VSEPR

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Goffman dramaturgical perspective

"front-stage self" involves behaving in ways that align with social norms and expectation

osmotic pressure

"sucking" pressure generated by solutes as they draw H2O into the bloodstream

(10 / 5) = 2

(1) / (5/10) =

Schachter - Singer

(Two- factor theory) - adds cognitive element ; stimulus —> physiological response —> interpretation —> emotion

K - 273 = DEGREES C

****BE CAREFUL WHEN DOING GIBBS FREE ENERGY QUESTIONS BECAUSE DELTA H AND DELTA S WILL BE GIVEN IN K AND THE ANSWER WILL BE IN C

spon

- ΔH and +ΔS

spon at low temps

- ΔH and -ΔS

101.3

1 atm = ____ kPa

760

1 atm = ____ mmHg

10^6

1 m^3 = ____ cm^3

phosphoglycerate kinase

1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate

linear linear

2 bonds, 0 lone pairs

trigonal planar, bent or V-shaped

2 bonds, 1 lone pair

glycogen synthase and branching enzyme

2 main enzymes in glycogenis?

episodic and semantic

2 types of explicit memory

enolase

2-phosphoglycerate to PEP

trigonal planar trigonal planar

3 bonds, 0 lone pairs

tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal

3 bonds, 1 lone pair

trigonal bipyramidal, t-shaped

3 bonds, 2 lone pairs

color, form, motion

3 components of feature detection

Acetylaldehyde, lactate, and acetyl CoA

3 compounds pyruvate will convert to:

P = IV = V^2 / R = I^2 / R

3 ways to solve for power

760

760 mmHg = ___ torr

Answer: 3g/7 __________________ F = ma --> a = F/m specifically, a(system) = F(net)/m(system) ___________________ The sum of external forces = F(net) = 5g + -2g = 3g The mass of the system = m(system) = 2kg + 5kg = 7kg Now going back to the system's acceleration, a = F(net)/m(system)a(system) = 3g/7

A 2 kg mass and a 5 kg mass are connected by a massless cord suspended over a massless and frictionless pulley. If the acceleration due to gravity is g, what will be the acceleration of the masses after they are released from rest?

7

A C16 fatty acid that undergoes complete beta oxidation will produce ___ NADH and ___ FADH2

linguistic determinism

A person's view of reality comes from his/her language. Even though languages are similar, they cannot represent the same reality

Answer: B ______________________ The answer is B because each mole of NADH can reduce a mole of disulfide bonds. Since the protein has four disulfide bonds, four moles of NADH are needed.

A protein contains four disulfide bonds. In order to break these bonds researchers added a minimum of: _ A) 2 moles of NADH for each mole of protein. B) 4 moles of NADH for each mole of protein. C) 2 moles of NAD+ for each mole of protein. D) 4 moles of NAD+ for each mole of protein.

increased water retention and decreased plasma osmolarity

ADH promotes ___ water retention and ___ plasma osmolarity

shape; give us the "what" of an object

paravocellular cells process?

diastole (AV valves are open)

period of the cardiac cycle that encompasses ventricular relaxation

ascending limb

permeable to salt but not water

P = W/t

power, work, and time equation

polar protic

Acetic acid

imine

primary amine + aldehyde or ketone =?

anhydrides

reactions involving carboxylic acids and acid chlorides commonly form what?

Feature detection

Breaking down an object into its components and thus helps make sense of what you are looking at

central executive

regulates attention and task switching, and three subsystems

W = Pt

relationship between work, power, and time

DCT

responsive to aldosterone, and is the site of salt reabsorption and waste product excretion

3

CaCl2 dissociates into _____ ions

aldehyde (one alkyl group)

secondary alcohol formation in a Grignard reaction requires what?

pepsinogen and gastric lipase

Chief cells secrete?

hnRNA

Collective term for your the unprocessed mRNA in the nucleus

Branching enzyme

Creates branches with α-1,6 glycosidic bonds

sensory

shortest duration and smallest capacity

polar aprotic

DMF

no

Does Kcat vary with enzyme concentration?

0..5

sin(30)

Kcat/Km

Enzyme efficiency equation

phosphatase

Enzyme that removes a phosphate group

polar aprotic

Ethyl acetate

lipases

Fats are digested by

James-Lange

stimulus --> physiological response --> emotion

phosphofructokinase

Glycolysis rate limiting enzyme

multiply by 760

How to convert atm to mmHg

raising the pH of the solution (adding a base)

How to increase solubility of acids?

1900 - 2200 (medium)

IR Alkyne (C triple bond O) or (C triple bond N)

Δp = F t

Impulse-Momentum equation

RNA pol III

tRNA

anterograde amnesia

Inability to encode new memories

retrograde amnesia

Inability to recall previously encoded information

sympathetic nervous system

Increased skin conductivity, both when anticipating an aversive event and in the startle response when viewing fear-inducing images, is controlled by the _________

Bottom-up processing

Information processing model is driven by?

Intensity = Power / Area

Intensity equation

no; add more polar organic solvent

Is TLC good for separating compounds? How can you increase RF?

polar

Is silica polar or non-polar?

no

Is the lac operon is eukaryotes or prokaryotes?

HMG-CoA synthase

Ketogenesis rate limiting enzyme

V = Vo + at X = Xo + Vot + 1/2at^2 V^2 = Vo^2 + 2a(X - Xo)

Kinematic Equations

-1 / Km

Lineweaver-Burk Plot x-intercept

1/Vmax

Lineweaver-Burk Plot y-intercept

bulbourethral glands

Makes viscous fluid to clean out urethra

v = (vmax [S])/(Km + [S])

Michaelis-Menten equation

Answer: B _____________________ There are three amino acids that are phosphorylated in eukaryotes: serine (S), threonine (T), and tyrosine (Y). The nuclear localization sequence of MYOD1 (NDAFEITKRC) contains one threonine (T) that can potentially be phosphorylated.​

NDAFEITKRC The nuclear localization sequence of MYOD1 contains how many potential phosphorylation sites? A.) None B.) One C.) Two D.) Three

Nitrite

NO2-

Nitrate

NO3-

outside

Na+ concentration is higher ____ the cell

Phosphate

Nucleoside lacks what?

Chromatin

Nucleosomes coil together forming ___

Concave real inverted

Object position greater than the focal length

Concave virtual uptight

Object position less than focal length

Scotopic

Occurs at low levels of light

Transduction

Occurs when energy is transformed from one form to another

Answer: A The question asks the examinee to identify one characteristic common to arteries, capillaries, and veins. A is correct because all three types of vessels possess an inner layer of endothelial cells. B is incorrect because only veins have valves. C is incorrect because only certain types of arteries dilate or constrict to regulate blood flow. D is incorrect because the exchange of nutrients with the surrounding tissues occurs only in capillaries. Thus, A is the best answer.

One characteristic common to arteries, veins, and capillaries is the: A) presence of a layer of endothelial cells. B) presence of numerous valves that prevent the backflow of blood. C) ability to actively dilate or constrict in regulating blood flow. D) ability to supply surrounding tissues with nutrients by filtration and diffusion.

aldehydes

PCC turns primary alcohols into?

G6PD

PPP rate limiting enzyme

NADP+ and insulin ; NADPH

PPP rate limiting enzyme activated by? Inhibited by?

Fusiform gyrus

Part of visual system and plays a role in high level visual processing and recognition

Cones

Parvocellular pathway relies on?

descending limb

Permeable to H2O, impermeable to NaCl

Vision that occurs at high light levels

Photopic

Cannon - Bard

Physiological and emotional responses have occur simultaneously and independently

6.626 x 10^-34

Planck's constant

Virtual uptight and same size

Plane mirror image and position

P = F v cos θ

Power and force relation

1/focal length

Power of a lens equation

Power = W / t = F v ______________________ v = speed

Power, work, and force relation

Answer: C

Presumably, hyperglycemia promotes cellular dehydration because: A) glucose, as an energy source, accelerates the osmotic work performed by plasma membranes. B) glucose, as an energy source, accelerates plasma membrane ion exchange pumps. C) glucose molecules raise the osmotic pressure of the extracellular space. D) glucose molecules are exchanged for water molecules across the plasma membrane.

ss binding protein

Prevents the re-annealing of single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA

Post-translational modification

Process in eukaryotic cells where primary transcript RNA is converted into mature RNA. Introns are cut out

unsaturated and no precipitate forms

Qsp < Ksp

solution is at equilibrium, saturated, and no precipitate will form

Qsp = Ksp

the solution is supersaturated, and a precipitate will form

Qsp > Ksp

RNA nucleotides during transcription

RNA pol makes ___ during ____

Polar protic

ROH

Answer: B The question asks the examinee to predict the cell structure in which radioactively labeled uracil will become incorporated if added to a culture of actively dividing mammalian cells. Uracil is a component of RNA. Therefore, one would expect to find the radioactively labeled uracil in cell structures that contain RNA. B is the best answer because ribosomes contain rRNA and proteins. A is incorrect because chromosomes, by definition, consist primarily of proteins and DNA. Although DNA is composed of nucleic acids, DNA contains thymine instead of uracil. C and D are incorrect because RNA is not an integral component of either lysosomes (C) or the nuclear membrane (D). Thus, B is the best answer.

Radioactively labeled uracil is added to a culture of actively dividing mammalian cells. In which of the following cell structures will the uracil be incorporated? _ A) Chromosomes B) Ribosomes C) Lysosomes D) Nuclear membrane

higher

Reducing agents undergo a change to a ___ oxidation state

Power = work / time

Relate power and work

the greater the E°, the larger the strength of the oxidizing agent which means it is more easily reduced (take electrons from other species)

Relationship between E° (standard reduction potential values) and the strength of an oxidizing agent

Glycogen phosphorylase

Removes single glucose 1-phosphate molecules by breaking α-1,4 glycosidic bonds

R = ρL/A _____________ R, resistance / Ω ρ, resistivity / Ωm L, length / m A, cross section area / m2

Resistivity equation:

linearly

Resistivity is ____ proportional to Temperature

(R1 x R2) / (R1 + R2)

Resistors in parallel formula

Voltage

Resistors in parallel have the same what?

Endoderm

Respiratory system is derived from

Meissner

Respond to light touch

Ruffini

Respond to stretch

DCT

Responsive to aldosterone and is a site of salt reabsorption and waste product excretion, like the PCT

Sulfide

S 2-

size

SDS PAGE solely separates proteins based on?

Sulfite

SO3 2-

Sulfate

SO4 2-

temporal summation

Same space / Different time

proprioception

Sense of the position of the body in space

Form

Shape and boundaries of an object

Positive sense

Single-stranded virus that can get replicated by the host cell

Negative sense

Single-stranded virus where RNA replicase must synthesize a complementary strand which can be translated

Amplitude

Sound intensity depends on?

Ruffini

Stretch

1

The citric acid cycle requires ____ ADP and produces ___ ATP

1

The citric acid cycle requires ____ FAD and produces ___ FADH2

3

The citric acid cycle requires ____ NAD+ and produces ___ NADH

Answer: A In the Watson and Crick model of DNA structure, the nitrogenous bases form hydrogen bonds with each other in a 1:1 ratio: guanine pairs with cytosine, and adenine pairs with thymine. This implies that the amount of guanine and cytosine would be the same, and the amount of adenine and thymine would be the same. Thus, A is the best answer.

The discovery that the amount of thymine equals that of adenine and the amount of guanine equals that of cytosine in a given cell provides supporting evidence that: _ A) the Watson and Crick model of DNA is correct. B) DNA is the genetic material. C) the genetic code is universal. D) the code for one amino acid must be a triplet of bases.

the radius of the curvature

The focal length of the mirror depends only on __________

Answer: .01 __________________ The difference of two pH units represents a 100 times higher concentration of hydronium ion at the lower pH. Therefore, the ratio is 1/100 or 0.01.

The highest activity occurs at pH 6 and the lowest activity occurs at pH 4. What is the ratio of hydronium ion concentrations in solution at the pH that results in the highest MP activity to that which results in the lowest MP activity?

Mendel independent assortment

The inheritance of one allele does not influence the probability of inheriting an allele for a different trait

Answer: 100 _____________ The intensity level β in dB is defined by: β = 10Log(I/I0), where I is the intensity of the sound and I0 is the minimum intensity audible to the human ear. The question states that βB is 20 dB larger than βA, hence βB- βA = 20 dB. Thus, 20 = 10Log(IB/IA) or Log(IB/IA) = 2. This yields IB/IA = 10^2 = 100

The intensity level of Sound B is 20 dB greater than the intensity level of Sound A. How many times greater is the intensity level of Sound B than the intensity level of Sound A?

Answer: B ________________________ An increase in water conservation would result in higher urine osmolarity and lower blood osmolarity.

The osmolarity of urine in these subjects was 958 milliosmoles/L, compared with an average blood osmolarity of 284 milliosmoles/L. The higher osmolarity of urine suggests that: A.) the kidneys are secreting very little Na+. B.) the kidneys are acting to conserve water. C.) the subjects are on a low-protein diet. D.) the subjects are dehydrated.

Answer: A _____________________________ The answer to this question is A because the pentose phosphate pathway results in the generation of NADPH, which is utilized in reductive reactions

The pentose phosphate pathway results in the generation of: _ A) NADPH, which is used as a reductive agent in cellular respiratory processes. B) NADPH, which is used as an oxidative agent in cellular respiratory processes. C) NADH, which is used as a reductive agent in cellular respiratory processes. D) NADH, which is used as an oxidative agent in cellular respiratory processes.

Turning a rod cell off

The phototransduction cascade is the process of?

Approximate radial size of an electron cloud; n

The principal quantum number is a measure of what?

Answer: B ____________________ - negative symptoms are known for their absence: - ex: not showing emotion, lack of pleasure/withdrawal, lack of communication, etc - you want to identify a medication that would make these symptoms worse, or cause these symptoms to show up - antipsychotics like neuroleptics that are often used for schizophrenic's have a sedative effect and can cause a decline in mental abilities ___________________ Atypical antipsychotics relieve both positive and negative symptoms, but neuroleptics tend to only relieve positive and either worsen or maintain negative symptoms. __________________ Atypical antipsychotics treat schizophrenia without exacerbating negative symptoms

The researchers determined that two participants in the S group were taking medication that may have exacerbated their negative symptoms. Which classification of medication were these participants most likely taking? A) Atypical antipsychotics B) Neuroleptics C) Hallucinogens D) Stimulants

Answer: C _______________________________ Gly, Phe, and Ala all have nonpolar side chains, while Lys is the only one with a charged R-group. Lys side chain has an amino group which can form peptide bonds by reacting with a carboxylic acid group

The side chain of which amino acid can form a bond that is similar to a peptide bond? _ A) Gly B) Phe C) Lys D) Ala

Answer: A _______________ Isoforms are functionally similar, but have different amino acid sequences. This means same genes, but alternative splicing.

The six different isoforms of LEPR are produced by using different: A) exons of the LEPR gene. B) isoforms of the LEPR gene. C) promoters of the LEPR gene. D) protein cleavage sites of LEPRb.

Answer: 2.4 x 10^-2 mol/L ____________________ Pgas = (Xgas)(Ptotal) PN2 = (0.8)(5 atm) PN2 = 4 atm ___________________ Equilibrium (C) = (6.0 x 10 ^-3 mol/L x atm)(4atm) C = 2.4 x 10^-2 mol/L

The solubility of N2 gas in blood is 6.0 x 10 ^-3 mol/L x atm ___________ A diver is using a tank filled with 20% O2 and 80% N2 (by volume). If the pressure in the lungs in 5 atm, what is the expected equilibrium concentration of N2 dissolved in the diver's blood?

cardiac output (CO)

The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called

Thomas Theorem ————————— A child's perception of ghosts will keep him awake even though they aren't real

The way you interpret a situation causes action

VA > VB > VC

There are three bulbs (A-C) connected in series connected to a voltage source. Bulb A is the brightest, and C is the dimmest. How are the voltages across the bulbs A-C related?

Answer: 1 kg __________________ Fb = W = 10 N because the upward buoyant force felt by an object is = to the weight of the fluid it displaces (Archimedes principle) __________________ W = mg m = W /g m = 10 N / 10 m/s^2 = 1 Kg

There is a buoy that floats at the surface above a diver. Assuming the buoy is not pulled by the diver, what is the mass of a floating buoy that experiences a force of 10 N and is 20% submerged?

Answer: D; I, II, and III ________________________ Significant drops in pH would result in protonation of hydrogen-bond acceptors, leading to a loss in base-pairing interactions The presence of positive ions in solution (particularly Mg2+) leads to stabilization of the DNA fold via shielding of the repulsion between phosphate groups within the DNA backbone. The length of DNA strands would also play a role. Longer DNA strands are held together by more hydrogen bonds, meaning that more energy is required to denature the double-stranded DNA

Thermal denaturation experiments can be used to follow the transition of double-stranded DNA into single-stranded DNA. Which of the following parameters affects the Tm of dsDNA in this experiment? I. pH of solution II. Ionic strength of solution III. Length of DNA strands _ A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III

long term potentiation

This describes an enduring increase in synaptic transmission of neurons, which is the neural foundation for learning and memory consolidation. When neurons are repeatedly stimulated, they demonstrate an increased firing rate. An example would be an increase in magnitude of EPSP's

histone acetylation

This enzyme activates transcription and increases accessibility of chromatin and allows DNA binding proteins to interact

Gabriel

This generates an amino acid from potassium pthalamide

ADH (vasopressin)

This peptide hormone increases the permeability of the collecting duct to H2O, which increases H2O absorption. Result: increases BP and decreases blood osmolarity, concentrated urine

LiAlH4

This reducing agent can reduce a COOH or an ester into an alcohol

Social constructionism

This theory focuses on how the meanings we atta h to objects are a result of a collective social agreement or conventions

Thymine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor

Thymine contains __ donor and ___ acceptor

pH = pI

Titration equivalence point

Answer: C

To be an effective therapy, an antisense gene that is incorporated into a genome that contains the target gene must be: A) on the same chromosome as the target gene but not necessarily be physically adjacent. B) on the same chromosome as the target gene and must be physically adjacent. C regulated in a similar manner as the target gene. D) coded on the same strand of DNA as the target gene.

aldehydes into carboxylic acids

Tollen's test turns what into what?

V = Ed E = V/ d = 5 / .03 = 166.7 V/ m _________________ 1 V = 1 J/C

Two parallel electrodes are separated by 3 cm with a 5 V potential difference. What is the magnitude of an electrical field between the two electrodes in ionization type detectors?

Away from fetus and toward the placenta. It carries deoxygenated blood

Umbilical artery carry blood ___ from the fetus and toward the ___. It carries ____ blood

eosinophils

Used in allergic reactions and invasive parasitic infections. They release histamine, causing an inflammatory response

Basophils

Used in allergic reactions. Mast cells are related cells found in the skin

15 min - GC separates based on BP. - compounds with lower BP stay in the gas phase and move through the column quickly - high BP have longer retention time - carboxylic acids have the highest BP --> longest retention time

Using gas chromatography, you had ethanol, acetic acid, and acetaldehyde as results. The time points are 1 min, 2 min, 5 min, and 15 min. At which time was acetic acid most likely eluted?

Answer: 1.9 __________________ refractive index (n) = c / v _________________ c = speed in vacuum = 3 x 10^8 ________________ n = (3 x 10^8) / (1.6 x 10^8) = 1.9

Visible light travels through the output phosphor at 1.6 x 10^8 m/s. What is the refractive index of the material?

depth, form, motion, constancy

Visual cues include

Charles Law (V1 / T1) = (V2 / T2)

What is relationship between volume and temperature?

anterior pituitary

What part of the brain produces endorphins?

hemiacetal

What structure is usually rung open to form an aldehyde?

Answer: B ___________________ "Overextension" is the term for applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance (for example, "doggie" for a cow).

Whenever a two-year-old sees a moth, the butterfly-like pattern on her dress shoes, or hair bows that resemble the shape of a butterfly, she proudly exclaims, "Butterfly!" This process is referred to as: A.) the naming explosion. B.) overextension. C.) categorical perception. D.) bootstrapping.

mitochondria

Where does beta oxidation occur?

Answer: A ______________- The frequency is determined by the source, not the medium through which the wave travels

Which of the following properties of a 2.3 MHz ultrasound wave remains unchanged as it passes into human tissues? a) frequency b) wave speed c) amplitude d) wavelength

Answer: C; southern blotting because it will show the presence of a gene, but not the expression which the question is looking for

Which technique CANNOT be used to analyze gene expression? _ A) Western blotting B) Northern blotting C) Southern blotting D) Reverse transcription PCR

small atomic radius which makes the HF bond strong, and it also has a smaller surface area to localize charge when ionized

Why is HF a weak acid?

Gap junctions

____________ are intercellular junctions that provide cytoplasmic channels between adjacent cells.

glycerol

a three-carbon alcohol with a hydroxyl group attached to each carbon

teratogen

agent or factor that causes malformation of an embryo

no

can glycoproteins cross the membrane?

osmosis

diffusion of water

no, it has to be greater than 1

does a Hill coefficient of 1 mean cooperativity?

polar aprotic

ethyl acetate

lead

how can you stop gamma decay?

it increases it

how does the hydrophobic effect affect entropy?

the resistance increases by a factor of 4, and the current decreases by a factor of 4

if the conductivity is decreased by a factor of 4, how would this affect the resistance and current?

n = c / v c: speed of light in a vacuum v: speed of light in the medium

index of refraction equation

1 / f

lens strength =

RNA pol II

mRNA

% (m/m) = component mass / total mass

mass percent formula

the molecular weight of a molecule

mass spectrometry measures what?

carboxylic acids

oxidizing agents turn aldehydes into?

V = d / t ____________ t = d / v ___________ d = 2πr __________ t = (2π r) / (qBr / m) _________ t = (2 π m ) / (qB)

the velocity of an object in circular motion is qBr / m. What is the time equation?

ΔV = α V ΔT

thermal expansion equation when using volume?

spatial inequality

uneven distribution of wealth and resources across a geographic area

Mesopic

vision that occurs at dawn or dusk and involves both rods and cones

T = 1 / f

wave period

real and virtual

what 2 types of images can plane mirrors make?

complementary DNA that has been reverse transcribed from RNA

what is cDNA?

citric acid cycle

what is the series of reactions that oxidizes acetyl CoA?

blood glucose levels are high (fed state) and is stimulated by insulin

when would fatty acid synthesis occur?

violet 400 nm

which color on the visible spectrum has the smallest wavelength?

Answer: A _________________ Because Sites I and II bind to anionic and hydrophobic ligands, the amino acid side chains should be cationic (R) to form a salt bridge and hydrophobic (L) for London forces.

"Although diverse, the ligands tend to be mainly hydrophobic with anionic or electronegative features, and many commonly used pharmaceuticals fall within this category" Sites I and II are most likely lined with the side chains of which amino acids? A. R and L B. E and Y C. D and E D. D and H

spontaneous at high temps

+ ΔH and +ΔS

nonspon

+ ΔH and -ΔS

20 D _________ - Combined strength of two lenses: S = S1 + S2 - S = overall lens strength - S1: strength of first lens - S2: strength of second lens ___________ - S2 = 30 D - 10 D = 20 D

- Two lenses are combined to make a microscope with a combined lens strength of 30 D - If one lens has a strength of 10 D, what is the strength of the second lens?

2nd order

1 / [A]

760

1 atm = ___ torr

101,325

1 atm = ____ Pa

tetrahedral, bent

2 bonds, 2 lone pairs

trigonal bipyramidal, linear

2 bonds, 3 lone pairs

glycogen synthase and branching enzyme

2 main enzymes in glycogenesis?

Answer: 7.5 Amps ___________________________________ I (current; amps) = Q (coulombs) / t (time) _________________________________ Q (coulombs) = Capacitance (F) x Electric Potential (V) Q = (25 x 10^-6) (3000) = 7.5 x 10^-2 C _________________________________ I = Q/t = (7.5 x 10^-2) / (.01) = 7.5 A

3000 V 25 microfarad If the defibrillator described in the passage were fully charged and the entire charge were discharged through a patient in 10 ms, which of the following is closest to the average electrical current that would flow through the paddles?

tetrahedral tetrahedral

4 bonds, 0 lone pairs

trigonal pyramidal, seesaw

4 bonds, 1 lone pair

octahedral, square planar

4 bonds, 2 lone pairs

trigonal bipyramidal

5 bonds, 0 pairs

octahedral, square pyramidal

5 bonds, 1 lone pair

octahedral

6 bonds, 0 lone pairs

Thurnstone

7 mental abilities

Answer: B A carbonyl group contains a C=O double bond. The first bonding interaction between atoms is always a σ bond. The second bond is formed from π symmetry orbitals.

A carbonyl group contains what type of bonding interaction(s) between the C and O atoms? A.) One σ only B.) One σ and one π only C.) One π only D.) One σ and two π only

Answer: A _______________ The force on the charge is qE and force is also ma. Setting qE = ma and solving for acceleration a yields

A charged particle with a mass of m and a charge of q is injected midway between the plates of a capacitor that has a uniform electric field of E. What is the acceleration of this particle due to the electric field? A) Eq/m B) Em/q C) mq/E D) Emq

Answer: A _____________ The answer is A because catalytic efficiency is measured by kcat/KM, which means that a higher KM and a lower kcat gives the lowest efficiency.

A combination of KM and kcat with which relative values is indicative of the lowest catalytic efficiency for an enzymatically catalyzed reaction? _ A) A high KM and a low kcat B) A high KM and a high kcat C) A low KM and a high kcat D) A low KM and a low kcat

2 m in front of the mirror _________________________________ f = r / 2 = 4 / 2 = 2 m

A concave mirror has a 4 m radius of curvature. This mirror will focus distant objects at a location that is approximately?

Answer: C ___________ - a social constructionist sees gender as beyond categories

A constructionist understanding of gender asserts that categories of gender are: _ A) biologically determined and immutable. B) binary and the product of ingrained socialization processes. C) fluid and subject to social processes of meaning-making. D) binary, yet interchangeable depending on context.

Answer: D ________ Patients with Parkinson's disease already have insufficient dopamine levels. Therefore, a drug that blocks dopamine receptors will further reduce dopamine's impact, and worsen the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors.

A dopamine antagonist will most likely lead to: A.) increased hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. B.) increased delusions in patients with schizophrenia. C.) decreased mobility and decreased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease. D.) decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease.

Answer: B The fibers that attach to the chromosomes in mitosis and form the mitotic spindle (the spindle fibers) are microtubules. They are assemblies of tubulin proteins. Disruption of the mitotic spindle by drugs prevents the proper segregation of chromosomes into the daughter cells and usually results in unequal numbers being distributed to the two daughter cells. Many of the resulting plant cells would have more than two sets of chromosomes, thus making answer choice B the correct answer. While a plant might differ from its parent plants in the number of chromosomes, it would contain the same genes. Only in a limited sense would it have more genetic variability. Thus, answer choice A is incorrect. Answer choice C is incorrect because tubulin is not found in the cell wall. Answer choice D is incorrect because tubulin has only a minor role in motility, thus making independent movement unlikely.

A drug that binds to tubulin molecules of plant cells and prevents the cells from assembling spindle microtubules would most likely cause the resulting plants or plant cells to have: A) greater genetic variability than the parent plants. B) more than two sets of chromosomes. C) a stronger cell wall because of excess tubulin. D) independent movement because of excess tubulin.

Answer: 200 J ____________________ The easiest way to calculate the work in this pulley problem is to multiply the net force on the weight mg by the distance it is raised: 4 kg × 10 m/s2 × 5 m = 200 J.

A force F is used to raise a 4-kg mass M from the ground to a height of 5 m. What is the work done by the force F?

Answer: D Glucocorticoid secretion by the adrenal cortex increases with stress, so it is unlikely that it would decrease in someone who was under the emotional and physical stress that situation suggests, so option A is incorrect. The need to conserve water in the body would lead to an increase in aldosterone secretion that would promote the retention of sodium ions. The retention of sodium ions would in turn promote the osmotic reabsorption of water by the kidneys so option B is incorrect. Insulin is responsive to levels of glucose in the blood. No information is given about the hiker's food supply, but it is reasonable to assume that insulin levels would not be increasing due to increased glucose levels in the blood so option C is incorrect. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin) secretion would increase to enhance the permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney to promote water reabsorption and excretion of more concentrated urine. Therefore, response D is the best answer.

A hiker becomes lost and has no drinking water for 2 days. At the end of this time, which of the following changes in hormone production would be expected to be significant in this individual? _ A) Decreased glucocorticoid secretion B) Decreased aldosterone secretion C) Increased insulin secretion D) Increased antidiuretic hormone secretion

acid-base extraction; organic layer

A mixture of organic molecules with acidic and basic functional groups can be separated by ___. These acid and base components are initially in the ___ layer

stronger

A more negative reduction potential indicates a ____ reducing agent

Answer: 8 _______________________ 2x2x2 because two copies of each gene as it is heterozygous

A particular diploid organism is heterozygous in each of 3 unlinked genes. Considering only these 3 genes, how many different types of gametes can this organism produce?

Answer: D ____ They have a problem breaking down glycogen

A patient experiences fasting hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and ketosis. His doctor diagnosed him with a glycogen storage disease. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be deficient? a) branching enzyme b) glycogen synthase c) glucokinase/hexokinase d) glucose-6-phosphate

Answer: B __________________ In order for a postsynaptic cell to produce an action potential, its membrane potential must reach a threshold potential. In the described cell, this requires a shift in membrane potential from -65 mV (its resting membrane potential) to -55 mV (its threshold potential). This will be achieved by a depolarizing stimulus, which increases membrane potential. However, the described stimulus will hyperpolarize the membrane by shifting the membrane potential from -65 mV to -80 mV. The resulting hyperpolarization is associated with inhibition of the postsynaptic cell and an inability of the cell to generate an action potential.

A postsynaptic cell has a resting membrane potential of -65mV with a threshold potential of -55mV. Will an action potential be generated by a single stimulus that lowers the membrane potential of the postsynaptic cell by 15mV? A.) Yes, because the stimulus caused the membrane potential to exceed the threshold potential B.) No, because the stimulus hyperpolarized the membrane, producing an inhibitory effect C.) Yes, because the stimulus had an excitatory effect on the postsynaptic membrane D.) No, because the depolarizing effect of the stimulus did not exceed the threshold potential

Answer: A _______________ The answer is A because a protein with a low pI would be negatively charged at pH 7. This protein, being anionic, would bind to an anion exchange column (eliminates choices C and D). Largest negative net charge implies the presence of a large quantity of negatively charged amino acids, allowing the protein to bind tightly to the column. A high concentration of NaCl would be required for elution (eliminates choice B). This is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you must understand how the design of ion-exchange chromatography experiments affects the separation of proteins with various charges.

A protein with which properties will most likely have the largest negative net charge at pH 7? _ A) A protein that binds to an anion-exchange column at pH 7 and requires a high concentration of NaCl for elution B) A protein that binds to an anion-exchange column at pH 7 and requires a moderate concentration of NaCl for elution C) A protein that binds to a cation-exchange column at pH 7 and requires a high concentration of NaCl for elution D) A protein that binds to a cation-exchange column at pH 7 and requires a moderate concentration of NaCl for elution

0 because there is no relative motion between the jets, there is no frequency shift.

A receiver is in a jet flying alongside another jet that is emitting 2.0 x 106 Hz radio waves. If the jets fly at 268 m/s, what is the change in frequency detected at the receiver?

oxidation and loses electrons

A reducing agent undergoes ___ and ___ electrons

The corpus callosum

A researcher is testing neurological function. When a word is flashed in a patient's right visual field, they can correctly vocalize what they saw. However, when a word is flashed in their left visual field, they cannot vocalize it but can correctly draw it. What is most likely damaged?

This contradicts the James-Lange theory where it states that specific emotions produce specific physiological reactions

A researcher recruited 20 people with broken legs and 20 matched controls. Participants were presented images to provoke positive, negative, or no emotion. If the results show no significant difference between participants with broken legs and control participants in the emotional response, what does this mean?

Answer: B In starvation, the body uses up its stores of carbohydrate and lipids, and then begins to break down body proteins for metabolic energy. A byproduct of the metabolism of the amino acids from protein is nitrogen. The correct answer is therefore answer choice B: the nitrogen in the urine comes from breakdown of the body's proteins. Neither lipids, nor carbohydrates such as glycogen, contain nitrogen, so the excess nitrogen could not come from those sources. The reason animals have kidneys is to provide a way of eliminating nitrogenous waste products. Incomplete reabsorption of nitrogenous products is the goal of the kidney, not necessarily a pathological process.

A resident of a famine area who appears undernourished and extremely emaciated has eaten only starches for the past 3 months. A urine analysis shows that a large amount of nitrogen is being excreted. This is most likely evidence of: _ A) an abnormally high rate of glycogen breakdown in the liver. B) breakdown of the body's own structural proteins to provide energy. C) utilization of the last remaining fat reserves to provide energy. D) incomplete reabsorption of nitrogenous products due to kidney failure.

Answer: A because it is the only one in which there is a mutation in the palindromic sequence. Restriction enzymes only cut in palindromic sequences and since there is a mutation in A, you will be able to detect in in the southern blot

A single point mutation in a gene results in a nonfunctional protein. Individuals heterozygous for this mutation were identified using a Southern blot. Which pair of wild-type (WT) and mutant alleles most likely contains the mutation? _ A) WT5′- TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ Mutant5′-TAGTCGATGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ B) WT5′- TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ Mutant5′-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATAT-3′ C) WT5′- TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ Mutant5′-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATGT-3′ D) WT5′- `TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ Mutant5′-TCGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′

Answer: A; assessing the precision of the results ______________________ An experiment is precise (reliable) if similar results are obtained on repeated trials ___________________ Accurate: if it correctly represents "real-world" value

A specific protein process was measured in a lab. The experiment was repeated multiple times to mitigate error by: a) assessing the precision of results b) verifying the calibration of the instruments c) assessing the validity of the experiment d) verifying the accuracy of the results

Answer: A The question asks the examinee to identify the cell cycle stage in which a stable, differentiated, nondividing cell will most likely be found. A diploid, nondividing cell is most likely in G0 or G1, in which the cell remains metabolically active but is not replicating its DNA (S) or segregating its duplicated chromosomes and dividing (M). A is the only option that lists either G0 or G1. Thus, A is the best answer.

A stable, differentiated cell that will NOT divide again during its lifetime would most likely be found in which of the following stages of the cell cycle? _ A) G1 B) G2 C) M D) S

Answer: C ___________ Any bias on the part of the observers recording the data could have contaminated the original results. In this case, it is possible that proper precautions (for example, ensuring that observers were "blind" with respect to which patients received the drug and which patients received the placebo) were not taken.

A team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company tests a new cancer drug. The researchers have concluded that the drug is effective, but other scientists CANNOT replicate the findings. Which is the most likely explanation for the lack of replicability of the original results? A.) Base rate fallacy B.) Hindsight bias C.) Observer bias D.) Public verifiability

Answer: A ___________________ Whenever a question asks about the strand that encoded the mRNA, the coding strand has the exact same sequence as the mRNA, except you swap out the Us in the mRNA with Ts since the coding strand is DNA. However, the question asked for the original genetic viral code. Since HIV is a retrovirus, this means that it's genome is based off of RNA. So, the coding strand still has the exact same sequence as the mRNA. However, since HIV's genome is RNA-based, we don't swap out the Us, we keep them. ___________________ Okay this is tricky since usually it's pretty customary to switch the U/T's and reverse it and make it complementary bases. BUT, this is not what is happening here. So HIV has a RNA genome (ssRNA positive sense) and they revert back to a DNA using the enzme reverse transcriptase (goes from RNA --> DNA) instead of RNA polymerase which goes from (DNA --> RNA). I think this is information you should know (and I don't see any info regarding HIV being a retrovirus in the passage). The DNA is then making a mRNA which is coding for proteins. You are given the mRNA strand in the passage in the questions tem and asked to find the mRNA strand of the VIRUS (N

A vDNA sequence encoding a protein is inserted into a host genome by IN. The protein is translated from the hypothetical mRNA sequence shown. 5-GGCAACUGACUA-3 Based on the passage, the segment of the original viral genome that encoded this protein had what nucleotide sequence? _______________________________ A) 5-GGCAACUGACUA-3 B) 5-TAGTCAGTTGCC-3 C) 5-CCGTTGACTGAT-3 D) 5-UAGUCAGUUGCC-3

the myosin head from the actin filament ______________________ Usually, ATP is required to break down the bonds between the actin filament and the myosin head. ______________________ After death, ATP is no longer available so the myosin head cannot be released from the actin filament, resulting in the stiffening of the muscles

According to the cross-bridge model of muscle contraction, the muscles stiffen after death because ATP is unavailable to bind and directly release:

polar aprotic

Acetone

creative phosphate

Adds a phosphate group to ADP, forming ATP

Adenine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor

Adenine contains __ donor and __ acceptor

adding high salt concentrations

After cation proteins are bound to the column, how can they be removed (eluted)?

Answer: D ________________________ To answer this question, think about which compounds are needed to enter gluconeogenesis? Or be converted into a compound that can enter gluconeogenesis? __________________________ Acetyl CoA is not used for gluconeogenic purposes, but for ketogenic purposes

After the depletion of hepatic glycogen in newborns, which compounds can be used as precursors to sustain the blood glucose level? I) Acetyl-CoA II) Lactate III) Oxaloacetate IV) α-Ketoglutarate A) I and II only B) II and III only C) I, II,and IV only D) II, III, and IV only

Answer: C

Aging would include declines in all of the follow memories listed below EXCEPT? a) episodic b) flashbulb c) semantic d) source

5.4 g ___________ (0.61 F) x (1 mol e- / 1 F) x (1 mol Al(s) / 3 mol e -) x (27 g Al(s) / 1 mol Al (s)) = 5.4 g

Al(s) --> Al3+ + 3e- ___________________________ How many grams of the Al(s) anode are consumed if 0.61 faradays of electric charge pass between the aluminum rod and the iron pipe?

Answer: D

Aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption by the kidneys. What changes in blood volume and pressure would be expected as a result of aldosterone deficiency? _ A) Increased volume and increased pressure B) Increased volume and decreased pressure C) Decreased volume and increased pressure D) Decreased volume and decreased pressure

Answer: D ___________ Mnemonic: TFLN-Co (Teflon Company) __________ Thiamine pyrophosphate FAD Lipoic acid NAD Co ASH

All of the following are cofactors (coenzymes) to pyruvate dehydrogenase complex EXCEPT? a) thiamine pyrophosphate b) coenzyme A c) riboflavin d) zinc ions e) lipoic acid

Answer:

All of the following biochemical processes take place in the cytosol EXCEPT? a) ketogenesis b) HMP shunt c) fatty acid synthesis d) nucleotide synthesis

Answer: B The question asks the examinee to identify which one of four actions is not associated with normal inspiration in mammals. B is the best answer because the diaphragm does not relax during inspiration. The diaphragm contracts and pulls downward, causing air to enter the lungs. A, C, and D all describe actions that do occur during inspiration. Elevation of the rib cage increases the volume inside the chest cavity (A), reduction of pressure inside the pleural cavity causes air to move into the lungs (C), and contraction of the external intercostal rib muscles helps the chest expand (D). Thus, B is the best answer.

All of the following occur during normal inspiration of air in mammals EXCEPT: _ A) elevation of the rib cage. B) relaxation of the diaphragm. C) reduction of pressure in the pleural cavity. D) contraction of the external intercostal rib muscles.

Beta positive decay

Also known as positron emission

either a strong acid, strong base, or heat

Amide hydrolysis requires what?

Dopamine

Amphetamine blocks

extraction

An ___ combines two immiscible liquids, one of which easily dissolves the compound of interest

Answer: decrease by a factor of 4 ________________________ I (intensity) = 1 / r^2

An audience member experiences sound of intensity I as an orchestra member plays a flute. If the audience member moves farther back so that the distance from the flute player is doubled, the I would?

Answer: B _______________________ The anode is positively charged, so when the electron is traveling toward it, the potential energy between the electron and anode will be converted into kinetic energy. So by the time the electron has nearly reached the anode, it's kinetic energy will be equal to the potential energy it initially had when it was at the cathode. EDIT: The kinetic energy will be slightly greater because the electron was given a small amount of kinetic energy via the photon to knock it loose from the cathode ___________________________ Instead of an atom, think of a hand holding a ball (the "electron") at a certain distance above the ground. That ball has a certain gravitational potential energy, and when it's released it will convert all that potential energy into kinetic energy as it falls to the ground. Answers C and D don't make any sense. You're not going to lose 3/4 of the potential energy as something falls, so C is wrong. There's also obviously not going to be 0 kinetic energy, because it's falling, so D is wrong. Now to decide between A and B, we have to think about the work function. THe work function is analagous to the energy you have to apply to knock the

An electron is ejected from the cathode by a photon with an energy slightly greater than the work function of the cathode. How will the final kinetic energy of the electron upon reaching the anode compare to its initial potential energy immediately after it has been ejected? A) It will be 2 times as large. B) It will be approximately equal. C) It will be 1/4 as large. D) It will be 0.

An enzyme having a high Km shows a low affinity for its substrate. It also requires a greater concentration of the substrate to achieve Vmax.

An enzyme having a high Km shows a _____ affinity for its substrate. It also requires a _____ concentration of the substrate to achieve Vmax.

Answer: D; II and III __________________________ The answer to this question is D because uncompetitive inhibitors bind their target enzymes only when the substrate is first bound to the enzyme. Since at higher substrate concentrations, the substrate-enzyme complex are more abundant, the uncompetitive inhibitor will work most effectively when the substrate concentration is the highest. Additionally, an increase in the inhibitor concentration results in increased enzyme binding and inhibition __________________ Its because uncompetitive can only bind ES complex. If substrate concentration went down, less ES could form, so less uncomp inhibition.

An enzyme is more effectively inhibited by uncompetitive inhibitors when: I. the substrate concentration is decreased. II. the substrate concentration is increased. III. the inhibitor concentration is increased. A) I only B) III only C) I and III only D) II and III only

Answer: D ____________ So this question is mainly based on osmosis. Normally, the concentration of solutes in the blood and tissue fluid is the same (they're isotonic with each other). However, if you inject albumin into the blood, you're placing extra solute into the blood, meaning that the concentration of solute in the bloodstream will now be higher than it is in the tissue (the blood is now hypertonic to the tissue). _________________ Therefore, water (fluid) will flow from the area of low concentration of solutes (tissue) to the area with higher concentration of solutes (bloodstream) to equilibrate the solute concentration. ______________ Because albumin has nothing to do with the immune response, answer choice A is incorrect

An intravenous infusion causes a sharp rise in the serum level of albumin (the major osmoregulatory protein in the blood). This will most likely cause an: _ A increase in the immune response. B increase in tissue albumin levels. C outflow of blood fluid to the tissues. D influx of tissue fluid to the bloodstream.

Mendel first law of segregation

An organism has two alleles for each gene, which segregate during meiosis, resulting in gametes carrying only one allele for a trait

Answer: D An organism that causes human disease is isolated and studies. Researchers would conclude that the organism is a bacterium rather than a virus if the organism reproduces in a culture medium lacking host tissue. Bacteria do not require host tissue to reproduce, whereas viruses do.

An organism that causes a human disease is isolated and studied. Researchers conclude that the organism is a bacterium rather than a virus because the organism: A) undergoes mutation. B) lacks a nuclear membrane. C) contains protein in its outermost covering. D) reproduces in a culture medium lacking host tissue.

Answer: C _________________ When antisense mRNA molecules are used as described in the passage, the antisense molecules bind specifically to the sense mRNA, preventing the process of translation

Antisense nucleic acids, which are complementary to a portion of the sense mRNA, can be synthesized. The antisense molecules will bind specifically to the sense mRNA and prevent the production of the natural gene product. __________________________________________ When used as described in the passage, antisense drugs prevent: A) DNA replication. B) RNA transcription. C) RNA translation. D) cell replication.

Schiff base

Appear when proteins form a covalent bond to a carbonyl-containing compound by nucleophilic addition of an amine to form an imine linkage ____________ They serve as reaction intermediates in enzyme-catalyzed reactions or as covalent linkages

l; This quantum number provides the subshell designators s, p, d, and f.

Approximate shape of an electron cloud is dictated by the orbital quantum number?

Kohlberg

Are stages based on moral dilemmas and explain how children develop moral reasoning

Answer: C _________________ Affinity would decrease with a decrease in plasma pH, and during prolonged exercise, anaerobic respiration would decrease the plasma pH.

As blood passes through actively contracting skeletal muscle tissue, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in the muscle tissue: A.) increases as a result of an increase in plasma temperature. B.) increases as a result of an increase in plasma PO2. C.) decreases as a result of a decrease in plasma pH. D.) decreases as a result of a decrease in plasma PCO2.

It increases ________ The increase in distance between radio wave peaks due to the jet speed causes the received wavelength to be lengthened. This effect is the essence of the Doppler effect.

As the speed of the jet flying away from the receiver increases, what happens to the distance between adjacent peaks of the transmitted waves, as measured at the receiver?

Answer: 10 ________________________ P1 + pgy1 + .5pv1^2 = P2 + pgy2 + .5pv2^2 At point 1 above the fluid the pressure P1 is the atmospheric pressure and at point 2 outside the puncture the pressure P2 is also atmospheric pressure, so these terms cancel in Bernoulli's equation for this situation. pgh = .5 pv^2 gh = .5 v^2 v = sqr (2gh) = sqr (2)(10)(5) = 10

Assume that the side of the water tank is punctured 5.0 m below the top of the water, and that atmospheric pressure is 1.0 × 10^5 N/m2. What is the approximate speed of the water flowing from the hole?

resistivity, length, and cross-sectional area

At a given temp, the resistance of a wire to detect current depends only on what?

Answer: C; Positive punishment Positive refers to adding a stimulus, and punishment refers to a consequence that decreases a behavior. A meeting with the dean was added, and this decreased the behavior (unprofessional behavior), so this is positive punishment.

At one university, faculty members who behave unethically are required to have a meeting with the dean. After their meeting, their unprofessional behavior decreases. What process does this describe? a) Positive reinforcement b) Negative reinforcement c) Positive punishment d) Negative punishment

Answer: C _____________ The answer is C because the anionic peptides bind to anion-exchange columns. The strength of the binding depends on the overall charge of the peptide. Of the options given, only C and D have a net negative charge. The net charge of peptide C is -1, whereas the net charge of peptide D is -5. Peptide C would elute at a lower salt concentration than Peptide D

At pH 7, which of the following peptides will bind to an anion-exchange column and require the lowest concentration of NaCl for elution? _ A) AVDEKMSTRGHKNPG B) YPGRSMHEWDIKAQP C) HIPAGEATEKALRGD D) EAPDTSEGDLIPEVS

pKa

At the half-equivalence point (midpoint), the pH =

prostaglandins

Autocrine and paracrine signaling molecules that regulate cAMP levels. Affect smooth muscle contraction, body temp, sleep-wave cycle, fever, and paon

Kinaesthesia

Awareness of movement of the body

Answer: D ___________ Aside from microglia, all else are adaptive immune responses

Based on the information in the passage, which immune cells would mount the initial immune response to N. meningitidis that results in meningitis? A.) B cells B.) Cytotoxic T cells C.) Helper T cells D.) Microglia

fixed interval

Behavior rewarded after a consistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. For example, employees who are paid a weekly salary receive the same amount of money each Friday regardless of how hard they have worked during the week

fixed ratio

Behavior rewarded after a consistent number of responses. For example, a customer loyalty program awards a free coffee after ten coffee purchases

variable interval

Behavior rewarded after an inconsistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. For example, when awaiting an email, the frequency with which users refresh their in-boxes does not affect when a new email arrives

variable ratio

Behavior rewarded after an inconsistent number of responses, usually some average number of responses. The schedule might provide a reward after four correct responses, then after two, then after three, and so on

all three because hydroxyls., thiols, and amines commonly act as nucleophiles

Between cysteine, lysine, and serine, which can act as a nucleophile?

Depth which is a result of retinal disparity, which is the fact that each eyeball has a different perspective on the world

Binocular cues give a sense of?

Mesoderm

Blood cells are derived from

Answer: C ___________________ Peptidases are enzymes that digest proteins.

By stimulating secretion of peptidases from the pancreas into the duodenum, CCK facilitates the digestion of: A.) fats. B.) protein. C.) nucleotides. D.) carbohydrates.

Answer: D _________ proteases cleave peptide bonds using water

By which mechanism do proteases cleave bonds? a) oxidoreductase activity b) lyase activity c) isomerase activity d) hydrolase activity

Answer: 2.0 atm ______________________ X elemental gas = nH2 + nN2 / ntotal = 6 / 11 = 0.54 _____________________ P elemental gas = (X elemental gas)(P total) = (0.54)(3.7 atm) = 2.0 atm

C4H8N8O8 (s) --> 3CO2 (g) + C(s) + 2H2O(g) + 2H2(g) + 4N2(g) If the decomposition of C4H8N8O8 (s) produces a total pressure of 3.7 atm, what is the partial pressure of elemental gas?

Increased glutamate production

Caffeine inhibiting cAMP breakdown leads to what?

yes through simple diffusion

Can hydrophobic molecules pass through the membrane?

no

Can you use differences in the plane polarizing light of two compounds as a separation technique?

C=C₁+C₂+C₃+...

Capacitors in Parallel Equation

(C1 x C2) / (C1 + C2)

Capacitors in series formula

Av

Cardiac output equation

Answer: B; Variable-ratio Variable-ratio reinforcement schedules tend to produce the highest response rates that are the most resistant to extinction, which is exactly why casinos use them.

Casinos maximize the amount of money that people are willing to put into slot machines by making sure that the slot machines pay out jackpots on a reinforcement schedule that is the most resistant to behavior extinction. These machines most likely use which reinforcement schedule? a) Fixed-ratio b) Variable-ratio c) Variable-interval d) Fixed-interval

Chlorite

ClO 2-

Chlorate

ClO 3-

Perchlorate

ClO 4-

Hypochlorite

ClO-

B

Cluster ____: dramatic/emotional/erratic ; antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic

hydrocarbon and H2 in the reactants, and CO2 and H2O in the products

Combustion reactions typically involve what?

Schiff base

Commonly seen in biochemistry as imine linkages between a protein and a substrate or a prosthetic group. They are formed between a primary amine (eg, of a lysine side chain) and a carbonyl compound

Virtual (upright) and diverting system

Concave lens image and system

virtual, upright

Concave mirrors form ____ and ___ image when the object is placed inside the focal length

inverted, real

Concave mirrors form ____ and ___ image when the reflected object is located outside the focal length

Answer: C; I and III only ____________ Lack of current means no net movement of ions, which only happens when the concentration of ions is the same on both sides of the membrane or there are no ions present that the channel is specific for (K+).

Consider an experiment that consists of two ionic solutions separated by a membrane that contains a ligand-gated potassium channel. The lack of current generation in response to addition of ligand is explained by: I) lack of potassium in either solution. II) the presence of potassium in only one solution. III) equal concentrations of potassium in the two solutions.

A-band

Contains both actin and myosin. Only part that maintains a constant size during contraction

Virtual upright and smaller

Convex image and position

Real (inverted) or virtual (upright) in a converging system

Convex lens image and system

Glycogen synthase

Creates α-1,4 glycosidic bonds between glucose

Cytosine contains 1 donor and 2 acceptors

Cytosine contains ___ donor and ___ acceptors

polar aprotic

DMSO

Avery-Macleod-McCarty

DNA degradation stopped bacterial transformation, not protein degradation

DNA nucleotides during DNA replication ___________ needs an RNA primer

DNA polymerase makes __ during ___

Merkel

Deep pressure and texture sensation in the skin

is that it has a DNA-binding domain that allows it to bind to regulatory nucleic acid sequences in a gene to alter transcription.

Defining characteristic of a transcription factor

K+

Depolarization occurs when ___ ions exit the neuron

At neutral pH, the glutamate side chain is negatively charged, and therefore highly soluble. As the pH decreases, glutamate becomes protonated which neutralizes its charge and makes it less water-soluble under acidic conditions.

Describe how glutamate changes as you go from neutral pH to low pH

an oxidoreductase catalyzes the transfer of electrons to break the bond. To break the disulfide bond in cystine, a reduction step that transfers electrons back to the sulfur atom is required.

Describe the enzymatic cleavage of a protein disulfide bond

Some people are predisposed to having mental illness

Diathesis-stress model

vital capacity

Difference between minimum and maximum volume of air in the lungs

spatial summation

Different space / Same time

Endoderm

Digestive system is derived from

no; lactase digestion does not happen in the colon

Do epithelial cells in the colon lining produce digestive enzymes?

no

Do hepatocytes produce digestive enzymes?

no

Does Km vary with enzyme concentration?

no; it denatures and separates proteins based on size

Does SDS PAGE separate proteins based on charge?

yes; __________ V0 = initial velocity of an enzymatic reaction and at low concentrations of substrate and constant enzyme concentration, adding more substrate will increase V0 until max velocity is reached

Does V0 vary with enzyme concentration?

no

Does Vmax vary with enzyme concentration?

No, it contracts and pulls downward causing air to enter the lungs

Does the diaphragm relax during inspiration?

Double bonds are comprised of one sigma and one pi bond

Double bonds are comprised of _____ sigma and ____ pi bond

Answer: A _____________ During exercise, muscles produce lactate that goes into circulation. The presence of lactate will increase the osmolarity of the venous blood. _______________ Blood pressure in systemic arteries will not affect osmolarity of the venous blood.

During exercise, the osmolarity of venous blood from active muscles will increase as a result of an increase in: A.) lactate concentration in plasma. B.) O2 concentration in plasma. C.) oxyhemoglobin concentration in red blood cells. D.) blood pressure in systemic arteries.

synthesis of ketone bodies, or ketogenesis

During high rates of fatty acid oxidation, primarily in the liver, large amounts of acetyl-CoA are generated. These exceed the capacity of the TCA cycle, and the results are?

Answer: D This question requires that you identify relevant background information. Specifically, you need to know whether the voltage-gated K+ channels and Na+ channels in the plasma membrane of a neuron are open or closed during the different stages of an action potential. When the plasma membrane is at its resting potential, the voltage-gated K+ channels and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed. As triggering events bring the membrane up to its threshold potential, the voltage-gated Na+ channels open and cause further depolarization of the membrane by allowing Na+ to flow into the cell. The voltage-gated K+ channels are closed during the depolarization phase of an action potential. After the membrane reaches its peak potential, the voltage-gated K+ channels open, allowing K+ to flow out of the cell and repolarize the membrane by returning the membrane to near its resting potential. During the repolarization stage of the action potential, the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed. This answer correctly states that during the repolarization phase of an action potential, the voltage-gated K+ channels are open, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed.

During the repolarization phase of an action potential in a neuron, which of the following is generally true of the voltage-gated channels that cause that action potential? A) The voltage-gated K+ channels are closed, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed. B) The voltage-gated K+ channels are open, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are open. C) The voltage-gated K+ channels are closed, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are open. D) The voltage-gated K+ channels are open, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed.

NADH dehydrogenase

ETC complex I

succinate dehydrogenase

ETC complex II

cytochrome reductase

ETC complex III

cytochrome oxidase

ETC complex IV

1.5

Each FADH2 creates how many ATP molecules?

2.5

Each NADH creates how many ATP molecules?

transmission

Electrical activation of one neuron by another neuron

Answer: B According to the item, embryonic mouse cells divide every 10 hours at 37oC. Under such circumstances, and starting with a single egg, x cells would be present after three days (or 24 x 3=72 hours). The number can be calculated by tracking the doubling time: 1 → 2 → 4 → 8 → 16 → 32 → 64 → 128 → 256. At the end of 70 hours (approximately 3 days), there would be 128 cells, assuming that each cell underwent division 10 hours after its previous division.

Embryonic mouse cells divide every 10 hours at 37oC. How many cells would be produced from an egg after three days? A) Fewer than 50 B) Between 50 and 500 C) Between 500 and 5000 D) More than 5000

QV / 2 = CV^2 / 2 = Q^2 / 2C

Energy stored in capacitors equation

R = L / σA

Equation for resistance in terms of conductivity?

Answer: B ____________ f = 1 / T The frequency is 1/(250 ms) = 4 Hz.

Excimer lasers are used in the photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) technique designed to correct vision impairment caused by excess corneal epithelium material. The cornea has an index of refraction of 1.3. Material in excess is removed by vaporization from the surface of the cornea with the use of pulsed laser radiation at time intervals of 250 ms. What is the frequency of the pulses that deliver laser radiation to the cornea? A.) 0.4 Hz B.) 4.0 Hz C.) 25 Hz D.) 250 Hz

Ebbinghaus

First person to look at decay in human memory

Base excision repair

Fixes nondeforming lesions of the DNA helix such as cytosine delaminating by removing the base, leaving an AP site

similar

For a dehydrated person, how would their blood osmolarity compare in terms of their urine and blood?

placenta

For a fetus, where does oxygenation occur?

I (current) = Q (coulombs) / time

Formula for average electrical current that would flow?

λν=c c=3.00 x 10^8 m/sec

Formula for wavelength and frequency

V = Ed Solve for E

Formula to determine the magnitude of an electrical field?

Answer: A The heart and blood vessels both differentiate from the mesoderm. Thus, A is the best answer.

From which germ layer(s) do the tissues of the heart and blood vessels differentiate? I) Ectoderm II) Mesoderm II) Endoderm _ A) II only B) III only C) I and II only D) I and III only

E° cell = E red + E ox __________ 0.46 + 0.9 = +1.36 __________ Δ G° = -nFE° cell _____________ Δ G° = -(2)(96,500)(1.36) ___________ Δ G° = 262,439 J/mol = 262 kJ/mol

GRu2+ (aq) + Cr (s) --> Ru (s) + Cr2+ (aq) Half reactions: Ru2+ (aq) + 2e- --> Ru(s) half reaction 1 E red: +0.46 V _____________________ Cr(s) --> Cr2+ (aq) + 2e- half reaction 2: Eox: +0.90 V _______________________ What is the expected change in the standard Gibbs free energy delta Δ G° for the galvanic cell?

- GC separates based on BP. - compounds with lower BP stay in the gas phase and move through the column quickly - high BP have longer retention time - carboxylic acids have the highest BP --> longest retention time

Gas chromatography retention times

Chromatin

General packing structure of DNA around proteins in eukaryotes; tightness in packaging depends on cell stage

Answer: D Breakdown of glucose proceeds first by glycolysis, then by oxidation in the citric acid (Krebs or tricarboxylic acid) cycle. The enzymes for the former process are located in the cytoplasm and those for the latter are in the matrix of mitochondria. The 14C label, therefore, would first appear in the cytoplasm, then in the mitochondria, as stated in answer choice D.

Glucose is labeled with 14C and followed as it is broken down to produce CO2, H2O, and ATP in a mammalian liver cell. In theory, during this process the label will be detectable: A) in the mitochondria only. B) first in the nucleus, then in the mitochondria. C) first in the mitochondria, then on the ribosomes. D) first in the cytoplasm, then in the mitochondria.

2

Glycolysis requires __ NAD+ and produces ___ NADH

Flynn effect

Growth of IQ in each generation

Guanine contains 2 donors and 1 acceptor

Guanine contains __ donors and ___ acceptor

Bicarbonate

HCO 3-

nonpolar liquid

HPLC: mobile phase

polar

HPLC: stationary

hydrogen sulfate (bisulfate)

HSO 4-

Answer: A _________________ The woman inherited one X chromosome from her father and one from her mother. The father only had one X chromosome to contribute and that X chromosome contained the hemophilia gene. The mother will pass on one X chromosome to her sons, either the X chromosome containing the normal (wild type) gene, or the X chromosome containing the hemophilia gene. The probability of a son receiving the hemophilia gene and being a hemophiliac is 1/2, because there is a 50-50 chance that this son received an X chromosome carrying the defective gene from his carrier mother. The cumulative probability of all three sons inheriting the hemophilia gene would be the product of the individual probabilities, or 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2. Thus, answer choice A, 1/8, is the answer.

Hemophilia, a disease in which the time required for blood to clot is greatly prolonged, is determined by a sex-linked gene. Suppose a man with normal blood clotting marries a woman with normal blood clotting whose father was a hemophiliac. If this couple has three sons, what is the probability that hemophilia will be transmitted to all three of them? _ A) 1/8 B) 1/4 C) 3/8 D) 1/2

pH = pKa + log [A-]/[HA]

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

by converting a proton in the nucleus to a neutron by electron capture (in other words, beta decay)

How can 68Ge turn into 68Ga? (note: Ga is one less at 31, while Ge is one more at 32)

Positive attention from others for initially losing weight motivates them to lose more weight _____________ Behaviorism focuses on reinforcement and punishment

How can a behavioral theorist explain the behavior of a person with anorexia?

decreasing blood osmotic pressureq

How can a student increase the net fluid filtration out of the capillaries?

If they are converted into an ionic salt via deprotonation with either a strong base or a weak base

How can carboxylic acids with long hydrocarbon chains enter the aqueous layer?

increase the amplitude of the wave because sound wave energy is directly proportional to its amplitude squared

How can you change amplitude to produce a sound wave of greater energy?

it increases it

How do high protein levels affect urine osmolarity?

only prolines contain a secondary amine in its backbone

How do prolines differ from the other standard amino acids?

Molecules in a sample are injected into into a mass spectrometer where they are bombarded with a beam of electrons. ____________________________________________________________ This beam removes electrons from the molecule and forms a positively charged ion called a molecular ion. The molecular ion can also fragment to form smaller ions. ____________________________________________________________ An electric field accelerates ions towards a magnet, which deflects them according to mass. ____________________________________________________________ The strength of a magnetic field is gradually changed during the experiment, and each field strength causes ions of a specific mass to reach the detector which all others are deflected into the walls of the tube. ____________________________________________________________ Ions are detected and a mass spectrum is generated. ____________________________________________________________ Y-axis: ion mass abundance ____________________________________________________________ X-axis: mass-to-charge ratio ____________________________________________________________ The mass spectrum can be used to identify the mass of a molecule's fragments by t

How does a mass spectrometry work?

it does not

How does blood pressure in systemic arteries affect osmolarity of the venous blood?

converting a proton in the nucleus to a neutron by electron capture

How is a 68Ga isotope generated from 68Ge? ((**Ga is one to the left of Ge)

spreading out the ight rays before they are refracted by the lens (making the light rays diverge), which is accomplished with a concave or diverging lens

How is nearsightedness corrected?

hydrophobic interactions

How is tertiary structure stabilized?

4; composed of 6-6-6-5 assembly

How many fused rings in a steroid?

Answer: C; 3 ____________ The answer to this question is C because during conversion of α-ketoglutarate to oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle 2 molecules of NADH and one molecule of FADH2 are generated.

How many molecules of reduced electron carrier are generated during conversion of α-ketoglutarate to oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle? _ A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

Answer: 10,000 ________________________ The abbreviation ppm stands for parts per million (parts). Since 1% is one part in 100 parts, the question becomes 1 is to 100 as × is to 1,000,000, where × is the unknown. For the equality 1/100 = ×/106, × = 104 or 10,000. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

How many ppm is 1%?

110 - 70 = 40 ________________ 10 ^ 4 = 10,000 = answer _______________ perceived loudness of sound is logarithmic, so increasing the intensity of a sound by a factor of ten is perceived as being two times louder ___________________ dB = 10 log (I 1 / I 2) ___________________ I 1 has an intensity of 10 dB when it is 10 times more intense than I2 _______________________________ I 1 has an intensity of 20 dB when it is 100 times more intense than I2 ___________________________________ I 1 has an intensity of 30 dB when it is 1000 times more intense than I2

How many times greater is the intensity of the sound from object A (110 dB) compared to the intensity of the sound from object B (70 dB)?

2

How much CO2 does the citric acid cycle produce?

Answer: 7.2 moles ________________________ (.250 L) x (4.8 mol ClO3- / 1 L) x (6 mol electrons / 1 mol ClO3-) = 7.2 mol electrons

How to set this up? 6H2O + 5CLO3- + 3I2 --> 5Cl- + 6IO3- + 6H+ __________________________ If 6 moles of electrons are required to reduce 1 mole of ClO3-, how many moles of electrons are required to reduce all the CLo3- ions present in 250 mL of a 4.8 M ClO30 solution?

Answer: 18 g _______________ (11.2 L H2) x (1 mol H2 / 22.4 L H2) x (2 mol H2O / 1 mol H2) x (18 g H2O / 1 mol H2O) = 18 x H2O

How to solve this? Ca + 2H2O --> Ca(OH)2 + H2 What mass of water is necessary to generate 11.2 L of hydrogen gas if calcium metal reacts with water at standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

Kp = (PN2O2) / (PNO2)^2 _______ 8 = (n) / (0.5)^2 _______ 8 = n / 0.25 ______ Partial Pressure N2O2 = 2 atm

How to solve this? 2NO2 --> N2O4 - Partial pressure NO2 = 0.5 - Kp is 8 atm - what is the partial pressure of NO2?

Answer: 1.6 x 10 ^-1 ________________________ - first find the limiting reactant which is XeF4 --> then convert this to moles ______________________ (41.4 mg XeF4 / 1000 mg XeF4) x (1 mol XeF4 / 207.28 g XeF4) = .0002 mol XeF4 _____________________ (.0002 mol XeF4) x (24 mol HF / 6 mol XeF4) = .0008 mol HF ____________________ (.008 mol HF / .005 L solution) = 1.60 x 10 ^-1 M

How to solve this? 6XeF4 + 12H2O --> 2XeO3 + 4Xe + 3O2 + 24 HF If 41.4 mg of XeF4 is hydrolyzed in 5.00 mL of water according to the reaction above, what is the theoretical yield of HF expressed as the molar concentration in the resulting solution? (note: MM of XeF4 is 207.28 g/mol)

the pH will decrease slightly because NH3 and NH4 act as a buffer

How will the pH of a solution change if you add 1 mL of H2SO4 to 100 mL solution of NH3 and NH4?

less than 16 mmHg because some of the CO2 got consumed. ____________ (0.2 mL)(40 mmHg) = (pCO2 final)(0.5 mL) = 16

How would you set this up? A 0.2 mL blood sample has a PCO2 of 40 mmHg. During analysis, the CO2 in the sample diffuses across a membrane into the E2 electrode containing 0.30 mL of an aqueous solution. At equilibrium, the PCO2 in the combined sample-electrode sample will be?

Power (P) = Energy (E) / time (t) __________________ E = Pt

How would you set this up? ____________ A black hole emits a jet with a power of 100 W. If the black hole has a rotational period of 1 s, what is the energy emitted by the jet during one rotation of the black hole?

-0.116 kJ of heat ____________________________ ΔH fusion = 2.51 kJ/mol --> -ΔH solidification - 2.51 kJ/mol __________________________ (5.74 g P4 x 1 mol P4 / 123.9 g P4) x (-2.51 kJ / 1 mol P4) = -0.115 kJ of heat

How would you solve this? - latent heat of fusion ΔHf - 2.51 kJ / mol - How much energy in the form of heat is released when 5.74 g of P4(l) is solidified?

- forming a bond is exothermic and it releases energy (negative enthalpy) - breaking a bond is endothermic and requires energy (positive enthalpy) - ΔH°rxn = ΔH°reactants - products

How would you solve this? - you are given various bonds (i.e. H-H) and their corresponding bond enthalpies ΔH° (kJ/mol) - For a reaction in which 2 moles of H2(g) reacts with 1 mol of O2(g) to form 2 moles of H2O(g), what is the heat of the reaction?

(5.74 g) x (1 mol / 123.9 g) x ( - 2.51 kJ / mol ) = - 0.116 kJ of heat released

How would you solve this? How much energy in the form of heat is released when 5.74 g of P4 is solidified? **Heat of fusion if 2.51 kJ / mol

Answer: D __________________ the passage indicates that an integrase monomer is composed of 288 amino acids, which will have an approximate molecular weight of 32 kDa (the average molecular weight of an amino acid is 110 Da). Thus, a tetramer will have an approximate molecular weight of 128 kDa.

Human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) integrase (IN) is a viral enzyme that mediates the integration of viral DNA (vDNA) into the host chromosome. IN is a 288-residue protein composed of three domains: the N-terminal domain, the catalytic core domain (CCD), and the C-terminal domain. The CCD contains three highly conserved residues (D64, D116, and E152), and mutation of any of these three residues abolishes IN activity. _________________ An inactive tetramer of IN is expected to have approximately what molecular weight? A) 16 kDa B) 32 kDa C) 64 kDa D) 128 kDa

[A]^ a [B]^b

IP =

saturated, equilibrium

IP = Ksp

the solution is supersaturated, and a precipitate will form

IP > Ksp

1600 - 1680 (weak)

IR: C double bond C

1700 (sharp)

IR: C double bond O

sharp peak at 3300 cm-1

IR: N-H

3600-3200 (strong, broad)

IR: O-H

A would have greater power and current __________________________________ V = IR R = VI Since A and B are in parallel, V would be the same, so I would have to be greater to make up for the reduced R, hence the increase. ____________________________________ P= IV Since the I has increased, P would also increase

If A has a lower resistance to B, how would their power and currents compare if they are in parallel?

Answer: C ________________ inhibition of PPP NADPH inhibits fatty acid synthesis

If G6PD is inhibited, which pathway would be most directly inhibited? a) glycogen synthesis b) ribonucleotide synthesis c) fatty acid synthesis d) glycolysis

Answer: A ________________ The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the surface pressure. ____________________ The normal boiling point is measured at 1 atm pressure. The vapor pressure of a liquid increases with increasing temperature. Hence, the boiling point of a liquid decreases as the pressure on the surface of the liquid is decreased __________________ If a leak develops in the apparatus, the surface pressure will increase, as will the boiling points of both liquids. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

If a leak develops in the vacuum distillation apparatus, the boiling points of the two components of caraway seed oil will: A both increase. B both decrease. C both remain the same. D become more similar.

Answer: C

If a patient is in a coma, researchers would most likely stimulate what? a) Wernicke's area b) parietal lobe c) reticular activating system d) somatosensory cortex

Answer: C ______________________ The gall bladder is an organ that stores bile produced by the liver. The major dissolved components of bile are breakdown products of hemoglobin such as bilirubin and bile salts. The bile salts are amphipathic; that is, they have a hydophobic portion that is soluble only in fats and oils and a hydrophilic portion that is soluble in water. Bile salts allow dietary fats (and oils), which do not dissolve in the watery digestive juices, to form an emulsion of tiny droplets dispersed in the digestive juices. One end of a bile salt molecule associates with the fats and the other with the aqueous solution in the gut. The dispersion of fats in the aqueous digestive juices and aids digestion by making them available to digestive enzymes. Since triglycerides are hydrophobic fats, bile would aid in their digestion, so the answer is C, triglycerides. Removal of the gall bladder would have no effect on digestion of proteins (choice A), polysaccharides (choice B) or lactose (choice D).

If a person's gallbladder is removed, the person should restrict the consumption of: _ A) proteins. B) polysaccharides. C) triglycerides. D) lactose.

Answer: D ___________________ This question requires some prior knowledge of the function of the autonomic nervous system. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system arouses the animal for "fight or flight." Blood is directed away from the digestive system and toward the skin and muscles; the digestive system becomes less active; the heart beats faster and with greater force; the bronchi of the lungs relax to let in more air; and the pupils of the eyes dilate. Rapid removal of acetylcholine from the circulation would inactivate parasympathetic stimulation of digestive secretion consonant with rapid arousal of the animal in an emergency. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

If acetylcholine is removed from the circulation faster than norepinephrine is, which of the following autonomic processes would be most rapidly inactivated? A) Dilation of the pupils B) Dilation of blood vessels in the skeletal muscles C) Rise in blood pressure D) Stimulation of digestive secretions

2 ______ The pH of a solution is defined as -log[H+]. The strong acid HCl completely dissociates in water, so an HCl concentration of 0.01 M means that the H+ concentration is 0.01 M (10-2 M), and the pH is 2. This value is given as choice C.

If an archaebacterial species lives in a pool that is 0.01 M HCl(aq), what is the pH of the water?

higher __________________ It leads to increased water reabsorption by your kidneys. Osmolarity goes down and BP goes up

If blood osmolarity is _____ than normal, your body reacts to replace this water loss by releasing ADH

(2)^2 (for the amplitude) x (2) (for power) = 8 times greater intensity

If both the amplitude of the wave and power were to double, how would it affect the intensity?

Answer: B _____________ Capacitance C is inversely proportional to the separation d between the parallel plates according to the formula C =(ϵ0 ϵr A)/d. _________________ A decrease in the separation corresponds to an increase in the capacitance. __________________ Given that the charge on the capacitor is directly proportional to the capacitance, an increased capacitance results in an increase in the charge as long as the power supply voltage is constant.

If both the capacitor and the power supply in Figure 1 are adjustable, which of the following changes would result in an increase in the charge on the capacitor? A.) Decreasing the area of the parallel plates B.) Decreasing the separation between the parallel plates C.) Removing the dielectric from the capacitor D.) Decreasing the voltage of the power supply

the same because 2^2 / 2^2

If both the distance and amplitude of a wave doubled, how would it affect the intensity?

cation (because they are positively charged in that they are cationic)

If mitochondrial proteins have an alkaline pI, they will be captured by ______ (cation/anion) -exchange chromatography at pH 7

Answer: C _______________ In water, carbonate will undergo the following reaction: CO32-(aq) + H2O(l) → HCO3-(aq) + OH-(aq). Red litmus paper will turn blue in a base.

If red litmus paper is dipped into the Na2CO3 solution, it will: A remain red, because carbonate is an acidic salt. B remain red, because sodium carbonate is neutral. C turn blue, because carbonate reacts with water to produce OH-. D turn blue, because sodium ions form sodium hydroxide in water.

Use Q = CV to get the value of the first Q using 25 μF and 3000 V. Then use this Q value to solve for the voltage using the equation Q = CV where the new C is 30 μF

If the 25 μF capacitor in the defibrillator in Figure 1 is replaced with a 30 μF capacitor, what new power supply setting would produce the same amount of charge? The original had a voltage of 3000 V.

Answer: 5 __________________________ Kb = 10^-5 ________________________ pKb = 5

If the acid dissociation constant, Ka, for HCN is about 1 x 10^-9, what is the value for pKb?

Answer: C; frequency __________________ E = hf

If the energy of a photon is doubled, which of the following properties of the photon will also double? A) Amplitude B) Wavelength C) Frequency D) Intensity

Answer: C; frequency _______________ E = hf = hc / λ ______________ Both amplitude and intensity have to do with waves, not photons

If the energy of a photon is doubled, which of the following properties of the photon will also double? a) amplitude b) wavelength c) frequency d) intensity

Answer: 1:3 _______________________ The magnitude of the electric field E of a point charge is given by kq / r^2 If q is tripled, E would also triple ____________________________ *****The q in E=F/q is the charge of the point experiencing the force in the field, and requires an external electric field to be created independently of this charge. ********On the other hand, the q in E = kq/r2 is the charge of the point creating the electric field

If the magnitude of a positive charge is tripled, what is the ratio of the original value of the electric field at a point to the new value of the electric field at that same point?

Answer: C _____________ An amber codon is a stop codon. If the third codon is replaced with a stop codon, the protein will not be synthesized.

If the third codon in the coding region of the Rdl GABA receptor cDNA is replaced with an amber codon (for example, TAG) and the modified Rdl GABA receptor cDNA is expressed in frog oocytes, functional full-length receptors will: A.) accumulate in the Golgi complex. B.) accumulate in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. C.) not be synthesized. D.) lose resistance to dieldrin.

active transport

If you are at a lower concentration and want to go to a higher concentration

keep the same order, direction, and letters, BUT JUST replace all the thymines with uracils

If you have a 5'-3' DNA strand and want to get its corresponding 5'-3' mRNA strand, what would you do?

Convert to mRNA first where you: keep the same order, direction, and letters, BUT JUST replace all the thymines with uracils __________ THEN, flip all letters (maintaining the order and sequence) to their corresponding nucleotide (keep using uracils)

If you have a 5'-3' DNA strand and want to get its corresponding 5'-3' tRNA strand, what would you do?

enamines

Imines tautomerize to form

decomposition

In ___, a single reactant breaks down

Molecular ion

In a mass spectrum, what is the heaviest ion?

an acid and a base react to form water and salt

In a neutralization reaction, what happens?

Answer: 4/9 __________________ The probability that, of the red F1 beetles, both were heterozygous is 2/3 × 2/3, or 4/9 (only red beetles were selected from and 2/3 of the red F1 beetles were heterozygous)

In a species of beetle, red body color is dominant to brown. Two red beetles are crossed and produce 31 red and 9 brown offspring (F1 generation). If two red F1 beetles are crossed, what is the probability that both red and brown beetles will appear in the F2 generation? (Note: Assume Mendelian inheritance patterns.)

In an anion-exchange column, a negatively charged molecule (hence the name anion-exchange) binds to a positively charged column

In an anion-exchange column, a _______ charged molecule (hence the name anion-exchange) binds to a ______ charged column

mass number (protons + neutrons)

In an element notion with A on top, Z on bottom next to letter X, what is A?

atomic number (number of protons)

In an element notion with A on top, Z on bottom next to letter X, what is Z?

Answer: D V0 is the initial velocity of an enzymatic reaction. At low concentrations of substrate and constant enzyme concentration, adding more substrate will increase V0 until the maximal velocity is reached.

In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction where enzyme concentration is held constant and substrate concentration is relatively low, which kinetic parameter will increase with the addition of more substrate? (Note: Other than substrate concentration, assume no other changes to reaction conditions.) A) KM B) kcat C) Vmax D) V0

feature detection

In an experiment, researchers found that certain neurons in a visual cortex preferentially fire in response to a bar of light that is oriented at a specific angle, and that different neurons similarly respond to bars of light oriented at different angles. This provides evidence for what?

organic on top (also has lower density and is nonpolar)

In an extraction, is the organic or aqueous layer on top?

polar

In an extraction, the ___ layer is the aqueous (water) layer and dissolves compounds with H bonding or polarity

Negatively

In cation exchange, the beads are ___ charged, and this causes ___ charged proteins to elite first

nonpolar

In chromatography, the mobile phase is typically ___ and this causes ___ molecules to elute faster

nonpolar

In chromatography, the mobile phase is usually ____, and this causes ___ molecules to elute faster

polar

In chromatography, the stationary phase is usually ___, and this causes ___ molecules to elute slower

oxidizes

In complex I, ETC _______ NADH to form NAD+

succinate is oxidized to fumarate, and FAD is reduced to FADH2

In complex II, succinate is ___ to fumarate and FAD is ___ to FADH2

component with lower BP vaporizes first

In distillation, what vaporizes first?

The organic layer is on the top, while the aqueous layer is on the bottom. The organic layer is also the nonpolar layer

In extraction, between organic and aqueous layers, which one is on top and which is on the bottom?

Internal validity increases; external validity decreases

In general, as a study becomes more tightly controlled and confounding variables are limited, ______ tends to increase but _____ tends to decrease

Answer: A The question asks the examinee to identify the stages in the human female life cycle between which all the mitotic divisions that lead to primary oocytes occur. These stages occur in the following order: fertilization, birth, puberty, menopause. All of the mitotic divisions that form primary oocytes occur prior to birth. Thus, A is the best answer.

In human females, mitotic divisions of oogonia that lead to formation of presumptive egg cells (primary oocytes) occur between: _ A) fertilization and birth only. B) fertilization and puberty only. C) birth and puberty only. D) puberty and menopause only.

parallel

In longitudinal waves, oscillations of the spring are ____ to the direction of propagation

renin juxtaglomerular cells

In low BP, __ is released from ___

Answer: B _______________ One of the key differences between mitosis and meiosis occurs during their respective anaphases. _________________ During anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids are pulled apart at the centromeres, each becoming an independent chromosome in the two diploid daughter cells. _________________ During anaphase I of meiosis I, homologous pairs of chromosomes are separated into the two daughter cells. However, each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids joined to each other at the centromere. __________________ It is not until anaphase II of meiosis II that the centromere is split and the sister chromatids separate. Thus, B is the best answer.

In mammals, which of the following events occurs during mitosis but does NOT occur during meiosis I? _ A Synapsis B The splitting of centromeres C The pairing of homologous chromosomes D The breaking down of the nuclear membrane

abundance as it represents the y-axis

In mass spectrometry, the height of each peak is dependent on what?

Answer: A ______________ the molecular ion peak normally has the highest m/z

In mass spectrometry, which of the following statements most accurately describes the definition of the base peak? a) the peak with the highest abundance b) the peak with the highest m/z value c) the peak with the lowest abundance d) the peak with the lowest m/z value

Answer: A _________________ Continuous reinforcement refers to reinforcing every response emitted by an individual. ______________ Partial reinforcement occurs when only some of the responses emitted by an individual are reinforced. ______________ Continuous reinforcement is associated with a fast rate of acquisition, but quicker extinction. Partial reinforcement, on the other hand, is associated with slower acquisition and slower extinction.

In operant conditioning, partial reinforcement, rather than continuous reinforcement, leads to a response that is: A.) slower to acquire and more resistant to extinction. B.) faster to acquire and less resistant to extinction. C.) faster to acquire and more resistant to extinction. D.) slower to acquire and less resistant to extinction.

sensory interaction _______________________ This is the answer because sensory interaction is the idea that one sensory modality (eg, vision) may influence another (eg, balance)

In order to balance on one foot, many people need to have their eyes open. This is an example of:

Answer: A Cytochrome c is a heme protein that cycles between a ferrous (Fe+2) and ferric (Fe+3) state during oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, only a single electron is transferred in the process.

In oxidative phosphorylation, cytochrome c acts as: A. a 1-electron carrier. B. a 2-electron carrier. C. a 3-electron carrier. D. a 4-electron carrier.

oxidized; cystine

In proteins, disulfide bonds are formed when the thiol groups of cysteine residues are ____, linking them together to form ____

first order

In the Michaelis-Menten curve, at low substrate concentrations, the reaction is approximately ____ order

beats ______ HR: beats/ min ______ SV: mL / beat ______ (beats/ min ) x (mL / beat) = mL / min = cardiac output

In the cardiac output equation, what cancels out?

the outside is polar hydrophilic, and the inside (middle) is hydrophobic and nonpolar

In the plasma membrane, is the middle part polar or nonpolar?

mass spectrometry

In this technique, molecules in a sample are bombarded with a beam of electrons, producing positively charged ions and fragments of the molecule

James-Lange

In this theory, emotion occurs after a physiological response, not before: we break into a cold sweat and then feel scared

A ____________ the growing polypeptide chain is transferred from the P site to the A site to meet the new tRNA

In translation elongation, the new tRNA enters the ribosome at the ___ site

chemiosmosis

In what stage of cellular respiration is NAD+ neither oxidized nor reduced?

exergonic with low activation energy

In what type of reaction is Keq > 1 and kinetically fast?

Answer: A _____________________________ The nitrogenous base, uracil, combined with the sugar ribose and phosphate makes up the nucleotide uridine. It is found in RNA, but not in DNA. The corresponding DNA nucleotide is thymine. Uridine is incorporated into RNA in the nucleus where transcription of DNA into RNA takes place. RNA is manufactured in the nucleus from a DNA template. Therefore, the correct answer is answer choice A. RNA is necessary for protein synthesis by free ribosomes and those attached to endoplasmic reticulum, but it is not synthesized there, so answer choices C and D are incorrect. Proteins are packaged for export in the Golgi apparatus, but it too takes no part in RNA synthesis, so answer choice B is incorrect.

In which organelle of a eukaryotic cell is the pyrimidine uracil, as part of uridine triphosphate (UTP), incorporated into nucleic acid? _ A) The nucleus B) The Golgi bodies C) The ribosomes D) The endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: B This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is B because action potentials are only generated in postsynaptic neurons when the depolarization stimulus exceeds threshold. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it asks assumed knowledge of how action potentials are generated.

In which situation is neurotransmitter release from a presynaptic cell most likely to stimulate an action potential in a postsynaptic cell? _ A) In any excitable cell, if neurotransmitter binding opens ligand-gated channels at the synapse B) In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds threshold C) In a postsynaptic neuron that expresses a high density of neurotransmitter receptors D) In any excitable cell, if the neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft is acetylcholine

Answer: D ______________________________________ As blood is lost from the circulation, reduction in vessel size helps maintain the necessary pressure to keep the blood circulating to all body tissues. ________________________________________ Vasoconstriction, the narrowing of a vessel, restricts blood flow to an organ and can increase blood pressure, whereas vasodilation has the opposite effect. Increased vasoconstriction is important in maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage. ______________________________________ Vasodilation increases blood flow to both the muscle during exercise and the skin during blushing. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

Increased vasoconstriction has an important role in which of the following situations? A) Causing the decrease in blood pressure associated with fainting B) Increasing blood flow to muscle during exercise C) Increasing blood flow to skin during blushing D) Maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage

Answer: C; glucagon ____________________ The answer to this question is C because exposure to high glucose levels results in elevated levels of circulating insulin which prevents mobilization of endogenous glucose storage. Infusion of glucagon will result in mobilization of endogenous glucose storage thereby preventing hypoglycemia and brain injury

Infusion of which peptide hormone will most likely prevent brain injury in newborn infants exposed to high glucose levels during their fetal development? A) Insulin B) Epinephrine C) Glucagon D) Cortisol

Intensity = Power / Area ________ I = (E / t) / A ________________ E = energy t = time

Intensity equation with unit change

Easier because they tend to have a more negative electrons affinity. ____________ Electron affinity is the change in energy that comes from adding an electron to a neutral atom. ___________ When a stable anion is formed, energy is released, which results in a negative value for the change in energy. ___________ Elements with a more negative electron affinity more readily accepts the addition of an electron.

Is adding electrons to nonmetals harder or easier than adding electrons to metals?

nonpolar

Is toluene polar or nonpolar?

Carboxylic acids

KMnO4 oxidizes primary alcohols into what?

10^-pKa

Ka =

pKa = -logKa ___________ - log (4 x 10^-5) ___________ 5 - 0.4 = 4.6

Ka = 4 x 10^-5. Calculate the pKa

Vmax/[E]

Kcat equation

unsaturated

Ksp > IP

hydrolase

Lactase breaks down lactose in glucose and galactose. What kind of enzyme is it?

Answer: B ___________________ - cross-sectional studies are done at a specific point in time

Later studies focused on the application of motivational theories, including a greater focus on self-determination and cognition. In a study from 2012, researchers applied goal orientation theory to medical students' sense of self-efficacy and confidence regarding their patient interactions and their ability to tolerate frustration. Goal orientation theory states that one engages in learning activities in order to pursue particular goals. These goals are mastery (e.g., to enhance one's knowledge), performance-approach (e.g., to receive rewards or recognition), and performance-avoidance (e.g., to avoid negative feedback). The students completed an assessment after completing a course of physician-patient communications. Findings from the study showed that students with a mastery goal were more likely to rate themselves as being able to handle patient interactions well, and were less likely to report maladaptive coping with stressful situations. ________________________________________ Based on the passage, the data from the 2012 study was MOST likely: A) longitudinal. B) cross-sectional. C) ethnographic. D) experimental.

Answer: D ______________________________ A is incorrect, because we know the basic genetic code is the same in every cell in your body. B and C are therefore also incorrect, because promoters and enhancers are both nucleotide sequences found in DNA, therefore they also will be the same in every cell. The only thing that can be different in adipocytes vs other cells is D. nuclear factors are a large family of transcription factors--they're proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences to trigger transcription of mRNA from those sequences. _______________________________

Leptin is a 16 kDa peptide hormone that regulates body weight by both suppressing appetite and promoting energy expenditure. Leptin is encoded by the ob gene and is primarily expressed in adipocytes in response to feeding. It circulates at a level of 5 to 15 ng/mL in the plasma of lean subjects and exerts its anorexigenic actions by binding to the leptin receptor (LEPR) located on the surface of hypothalamic neurons. __________________________________________________ Which mechanism restricts the expression of leptin to adipocytes? Only adipocytes contain: A) the ob gene. B) a promoter for the expression of the ob gene. C) enhancers for the expression of the ob gene. D) nuclear factors for the expression of the ob gene.

Answer: A _____________ An element which can act as an electron acceptor should have a high electron affinity. This is true of oxygen and sulfur, both group VI elements, but not of helium and iron. As a noble gas, He is not likely to accept or donate electrons, and as a metal, Fe is most likely to donate electrons in order to form the stable Fe2+ or Fe3+ ions. H2 is a stable molecule and again is unlikely to accept electrons. Therefore choice A, sulfur, is correct.

Like oxygen atoms in methanogens, which of the following elements can act as an electron acceptor? A S B He C H2 D Fe

1/v = (Km/Vmax)(1/[S]) + 1/Vmax

Lineweaver-Burk Plot

higher

Lower VP = ____ BP

Motion and depth ————- Think of Magneto moving stuff with his mind and having to take into account motion and depth

Magnocellular pathway good at determining

G1

Makes mRNA and proteins to prep for mitosis in the cell cycle

Answer: D ___________________ Capacitance C depends on geometric factors only, and in the case of parallel plates, C is proportional to the plate area and inversely proportional to the separation distance of the plates.

Making which of the following changes to a circuit element will increase the capacitance of the capacitor described in the passage? A) Replacing the 500-Ω resistor with a 250-Ω resistor B) Replacing the 10-V battery with a 20-V battery C) Increasing the separation of the capacitor plates D) Increasing the area of the capacitor plates

negative reinforcement because an undesirable stimulus (her anxiety about things being dirty) gets removed which encourages the behavior to happen again

Man sneezes on Sarah and after that, she becomes super OCD about cleaning and disinfecting everything. These cleaning rituals have an immediate effect of lessening her anxiety. Therefore, she spends most of her time doing this. Before seeking treatment, Sarah's behavior would be described as?

Answer: 8100 mg ______________________ mass percent (% m/m) = component mass / total mass _____________________ .04 = 324 mg / total mass ___________________ total mass = 324 mg / .040 = 8100 mg

Mass percent of Mn is 4% and the sample of the alloy contains 324 mg of Mn. What is the total mass of the sample?

Internal validity

Mostly concerned with causality, or the extent to which changes in the dependent variable can be attributed to the independent variable

External validity

Mostly concerned with generalizability, or the extent to which results can be applied to other situations

McGurk effect

Mouth movements influencing our hearing

Debranching enzyme

Moves a block of oligoglucose from the branch and connects it to the chain using an α-1,4 glycosidic bond

mesoderm

Muscles are derived from

Acetylcholine

Nicotine is a CNS agonist for what?

Shape theory (steric theory of olfaction)

Odors fit into receptors like lock-and-key

Answer: A When threshold is met at the axon hillock, voltage-gated sodium channels open, generating an action potential.

Of the events listed, which occurs first during action potential generation? A.) Voltage-gated sodium channels open at the axon hillock. B.) Hyperpolarization stimulates the opening of ligand-gated potassium channels. C.) Graded potentials propagate along the axon. D.) Calcium influx stimulates vesicle fusion and release of neurotransmitter.

Answer: D ____________ The question asks the examinee to identify the tissue that is NOT of mesodermal origin. Of the tissues listed, the only one that does not arise from the mesoderm during embryonic development is nervous tissue (D). Nervous tissue arises developmentally from ectoderm, not mesoderm. Thus, D is the best answer.

Of the following tissues, which is NOT derived from embryonic mesoderm? _ A) Circulatory B) Bone C) Dermal D) Nerve

the atomic number (# of protons)

On a periodic table, what is the top #?

mass # (sum of the number of protons and neutrons)

On an element notation (not periodic table), what is the top number?

Answer: C _________________ The extra water cannot be stored as blood because this would increase the blood volume. _____________ If the water was consumed with the food that was eaten, then it would be absorbed and accumulate in circulation, increasing the volume of blood. _____________ Extra water could be excreted through the intestine if the subjects were having diarrhea. As the passage does not indicate this condition, this answer is not likely. _____________ Extra water is normally excreted through skin and lungs. The skin excretes water through the process of transpiration, and the lungs use water to humidify the air that enters the body.

On the day of the experiment, the subjects drank about 1 L of water on average and excreted about 400 mL of urine. The most likely explanation for the difference between water intake and urine excretion is that: A.) the extra water was stored as blood. B.) water was consumed with the food that was eaten. C.) the extra water was excreted by the intestine. D.) water was excreted via the skin and the lungs.

Answer: A _________ Hans Eysenck is noted for the first empirical study he published on genetics of personality in 1951, which investigated the trait of neuroticism in identical (i.e., monozygotic) and fraternal (i.e., dizygotic) twins.

One explanation for the development of personality uses the biological perspective, which emphasizes the influence of genetics and brain biology in determining an individual's behavioral, emotional, and cognitive patterns. Which of the following psychologists' views are most closely aligned with this perspective? a) Hans Eysenck b) Abraham Maslow c) B.F. Skinner d) Gordon Allport

uncompetitive

Only binds to ES complex

Answer: A The pH of blood is higher than the pKa of organic acids, allowing them to fully dissociate.

Organic acids, denoted by HA, are only minimally deprotonated when added to pure water. HA(aq) --> H+(aq) + A-(aq) When dissolved in blood, however, HA fully dissociate. What factor can be used to explain this discrepancy? A. In blood, the concentration of H+(aq) is maintained at low levels by other equilibria. B. In blood, the reaction is coupled to ATP hydrolysis to make it more favorable. C. In blood, the ionic strength of the solvent medium is much higher than pure water. D. In blood, enzymes are used to catalyze the dissociation reaction.

ketones

PCC turns secondary alcohols into?

HCl and intrinsic factor

Parietal cells secrete

Nigrostratial

Pathway associated with motor planning and purposeful movement

James - Lange

Physiological response elicited by stimulus produces emotion; stimulus —> physiological response —> emotion ; scary dog barks at you —> increased heart rate —> fear

Linear perspective where parallel lines appear to converge in the distance

Pilots landing on an unusually long runway were most likely affected by what?

polar

RP-HPLC: mobile

nonpolar

RP-HPLC: stationary

R total equals R1 + R2 + R3 ....

Resistors in series formula

Current

Resistors in series have the same what?

Social scripts

Sets of behaviors for specific interactions

T1/R1 = T2/R2 (****only because the passage shows a linearly increasing relationship). _______________ T1*I1 = T2*I2 (since I and R are inversely related)-

Simple way to just compare two temperatures and resistances? What about current?

250 / 5 = 50 **keep on moving decimal places until you have to start adding zeroes

Solve this: 0.25 / .005

Answer: A _____________ Within still air, the speed of sound remains constant.

Sound of a known frequency, wavelength, intensity, and speed travels through air and bounces off an imperfect reflector which is moving toward the source. Which of the following properties of the sound remains the same before and after reflection? _ A) Speed B) Intensity C) Frequency D) Wavelength

Ability to perceive 2 individual presses on skin

Spatial discrimination

Labeled-like theory

States that each sensory receptor binds to a specific stimuli and is directly linked to the brain

Answer: C because it is the only gas

Step 1 The chemist placed a sample of limestone, CaCO3(s), into a sealed chamber and then heated the limestone to 1200 K to generate CO2(g) and CaO(s). _________________________________ When limestone is heated during Step 1, an equilibrium is established. Which of the following expressions is the equilibrium constant for the decomposition of limestone? A.) [CaO] B.) [CaCO3] C.) [CO2] D.) [CaO] × [CaCO3]

perception of depth that arises from the integrated information received from both eyes

Stereopsis

Answer: remain the same _____________ Electrical force depends on the particle's charge and the strength of the electric field experienced by the particle, NOT on the particle's speed.

Students constructed the electrical circuit shown below to study capacitors. A battery with a voltage of 10 V is connected through a switch to a capacitor and a 500-Ω resistor. The capacitor is constructed from two flat metal plates, each with a surface area of 5.0 × 10-5 m2. The plates are separated by 1.0 × 10-3 m, and the space between the plates is a vacuum. The connecting wires have no resistance. After the switch is closed and the capacitor is fully charged, a particle with a charge of 8.0 × 10-19 C and a speed of 1.0 m/s is injected midway between the capacitor plates. _____________________________ If the speed of the charged particle described in the passage is increased by a factor of 2, the electrical force on the particle will:

Answer: A ________________ When in series, capacitors C1 and C2 add by the inverse rule Therefore, if C1 = C2 = C, then

Students constructed the electrical circuit shown below to study capacitors. A battery with a voltage of 10 V is connected through a switch to a capacitor and a 500-Ω resistor. The capacitor is constructed from two flat metal plates, each with a surface area of 5.0 × 10-5 m2. The plates are separated by 1.0 × 10-3 m, and the space between the plates is a vacuum. The connecting wires have no resistance. After the switch is closed and the capacitor is fully charged, a particle with a charge of 8.0 × 10-19 C and a speed of 1.0 m/s is injected midway between the capacitor plates. ______________________________ Another capacitor, identical to the original, is added in series to the circuit described in the passage. Compared to the original circuit, the equivalent capacitance of the new circuit is: A) 1/2 as great. B) the same. C) 2 times as great. D) 4 times as great.

Answer: A __________________________ The most basic amino acid would increase the pI and Lys has one of the highest pKa values

Substituting residues in a peptide with which amino acid will most likely result in a peptide with an increased pI? _ A) Lys B) Glu C) Gln D) Val

converted to the trans isoemr

Suppose that a small sample of the cis isomer precipitate was heated in the solid state in an oven at 180 degrees C for 30 min, cooled, and then analyzed by far-IR spectroscopy. If the spectrum of the thermally treated sample was similar to the spectrum of the cis isomer, but displayed no absorbance bands at 459 and 281 cm-1, the sample most likely was?

Quinones

Synthesized from phenol oxidation

isocitrate dehydrogenase

TCA rate limiting enzyme

Mead

The "me" is the aspect of self that is formed through interactions with others

Answer: D ______________________ - enantiomers have many of the same chemical and physical properties, like BP, MP, solubility, polarity, and differ in how they interact with plane-polarized (linear light) - therefore, SEPARATION OF ENANTIOMERS relies on changing the PHYSICAL PROPERTIES of the molecules - a resolving agent in a chiral molecule and this is important because it adds a new chiral center into each enantiomer, creating a pair of diastereomers - diastereomers can be separated from each other because they have different physical properties, unlike enantiomers

The (R)-enantiomer of the antiasthma drug albuterol is the active isomer. If a researcher wants to separate a racemic mixture of albuterol, which of the following methods will most likely separate the enantiomers? a) extraction with dilute base b) thin-layer chromatography c) fractional distillation d) addition of a resolving agent

Answer: Adding a resolving agent. _________________________________ If two chiral centers have opposite configurations, then they are considered enantiomers, or non-superimposable mirror images. __________________________________ A 50-50 enantiomer mixture is known as a racemic mixture ________________________________ Enantiomers have many of the same chemical and physical properties, aside from how they interact with plane-polarized light. ________________________________ Therefore, enantiomer separation relies on changing the physical properties of the molecule

The (R)-enantiomer of the drug albuterol is the active isomer. If the researcher wants to separate a racemic mixture of albuterol, what method can be used?

Answer: A _______________________ Beta decay is the emission of an electron or a positron. The atomic number Z changes from 6 for carbon to 7 for nitrogen ______________________ Therefore a negative charge must have been emitted by carbon. Of all the particles mentioned, only the electron has a negative charge. The correct answer is A.

The 14C atom undergoes beta decay to 14N. What particle is being emitted from the carbon nucleus? A) Electron B) Alpha C) Neutron D) Positron

Answer: D

The Vmax of an enzymatic reaction is altered by which types of inhibitors? I. Competitive II. Noncompetitive III. Uncompetitive IV. Mixed _ A) I and II only B) II and IV only C) I, II, and III only D) II, III, and IV only

Answer: B ___________________ The answer to this question is B because based on the passage, STAT3 is a nuclear protein, which means that it requires a nuclear localization domain for nuclear translocation and a DNA binding domain for binding to regulatory regions of targeted genes. The passage also states that in addition to forming a homodimer, STAT3 associates with LEPRb/JAK2 complex which infers the presence of a protein binding domain within the STAT3 sequence. In contrast, signal sequence domains are protein domains required for proteins that are directed toward secretory pathways ____________________________________ the passage states that STAT3 is a nuclear factor, which means it must be headed to the nucleus. A "signal sequence domain" means that there is a sequence on STAT3 that will tell some other agent in the cell to carry it to the cell membrane. And thats not where it needs to go. ___________________________________ Nuclear localization domain sends proteins to the nucleus. Signal sequence domain allows proteins to enter the rough ER, in order to be involved in the cell's membrane system or to be secreted from the cell. DNA binding domain binds to regulatory region

The YXXQ motif is a consensus-binding site for a nuclear factor known as STAT3. __________________________________ Based on the information in the passage, which protein domain of STAT3 is NOT predicted to play a role in its signaling? A) Nuclear localization domain B) Signal sequence domain C) DNA binding domain D) Protein binding domain

Answer: B ________________ - the somatic NS is under voluntary control and since the adrenal medulla is in change of synthesis and secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine, it would not be voluntary - the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to stress so it would not be the parasympathetic NS

The adrenal medulla is part of which branch of the peripheral nervous system? a) somatic nervous system only b) the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system only c) the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system only d) both the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous systems

the measurement of blood flow; think velocity when it comes the doppler equation

The advantage of the Doppler ultrasound technique over the standard ultrasound technique is that it also allows:

8L _____________ λ1 = 4L ____________ Doubling the pipe doubles the wavelength so 4(2) = 8

The air in an adjustable pipe open at one end and closed at the other resonated at the fundamental frequency when the pipe has length L. The pipe is then adjusted such that it is twice its original length. What is the wavelength of the air in the pipe at the new fundamental frequency?

Answer: B The question asks the examinee to determine which biological entity is most likely to be affected by treatment with penicillin. Since penicillin inhibits the production of peptidoglycan and peptidoglycan is a major component of the bacterial cell wall, one can conclude that penicillin will be an effective treatment for a bacterial (B) infection. Thus, B is the best answer.

The antibiotic penicillin has the effect of inhibiting the production of the chemical peptidoglycan. Therefore, penicillin is likely to be most effective in treating infection by: _ A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) fungi. D) protozoa.

Answer: C ____________________ Solution: The correct answer is C. The autonomic nerve fibers that innervate the heart to slow it are the parasympathetic motor fibers of the vagus nerve. Sympathetic motor fibers increase heart rate. Sensory fibers carry information from the heart to the central nervous system. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

The autonomic nerve fibers that directly innervate the heart to cause cardiac slowing are: A) sympathetic motor fibers. B) sympathetic sensory fibers. C) parasympathetic motor fibers. D) parasympathetic sensory fibers.

Answer: A A: Splicing is part of the post-transcriptional process: DNA is first transcribed in primary transcript and then modified to become mRNA. B: DNA coding for Factor VIII is not transcribed in tRNA. C: The mRNA coding for Factor VIII is not modified into tRNA. D: tRNA is not translated into protein.

The cutting of introns and the splicing associated with the expression of the Factor VIII gene occur during which of the following steps in the protein-synthesis process? A. DNA → mRNA B. DNA → tRNA C. mRNA → tRNA D. tRNA → protein

Answer: B ________________ The Na+/K+ ATPase, or sodium/potassium pump is an active transporter that pumps sodium and potassium ions through the membrane against their concentration gradient to maintain osmotic pressure.

The function of Na+/K+ ATPase is to transport: I) Na+ out of cells against its concentration gradient. II) Na+ into cells with its concentration gradient. III) K+ out of cells with its concentration gradient. IV) K+ into cells against its concentration gradient. A.) I and III only B.) I and IV only C.) II and III only D.) II and IV only

What is the isoelectric point?

The pH at which there is no net charge

Answer: D The pancreas produces several proteolytic enzymes, which are released into the small intestine where they are converted to their active forms of trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase. Thus, D is the best answer.

The pancreas produces which of the following substances for the digestive system? A) Bile salts B) Emulsifier C) Gastric juices D) Proteolytic enzymes

Answer: B ___________________ Histones are among the most abundant proteins in eukaryotic cells. These small, basic proteins come together with DNA to form nucleosomes, the bead-like, primary structural elements of chromatin. Interactions among histone proteins in separate nucleosomes allow those nucleosomes to form the highly compacted 30-nm chromatin fibers. Posttranslational modifications that alter the charge on histone proteins affect their ability to condense DNA. Thus, B is the best answer.

The posttranslational modification of some of the eukaryotic cell's most abundant proteins is thought to affect the ability of those proteins to condense DNA into 30‑nm fibers. Given this, these proteins are most likely: _ A) tubulins. B) histones. C) transcription activators. D) DNA polymerase subunits.

Answer: D ___________ The BBB is highly selective

The presence of which type of intercellular connections between endothelial cells of brain capillaries results in the blood-brain barrier? A.) Desmosomes B.) Gap junctions C.) Intercalated discs D.) Tight junctions

They both have the same atomic number

The reason why radioactive isotopes of an element have the same behavior as stable isotopes of an element because?

the cardiac output and the resistance to blood flow.

The two primary factors that normally determine the level of blood pressure are:

Answer: D ___________ The pulsed laser radiation interacts with the cornea for a shorter time than a continuous laser radiation, thus less heat is transferred to the cornea. This allows the cornea to maintain a lower average temperature by cooling off between pulses.

The use of pulsed laser radiation in the PRK procedure, as opposed to continuous laser radiation, allows the cornea to: A.) absorb more radiation. B.) change its index of refraction. C.) increase the area exposed to radiation. D.) maintain a lower average temperature.

Strecker and Gabriel

These are two common methods for synthesizing amino acids in the lab

Answer: (1/5) ___________________________ Percent submerged = 800/1000 = 80% submerged. This implies the fraction of the ball ABOVE the water is 20%

Three balls with the same volume of 1.0 x 10^-6 m3 are in an open tank of water that has a density (ρ) of 1.0 x 10^3 kg/m3. Assume that the density of Ball 1 is 8.0 × 102 kg/m3. Ignoring the atmospheric pressure, what fraction of Ball 1 is above the surface of the water?

Answer: C ____________ Think of cooperativity as you go from native to unfolded as you continuously denature the protein ___________ The answer is C because the unfolding of proteins is a cooperative process. Cooperative processes are marked by sigmoidal curves.

To determine a protein's thermodynamic stability, chemical denaturation studies can be performed. Assuming that only the native and unfolded states can be observed under experimentally available conditions, what is the most likely shape of the curve for the dependence of the fraction of folded protein upon denaturant concentration? _ A) Hyperbolic B) Linear C) Sigmoidal D) Exponential

Answer: C _________________ At first, denaturant concentration won't be obvious in its affect on the fraction of unfolded protein. Over time, as some unfolding begins, the entire protein quickly becomes stable and this pattern is similar to that of cooperativity which has a sigmoidal graph.

To determine a protein's thermodynamic stability, chemical denaturation studies can be performed. Assuming that only the native and unfolded states can be observed under experimentally available conditions, what is the most likely shape of the curve for the dependence of the fraction of folded protein upon denaturant concentration? _ A) Hyperbolic B) Linear C) Sigmoidal D) Exponential

Triple bonds are comprised of one sigma bond and two pi bonds.

Triple bonds are comprised of _____ sigma bond and ____ pi bonds.

Answer: C ___________________ The cleavage reaction described is a hydrolysis of the glycoside linkage in a disaccharide. In this case, the deprotonated water attacks the galactose and so this sugar will be labeled with O-18. The glucose is protonated and acts a leaving group without reacting with an oxygen atom provided by water.

Two students performed an assay to determine the concentration of lactase in a commercial preparation used to make milk consumable by those who are lactose intolerant. Lactase catalyzes the cleavage of lactose (β-D-galactopyranosyl-1→4-D-glucose) into β-D-galactose and D-glucose. A glutamate residue (Glu-1) in the active site donates a proton to an oxygen atom. Another glutamate on the opposite axial side (Glu-2) acts as a nucleophile to liberate D-glucose and generate an α-D-galactopyranosyl-modified enzyme intermediate. Then, Glu-1 deprotonates water, and the resulting hydroxide ion acts as a nucleophile to liberate β-D-galactose and regenerate the enzyme. ________________________________ Based on the description provided, if lactose was hydrolyzed under the action of lactase in O-18 labeled water, in which location(s) would the label appear? A) Neither the galactose nor the glucose products B) The glucose product only C) The galactose product only D) Both the galactose and the glucose products

2 moles of ATP per one glucose

Under anaerobic conditions, how many moles of ATP is produced?

Answer: D; II and III only ___________________________________ The answer to this question is D because increased activity of succinyl-CoA synthetase will result in greater levels of the reaction products, succinate and GTP. Succinyl-CoA is the substrate of the reaction and its levels will likely decrease with increased succinyl-CoA function

Under physiological conditions, increased activity of succinyl-CoA synthetase will most likely result in: I) increased levels of succinyl-CoA. II) increased levels of succinate. III) increased levels of GTP. _ A) I only B) II only C) I and III only D) II and III only

I = A^2 (intensity is proportional to the square of the amplitude)

Wave intensity and amplitude relationship

I = 1 / d^2 (intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source)

Wave intensity and distance from the source relationship

translational

Western blot is a technique that measures the _____ levels of a protein

AMP

What activates PFK?

AMP, F26BP

What activates PFK?

cholesterol synthesis, fatty acid synthesis, and reduction of glutathione (protects cell from ROS)

What are 3 major functions of NADPH?

Answer: D ____________________ In the reaction pictured, Mn is reduced from +4 to +2; therefore, MnO2 is the oxidizing agent. O is oxidized from -1 in H2O2 to 0 in O2; therefore, H2O2 is the reducing agent. Thus, D is the best answer.

What are the oxidizing and reducing agents, respectively, in the reaction below? 2HCl + H2O2 + MnO2 → O2 + MnCl2 + 2H2O _ A) H2O2; HCl B) H2O2; MnO2 C) MnO2; HCl D) MnO2; H2O2

Answer: I and II

What bond types are found in calcium phosphate? I. Ionic II. Polar Covalent III. Nonpolar Covalent

aldehydes and ketones only

What can NaBH4 reduce?

nothing

What changes in gamma decay?

depress the CNS

What do barbiturates do?

a positive ΔH° and an endothermic reaction

What does a negative slope in a van't Hoff plot indicate?

Inhibits phosphodiesterase that breaks down cAMP so there is more cAMP activity

What does caffeine do in regards to cAMP?

Ionophores facilitate the transport of ions across biological membranes most commonly via passive transport, which is affected by lipophilicity of the ionophore molecule. The increase in lipophilicity of the ionophore-metal complex enhances its permeability through lipophilic membranes.

What does ionophore do?

It contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic side chains in some pattern

What does it mean if a protein is amphipatic?

catalyze the reversible conversion of lactate to pyruvate with the reduction of NAD+ to NADH and vice versa

What does lactate dehydrogenase do?

It transporters fatty acids into the mitochondria to allow for beta oxidation to take place

What does the Carnitine shuttle do?

NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate

What does the PPP produce?

It is performed under reduced pressure and therefore lowers a compound's BP relative to it's BP at atmospheric pressure.

What does vacuum distillation do to a compound's BP?

G6P; NADPH and sugars

What enters the PPP? What are the products?

(4) x (1.5) / 3 _________________ third harmonic (n=3) λ3 = 4 L / 3

What equation would give the wavelength of the third harmonic for a 1.5 m pipe that is closed at one end?

ΔU = Q + W *** ΔU = internal energy ΔU = W ΔU = PΔV

What equation would you use here? - compressor exerts a pressure of 400 Pa to compress nitrogen gas from 3 L to 1 L. If there is not heat transfer, how much will the internal energy of the gas change?

- use the thermal expansion equation ΔL = alpha L ΔT __________________ alpha L = ΔL / Δ T = 2 mm / 2 degrees C = 1 mm / C __________________ ΔL = (1 mm / C) (ΔT) ΔL = (1 mm / C) (10 degrees C) = 10 mm

What equation would you use here? - you start at 25 degrees C - experiment progresses for 2 min and the liquid in the thermometer rises 2 mm and the new temp is 27 degrees C ______ - How high will the liquid rise from the 25 degrees C mark after the experiment had progressed for 4 min? (new temp is 35 degrees C)

V = λf = (0.8) (1.8)

What equation would you use? There is a frequency of 1.8 MHz. The signal travels at an angle of 30 degrees. If the wavelength is 0.8 mm, what is the speed?

I = Q / Δt ; Q = I Δt ; I = current Q = charge

What formula is used when asked to determine how much charge flows into something?

F1 / A1 = F2 / A2

What formula would you use here? - two syringes - 1st syringe has an area of 3 - 2nd syringe has an area of 6 - 1st syringe has an applied force of 10 N - what is the force of of the second syringe?

F = ma a = F / m F = k q1q1 / r ^2 a = k q1 21 / m r^2 Fe before = Fe after Fe after = 2q1 x 2 q1 / m r ^2 = Fe before Fe after = 4 ( Fe before value) = (4) (0.5) = 2

What formula? - 2 objects X and Y are at a fixed distance - X released and its instantaneous acceleration is 0.5 m/s ^ 2 - X is reset, and the magnitude of charge on both objects is doubled, without affecting the mass - When object Y is released, what is the instantaneous acceleration?

eating without feeling full

What happens if you inhibit the CCK

A neutron turns into a proton and an electron is released

What happens in a beta minus decay?

a compound breaks down into simpler substances, or its elemental substituents

What happens in a decomposition reaction?

the concentration of the inhibitor that gives a reaction rate of half the maximum reaction rate

What is Ki?

6.626 x 10^-34 Js or m^2 kg / s

What is Planck's constant?

If something has a significantly large Km

What is a good way to know if something has a small catalytic efficiency?

fatty acid attached to CoA

What is acyl-CoA?

the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself

What is an epitope?

Identify and change unhealthy thinking, problematic behavior, and distressing emotional responses

What is cognitive therapy?

it is used to add two carbon units to the fatty acid being synthesized

What is malonyl CoA used for?

the activated form of acetyl CoA

What is malonyl-CoA?

Answer: B _____________ According to the passage, to correct nearsightedness, the laser beam is directed onto the central part of the cornea, resulting in a flattening of the cornea. This means that the radius of curvature of the cornea is increased.

What is the effect produced by the PRK technique designed to correct nearsightedness? A.) The density of the cornea is increased. B.) The radius of curvature of the cornea is increased. C.) The index of refraction of the cornea is increased. D.) The thickness of the cornea at the apex is increased.

σ = (L) / (R)(A) R= resistance A = area

What is the equation for conductivity?

when thiol groups of cysteine residues are oxidized, linking them together to form cystine

What is the isoelectric point?

simple diffusion directly through the membrane

What is the mechanism of entry into the cell for hydrophobic molecles?

Answer: 0.015 mole / L ________________________________________ Since 1 equivalent of NaHCO3 provides 1 equivalent of Na+, the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution is also 0.010 M = 0.010 mole/L The molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution is 0.020 mol/L since 1 equivalent of Na2CO3 provides 2 equivalents of Na+ When equal volumes of these two solutions are mixed, the resulting molar concentration is equal to their average, (0.010 mol/L + 0.020 mol/L)/2.

What is the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in a solution that is prepared by mixing 10 mL of a 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution with 10 mL of a 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution?

Answer: 2.4 ATA ______________________ PO2 = (0.8)(3 ATA) = 2.4 ATA

What is the partial pressure of O2 in a 3-ATA multi-place chamber filled with 80% O2 and 20% N2?

Motion parallax ____________________ This is a monocular cue related to depth perception in that objects that are further away moving at a given speed seem to move more slowly and objects that are closer seem to move faster

What is the phenomenon when cars whoosh past you once they get close to your car while driving?

The higher the value of E°, the stronger the oxidizing agent

What is the relationship between the value of E° and oxidizing agent strength?

reducing agent because it loses two electrons and a proton to become NADP+

What is the role of NADPH here? NADPH --> NADP+

Answer: 128 ________________ Atomic number (# of protons = 38) # of neutrons = 90 - 28 = 52 # electrons = # protons ______________ 38 + 38 + 52 = 128

What is the sum of protons, neutrons, and electrons in strontium-90? The top number in the periodic table for strontium is 38.

-55mV. Membrane potential at which channels open to initiate an action potential.

What is the threshold potential?

refers to the attractive noncovalent pi interactions that occur with the overlap of π bonds of aromatic rings. Phe, Tyr, and Trp can participate

What is π stacking?

sigmoidal

What kind of curves are present in cooperative reactions?

Answer: D _____________________________________________________________________ TLC can be used to evaluate the purity of a compound _____________________________________________________________________ If there is a single spot with a larger Rf than the original compound's, then the reaction proceeded to completion, no more reactant remained, and the isolated product is pure _____________________________________________________________________ HPLC can be used to determine product purity only if the product showed one peak

What observation would most likely indicate that a reaction product is pure? a) one absorbance peak from size-exclusion chromatography b) two peaks in HPLC c) two unique -CH3 signals in the H NMR spectrum d) a single spot in the reaction mixture lane on a TLC plate

variable region (Fab)

What part of the antibody binds to the antigen?

primary

What protein structure is stabilized by using covalent bonds between amino acid backbone groups?

2-mercaptoethanol

What reduces disulfide bonds?

adrenal medulla

What secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?

pancreatic beta cells

What secretes insulin?

G2

What step makes organelles?

Answer: TLC with UV light ______________________________________ UV light carries a large amount of energy that can excite the electrons of UV chromophores to a higher energy state ______________________________________ UV chromophores include double and triple bonds, carbonyls, alkyl halides, and conjugated systems _____________________________________ In Mass spectrometry, electrons do not change energy levels ____________________________________ In gas chromatography, there is a phase change, not an electronic excitation

What technique can monitor the formation of 4-aminophenol by excitation of electrons with high energy photons?

beta minus decay

What type of decay would you go one spot to the right? (90Sr --> 90Y)

top-down processing

What type of processing explains this?' - participant sees a picture of an object that makes a tone sound - participant wrongly report hearing a tone sound when viewing this picture

415 because ... (414 + 1) / (1)

What would be the m/z ratio of a compound with a molecular weight of 414 g/mol that undergoes a single protonation?

It would increase to promote the retention of sodium ions

What would happen to your body's aldosterone secretion in times of intense thirst when stranded in a desert?

N2 because the gas with the lower MM has more molecules

When comparing 1.5 g of NH2 an 1.5 g O2, which occupies a greater volume at constant temperature and pressure?

I, II, and III

When comparing single, double, and triple covalent bonds, decreasing the number of pi bonds between atoms will: I: decrease the overall bond dissociation energy and bond strength II: increase the bond length III: decrease the bond rigidity (allow more twisting or rotation)

G2

When does MMR occur?

Answer: A

When experiments are performed on enzymes that display traditional Michaelis-Menten kinetics, what shape does the graph of V0 versus substrate concentration [S] have? _ A) A hyperbolic dependence on [S] B) A linear dependence on [S] C) A sigmoidal dependence on [S] D) A parabolic dependence on [S]

Answer: A ___________________ The answer is A because traditional Michaelis-Menten kinetics describes a hyperbolic dependence of V0 on substrate concentration. __________________ Cooperativity is sigmoidal

When experiments are performed on enzymes that display traditional Michaelis-Menten kinetics, what shape does the graph of V0 versus substrate concentration [S] have? _ A) A hyperbolic dependence on [S] B) A linear dependence on [S] C) A sigmoidal dependence on [S] D) A parabolic dependence on [S]

On

When it is dark, rod cells are tuned ___

Retroactive Interference

When more recent information gets in the way of trying to recall older information (eg, man introduced to Lisa first, and then Lucy. Later on, can only remember the name Lucy )

positive ______________________ If pH is LOW (like 2 or something) that means there's a lot of H+ floating around bc it's an acidic environment. More [H+] present = more [H+] available to protonate an amino acid's side chain. Hence, when pH < pI, the amino acid is protonated. ___________________ Oppositely, when pH is HIGH, this is the same as saying there's a very basic environment. More [OH-] floating around means more OH- to steal protons from an amino acid... thus if pH > pI, then the amino acid will be deprotonated

When pI < pH, the charge on an amino acid is _______

negative ______________________ If pH is LOW (like 2 or something) that means there's a lot of H+ floating around bc it's an acidic environment. More [H+] present = more [H+] available to protonate an amino acid's side chain. Hence, when pH < pI, the amino acid is protonated. ___________________ Oppositely, when pH is HIGH, this is the same as saying there's a very basic environment. More [OH-] floating around means more OH- to steal protons from an amino acid... thus if pH > pI, then the amino acid will be deprotonated

When pI > pH, the charge on an amino acid is ________

episodic

When participants respond to questions about their childhood health history, they are retrieving autobiographical information, which is an important type of ________ memory.

Answer: D ________________ The answer is D because the kcat is used to describe the rate-limiting step of catalysis under saturating conditions of substrate

When performing experiments to measure the kcat of an enzyme, the substrate concentration should be: _ A) limiting. B) equal to 1/2 KM. C) equal to KM. D) saturating.

Proactive interference

When previously learned information interferes with one's ability to recall new information (eg, person met Lisa first, and then Lucy. Can only remember Lisa's name)

By calculating the slope. The slope of the line between two species on a Frost diagram equals E° for the couple

When provided a Frost diagram in chemistry and asked to calculate the E° for a half-reaction, how would you do it?

Answer: C ___________________ The two plates of the capacitor collect charges of opposite sign. As more charge arrives it is harder and harder to fill the plates until finally an equilibrium occurs, thus C is correct.

When switch S is closed to the left, charge begins to accumulate on the capacitor. Charge cannot accumulate indefinitely because: A) the variable resistor inhibits the current flow. B) the battery continually loses charge. C) successive charges brought to the plates are repelled by charges accumulated earlier. D) the fixed resistor loses energy to heat.

Answer: A ________ The number of incident photons affects ONLY the number of electrons, NOT their energies. The electron energies depend on photon energy, the cathode work function, and the potential difference between the cathode and anode.

When the number of photons incident on the cathode with energies above the value of the work function increases, which of the following quantities also increases? A) Number of electrons ejected B ) Potential energy of each ejected electron C ) Magnitude of the electric field between the electrodes D ) Speed of electrons at the anode

Answer: A __________________________ You can tell by the lower Tm compared to WT indicating lower conformational stability

When the researchers prepared an E147D variant it exhibited a Tm < 37°C and did not exhibit aminoacylase activity. ________________________________________ What is the best explanation for the observed behavior of the E147D variant? The substitution results in: A) a repulsive interaction that reduces conformational stability and thus enzymatic activity. B) a change in net charge that changes the reactivity of the nearby Zn ion. C) increased steric hindrance of the active site and reduced access by the substrate. D) increased capacity of the site to act as a general base which eliminates the proposed reaction mechanism.

anode

When two metals are connected in a galvanic cell, the stronger reducing agent acts as the ____

mitochondria

Where does fatty acid oxidation occur?

cytosol

Where does fatty acid synthesis occur?

mitochondria of liver cells

Where does ketogenesis occur?

Answer: B; arginine

Which amino acid is non-essential under normal circumstances, but becomes essential under abnormal circumstances? a) phenylalanine b) arginine c) histidine d) serine

leucine and lysine

Which amino acids are ketogenic?

Answer: B ___________________ the exterior of a protein is typically involved in h bonding to the solvent while the interior is the hydrophobic pocket so hydrophobic residues would join together to form a dimer.

Which amino acids are most likely present at the dimerization interface of STAT3 proteins? A) Polar amino acids B) Hydrophobic amino acids C) Positively charged amino acids D) Negatively charged amino acids

Answer: B _______________ The answer to this question is B because glucose 6-phosphatase catalyzes the final step of both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

Which enzyme is used both in gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis? _ A) Phosphoglucomutase B) Glucose 6-phosphatase C) Hexokinase D) Glucokinase

Malate dehydrogenase, Isocitrate dehydrogenase, and Α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

Which enzymes in the citric acid cycle are involved in the production of NADH?

Answer: A _____________________ The answer to this question is A because following glucagon binding to its receptor and activation of its coupled G protein, activities of the adenylate cyclase and the protein kinase A, and level of cAMP are all increased. In contrast activation of the G protein promotes the dissociation of bound GDP and its exchange for GTP on the α subunit

Which event is NOT a likely outcome of glucagon binding to its receptor? Increase in: A) GDP binding to Gα subunit of the G protein B) adenylate cyclase activity C) protein kinase A activity D) cAMP generation

Answer: C __________________ A) Ca release from the SR is a action potential mediated event. so it is a voltage gated channel much like voltage gated channels in the neuron and rest of the body D) this is a primary active transport mechanism. remember that Ca is kept at high concentrations in the SR. therefore, when it is released from the SR during muscle contraction, it travels DOWN its concentration gradient. therefore, we must use energy to transport it back into the SR UP its concentration gradient thus requiring ATP and primary active transport When one part of the axonal membrane becomes depolarized, the adjacent area in the direction of action potential propagation senses this depolarization and has its VG Na+ channels reach threshold and open. This is therefore not directly dependent on ligand binding. In contrast, motor neurons release the neurotransmitter onto muscle fibers which bind to acetylcholine receptors which are on Na+ channels. The binding of acetylcholine causes these channels to open.

Which event is directly mediated by a ligand-gated ion channel? A) Release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber to initiate muscle contraction B) Influx of Na+ across the axon membrane of a somatic neuron during action potential propagation C) Influx of Na+ across the motor end plate resulting in the depolarization of the muscle fiber membrane D) Re-entry of Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber to end muscle contraction

Answer: C

Which experimental results confirm that Compound 1 is an uncompetitive inhibitor of a particular enzyme? In the presence of Compound 1: _ A) the KM increases and Vmax decreases. B) the KM decreases and Vmax increases. C) both the KM and Vmax decrease. D) both the KM and Vmax increase.

Answer: B __________________ Difference between guanosine and deoxyguanosine is that for deoxyguanosine, a hydroxyl group is replaced with a hydrogen meaning it will have a lower molecular weight than its RNA counterpart

Which nucleoside has the largest molecular weight? _ A) Adenosine B) Guanosine C) Deoxyadenosine D) Deoxyguanosine

Answer: A the vector sum of the bond polarities in CBr4 is zero, whereas the vector sum is greater than zero in the other compounds

Which of the bromomethanes is LEAST polar? _ A) CBr4 B) CHBr3 C) CH2Br2 D) CH3Br

Answer: A __________________________________ For a fixed voltage between cathode and anode, the electric field is inversely proportional to the distance between them. Increasing the circuit resistance for a fixed current will decrease the electric field, but not by as much as does the length change. E = (V − IR)/L __________________________________ V = E*d, so we know that increasing distance by a factor of 2 will decrease the electric field by a factor of 2. If you review EMF and effective voltage, you'll come across the equation V_eff = V - IR, implying that the greater the resistance of a battery, the lower effective voltage it outputs. So by increasing the resistance of this circuit you could decrease the effective voltage, but when you put it all together you get the equation that AAMC gives you: E = (V-IR)/L. Changing R is not directly proportional to E like changing the distance L is, so increasing L is the most effective way. ___________________________ So the rule of thumb is V = IR for the entire circuit, but if you look up "battery effective voltage" you'll find an equation stating that the V_eff = V - IR where R is the internal resistance of the battery.

Which of the following changes to the circuit will decrease the electric field between the electrodes by the greatest amount? A) Increasing L by a factor of 2 B) Decreasing L by a factor of 2 C) Increasing R by a factor of 2 D) Decreasing R by a factor of 2

Answer: D; Phosphogluconate ___________________________ The answer to this question is D because while lactate, oxaloacetate and glycerol are gluconeogenic precursors, phosphogluconate is involved in the pentose phosphate pathway and is not a precursor or substrate in gluconeogenesis.

Which of the following compounds is NOT a gluconeogenic precursor or substrate? _ A) Lactate B) Glycerol C) Oxaloacetate D) Phosphogluconate

Answer: A Prokaryotic cells do not contain nuclei, membrane-bound organelles in which nuclear genes are transcribed in eukaryotic cells. Consequently, transcription occurs in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells. Thus, A is the best answer.

Which of the following correctly pairs a cellular process with the location in which that process occurs in a prokaryotic cell? A) Transcription, cytoplasm B) ATP synthesis, mitochondria C) Degradation of macromolecules, lysosomes D) Modification of carbohydrates on transmembrane proteins, Golgi complex

Answer: D The question asks the examinee to identify a primary function of the myelin sheath. The myelin sheath is a fatty layer surrounding the long axons of neurons in vertebrates. A primary function of this layer is to enable nerve impulses (action potentials) to travel more quickly by jumping from node to node rather than traveling continuously along the entire length of the neuron. This supports D, which states that the myelin sheath increases the rate of conduction of action potentials. A, B, and C are incorrect because they describe roles that the myelin sheath does not provide. Thus, D is the best answer.

Which of the following describes a primary function of the myelin sheath? A) It provides nutrients to motor neurons. B) It regulates synaptic vesicle discharge. C) It guides dendrite growth and branching. D) It increases the rate of conduction of action potentials.

Answer: D If one of the R groups in the triacylglycerol contained a carbon-carbon double bond and if isomerization of the double bond occurred during the saponification reaction, four fatty acids would be obtained instead of three

Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for the fact that the saponification of the triacylglycerol in the passage resulted in four different fatty acid salts? A) The triacylglycerol molecule consisted of four different fatty acid units. B) Glycerol was transformed into a fatty acid salt under the reaction conditions. C) One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and it completely isomerized under the reaction conditions. D) One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and a small percentage isomerized under the reaction conditions.

Answer: C _________________ When the RNA molecules hybridize, the antisense molecule would line up in an antiparallel fashion with the sense molecule, meaning its 3′ end would line up with the 5′ end of its complement. The nitrogenous bases would form the following pairs: A with U, G with C. The only correct sequence is C, which is 3′-GCUAUG-5′. A, B, and D do not have the correct sequence with the correct polarity. Thus, C is the best answer.

Which of the following nucleotide sequences describes an antisense molecule that can hybridize with the mRNA sequence 5′-CGAUAC-3′? A 5′-GCTATG-3′ B 5′-GCUAUG-3′ C 3′-GCUAUG-5′ D 3′-GCAUAG-5′

Answer: C ____________________________ - antisense nucleic acids are complementary to the sense mRNA - write out antisense molecule so that it is complementary and antiparallel to the sense molecule

Which of the following nucleotide sequences describes an antisense molecule that can hybridize with the mRNA sequence 5′-CGAUAC-3′? A) 5′-GCTATG-3′ B) 5′-GCUAUG-3′ C) 3′-GCUAUG-5′ D) 3′-GCAUAG-5′

Answer: D Solution: The correct answer is D. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum most resembles the Golgi apparatus in an intact eukaryotic cell when viewed under the microscope. Both organelles appear to be membranes with many folds.

Which of the following organelles most resembles the Golgi apparatus when an intact eukaryotic cell is viewed under the electron microscope? _ A) Nucleolus B) Mitochondrion C) Plasma membrane D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: B _____________ The conversion of a primary alcohol to an aldehyde is readily accomplished. Oxidation of tertiary alcohols is difficult because it involves C-C bond breaking. The conversion of an aldehyde to a carboxylic acid is readily accomplished. The conversion of secondary alcohols to ketones is readily accomplished.

Which of the following oxidative transformations is unlikely to occur? A.) A primary alcohol to an aldehyde B.) A tertiary alcohol to a ketone C.) An aldehyde to a carboxylic acid D.) A secondary alcohol to a ketone

Answer: B _________ You have to know which amino acids allow for the formation of a covalently bonded dimer --> hence you are looking for peptide bonds with a cysteine residue because it can form covalent bonds and disulfide-linked dimers ___________ Only one of the answer choices (B) has a cysteine so it would be correct

Which of the following peptides is most likely to form a covalently bonded dimer? _ A) AVTSYWP B) GHICEPN C) NFMNELI D) ELIPWQN

Answer: PCC because PCC can only oxidize primary and secondary alcohols into aldehydes and ketones and cannot oxidize any further

Which of the following reagents CANNOT be used to make benzoic acid from benzaldehyde? a) CrO3 b) KMnO4 c) H2CrO4 d) PCC

Answer: C Both the active and inactive X chromosomes replicate. The chromatin of the inactivate X chromosome is more condensed compared to the one of the active X chromosome. The inactivate X chromosome is one of the last chromosomes to replicate. The inactivate X chromosome is not highly transcribed.

Which of the following statements best applies to the inactive X chromosome in mammalian females? A.) It does not replicate. B.) Its chromatin structure is less condensed than that of an active X chromosome. C.) It is one of the last chromosomes to replicate. D.) It is highly transcribed.

Answer: D The question asks the examinee to identify those tissues that are in direct contact with the external environment or elements of the external environment. Tissues that are exposed to the external environment have mucosal membranes. All of the tissues listed contain an element of mucosa (e.g., the nasal cavity, vagina and anus). Thus, D is the best answer.

Which of the following tissues have cells that are in direct contact with the external environment or elements of the external environment? I) The lining of the reproductive tract II) The lining of the respiratory tract III) The lining of the gastrointestinal tract _ A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III

Answer: B ___________________ Cytosine has 2 H bond acceptors _________________ Guanine, Adenine, and Thymine have 1 H bond acceptor

Which of the four DNA bases contains the largest number of hydrogen bond acceptors when involved in a Watson-Crick base pair? _ A) A B) C C) G D) T

Answer: B _____________________ The answer is B because the hydrogen bond acceptors are N and O. Adenine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor thymine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor guanine contains 2 donors and 1 acceptor Cytosine contains 1 donor and 2 acceptors

Which of the four DNA bases contains the largest number of hydrogen bond acceptors when involved in a Watson-Crick base pair? _ A) A B) C C) G D) T

Answer: His because all others are hydrophobic

Which of these is LEAST likely to be in the central region of a phospholipid? Ala His Val Met

Answer: C The question asks the examinee to identify the organ involved in the regulation of acid-base balance, blood pressure, water balance, and the removal of nitrogenous wastes. The only organ involved in all of these processes is the kidney (C). Within the nephron, the reabsorption of protons and bicarbonate from the filtrate contributes to acid-base balance within the body; secretion of renin from the juxtaglomerular cells helps regulate the secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex (which plays a role in regulating blood pressure, through its effects on Na+ reabsorption in the nephron); Na+ and urea reabsorption in the nephron creates osmotic pressure within the medullary interstitium of the kidney and draws water from the filtrate into surrounding tissues; and excretion of nitrogenous wastes takes place due to the urea transporter, which removes urea from the interstitium and transports it back into the ascending loop of Henle. Thus, C is the best answer.

Which organ is involved in regulation of all of the following: acid-base balance, blood pressure, water balance, and removal of nitrogen wastes? _ A) Liver B) Spleen C) Kidney D) Large intestine

Answer: C The question asks the examinee to identify which participant in the electron transport chain has the greatest attraction for electrons. A and B are incorrect because FAD and NAD+ do not directly donate electrons to the electron transport chain—it is their reduced forms that do. Electrons move to a slightly more electronegative carrier as the electrons pass through each step in the electron transport chain. Therefore, the final electron acceptor of this chain, oxygen (C), has the greatest attraction for electrons. Thus, C is the best answer.

Which participant in the electron transport chain has the greatest attraction for electrons? A) FAD B) NAD+ C) Oxygen D) Cytochrome c

Answer: D __________ Using the distance from the object of focus as a depth cue is associated with retinal disparity, which is a binocular depth cue.

Which statement does NOT describe a monocular depth cue? A.) Objects that are higher up in the visual field are perceived as being farther away than the objects that are lower in the visual field. B.) Objects that are occluded by other objects are perceived as being farther away than the objects that occlude them. C.) Objects that have more detailed textures are perceived as being closer than objects that have less detailed textures. D.) Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus.

Answer: C __________________ The answer to this question is C because while kinase catalyzes the addition of a phosphate group to a substrate, the removal of the phosphate groups are catalyzed by a phosphatase.

Which type of enzyme removes the chemical groups that are added to proteins by kinases? _ A) Phosphorylase B) Cyclase C) Phosphatase D) Acetylase

Answer: B; Uncompetitive ___________________ The answer to this question is B because uncompetitive inhibitors do not alter the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk plot, which is equal KM/Vmax.

Which type of inhibitor does NOT alter the KM/Vmax ratio of an enzyme? _ A) Competitive B) Uncompetitive C)Noncompetitive D) Mixed

Answer: A _______ The Doppler equation for frequency is Δf/f = -v/c for a given relative velocity v between source and detector. Thus, the frequency shift Δf depends inversely on the speed of the wave in the medium in which it propagates, c. The velocity of sound is much smaller than that of electromagnetic radiation, so for the same relative velocity the frequency and wavelength shifts are much greater for sound than for radio waves.

Why are the percentages of the change in frequency and wavelength much greater when sound waves are used instead of radio waves in these experiments? A) Sound waves travel more slowly. B) Sound waves have a much higher frequency. C) Sound waves have a much shorter wavelength. D) Interference in the atmosphere affects sound waves much more.

Answer: A The identical optical properties of the cuvettes ensure that the absorbed radiation is due only to the presence of glucose in the blood and not due to the difference in the absorption features of the walls.

Why was it important that the cuvettes containing the glucose oxidase and the blood sample were identical in terms of optical properties? A.) To enable the comparison of the absorption spectra B.) To reduce the absorption in the glass walls C.) To decrease the uncertainty in the wavelength D.) To increase the absorption in the solutions

Answer: A ____________________ Aldosterone, which is produced by the adrenal cortex, causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. _______________________ Such a mechanism decreases Na+ levels in the urine. The steroid aldosterone does not cause Na+ secretion into the urine. ______________________ Because ingestion of excessive NaCl would trigger Na+ secretion into the urine, plasma-aldosterone levels would not increase. _____________________ Rather, the body would rely on those homeostatic mechanisms that excreted the excess Na+. ______________________ Thus an increase in plasma aldosterone would not be expected to follow ingestion of large quantities of NaCl. The best answer choice is A.

Would an increase in the level of plasma aldosterone be expected to follow ingestion of excessive quantities of NaCl? _ A) No; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. B) No; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney tubules. C) Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. D) Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney tubules.

Answer: B; 7 _____________________________ - to bind the cation exchange column, the proteins need to be positively charged - pI < pH = (+) charged amino acid and protein ____________________________ - you want there to be a positive value and you need to find 2 proteins that are both values less than a given pH as seen with 7 _________________________ - not C or D because you only want 2 proteins

You have 4 proteins with the pI values as follows: A (8.8), B (10.2), C (4.3), and D (5.5) At which buffer pH would 2/4 of the proteins adhere to a cation exchange column? a) 3.0 b) 7.0 c) 9.5 d) 11

2-methylundecanoic acid _______________________ - in distillation procedures, component with lower BP vaporizes first, leaving the remaining components in the in the original flask

You have a solution of 2-methylundecanal and 2-methylundecanoic acid. The liquid remaining in the homogenous mixture at the end of the distillation procedure was most likely what?

The variant is highly involved in catalysis and provide conformational stability. _________________________ Kcat = Vmax / [E] _______________________ Kcat represents efficiency and measures the number of molecules a substrate turned over into product per unit time. ______________________ Since Kcat decreased, then that is indicative that the variant was involved with catalysis so it would be decreased. ____________________ ___________________ Since Tm decreased, then that means that the conformational stability decreased as well because it is now easier to break it down which is bad

You have a variant that when compared to the WT, has a decreased Tm and decreased Kcat value. What would this mean?

Keep everything the same (including the order), and just replace all the T's with U's

You have the original 5'-3' DNA sense strand. If you want to convert that to 5'-3' mRNA with codons, what do you do?

Keep the same direction, just switch the letters

You have the original 5'-3' DNA sense strand. If you want to convert that to 5'-3' tRNA with anti- codons, what do you do?

zeroth order

[A]

superego

__ is moralistic and idealistic, compelling us towards perfection

ego

__ is realistic, compelling us to believe in ways that are socially acceptable, and act as mediators

sensory and short term memory

___ and ___ are transient and based on neurotransmitter activity

quinones; synthesized through phenol oxidation

___ are conjugated diketones, but are not aromatic

feature detectors

___ are specific neurons that preferentially fire in response to very specific stimuli

Glutamate

___ associated with increased cortical arousal

trait theorists

___ attempt to explain personality in terms of observable personality characteristics using objective criteria

IR spectroscopy

___ can be used to detect structural changes within molecules during chemical conversions by monitoring sample spectra for the emergence or disappearance of peaks

id

___ is selfish, compelling us to seek pleasure and avoid pain

explicit (declarative)

___ memory accounts for memories that we must consciously recall with effort and focus

ACE

___ metabolizes angiotensin I into angiotensin II

transverse

___ waves have displacements perpendicular to the direction of motion

strong linguistic determinism, aka sapir-whorfian hypothesis

___, aka ___, states that language determines thought completely

E

___PSP generally results from depolarization and opening of Na+ channels

large intestine

____ absorbs H2O and salts, and forms feces

trait

____ can be defined as characteristic ways one often perceives situations, feels, or acts

Gravity filtration Vacuum filtration

____ can be used to collect solid product, although ___ is used because it is faster

parasympathetic activity

____ causes the detrusor muscle to contract

microglia

____ digest waste in the CNS

Nucleotide excision repair

____ fixes helix-deforming lesions of DNA such as thymine dimers

Parvocellular pathway _________ Think pink pyramid (form/shape)

____ is good at spatial resolution, determining form, high levels of detail, and color

systole (AV valves are closed; semilunar is open)

____ is the part of the cardiac cycle during which some chambers of the heart muscle contract after refilling with blood

tyrosine _______ tyrosine is converted into catecholamines in the adrenal medulla and it can go on to make epinephrine

____ is the precursor to catecholamines

Convergence

_____ gives humans an idea of depth based on how much eyeballs are turned

n

_____ is most closely associated with the potential energy of the electron. Since potential energy is proportional to the square of the distance of two oppositely charged particles by Coulomb's Law, it is also true that _____ is associated with the radial "size" of the electron cloud.

ketolysis

_____ regenerates acetyl CoA for use as an energy source in peripheral tissues

Desmosomes

__________ are intercellular junctions that function as anchors to form strong sheets of cells.

Intercalated discs

__________ are specialized intercellular junctions between cardiac muscle cells that provide direct electrical coupling among cells

Simple

___________ = below 150 degrees and if the substances you're trying to distill are at least 25 degrees or greater apart in terms of boiling point

The base rate fallacy

____________ refers to the error people make when they ignore the base rates (i.e., prior probabilities) when evaluating the probabilities (or frequencies) of events.

Vacuum

____________= when the boiling point of a substance is greater than 150, what you can do is actually lower the atmospheric pressure, and when atmospheric pressure = vapor pressure = bp, so this is the only one where you can actually change the bp of the substance

Fractional

_____________= used for less than 25 degrees apart, better for substances that are close in bp

a weak acid and its conjugate base or vice versa

a buffer consists of what?

Bronsted-Lowry base

accepts H+

Lewis acid

accepts pair of electrons

amino acids, pyruvic acids, fatty acids

acetyl coa can be formed from which three sources?

1630

alkenes

3300

alkynes

L

all chiral molecules except for cys have an __ configuration

diamagnetic

all electrons are repelled by an external magnetic field

selectins

allow cells to adhere to carbohydrates on the surfaces of other cells and are most commonly used in the immune system

alanine (A), proline (P), leucine (L), isoleucine (I), and valine (V)

amino acids with alkyl side chain groups

enamine

an aldehyde and secondary amine form what?

aldosterone; DCT and collecting duct; reabsorb more sodium allowing more water to flow with it

angiotensin II promotes the release of ___ which alters the ___ to ____

ω = 2πf = 2π/T

angular frequency equation

no

are covalent bonds reversible?

yes

are gamma rays a form of ionizing radiation?

yes so they will be found in the aqueous layer

are peptide hormones like insulin and glucagon water-soluble?

no

are sterols and glycolipids in prokaryotes?

no, because they do not account for the impact of situational factors on behavior

are trait theories good as predicting specific behaviors?

Mead

argued that social (rather than biological) factors influence identity formation

1600-1500

aromatic ring

social constructionism

asserts that people develop understanding and knowledge of the world through interactions with other people, and that the mediating force in this interaction is primarily language

ascribed social status

assigned social position (eg, race)

Na/K pump

at hyperpolarization, what restores the membrane potential?

aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

attach a specific amino acid to a specific tRNA molecule.

achieved status

attained social position (eg, doctor)

carnitine acyltransferase I (CAT 1)

beta oxidation rate-limiting enzyme

noncompetitive

binds both enzyme and ES equally

RNA pol II

binds to the TATA box within the promoter region of the gene

BP = CO x TPR

blood pressure equation

mesoderm

bones are derived from

Answer: C _______________ A and B: disruption doesn't match up well with cancer since cancer is hyperactive cell growth. Inflammation is part of the immune system and although enzymes could be involved in an immune response, these options would require me to overjustify their correctness. Remember the MCAT is a surface level test, the tiny details aren't tested C: "Leukocytes" seems to be in line with an immune response. Inflammation is an immune response, seems like a good answer....check D to be sure D: You want to be sure to know the difference between dilation and constriction come test day. Make up your own example to remember this small but important difference (for me, I think of a boa constrictor suffocating its food....gross but you won't forget it. Constrict is to make smaller)...If I have an infection, blood will rush to the site in order to transport all those good 'ol immune system cells (hence, cuts get red around the edges). If I constrict my blood vessels, I am getting less blood where it needs to be. C is the correct answer

cagA, leads to inflammation and may be related to the genesis of gastric cancer. According to the passage, the cagA gene product will cause: A the disruption of host cell enzymatic activity. B the disruption of host cell protein synthesis. C the movement of leukocytes into mucosal tissue.

cahderins

calcium dependent glycoproteins that hold cells together

yes, in the Cori cycle

can lactate be converted into glucose?

No because there is no displacement of air at the closed end. The closed end is always a node (minimum displacement), and the open end of a pipe is always an antinode (point of max displacement)

can pipes closed at one end produce even-numbered harmonics?

aldol condensation

carbon-carbon bond forming reaction that requires two carbonyl compounds (ketones and/or aldehydes)

Kcat/Km

catalytic efficiency equation

Cations are positively-charged ions (atoms or groups of atoms that have more protons than electrons due to having lost one or more electrons). Anions are negatively-charged ions (meaning they have more electrons than protons due to having gained one or more electrons).

cations vs anions

P = pgh

change in pressure equation

HMA-CoA reductase

cholesterol synthesis pathway rate-limiting

chromosomes

chromatin supercoils to form

aconitase

citrate to isocitrate

A

cluster ___: odd/eccentric; paranoid, schizoid

ΔL = α L ΔT _____________________________ ** ΔL = change in length α = coefficient of expansion L = length ΔT = change in temperature

coefficient of expansion formula

extraction

combines two immiscible liquids, one of which easily dissolves the compound of interest

role conflict

competing expectations for two or more roles create tension (eg, a student (role 1) who is employed part-time (role 2) struggles to find enough time to complete homework and work late hours)

role strain

competing expectations within a single role create tension (eg, a student struggles to find enough time to complete homework (expectation 1) and attend student government meetings (expectation 2)

Km

concertation of a substrate at which half of the maximum velocity is achieved. In other words, it is the concentration of substrate that permits the enzyme to achieve half Vmax.

hershey-chase

confirmed DNA is the genetic material because only radiolabeled DNA could be found in bacteriophage-infected bacteria

Unsaturated

contain double bonds; have kinks; prevents bonding to maximum number of H

Q (volume flow rate) = A v __________ A = area v = velocity

continuity equation

reverse transcriptase

converts single-stranded RNA to double-stranded DNA

virtual, upright, reduced

convex mirrors are always

0.9

cos(30)

0.7

cos(45)

0

cos(90)

retroactive interference

decreased memory caused by a distraction task demonstrates?

retroactive interference

decreased memory caused by distraction task demonstrates?

Neuropeptide Y (NPY)

decreases latency to eat, increases motivation to eat and delays satiety by augmenting meal size

Z-line

define boundary of each sarcomere

reactants - products

delta H reaction for bond dissociation energies

Griffith

demonstrated transformation

the same

describe the current in all resistors if they are all placed in series

retina

detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process.

decreased intrathoracic pressure and inhalation and increased thoracic volume

diaphragm contraction results in what?

reinforcement encourages behavior to happen again, while punishment acts to stop it in the future

diff between reinforcement and punishment

linear perspective

distances between parallel lines appear narrower as they become farther away

BP and the liquid with the lowest BP vaporizes first and is collected in the filtrate

distillation separates liquids based on their:

no

does aldosterone have a change in blood osmolarity?

master status

dominant social position (eg, ex-convict)

Bronsted-Lowry acid

donates H+

Lewis base

donates pair of electrons

U = qV _____ U = electric potential energy (J) q = charge (C) B = electric potential (V)

electric potential energy at a specific point

beta plus decay where it goes one step to the left

electron capture is also known as?

beta plus decay where the atomic number (top one) decreases by one and you go one element backwards in the periodic table

electron capture is another name for what?

1.6 x 10^-19 C

electron charge

alpha decay

emission of alpha particle consisting of 2 protons and 2 neutrons (He nucleus)

visuospatial sketchpad

employed by manipulating visual and/or spatial information (eg, reading a map)

E = hf = hc / λ

energy of light formula

E = hf

energy of one photon

PFK

enzyme that catalyzes the committed step of glycolysis

f = c/λ

equation for frequency and wavelength

alcohol and a carboxylic acid derivative

esters are formed from what?

nearsightedness, myopia, concave and diverging lens

eye lens bends light too much

type II error

false negative

type 1 error

false positive

type 1 error; false positive

falsely conclude there is a true difference

type II error; false negative

falsely conclude there is no difference

Acetyl CoA carboxylase which activates acetyl CoA

fatty acid synthesis regulatory enzyme?

λ5 = 4L / 5

fifth harmonic wavelength equation

λ1 = 4L

first harmonic wavelength equation

1/2 (pka1 + pka3)

for an ACIDIC side chain, pI =

sigma bonds

formed by direct end-to-end overlap of hybridized orbitals

concentration cell

galvanic cell in which both cathode and anode are the same species at different concentrations

polarity and BP

gas chromatography separates molecules based on their:

BP and higher BP stays longer

gas chromatography separates molecules based on what?

condensation

gas to liquid

Spearman

general intelligence (g factor)

higher

glucokinase has a ___ Km than hexokinase

lower

glucokinase has a ___ affinity to glucose than hexokinase

pyruvate carboxylase and fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase

gluconeogenesis 2 main regulatory enzymes

high

gluconeogenesis is stimulated in conditions of ___ ATP

hexokinase, PFK, pyruvate kinase

glycolysis major regulatory enzymes

lower; higher affinity

hexokinase has a ___ Km than glucokinase

higher

hexokinase has a ___ affinity to glucose than glucokinase

smaller wavelengths and higher frequencies

higher harmonics have ___ wavelengths and ___ frequencies than those in first harmonic

3 carbons

how many carbons does pyruvate have?

P=pgh

hydrostatic pressure formula

positive

if a pI is greater than 7, an amino acid will carry a _____ charge at physiological pH

histone acetylation (activates transcription)

increases accessibility of chromatin and allows DNA binding proteins to interact

noncompetitive inhibition

inhibitor binds equal affinity to enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex

feature detection

involves perceptual discrimination of specific aspects of a given stimulus

irreversible; for each turn of the citric acid cycle, 2 carbons enter as acetyl CoA and two leave as CO2

is pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH) reversible or irreversible?

Gordon Allport

known in connection with the trait perspective of personality. He argued that three key types of traits contribute to personality: cardinal traits, central traits, and secondary traits

theta waves

light sleep

first order

ln [A]

-log A

log ( 1 / A)

B + 0.A

log ( A x 10 ^ B )

structural functionalism

macro-level sociological perspective suggesting that all aspects of society work together to maintain dynamic equilibrium (societal balance)

motion

magnocellular cells process?

phonological loop

manipulating spoken and written information (eg, reading a book)

implicit

memory stored without effort or awareness (eg, procedural memory of memory of how to do things like ride a bike or tie a shoe or driving)

symbolic interactionism

micro-level sociological theory suggesting that people communicate through symbols (eg, hand gestrues)

M-line

middle of sarcomere

moles of solute/kg of solvent

molality formula

internal validity

mostly concerned with causality, or the extent to which changes in the dependent variable can be attributed to changes in the independent variable

hydrostatic pressure

moves fluid out of the blood vessel and into the interstitial fluid around it

Gardner

multiple intelligences

Answer: A

negative priming (slow, error-prone responses to stimuli that were previously ignored). ____________ Negative priming requires which type of memory process? A) Implicit memory B) Declarative memory C) Iconic memory D) Explicit memory

acid + base --> salt + H2O

neutralization reactions typically involve what?

beta minus decay

neutron becomes a proton

Vmax decreases (fewer enzymes work) Km doesnt change (binding substrate not affected)

noncompetitive vmax and km

Hans Eysenck

noted for the first empirical study he published on genetics of personality

chromatin

nucleosomes coil together forming __

normality

number of protons a molecule of acid can release in solution

gluconeogenesis

occurs during periods of fasting, starvation, low-carb diets, or intense exercise

nearsightedness (myopia)

occurs when the lens bends light too much and the image forms in front of the retina

Social facilitation

occurs when the presence of an audience improves performance on a well-practiced task

negative inforcement

occurs when unpleasant stimulus is withdrawn to encourage behavior like the beeping of the car once you put your seatbelt on

chromatid

one half of a chromosome

I-band

only actin filaments

H-zone

only myosin filaments

kg (10^3) ==> Mg ( 10^6) ==> Gg (10^9) ==> Tg (10^12)

order of the upper metric units in genchem

carboxylic acids

oxidizing agents turn primary alcohols into?

ketones

oxidizing agents turn secondary alcohols into?

G1

p53 in what step

G1

p53 is in charge of what stage of cell cycle?

Equivalence pt

pH = pI

pKa

pH at which half of the species is deprotonated

deprotonated

pKa < pH

-logKa

pKa =

protonated

pKa > pH

chromatin

packages DNA into a smaller volume to fit into the cell

longitudinal (i.e. sound)

particle movement is parallel to the propagation of the wave

transverse (i.e. electromagnetic wave, microwave, X-ray, visible light)

particle movement is perpendicular to the movement (propagation) of the wave

hydrolysis

peptide bond breakdown is an example of a ___ reaction

condensation

peptide bond formation is an example of a ______ reaction

transferase that break bonds by adding a phosphate

phosphorylases are a type of what?

ss binding proteins

prevents annealing of single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA

formaldehyde (zero alkyl groups)

primary alcohol formation in a Grignard reaction requires what?

transfection

process of introducing genetic material into eukaryotic cells

top-down processing

processing guided by information, beliefs, or ideas already stored in the brain

Arrhenius acid

produces H+

Arrhenius base

produces OH-

ethyl butanoate

product of butanoic acid and ethanol under acidic conditions?

butyl ethanoate

product of ethanoic acid and butanol?

Dopamine inhibits what?

prolactin

transcription factor; Transcription factors that are activators boost a gene's transcription. Repressors decrease transcription.

proteins that help turn specific genes "on" or "off" by binding to nearby DNA.

electron capture

proton becomes a neutron by gaining a (-) charge

positron emission

proton becomes a neutron by losing a (+) charge

dephosphorylated (***the enzyme that removes a phosphate is pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase)

pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is turned on when it is ___

pyruvate to acetyl CoA

pyruvate dehydrogenase converts?

RNA pol I

rRNA

Power _________ Power (P) = (E) / (Δt) _________ E = P Δt

rate at which energy is consumed, expended, or transferred over an interval ΔT

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

rate-limiting step of gluconeogenesis

Looking-glass self

refers to an individual basing their sense of self on how they think others perceive them. This tendency is associated with one's self-concept, rather than attraction to potential romantic partners.

Q (coulombs) = Capacitance (F) x Electric Potential (V)

relate coulombs, capacitance, and electric potential

large Kd = less binding affinity = decreased stability

relationship between Kd and binding affinity

they are inverses ___________________ resistivity = 1 / conductivity

relationship between resistivity and conductivity?

S = 1 / f

relationship between strength of lens and focal length

valence electrons closer to the nucleus and fewer core electrons = higher electronegativity

relationship between valence electrons and electronegativity?

the greater the index of refraction, the lower the velocity

relationship between velocity and index of refraction

V = λ / T ___________ If given a graph, get the wavelength by looking at the distance from one crest to the other crest and its corresponding time

relationship between velocity, wavelength, and time?

θ will decrease, because light travels slower in the new medium

relative to the angle of incidence, how will the angle of refraction (θ2) change when a monochromatic ray of light enters a medium of greater refractive index

angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

renin cleaves ___ into ___

cognitive-behavioral therapy

replaces negative thought patterns and destructive behaviors with healthy, positive thoughts and behaviors

K+

repolarization occurs when __ ions exit the neuron

voltage

resistors in parallel have the same what?

current

resistors in series have the same what?

Pacinian

respond to deep pressure and vibration

episodic buffer

responsible for temporal processing and integrating information into working memory (eg, remembering how to multiply when figuring out a tip at a restaurant)

collecting duct

responsive to both aldosterone and ADH; has variable permeability, which allows reabsorption of the right amount of H2O depending on the body's needs

collecting duct

responsive to both aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone and has variable permeability, which allows reabsorption of the right amount of water depending on the body's needs

alternative hypothesis

rivals the null hypothesis claiming that a difference between the two groups does exist

sperm and seminal fluid

semen is made up of?

theory regarding how stimuli are detected under different conditions

signal detection theory

0.7

sin(45)

1

sin(90)

one sigma and zero pi

single bonds are comprised of _____ sigma and ____ pi bond

seminiferous tubules and nourished by Sertoli cells

site of spermatogenesis

size; large

size exclusion separates based on ___, and ___ molecules elute faster

flippases

specific membrane proteins that maintain the bidirectional transport of lipids between the layers of the phospholipid bilayer in cells

feature detectors

specific neurons that preferentially fire in response to very specific stimuli

observed rotation / [solution (g/mL)] x tube length (dm) alpha (obs) / c x l

specific rotation equation

ΔH° overall = ΔH° products - ΔH° reactants

standard molar enthalpy equation

Henry's law

states that amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas

Pauli exclusion principle

states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers

null hypothesis

states that there is no difference between two groups

3 cyclohexane rings and 1 cyclopentane ring (***3 rooms and a garage)

steroids contain ___ cyclohexane ring(s), and ___ cyclopentane ring(s)

epididymis

stores sperm and where sperm gain motility

ADH secretion would increase to enhance permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney to promote water reabsorption and excretion of more concentrated urine

stranded in a desert with no water, what does your body do regarding ADH secretion?

increased aldosterone secretion to conserve water and this promotes sodium ion retention. _______________________ sodium ion retention --> promotes osmotic reabsorption of water by the kidneys

stranded in a desert with no water, what does your body do regarding aldosterone?

succinate to fumarate, while reducing FAD to FADH2 (no NAD+ or NADH involved)

succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of?

ketone (two alkyl groups)

tertiary alcohol formation in a Grignard reaction requires what?

noncovalent interactions between amino acid backbone groups

the secondary structure of a protein is stabilized by?

L

the stereochemistry of all eukaryotic amino acids except glycine is?

instinctive drift

the tendency of some trained animals to revert back to instinctual behaviors

noncovalent interactions between side chains, often bringing amino acids far apart in the primary structure close together

the tertiary structure of a protein is stabilized by?

the weight of the fluid it displaces (Archimedes principle) ______________ For an object floating at the surface, the vertical forces (its buoyancy and weight) cancel each other out and there is no net vertical force of acceleration

the upward buoyant force felt by an object = ?

estrogen

thickens uterine wall and develops the reproductive tract

insulin

this comes from beta cells of the pancreas

glucagon

this comes from the alpha cells of the pancreas

folkways

this deviance is least severe and has minor punishments like staring (i.e. wearing clothing backwards)

mores

this deviance is moderately severe and has a more severe punishment like getting arrested (i.e. no clothing in public)

diffusion

this goes from high to low concentration

estrogen

this hormone is a response to FSH in females

progesterone

this hormone is a response to LH in females

facilitated diffusion

this is an example of passive transport and diffusing into a cell without expending energy

saponification

this is the removal of an alkoxy group from an ester by a base. It forms a carboxylic acid and an alcohol

normative social influence

this most likely occurs when individuals identify with group members and want to be accepted by the group and therefore conform to fit in

informational social influence

this most likely occurs when individuals view other group members as experts and want to conform due to uncertainty of what to do or believing that others know what to do

sinθc = (n1 / n2)

total internal reflection

vas deferens

transports sperm to urethra

Sternberg

triarchic theory of intelligence

integrins

two membrane-spanning chains that permit cells to adhere to proteins in the extracellular matrix

episodic

type of explicit memory and consist of memories of personal experiences (eg, what you wore on the first day of college)

semantic

type of explicit memory and consists of facts and general knowledge (eg, presidents' names)

kgm^2/s^2 = N m = J

units for joule

lucas test

used to differentiate and categorize primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols

cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)

uses principles from classical and operant conditioning, observational learning, and cognitive therapy to treat various concerns including phobias, anxiety, and maladaptive personality traits

400 nm (violet) to 750 nm (red)

visible light consists of wavelengths from about ___ to ____

noncompetitve inhibition

vmax decreases and unchanged km

Volumetric flow rate (Q) = Av (cardiac output also represents volumetric flow rate)

volumetric flow rate equation

glucagon and cortisol

what activates PEPCK?

acetyl-CoA from β-oxidation

what activates pyruvate carboxylase?

Cells that absorb nutrients in the small intestine. They also produce enzymes that digest disaccharides such as lactase.

what are enterocytes?

it is positively charged and its electric field lines point away from it

what are the characteristics of a high voltage plate if it accelerates positive ions away from it?

plasmin

what breaks down clots?

glycine, proline

what disrupts alpha helices?

ionized fragments of a sample

what do the peaks on a mass spectrum represent?

causes interstitial cells to produce testosterone

what does LH do in males?

convert acyl-CoA (a fatty acid) into Acetyl-CoA (oxidation, hydration, oxidation, thiolysis)

what does beta oxidation do?

a zwitterion

what does glycine turn into in a medium with a pH of 6?

when a variable that is not directly measurable (i.e. fatigue and depression) is defined in such a way that it can be measured for the purposes of testing/assessment (i.e. phycological reactance)

what does it mean to operationalize a variable?

That there is significant difference between control group and intervention group(s) which is a TYPE 1 ERROR (FALSE POSITIVE)

what does it mean to reject the null hypothesis?

hemiacetal

what forms when one equivalent of alcohol reacts with an aldehyde?

hemiketal

what forms when one equivalent of alcohol reacts with ketone?

an aldehyde/ ketone and ammonia/ primary amine

what functional group reacts to form the imine intermediate in the Strecker synthesis of amino acids?

some K+ channels remain open, Na+ channels reset, inside of membrane becomes more negative than RMP

what happens during hyperpolarization?

A proton inside the nucleus is converted into a neutron and a positron is released

what happens in a beta plus decay?

closure of Na+ and opening of K+ voltage gated channels

what happens to sodium and potassium during repolarization?

F-2,6-BP and AMP

what inhibits gluconeogenesis?

G6P

what inhibits hexokinase?

22.4 L/mol

what is molar volume at STP?

calcitonin

what is secreted from the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland?

2800-3000 cm-1, strong and sharp

what is the IR functional group for sp3 hybridized C-H functional group?

F = qE __________ F = (1.6 x 10^-19 C) (2000 N/C) = 6.4 x 10^-16 N

what is the force felt by a particle in a 2000 N/C electric field? (note: the charge of an electron is e = 1.6 x 10 ^-19 C)

n (number of electrons) = Q (electric charge) / e (charge of an electron) _____________________________________ n = Q / e ____________________________________ e = - 1.6 x 10 ^ - 19 C / e

what is the formula for calculating the number of electrons from electric charge gained by a rod rubbed on fur?

centripetal force (F) = mv ^2 / r ________________________________ force exerted in a magnetic field (Lorentz force) (F) = qVB ________________________________ mv ^2 / r = qVB ________________________________ now solve for R to get answer

what is the formula for the radius of curvature in a magnetic field B, for the path of an ion with mass m, charge of q, and velocity of v?

cognitive dissonance theory

what is the name of the theory that involves things like a smoker dentist or Republican who votes Democrat?

it is aided by bile salts and it increases the surface area of the lipid, allowing for greater enzymatic interaction and processing

what is the purpose of emulsification?

predicts how and when a person will detect the presence of a given sensory stimulus amidst all of the other sensory stimuli in the background

what is the signal detection theory?

4 fused hydrocarbon rings: 3 six-membered rings, and 1 5-membered ring

what is the structure of a steroid?

steroid

what kind of hormone is aldosterone?

only virtual and upright

what kind of image can concave lens produce?

real and virtual and both are part of a converging system

what kind of image can convex lens produce?

Active transport is the energy-requiring process of pumping molecules and ions across membranes against a concentration gradient. The sodium-potassium pump is an active transport pump that exchanges sodium ions for potassium ions

what kind of transport is the sodium potassium pump

diffusion directly through the membrane

what kind of transport will a steroid undergo?

delta

what kind of waves in deep sleep?

progesterone

what maintains and protects the endometrium?

motion parallax ___________________ (****objects in the foreground are perceived as moving faster than objects in the background)

what process helps in the perception of depth and motion required during the driving stimulation?

Answer: D _____________ urea cycle also happens in both

what processes occur in BOTH the cytosol and mitochondria? a) TCA cycle b) ETC c) ketogenesis d) gluconeogenesis

insulin

what promotes glucokinase?

chief cells of parathyroid

what secretes PTH?

adrenal cortex

what secretes aldosterone?

pancreatic alpha cells

what secretes glucagon?

G1

what stage in cell cycle makes mRNA and proteins to prep for mitosis in the cell cycle?

G2

what stage of cell cycle are organelles made?

glucagon

what stimulates gluconeogenesis?

conjugated or aromatic C=C

what structure has an IR of 1580 - 1610 cm-1?

ethanoic acid + hexanoic acid *** anhydrides are formed from the condensation if 2 carboxylic acids

what two things can you mix to get acetic hexanoic anhydride?

ethanol + hexanoate acid ***ester because 1st prefix corresponds to an alcohol alkyl side chain (ethyl) and -ate is a carboxylic acid suffix ***esters are formed from an alcohol and a carboxylic acid derivative

what two things do you need to mix to get ethyl hexanoate?

tight junctions

what type of junction is in the lining of the digestive tract?

episodic/ explicit/ declarative

what type of memory includes experiences and events?

semantic

what type of memory includes names of people, colors, and vocabulary?

implicit

what type of memory includes procedural skills and tasks?

episodic

what type of memory would include when you bought your first car or first day of college?

the focal length will shift closer to the eye's lens as this is hyperopia (farsightedness)

what will happen if a corrective lens is placed in front of an eye that is unable to form a clear image of a nearby object?

2 molecules: carboxylic acid or ester/amide depending on whether nucleophile in an alcohol or amine **cyclic anhydrides are not cleaved into two molecules, but the ring is broken placing the carboxylic acid and ester/amide at opposite ends

when anhydrides undergo nucleophilic acyl substitution, what is made?

resistance increases, and current decreases

when conductivity decreases, the resistance ___, and current ____

uncompetitive inhibition and Vmax and Km both decrease

when inhibitor binds only with the enzyme-substrate complex

no, just the bottom which is the atomic number

when it comes to beta -, beta +, and electron capture, does the top number change in the element notation (not periodic table)?

In response to angiotensin 2 or high [K+] and it increases sodium reabsorption in the DCT and collecting duct, thereby increasing H2O reabsorption. _________ Result: increase in BP, but no change in blood osmolarity

when would aldosterone be synthesized?

fovea of the eye

where are cones located?

periphery of the retina

where are rods located?

liver and muscle

where does glycogenesis occur?

fovea

where in the eyes are cones located?

Answer: D ______ AA can only raise blood sugar via gluconeogenesis, therefore they are glucogenic amino acids _____ Leu is ketogenic, unlike the others which are glucogenic

which AA cannot be used to contribute to the process of raising blood sugar during prolonged starvation? a) Ala b) Arg c) Tyr d) Leu

Isoleucine, Phenylalanine, Tyrosine, Tryptophan, Threonine, and Serine

which amino acids are both glucogenic and ketogenic?

all but leucine and lysine

which amino acids are glucogenic?

leucine, isoleucine, and valine

which amino acids have branched alkyl side groups?

Answer: C

which of the following is true regarding glucokinase? a) it has a lower Km than hexokinase b) it has a lower capacity (Vmax) than hexokinase c) it's present in the islets of Langerhans d) it has a higher affinity than hexokinase

HPLC (***not gas chromatography because it separates compounds based on BP)

which separation technique is optimal for purification of small sample sizes and employs a stationary phase, a liquid mobile phase (under pressure), and a detector to separate compound mixtures based on polarity

Answer: A; PEP __________ 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate could also have been an answer**

which substance is a high-energy intermediate in glycolysis that can be utilized in substrate-level phosphorylation? a) phosphoenolpyruvate b) glucose-6-phosphate c) fructose-1,6-bisphosphate d) 3-phosphoglycerate

Answer: D

which type of molecule is LEAST likely to be found in a eukaryotic cell membrane? a) phospholipid b) cholesterol c) glycoprotein d) peptidoglycan

Allport with cardinal, central, and secondary traits

who is responsible for the trair theory?

1. frequency of sound emitted 2. frequency observed 3. speed of sound 4. speed of moving object/ source

write out the doppler equation

y = b^x

x = logb(y)


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