

D. Federal

A patient has been exposed to a nerve agent. When should a Mark I kit be administered to this​ patient? A. For altered mental status B. For total respiratory failure C. For pulmonary edema D. For blurry​ vision, mild​ dyspnea, and rhinorrhea

D. For blurry​ vision, mild​ dyspnea, and rhinorrhea

What is the key requirement for EMS and law enforcement to interact well at a crime​ scene? A. Gathering clues B. Spotting evidence C. Watching for suspicious activity D. Good communication

D. Good communication

Which of the following is a potential advantage of ground transportation over​ air? A. Patients might be able to receive blood products during transport. B. Ground crews may have special training in techniques such as central line insertion and chest tube insertion. C. Patients have the advantage of equipment such as​ ventilators, IV​ pumps, and blood chemistry analyzers available prior to arrival at the hospital that air transport providers do not carry. D. Ground ambulances have fewer​ weather-related limitations than air ambulances.

D. Ground ambulances have fewer​ weather-related limitations than air ambulances.

What type of crimes are committed against a person solely on the basis of the​ individual's actual or perceived​ race, color, national​ origin, ethnicity,​ gender, disability, or sexual​ orientation? A. Minority abuse B. Profiling C. Protected class crimes D. Hate crimes

D. Hate crimes

What is the designated area at a hazardous materials incident where only the highest trained and equipped hazardous materials personnel are allowed to​ function? A. Support zone B. Cold zone C. Spill control zone D. Hot zone

D. Hot zone

Where are you likely to encounter a clan​ lab? A. In apartments B. In residential neighborhoods C. In rural outbuildings D. In any location

D. In any location

You are looking at the placard for a hazardous materials through binoculars and trying to spot the UN number. Which of the following best describes the United Nations identifier for hazardous​ materials? A. It is the registration number used with the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency. B. It represents one of the eight classes of hazardous materials. C. It indicates the level of risk associated with the three different types of hazards on an NFPA 704 placard. D. It is a unique identifier for each chemical.

D. It is a unique identifier for each chemical.

You and your partner are rural paramedics responding to an emergency in an area with one small hospital. What is one challenge that you may face that​ urban-based paramedics rarely have to be concerned​ with? A. Higher number of trauma runs versus medical runs B. Absence of technology to use when communicating with the hospital C. Higher rates of survival for trauma patients D. Lack of​ full-time ED staff at the receiving facility

D. Lack of​ full-time ED staff at the receiving facility

How long should you spend performing primary triage on each patient at an​ MCI? A. 10 seconds B. About a minute C. 5 minutes D. Less than 30 seconds

D. Less than 30 seconds

The decon team typically​ uses: A. Level C protective equipment. B. Level A protective equipment. C. Level D protective equipment. D. Level B protective equipment.

D. Level B protective equipment.

Which of the following patients may not be suitable candidates for air medical transport in​ rotary-wing aircraft? A. Ventilator patients B. Spinal injuries C. Status epilepticus patients D. Morbidly obese patients

D. Morbidly obese patients

You and your partner have stumbled across a suspected clandestine lab while bringing a patient home from the hospital. You promptly return the patient to the ambulance and leave the area. What is your next​ step? A. Mark off the area with caution tape B. Stop any chemical reactions in progress C. Return the patient to the hospital D. Notify law enforcement and initiate IMS procedures

D. Notify law enforcement and initiate IMS procedures

Which statement is most accurate regarding IMS response to a​ disaster? A. There is typically only a brief recovery period necessary to return to station and restock your unit. B. A proper IMS plan provides for adequate resources. C. Casualties can be promptly cared for by existing resources. D. Outside assistance is almost always required.

D. Outside assistance is almost always required.

According to the DOT hazardous materials placard​ system, what is a Class 5​ hazard? A. Spontaneously combustible liquid B. Explosive C. Flammable gas D. Oxidizer

D. Oxidizer

Two teenagers are stranded on a large rock along with their overturned canoe in the middle of a rushing stream. Before you effect the​ rescue, which of the following PPE would be most appropriate to give to the​ victims? A. Insulated blankets to warm up with B. Rescue helmets C. Retrieval lines to attach to themselves D. PFDs if they are not currently wearing them

D. PFDs if they are not currently wearing them

What is the recommendation for the use of police escorts for emergency ambulance​ responses? A. Police escorts should survey the intersections for other responding emergency vehicles. B. Police escorts should precede the ambulance by 500 feet. C. Police escorts should obstruct intersections until the ambulance passes. D. Police escorts should not be used unless the responding ambulance is unfamiliar with the area.

D. Police escorts should not be used unless the responding ambulance is unfamiliar with the area.

What should the training goal be for each person involved in EMS disaster​ response? A. Multiple patient care in the red treatment unit B. Triage proficiency C. Communications D. Readiness to act as an incident commander

D. Readiness to act as an incident commander

What procedure should be pursued when a MCI responder is not adapting to the disaster​ normally? A. Provide critical incident stress management. B. Assist the responder in rationalizing the situation. C. No action is necessary. D. Refer the responder to a competent person.

D. Refer the responder to a competent person.

You are the first on the scene of a​ single-vehicle crash late at night. During your windshield​ survey, you notice that damage to the car is​ minimal, the driver is slumped over the steering​ wheel, and the car trunk lid is ajar but not open. What would the most appropriate next step​ be? A. Check the condition of the driver B. Position your vehicle to protect the scene C. Investigate the trunk D. Remain in your vehicle or bypass the accident until law enforcement arrives

D. Remain in your vehicle or bypass the accident until law enforcement arrives

Which of the following statements regarding rural populations is​ true? A. One in ten people in the United States lives in a rural area. B. One in five doctors chooses to practice in a rural setting. C. The​ physician-to-patient ratios are generally higher. D. Rural areas have a higher percentage of people over age 65.

D. Rural areas have a higher percentage of people over age 65.

What staff position is responsible for crowd control at the scene of a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. Liaison officer B. Information officer C. Incident commander D. Safety officer

D. Safety officer

You are considering air medical transport and surveying the surrounding area for potential landing sites. To which of the following guidelines should you adhere when setting up a landing zone for a​ helicopter? A. Make sure the landing zone is 50 to 75 feet from crashed vehicles if the helicopter is landing at the scene. B. Keep spectators 50 to 100 feet from the landing zone. C. Mark each corner of the landing​ zone, and put a fifth warning device on the downwind side of the landing zone. D. Select an area that is a flat square with​ 100-foot sides for a small helicopter.

D. Select an area that is a flat square with​ 100-foot sides for a small helicopter.

What is the term for the mechanism of injury when a farmer loses the fingers of one hand while trying to work on a sickle bar mower while it is still​ running? A. Wrap point B. Pinch point C. Crush point D. Shear point

D. Shear point

When walking up to a​ residence, how should you position yourself relative to the door before knocking on​ it? A. Announce your presence before reaching the door B. Center yourself squarely in the door C. Walk up to the door in single file D. Stand to the side of the door

D. Stand to the side of the door

The ambulance checklist for the beginning of a shift would normally not include which of the​ following? A. Number of backboards B. Engine oil level C. Lights and siren performance check D. Stretcher maintenance record review

D. Stretcher maintenance record review

You have arrived on scene of a​ confined-space incident at a local industrial facility. As you and the command staff review the​ preplan, what information would you not expect to​ see? A. Personnel resource requirements B. Specific equipment needs to effect a type of rescue C. Identification of potential rescue locations found on site D. The names of assigned rescuers to the incident scene

D. The names of assigned rescuers to the incident scene

Why are recreational emergencies at a destination lake typically a strain on EMS​ systems? A. Rural EMS providers are very naive about water sports or activities. B. There are rarely any onsite first responders or lifeguards. C. The EMS system has to transport every one of the patients who calls for help. D. They are often​ seasonal, and sudden population changes can stress the rural department.

D. They are often​ seasonal, and sudden population changes can stress the rural department.

Which of the following is true regarding modern​ ambulances? A. They accelerate quickly. B. They stop more quickly than a car. C. They have a similar center of gravity to a car. D. They drive like a large truck.

D. They drive like a large truck.

You are communicating with the pilot of a helicopter approaching the emergency scene. Which of the following information should not be provided when communicating with the pilot of an approaching​ helicopter? A. Power lines in the vicinity B. Wind direction C. Obstacles near the landing zone D. The​ patient's most current vital signs

D. The​ patient's most current vital signs

What is the purpose of forming contingency plans as part of disaster​ preplanning? A. To plan tabletop drills B. To develop scenarios for potential disasters C. To ensure proper training of responders D. To minimize problems during an unscripted event

D. To minimize problems during an unscripted event

Which of the following patients is not a candidate for medical helicopter transportation from a crash scene to a trauma​ center? A. Penetrating injury to the chest B. Abdominal trauma with signs of shock C. Head injury with altered mental status D. Traumatic cardiac arrest

D. Traumatic cardiac arrest

Which of the following activities on the scene of a hazardous materials incident is not considered a role of the​ paramedic? A. Sizing up the incident scene B. Medically monitoring of the hazmat teams C. Establishing command if first to arrive D. Treating and transporting contaminated patients

D. Treating and transporting contaminated patients

Your ambulance has a standard truck cab style chassis. What would the type classification be for this​ ambulance? A. Type III B. ​Light-duty specialty C. 4WD specialty cab D. Type I

D. Type I

In most​ states, under what conditions is an emergency vehicle allowed to take actions such as exceeding the speed​ limit, traveling against the flow of​ traffic, or proceeding through an intersection on a red​ light? A. Whenever either lights or sirens are used to warn the public B. Under any emergent conditions C. When exercising due​ regard, even if lights or sirens are not being used D. Under the legal concept of due​ regard, when using emergency lights and audible warning devices​ (sirens or​ horn)

D. Under the legal concept of due​ regard, when using emergency lights and audible warning devices​ (sirens or​ horn)

Helicopters used for medevac missions typically employ what type of flight​ rules? A. Instrument flight rules B. Cloud flight rules C. Marginal flight rules D. Visual flight rules

D. Visual flight rules

What type of additional training should be provided to a paramedic who works near a large​ lake? A. Critical care paramedicine B. ACLS for the experienced provider C. Classes to obtain a boat operating license D. Water rescue

D. Water rescue

Which of the following items would not be part of a typical​ vehicle-equipment checklist? A. Patient infection control supplies B. Oxygen therapy and suction equipment C. ALS​ equipment, medication, and supplies D. Weather conditions

D. Weather conditions

When should ambulance drivers have their foot covering the brake​ pedal? A. Always when driving B. When approaching the scene C. Under no circumstances D. When proceeding through an intersection

D. When proceeding through an intersection

A patient has accidentally ingested a hydrocarbon solvent and may have inhaled fumes from the solvent as well. Which of the following statements about hydrocarbon solvents is most​ incorrect? A. Primary effects of exposure to hydrocarbon solvents include​ arrhythmias, pulmonary​ edema, and respiratory failure. B. If the patient begins to present with​ seizures, consideration should be given to the administration of diazepam. C. In case of​ inhalation, maintain and support the ABCs. D. When the patient has ingested a​ solvent, you should give the patient ipecac syrup and induce vomiting.

D. When the patient has ingested a​ solvent, you should give the patient ipecac syrup and induce vomiting.

What is the most important rule to maximize the effectiveness of body​ armor? A. Keep body armor dry. B. Use it to take risks you otherwise​ wouldn't. C. Regular exercise can assist you in recovering from cavitation injuries. D. You must wear it.

D. You must wear it.

You are initiating transport for a patient with multiple fractures and dislocations in addition to other injuries. The facility you are driving toward is still an hour away. What is likely for your care of this​ patient? A. You will need to extensively splint this patient even if it delays transport. B. You will call for an ALS intercept to treat this patient. C. Reduction of the​ patient's fractures and dislocations will occur at the receiving facility. D. You will reduce the dislocations and fractures that you can en route.

D. You will reduce the dislocations and fractures that you can en route.

Several patients complaining of the same illness and presenting with the same signs and symptoms should raise suspicion​ of: A. a chemical attack. B. a nuclear attack. C. an explosion. D. a biological attack.

D. a biological attack.

When you see small​ animals, birds, and insects that are​ incapacitated, suspect: A. a nuclear incident. B. an explosion. C. a biological incident. D. a chemical incident.

D. a chemical incident.

A hydroelectric intake on a dam serves as​ a: A. an eddy. B. a foot pin. C. a drowning machine. D. a strainer.

D. a strainer.

To meet OSHA​ requirements, you must properly disinfect the​ ambulance: A. at the end of a shift. B. after each call. C. at the beginning of a shift. D. after transport of any patient with a communicable disease.

D. after transport of any patient with a communicable disease.

Development of a disaster plan that outlines the SOPs and protocols should be developed​ following: A. a review of available resources. B. the occurrence of a​ large-scale disaster. C. an evaluation of average hospital capacity. D. an assessment of potential hazards.

D. an assessment of potential hazards.

The original ICS was developed for​ use: A. during military battles. B. at commercial aircraft accidents. C. following hurricanes. D. at major fires.

D. at major fires.

A patient has been exposed to a pesticide through accidental ingestion. The primary treatment for this patient should​ be: A. absorption. B. dilution. C. inducement of vomiting. D. atropinization.

D. atropinization.

You are dispatched to a motor vehicle accident. On​ arrival, you discover four​ victims, all of whom require ALS. Dispatch indicates that is will take another 10 minutes to get additional ambulances to your location. This incident typically be categorized​ as: A. a disaster. B. a START incident. C. a​ high-impact incident. D. a​ low-impact incident.

D. a​ low-impact incident.

The use of a​ "spotter" during ambulance operations can​ reduce: A. the chance of patients being missed at accident scenes. B. the assault of paramedics. C. the chance of being struck by a motor vehicle while working adjacent to traffic lanes. D. backing collisions.

D. backing collisions.

For cover to be​ effective, it​ must: A. offer a further path of retreat. B. be of a similar color or pattern to what you are wearing. C. offer concealment in all directions. D. be bulletproof.

D. be bulletproof.

You are dispatched to support law enforcement as they raid a drug manufacturing lab. You know that you will​ likely: A. respond immediately to the scene for an injury. B. be asked for advice on dismantling the lab. C. have to enter the lab first when law enforcement signal you forward. D. be staged in a safe area near the lab location.

D. be staged in a safe area near the lab location.

As you arrive on the scene of a​ large-scale MCI that is the result of a possible terrorist​ attack, you should​ immediately: A. request additional resources from an MCI response team. B. begin triaging and initiating a treatment plan. C. establish a forward casualty collection point near the incident scene. D. be suspicious of a secondary explosive device that might have been placed for response personnel.

D. be suspicious of a secondary explosive device that might have been placed for response personnel.

When decontaminating a patient exposed to solid​ corrosives, first: A. flush the exposed area with a gallon of hot water. B. flush the exposed area with large quantities of cold water. C. rub the exposed area with a​ saline-moistened dressing. D. brush off dry particles.

D. brush off dry particles.

Helicopters offer more support to ground EMS on accident scenes in comparison to​ fixed-wing aircraft because​ helicopters: A. fly with instruments in worse weather than​ fixed-wing aircraft. B. fly faster than​ fixed-wing aircraft. C. have longer transport ranges. D. can land practically anywhere.

D. can land practically anywhere.

When EMS personnel arrive at a crime scene and begin patient​ treatment, it is of paramount importance that they​ avoid: A. removing evidence from the patient. B. leaving evidence at the ED. C. removing evidence from the scene. D. contaminating the evidence.

D. contaminating the evidence.

The best method for preparing for the challenge of providing extended care for victims of a wilderness rescue incident​ is: A. equipping field gear to be able to carry additional EMS supplies. B. using standard EMS protocols. C. deployment of a physician with the rescue team. D. development of solid standard operating procedures.

D. development of solid standard operating procedures

A weapon of mass destruction that is constructed to disperse radiologic contamination is best defined as​ a: A. incendiary device. B. fusion device. C. neutron bomb. D. dirty bomb.

D. dirty bomb.

A horizontal current that flows around large​ objects, creating an upstream flow around the downside of the object that in some cases can move a victim or rescuers toward the shore edge best​ defines: A. hydraulics. B. strainers. C. recirculating currents. D. eddies.

D. eddies.

When responding to the scene of street​ violence, you​ should: A. request that law enforcement transport the victim to your staging area. B. be prepared to move the victim quickly to a controlled environment. C. verify that law enforcement is on the scene. D. ensure that law enforcement has secured the area and the victim before your arrival.

D. ensure that law enforcement has secured the area and the victim before your arrival.

Shortly after the unit arrives on the scene of a rock climber who is injured and trapped on the side of a shear​ wall, a medical command has been established and hazards have been identified. The most appropriate step to initiate first in preparing to access the patient​ is: A. to immediately access the patient and ensure that he is secure to a life line. B. to notify the nearest trauma center of the​ patient's injuries. C. to prepare to send a paramedic trained in vertical rescue down to the patient. D. for the incident commander and safety officer to conduct a formal briefing.

D. for the incident commander and safety officer to conduct a formal briefing.

In responding to a reported terror incident involving the release of a biological​ agent, the least amount of personal protective equipment should​ be: A. turnout gear. B. gown and face shield. C. gloves and goggles. D. gloves and a​ well-fitted HEPA filter mask.

D. gloves and a​ well-fitted HEPA filter mask.

When approaching a scene at night with a​ flashlight, you​ should: A. not turn the light on until after patient contact. B. identify yourself loudly and clearly. C. announce your presence before approaching. D. hold the light out to your side.

D. hold the light out to your side.

For prehydration of entry team​ personnel, sports​ drinks: A. are inappropriate. B. should be alternated with 8 to 16 ounces of water. C. are most effective at full strength. D. should be diluted with 50 percent water.

D. should be diluted with 50 percent water.

As you and your partner are immobilizing and preparing to remove a motor vehicle accident victim from the​ driver's seat, you notice an unknown fluid running down next to you on the asphalt from under the engine area of the vehicle. You​ should: A. abandon your efforts to extricate the patient until the potential hazard is addressed. B. cease the immobilization efforts and perform a rapid extrication of the patient. C. ignore the fluid​ leak, as it is most likely harmless. D. immediately notify the​ on-scene firefighters of the leak.

D. immediately notify the​ on-scene firefighters of the leak

The mutual aid coordination center​ (MACC) should be​ located: A. as close as possible to the epicenter of the incident. B. in a federal building. C. wherever convenient. D. in a secure and protected location.

D. in a secure and protected location.

The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration​ (NHTSA) and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health​ (NIOSH) are collaborating on a​ four-year research-based project to improve existing standards to make patients and EMS workers​ safer: A. in the field. B. on the road. C. on the scene of a​ multiple-casualty incident. D. in the rear compartment of ambulances.

D. in the rear compartment of ambulances.

You and your partner are part of a wilderness rescue team that has just made contact with a patient who suffered a traumatic injury approximately 14 miles from the end of a trailhead in heavily wooded and steep terrain. The​ patient, who had agonal respirations and a thready pulse on​ contact, has just gone into cardiac arrest. You​ should: A. initiate and continue CPR until you are able to reach the​ trailhead, where another ALS unit can take over care. B. request a helicopter extraction. C. initiate CPR for 10​ minutes, cease​ CPR, transport the patient for 5​ minutes, reinitiate CPR for 10​ minutes, cease​ CPR, and transport the patient for 5 minutes. Continue this process until you reach the ambulance. D. initiate CPR for a specific amount of time in accordance with your protocol​ and, if there is no return of pulses or​ respirations, consider termination of efforts.

D. initiate CPR for a specific amount of time in accordance with your protocol​ and, if there is no return of pulses or​ respirations, consider termination of efforts.

A trained rescue team has just placed shoring in a trench to protect an injured worker who is buried to his waist in soil and clay. Before placing the rescue​ shoring, the most appropriate action would​ be: A. handing a helmet down to the trapped worker if he​ doesn't already have one on. B. placing a ladder into the trench and allowing a paramedic to climb down to conduct an assessment. C. attempting to tie a retrieval line around the victim. D. isolating the area from bystanders and other workers until the area around the trench is made safe.

D. isolating the area from bystanders and other workers until the area around the trench is made safe.

You are caring directly for a conscious patient who is pinned in an automobile. The rescue team is performing the extrication. During the disentanglement phase of the​ operation, you should do all the following​ except: A. prepare the patient for any interventions that may have to be performed. B. continue to communicate with the​ patient, explaining what the rescue team is doing. C. continue to assess the​ patient's level of consciousness and ABCs. D. lie to the patient in order not to create a panic.

D. lie to the patient in order not to create a panic.

When treating a victim near or in the midst of a crowd. you​ should: A. retreat from the area. B. force people away from the patient. C. enlist members for assistance. D. look for warning signs of impending danger.

D. look for warning signs of impending danger.

One of the concerns about the growing number of air ambulances competing in the same area​ is: A. encouraging increased use because there are several aircraft in the area. B. the aircraft being able to communicate with one another to avoid collisions. C. the concern about how many aircraft can land at a time at the local hospital helipad. D. making a poor decision to fly in marginal weather because of increased competition.

D. making a poor decision to fly in marginal weather because of increased competition.

Routine detailed shift checks can minimize the issues associated with risk management​ by: A. improving paramedic skills. B. making calls less dangerous. C. lowering response times. D. making it less likely that equipment will fail.

D. making it less likely that equipment will fail.

Helicopter use in hazardous terrain​ rescues: A. has no significant differences from air medical rescue. B. should be avoided. C. typically involves​ rappel-based rescues. D. may have local restrictions that should be considered before summoning a helicopter from the field.

D. may have local restrictions that should be considered before summoning a helicopter from the field.

An EMS Level 1 responder is trained to​ perform: A. patient care in the warm zone. B. patient care interventions of contaminated patients. C. decontamination of contaminated patients. D. patient care in the cold zone on patients who do not represent a significant risk of secondary contamination.

D. patient care in the cold zone on patients who do not represent a significant risk of secondary contamination.

A male patient began experiencing shortness of breath along with anxiousness approximately 2 hours after turning on the air conditioner at his residence. First responders on scene report what smells like freshly cut grass as they enter the residence. The patient was most likely exposed to the chemical​ agent: A. biotoxin. B. lewisite. C. chlorine. D. phosgene.

D. phosgene.

When approaching a vehicle accident with the ambulance at​ night, you can help protect yourself as you walk up on the car​ by: A. asking the driver to step out of the vehicle. B. silhouetting yourself in the headlights so that the driver can see you. C. approaching the car with your flashlight on. D. positioning the ambulance so that you can illuminate the other vehicle with your headlights and spotlights.

D. positioning the ambulance so that you can illuminate the other vehicle with your headlights and spotlights.

If an ambulance is deployed to a specific location to await any emergency​ calls, that is known as​ its: A. ​pre-positioning. B. pre planning. C. call volume prediction. D. primary area of responsibility.

D. primary area of responsibility.

Nonpharmacological pain management during extended care includes all of the following​ except: A. distracting the patient by talking or asking questions. B. scratching the patient during painful procedures. C. using proper splinting. D. removal of impaled objects.

D. removal of impaled objects.

The crew of an incoming helicopter notifies you that they are approximately five minutes from your location. You need​ to: A. acknowledge them when they are on final approach. B. keep the line clear for any additional communications from the crew. C. wave when they are close enough to see. D. tell them when you can hear and see them.

D. tell them when you can hear and see them.

The more securely you package a​ patient: A. the easier it is to assess vital signs. B. the less necessary it will be to monitor him. C. the harder the patient will be to lift. D. the more difficult it will be to monitor him.

D. the more difficult it will be to monitor him.

Rescuers needing to carry fewer oxygen tanks because of rugged terrain is an environmental issue primarily​ affecting: A. patient exposure. B. cumbersome PPE. C. patient access. D. the use of ALS skills

D. the use of ALS skills

When you go around a car stopped at an​ intersection, always go around​ on: A. the​ driver's right side. B. whichever side seems clear. C. the side away from the street. D. the​ driver's left side.

D. the​ driver's left side.

You are dispatched to the scene of a reported explosion at a college football game. Upon your​ arrival, witnesses state that a man set a backpack down near the concession​ stand, and they thought he went to use the​ restroom, when there was an explosion. Other witnesses report seeing a man running through the stadium parking lot just prior to the explosion. Your first action should​ be: A. to perform triage. B. to determine what type of device was used. C. to identify the number of victims. D. to evacuate and stage away from the building.

D. to evacuate and stage away from the building.

Early in vehicle rescue involving multiple​ vehicles, set​ up: A. a circle of operation around each vehicle. B. a single circle of operation centered on the most damaged vehicle. C. three circles of​ operation, one for the actual​ rescue, one for​ triage, and one for staging. D. two circles of​ operation, one for the actual rescue and one for staging.

D. two circles of​ operation, one for the actual rescue and one for staging.

Managers from several agencies at multiple jurisdictional levels of government coordinate their activities and share command responsibilities in​ a: A. ​high-impact incident. B. closed incident. C. singular command. D. unified command.

D. unified command.

You are communicating with a helicopter pilot on final approach and see that a vehicle has entered the landing zone area and is driving diagonally across it. What would be best to communicate to the​ pilot? A. ​"Please assume holding position above LZ for​ now." B. ​"Be advised to approach from your​ 2:00 position." C. ​"Land approximately 25 feet from vehicle crossing​ LZ." D. ​"Abort landing!"

D. ​"Abort landing!"

The acronym that will help you remember the functional areas of NIMS​ is: A. NWCG B. EOC C. MACC D. ​C-FLOP

D. ​C-FLOP

You have arrived on scene at a rural farm where firefighters have rescued and decontaminated a worker who has been exposed to chemical insecticide. The patient is exhibiting a series of signs and symptoms that match the mnemonic​ "SLUDGE." What are these signs and​ symptoms? A. Shoulder​ pain, leg​ pain, high uric acid​ level, dysuria, groin​ pain, and eye pain B. Shortness of​ breath, lethargy,​ under-eye circles,​ dyspnea, gastroenteritis, and excessive sweating C. ​Stridor, lacerations,​ unconsciousness, dizziness,​ gas, and edema D. ​Salivation, lacrimation,​ urination, diarrhea, gastrointestinal​ distress, and emesis

D. ​Salivation, lacrimation,​ urination, diarrhea, gastrointestinal​ distress, and emesis

Once substances enter the bronchial​ tree, they can be absorbed​ quickly, especially​ in: A. ​oxygen-rich atmospheres. B. a confined space. C. an open space. D. ​oxygen-deficient atmospheres.

D. ​oxygen-deficient atmospheres.

The water rescue model​ is: A. ​go-throw-reach-row. B. ​throw-go-reach-row. C. ​reach-row-throw-go. D. ​reach-throw-row-go.

D. ​reach-throw-row-go.

Which incident would typically be termed a​ high-impact incident? A. A tornado that destroys a shopping center B. A​ four-car accident C. A motocross race accident involving multiple drivers D. A shooting incident wounding three people

A. A tornado that destroys a shopping center

Which of the following is considered a Type I ambulance​ chassis? A. Conventional truck cab B. Specialty van C. Ford van D. ​Medium-duty 4WD

A. Conventional truck cab

The technician level of training in hazardous materials is equivalent​ to: A. EMS level 2. B. a hazardous materials operational level training. C. EMS level 1. D. EMS level 3.

A. EMS level 2.

The optimal span of control for an incident commander involves how many​ people? A. Five B. Two C. Three D. Seven

A. Five

In a​ multiple-casualty incident, which person has full legal authority to deal with the​ situation? A. Incident commander B. Fire chief C. FEMA D. Liaison officer

A. Incident commander

How do nerve agents affect the​ body? A. Inhibit the degradation of​ acetylcholine, resulting in nervous system overload B. Prevent the breakdown of monoamine​ oxidase, overstimulating the sympathetic nervous system C. Interfere with impulse transmission and interrupt the central nervous​ system's control of the organs D. Enhance the breakdown of monoamine​ oxidase, causing parasympathetic nervous system domination

A. Inhibit the degradation of​ acetylcholine, resulting in nervous system overload

Approximately how many victims of violent crimes require medical​ attention, often by emergency medical​ services? A. One in six B. Three in twelve C. Two in four D. Nine in ten

A. One in six

Which of the following statements regarding rescue situations is​ true? A. Rescue is a​ patient-driven event. B. All EMS crews have the training to perform rescues. C. Rescue skills do not involve specialized knowledge. D. Every paramedic should have detailed knowledge of every rescue specialty.

A. Rescue is a​ patient-driven event.

What is the management system or philosophy that takes the basic tenets of​ good, sound management and adapts them to the needs of the emergency​ scene? A. The Incident Command System​ (ICS) B. The national consensus standard C. The START system D. ​Scene-authority management

A. The Incident Command System​ (ICS)

Agents consisting of either living organisms or toxins produced by living organisms are known​ as: A. biological agents. B. incapacitating agents. C. pulmonary agents. D. nerve agents.

A. biological agents.

The act of evading someone by moving behind solid impenetrable objects to escape an armed encounter is known​ as: A. cover. B. concealment. C. distraction. D. body armor.

A. cover.

Staphylococcal enterotoxin is produced by a​ bacterium, Staphylococcus aureus​, and is the agent most commonly responsible for food poisoning. A. food poisoning. B. tuberculosis. C. botulism. D. pulmonary edema.

A. food poisoning.

A backcountry survival pack should include PPE​ for: A. inclement weather. B. cuts and punctures. C. fire hazards. D. water hazards.

A. inclement weather.

When an aircraft is using instruments to​ fly, this condition is known​ as: A. instrument flight rules. B. a guided systems approach. C. terrain avoidance systems. D. poor meteorological conditions.

A. instrument flight rules.

In rural areas of the United​ States, the paramedic may find employment at alternative health care facilities that provide limited care and nonemergent medical treatment​ called: A. prompt care facilities. B. external emergent care programs. C. health departments. D. open wall hospitals.

A. prompt care facilities.

Vehicle collisions in which there is a personal injury or over​ $1,000 in damage are​ called: A. reportable collisions. B. felony collisions. C. termination for cause collisions. D. chargeable collisions.

A. reportable collisions.

The addition of technology such as​ high-intensity spotlights,​ forward-looking infrared​ (FLIR), and night vision goggles​ (NVG) makes helicopters a valuable asset​ in: A. search and rescue operations. B. interfacility transport. C. specialty care. D. organ procurement.

A. search and rescue operations.

A pilot is using visual clues to keep orientation to the ground and the horizon. This type of flying is known as flying​ under: A. visual flight rules. B. optimal meteorological rules. C. visual meteorological conditions. D. visual scanning.

A. visual flight rules.

Which of the following is an example of an incendiary​ agent? A. Dynamite B. A Molotov cocktail made with gasoline C. Plastic explosives D. Fertilizer and diesel fuel mixture

B. A Molotov cocktail made with gasoline

Which of the following statements about the general health of individuals living in rural locations is most​ correct? A. Chronic conditions are often identified earlier by PCPs. B. A disproportionate number of chronic health conditions are likely to exist. C. Acute conditions rarely happen in rural settings. D. Acute conditions are often managed more efficiently in a rural community owing to a smaller population.

B. A disproportionate number of chronic health conditions are likely to exist.

What is the START​ system? A. A mutual aid assignment system B. A widely used triage system C. The mass casualty incident staging plan D. A common mass casualty incident response system

B. A widely used triage system

Which incident would typically be termed​ disaster-related? A. A bomb threat at a school B. An earthquake C. A tornado D. A structural collapse at a construction site

B. An earthquake

Which statement most accurately defines a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. Any incident that involves three or more victims B. Any incident that depletes the available​ on-scene resources at any given time C. Any incident that involves seven or more victims D. Any incident that requires both law enforcement and an ambulance

B. Any incident that depletes the available​ on-scene resources at any given time

Which of the following is an example of a biological weapon of mass​ destruction? A. Sarin B. Botulinum C. Phosgene oxime D. Lewisite

B. Botulinum

What more recent form of youth violence places victimized youth at increased risk for mental health problems such as depression and​ anxiety, psychosomatic complaints such as​ headaches, and poor school​ adjustment? A. Pedophilia B. Bullying C. Gang violence D. School violence

B. Bullying

Which of the following groups sets guidelines that are voluntary for ambulance services to​ follow? A. Department of Transportation B. Commission on Accreditation for Ambulance Services C. State governing EMS board D. National Traffic Safety Administration

B. Commission on Accreditation for Ambulance Services

What federal document specifies the way ambulances​ look? A. Transportation design document B. DOT KKK 1822F specs C. DOT Regulation K D. NHTSA design spec

B. DOT KKK 1822F specs

All emergency services agencies will eventually develop and implement a comprehensive Incident Management System​ (IMS) that adopts the standards as prescribed by​ the: A. National Fire Protection Association​ (NFPA). B. Department of Homeland Security​ (DHS). C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration​ (OSHA). D. Environmental Protection Agency​ (EPA).

B. Department of Homeland Security​ (DHS).

Which of the following activities on the scene of a technical rescue incident is limited to the active rescue​ zone? A. Rescuer resource staging B. Disentanglement of the patient from a cause of entrapment C. Staging of rescue equipment prior to being used in the disentanglement phase D. The incident command post where operational decisions are made

B. Disentanglement of the patient from a cause of entrapment

At which of the following hazmat levels should a paramedic be trained to before being able to function in the warm zone of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Hazmat operations level B. EMS level 2 C. Awareness level D. EMS level 1

B. EMS level 2

Which statement regarding weapon of mass destructions is​ true? A. EMS personnel should be able to contain or neutralize​ biological, chemical, and radiologic agents before they cause mass harm. B. EMS personnel must be able to recognize various types of weapons of mass​ destruction, including​ biological, chemical, and radiologic agents. C. In the event that a weapon of mass destruction is​ used, EMS personnel responding to the scene are all effectively law enforcement personnel. D. Weapons of mass destruction largely target​ structures, although EMS personnel may be called upon to treat patients injured in the attacks on those structures.

B. EMS personnel must be able to recognize various types of weapons of mass​ destruction, including​ biological, chemical, and radiologic agents.

Why would survival rates for​ out-of-hospital cardiac arrests be lower for residents of rural America than for residents of larger​ cities? A. Too many 911 calls tie up the lines. B. EMS response is generally longer in rural areas because of physical distances. C. Hospitals are ill prepared to handle patients in cardiac arrest. D. EMS personnel in rural America are poorly educated and inexperienced.

B. EMS response is generally longer in rural areas because of physical distances.

What aspect of EMS communications may be absent in some rural EMS​ systems? A. ​Ambulance-mounted radio equipment B. Emergency 911 access number C. EMS dispatchers D. Radio signal repeater towers

B. Emergency 911 access number

Which of the following statements is most accurate as it relates to a rescue​ situation? A. In most rescue​ operations, patient care will take a priority over the rescue portion of the operation. B. In any rescue situation in which the patient can be safely​ accessed, treatment will begin before the patient is freed. C. Care should not be initiated until the patient is free from the entrapment. D. Patient care should be initiated only if the patient can be extricated within the Golden Hour.

B. In any rescue situation in which the patient can be safely​ accessed, treatment will begin before the patient is freed.

What is the primary objective of the foreign or domestic terrorist using​ chemical, biological,​ radiologic, nuclear, and explosive​ (CBRNE) weapons? A. Kill large groups of the general population. B. Incite terror in the public. C. Damage infrastructure. D. Kill responders with secondary acts.

B. Incite terror in the public.

In an automobile extrication​ situation, which type of glove provides the best protection against injury from jagged metal and broken​ glass? A. Vinyl B. Leather C. Nitrile D. Cotton

B. Leather

A method in which terrorists may choose to increase the effectiveness of their weapons of mass destruction is incorporating other agents with explosives. Which of the following is not an example of this​ method? A. Placing nails coated with rat poison around the explosive charge to increase the severity of the wound hemorrhage B. Placing a container of a chemical agent inside of the explosive charge C. Surrounding the explosive charge with scrap​ metal, nails, or screws that act as shrapnel D. Placing the explosive charge against an old automobile battery

B. Placing a container of a chemical agent inside of the explosive charge

Why are helicopters better able to respond in some disaster situations than ground​ ambulances? A. Ground units are not typically used when responding to​ large-scale disasters. B. Roads and other means of ingress or egress by ground may be destroyed. C. Ground transport may need a staging area. D. There may be multiple casualties.

B. Roads and other means of ingress or egress by ground may be destroyed.

The type of ambulance classification that is a specialty van configuration​ is: A. Type II. B. Type III. C. Type I. D. ​Medium-duty.

B. Type III.

Which statement is​ true? A. EMS can usually predict when violent events will occur. B. You have a higher risk of being injured in traffic than by a violent act. C. Many EMS calls involve the threat of violence. D. An awareness of the potential for violence is only necessary in some situations.

B. You have a higher risk of being injured in traffic than by a violent act.

At a hazmat​ incident, paramedics​ may: A. control the spread of hazardous materials. B. activate the Incident Command System​ (ICS). C. perform both defensive and offensive hazmat functions. D. contain the hazardous materials.

B. activate the Incident Command System​ (ICS).

A​ fixed-wing aircraft is defined​ as: A. a helicopter whose blades do not sag when parked. B. an airplane that uses fixed wings to generate lift. C. an aircraft that uses a rotor system to generate lift. D. a helicopter that has at least four blades on top.

B. an airplane that uses fixed wings to generate lift.

The process of​ cutting, manipulating, or removing debris or components that are preventing a victim from being removed best​ defines: A. active rescuing. B. disentanglement. C. extrication. D. disassembly.

B. disentanglement.

The primary purpose of the Mark I kit is to treat both military and first responders for the effects​ of: A. pulmonary agents such as phosgene or chlorine. B. nerve agents including soman or tabun. C. vesicants agents including lewisite and phosgene oxime. D. biotoxin agents such as ricin and trichothecene enterotoxin.

B. nerve agents including soman or tabun.

High visibility is best provided by the​ color: A. white. B. orange. C. blue. D. brown.

B. orange.

When a person or equipment comes in direct contact with a hazardous​ substance, this is known​ as: A. ​cross-contamination. B. primary contamination. C. secondary contamination. D. direct exposure.

B. primary contamination.

The essential equipment carried on an ambulance is determined by​ the: A. protocols. B. state EMS code. C. medical director. D. EMS​ director/chief.

B. state EMS code.

Structures of all types can contain hazardous substances. A visual recognition aid used to identify hazardous materials within a fixed facility​ is: A. DOT ERG and MSDS papers. B. the NFPA 704 System. C. CAMEO. D. the bill of lading.

B. the NFPA 704 System.

Helicopter transport of patients was responsible for not only transport but also improved treatment of wounded soldiers due to​ in-flight care​ during: A. World War II. B. the Vietnam War. C. the Korean War. D. World War I.

B. the Vietnam War.

You and your partner respond to a scene at which multiple people are presenting with​ choking, coughing, and vomiting that seem to be related to the release of a chemical agent in the area. You should expect​ that: A. the agent will already have dissipated and its effects will be contained to these patients. B. the response to this event will involve multiple agencies and jurisdictions. C. these patients have been contaminated but are not a contamination risk themselves. D. you will need law enforcement involvement only if the chemical agent was released as part of an attack.

B. the response to this event will involve multiple agencies and jurisdictions.

A vehicle that is an ambulance and a rescue vehicle that is designed to handle heavier loads and has a gross weight of​ 24,000 pounds is classified as this type of vehicle. A. Heavy rescue B. ​Medium-duty ambulance rescue vehicle C. Type II D. Type III

B. ​Medium-duty ambulance rescue vehicle

Which division of incident command support is responsible for ensuring that resource sharing between involved departments is​ fulfilled? A. Operations section B. ​Planning/intelligence section C. ​Finance/administration section D. Logistics section

B. ​Planning/intelligence section

A helicopter that uses four blades to generate lift may also be referred to as​ a: A. fixed​ four-bladed aircraft. B. ​rotor-wing aircraft. C. ​four-propped system. D. ​fixed-wing aircraft.

B. ​rotor-wing aircraft.

An average of how many youth homicides occurs in the United States every​ day? A. 10 B. 24 C. 16 D. 34

C. 16

Which incident would typically be termed a​ low-impact incident? A. An explosion at a manufacturing plant B. A tornado that destroys a shopping center C. A​ three-car accident D. A building collapse

C. A​ three-car accident

Which of the following groups has a higher risk for substance​ abuse, academic​ problems, and violence in later adolescence and​ adulthood? A. Victims of violence B. Special education students C. Bullies D. Gang members

C. Bullies

​Historically, and in the foreseeable​ future, which of the following methods would most likely be utilized by terrorists for an​ attack? A. Nuclear detonation B. Chemical agent C. Explosives D. Incendiaries

C. Explosives

What is the expected change in the occurrence of transporting trauma victims from a rural area to a larger urban​ facility? A. Stay the same B. Slightly decrease C. Increase D. Sharply decrease

C. Increase

What causes burn injury in an explosive​ attack? A. Projectiles B. Debris C. Secondary combustion D. The blast pressure wave

C. Secondary combustion

In which service or agency did the origin of incident management have its​ roots? A. The EMS system B. FEMA C. The fire service D. The military

C. The fire service

What information can be gathered by using blood spatter​ evidence? A. The weight of the attacker B. The caliber of the firearm C. The type of weapon used D. The time of the assault

C. The type of weapon used

What is not an advantage of​ fixed-wing aircraft? A. They may have a pressurized cabin. B. They can fly faster than helicopters. C. They can land almost anywhere. D. They usually can transport several patients at a time.

C. They can land almost anywhere.

Helicopters were first introduced into EMS to assist with treating which type of​ patients? A. Medical B. Heart attack C. Trauma D. Pediatric

C. Trauma

A biotoxin​ is: A. a toxin that is specifically selected to incapacitate but not injure or harm the recipient. B. a toxin that can be spread only through inhalation. C. a toxin that is produced by living organisms but that is itself not alive. D. acetylcholine.

C. a toxin that is produced by living organisms but that is itself not alive.

An emergency responder who may perform patient care in the warm zone on patients who still present a significant risk of secondary contamination​ describes: A. an EMS level​ 1, or the operations level responder. B. an awareness level responder. C. an EMS Level​ 2, or the technician level responder. D. a hazardous materials specialist level responder.

C. an EMS Level​ 2, or the technician level responder.

The act of evading​ someone's view behind convenient objects to escape danger is known​ as: A. cover. B. escape. C. concealment. D. pinning down.

C. concealment.

A patient who has been exposed to a nerve agent with miosis is​ experiencing: A. nonresponsive pupils. B. dilated pupils. C. constricted pupils. D. normal pupils.

C. constricted pupils.

​Bully: A. is a declining problem. B. only causes social and emotional distress. C. may result in death. D. hurts the bullied but not those who bully.

C. may result in death.

At a hazmat incident involving a chemical​ spill, paramedics are least likely​ to: A. treat and transport exposed patients. B. evaluate decontamination methods. C. neutralize and clean up the spilled chemicals. D. perform medical monitoring of hazmat teams.

C. neutralize and clean up the spilled chemicals.

Signs and symptoms that a patient exhibits shortly after an exposure to a hazardous material are best described​ as: A. the potential effects of a toxin. B. the chronic effects of​ long-term exposure from hazardous chemicals. C. the acute effects of a hazardous material. D. the delayed effects of a hazardous material.

C. the acute effects of a hazardous material.

What type of injuries should be expected from a blast pressure wave created by an explosive​ agent? A. Penetrating or blunt force injuries B. Crush injuries C. ​Compression/decompression injuries D. Burn injuries

C. ​Compression/decompression injuries

Which of the following statements is most accurate about access to emergency health care services for people living in rural​ America? A. Access is greater because of the greater number of rural HAA bases. B. Access is the same as in the inner city. C. Access is greater than in the inner city because there is lower demand for specialty services. D. Access is diminished overall.

D. Access is diminished overall.

Which governing body in the U.S. General Service Administration issues the federal regulations to standardize the design and manufacturing​ requirements? A. Department of Transportation B. Transportation Cabinet C. Highways and Roads Department D. Automotive Commodity Center

D. Automotive Commodity Center

What should be attached to a personal flotation device​ (PFD) so that they are easily​ accessible? A. A needle and thread B. A flashlight and handheld harpoon gun C. A flare gun and three flares D. A​ knife, strobe​ light, and whistle

D. A​ knife, strobe​ light, and whistle

Which of the following is one way in which rural EMS systems have been able to implement 911 systems in locations that previously had​ none? A. By cutting the cost of new equipment purchases B. Through​ door-to-door fund raising campaigns C. Through lowering the wages of rural paramedics or changing EMS from a paid to a volunteer service D. By sharing the cost over multiple EMS jurisdictions

D. By sharing the cost over multiple EMS jurisdictions

What is an accurate characterization of the education needs of EMS providers who work in a​ low-volume rural EMS​ system? A. Education needs are​ low, since the call volume is also low. B. There is a lowered rate of rust out in rural EMS providers. C. Continuing education is paid for by the EMS​ service, which must send employees to larger EMS systems. D. Continuing education is typically not readily available.

D. Continuing education is typically not readily available.

What is meant by the​ "distance factor" in regard to decision making by paramedics who work in rural areas of the United​ States? A. Rural EMS providers must rely heavily on communications with hospitals when deciding the best course of treatment. B. Failure to recognize how long it will take to transport a patient may mean prohibitive fuel costs. C. The paramedic should make critical care decisions only when already en route to the receiving facility. D. Every decision made must include consideration of the physical proximity of things.

D. Every decision made must include consideration of the physical proximity of things.

What is the leading cause of death for​ 10- to​ 24-year-old African​ Americans? A. Gang violence B. Motor vehicle accidents C. Sickle cell disease D. Homicide

D. Homicide

An information sheet that is required by law to be kept on the premises of a fixed facility that contains detailed information about specific hazardous substances being kept on site is​ called: A. a bill of lading. B. shipping papers. C. an NFPA 704 placarding system. D. a safety data sheet​ (SDS).

D. a safety data sheet​ (SDS).

An entanglement in moving​ water, such as fallen​ trees, debris, and other​ objects, that allows water to pass through but easily traps​ victims, rescuers,​ boats, and equipment​ is: A. an eddy. B. an overflow dam. C. a drowning machine. D. a strainer.

D. a strainer.

An emergency responder who may perform patient care in the warm zone on patients who still present a significant risk of secondary contamination​ describes: A. a hazardous materials specialist level responder. B. an EMS level​ 1, or the operations level responder. C. an awareness level responder. D. an EMS level​ 2, or the technician level responder.

D. an EMS level​ 2, or the technician level responder.

Patients in the Korean War were transported by helicopters​ by: A. sitting the patients on the sides belted to the aircraft. B. allowing transport only if patients were able to sit upright in a seat. C. placing the patients in the back of the helicopter with no attendants. D. attaching litters to the skids of the aircraft.

D. attaching litters to the skids of the aircraft.

Toxic substances being metabolized through the liver is a process​ called: A. isolation. B. synergism. C. distribution. D. biotransformation.

D. biotransformation.

If the state governing EMS agency does not have guidelines for the capabilities of spinal immobilization that an ambulance should​ carry, then the Commission on Accreditation of Ambulance Services will expect that agency​ to: A. consult the local trauma center to assist in developing guidelines for the EMS service. B. follow the national paramedic guidelines as determined by the DOT. C. follow the neighboring​ state's EMS guidelines for required spinal immobilization equipment. D. develop guidelines that meet or exceed those of the American College of Surgeons.

D. develop guidelines that meet or exceed those of the American College of Surgeons.

The higher standard expected of ambulance drivers is known​ as: A. standard operating procedure. B. the gold standard. C. a tiered response system D. due regard.

D. due regard.

Several studies suggest that a substantial number of victims of violent​ crimes: A. seek medical attention even if uninjured. B. commit violent crimes themselves. C. report the violence but the crimes are never solved. D. fail to report the violence to the police.

D. fail to report the violence to the police.

Transport times in rural areas​ are: A. generally lower than for other areas. B. about the same as for suburban areas. C. about the same as for urban areas. D. generally longer than for other areas.

D. generally longer than for other areas.

Effect a​ rescue: A. without regard for personal risk or safety. B. alone and unaided. C. without calling on additional resources. D. if you deem the environment safe and you have the training.

D. if you deem the environment safe and you have the training.

A product created from the fermentation of stored crops that poses a particular inhalation risk to paramedics​ is: A. silage. B. carbon monoxide. C. nitrogen gas. D. silo gas.

D. silo gas.

The first nonmilitary helicopter medical evacuation program in the United States was established​ by: A. Air Lift Northwest. B. Flight For Life Denver. C. University Cincinnati Air Care. D. the Maryland State Police.

D. the Maryland State Police.

What demographic group has the highest arrest rates for​ homicide, rape,​ robbery, and aggravated​ assault? A. ​Middle-aged men B. Teenage males C. ​10- to​ 24-year-olds D. ​15- to​ 34-year-olds

D. ​15- to​ 34-year-olds

What principle can EMS providers employ to help ensure that someone is not injured while working around farm machinery that has been turned​ off? A. ​Turn-off/turn-over B. ​Tag-and-run C. ​Turn-off/turn-down D. ​Lock-out/tag-out

D. ​Lock-out/tag-out

A vehicle that has a gross weight of​ 24,000 pounds would be classified as​ a: A. truck cab ambulance. B. heavy rescue ambulance. C. freightliner. D. ​medium-duty ambulance rescue vehicle.

D. ​medium-duty ambulance rescue vehicle.