VSEPR
Goffman dramaturgical perspective
"front-stage self" involves behaving in ways that align with social norms and expectation
osmotic pressure
"sucking" pressure generated by solutes as they draw H2O into the bloodstream
(10 / 5) = 2
(1) / (5/10) =
Schachter - Singer
(Two- factor theory) - adds cognitive element ; stimulus —> physiological response —> interpretation —> emotion
K - 273 = DEGREES C
****BE CAREFUL WHEN DOING GIBBS FREE ENERGY QUESTIONS BECAUSE DELTA H AND DELTA S WILL BE GIVEN IN K AND THE ANSWER WILL BE IN C
spon
- ΔH and +ΔS
spon at low temps
- ΔH and -ΔS
101.3
1 atm = ____ kPa
760
1 atm = ____ mmHg
10^6
1 m^3 = ____ cm^3
phosphoglycerate kinase
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
linear linear
2 bonds, 0 lone pairs
trigonal planar, bent or V-shaped
2 bonds, 1 lone pair
glycogen synthase and branching enzyme
2 main enzymes in glycogenis?
episodic and semantic
2 types of explicit memory
enolase
2-phosphoglycerate to PEP
trigonal planar trigonal planar
3 bonds, 0 lone pairs
tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal
3 bonds, 1 lone pair
trigonal bipyramidal, t-shaped
3 bonds, 2 lone pairs
color, form, motion
3 components of feature detection
Acetylaldehyde, lactate, and acetyl CoA
3 compounds pyruvate will convert to:
P = IV = V^2 / R = I^2 / R
3 ways to solve for power
760
760 mmHg = ___ torr
Answer: 3g/7 __________________ F = ma --> a = F/m specifically, a(system) = F(net)/m(system) ___________________ The sum of external forces = F(net) = 5g + -2g = 3g The mass of the system = m(system) = 2kg + 5kg = 7kg Now going back to the system's acceleration, a = F(net)/m(system)a(system) = 3g/7
A 2 kg mass and a 5 kg mass are connected by a massless cord suspended over a massless and frictionless pulley. If the acceleration due to gravity is g, what will be the acceleration of the masses after they are released from rest?
7
A C16 fatty acid that undergoes complete beta oxidation will produce ___ NADH and ___ FADH2
linguistic determinism
A person's view of reality comes from his/her language. Even though languages are similar, they cannot represent the same reality
Answer: B ______________________ The answer is B because each mole of NADH can reduce a mole of disulfide bonds. Since the protein has four disulfide bonds, four moles of NADH are needed.
A protein contains four disulfide bonds. In order to break these bonds researchers added a minimum of: _ A) 2 moles of NADH for each mole of protein. B) 4 moles of NADH for each mole of protein. C) 2 moles of NAD+ for each mole of protein. D) 4 moles of NAD+ for each mole of protein.
increased water retention and decreased plasma osmolarity
ADH promotes ___ water retention and ___ plasma osmolarity
shape; give us the "what" of an object
paravocellular cells process?
diastole (AV valves are open)
period of the cardiac cycle that encompasses ventricular relaxation
ascending limb
permeable to salt but not water
P = W/t
power, work, and time equation
polar protic
Acetic acid
imine
primary amine + aldehyde or ketone =?
anhydrides
reactions involving carboxylic acids and acid chlorides commonly form what?
Feature detection
Breaking down an object into its components and thus helps make sense of what you are looking at
central executive
regulates attention and task switching, and three subsystems
W = Pt
relationship between work, power, and time
DCT
responsive to aldosterone, and is the site of salt reabsorption and waste product excretion
3
CaCl2 dissociates into _____ ions
aldehyde (one alkyl group)
secondary alcohol formation in a Grignard reaction requires what?
pepsinogen and gastric lipase
Chief cells secrete?
hnRNA
Collective term for your the unprocessed mRNA in the nucleus
Branching enzyme
Creates branches with α-1,6 glycosidic bonds
sensory
shortest duration and smallest capacity
polar aprotic
DMF
no
Does Kcat vary with enzyme concentration?
0..5
sin(30)
Kcat/Km
Enzyme efficiency equation
phosphatase
Enzyme that removes a phosphate group
polar aprotic
Ethyl acetate
lipases
Fats are digested by
James-Lange
stimulus --> physiological response --> emotion
phosphofructokinase
Glycolysis rate limiting enzyme
multiply by 760
How to convert atm to mmHg
raising the pH of the solution (adding a base)
How to increase solubility of acids?
1900 - 2200 (medium)
IR Alkyne (C triple bond O) or (C triple bond N)
Δp = F t
Impulse-Momentum equation
RNA pol III
tRNA
anterograde amnesia
Inability to encode new memories
retrograde amnesia
Inability to recall previously encoded information
sympathetic nervous system
Increased skin conductivity, both when anticipating an aversive event and in the startle response when viewing fear-inducing images, is controlled by the _________
Bottom-up processing
Information processing model is driven by?
Intensity = Power / Area
Intensity equation
no; add more polar organic solvent
Is TLC good for separating compounds? How can you increase RF?
polar
Is silica polar or non-polar?
no
Is the lac operon is eukaryotes or prokaryotes?
HMG-CoA synthase
Ketogenesis rate limiting enzyme
V = Vo + at X = Xo + Vot + 1/2at^2 V^2 = Vo^2 + 2a(X - Xo)
Kinematic Equations
-1 / Km
Lineweaver-Burk Plot x-intercept
1/Vmax
Lineweaver-Burk Plot y-intercept
bulbourethral glands
Makes viscous fluid to clean out urethra
v = (vmax [S])/(Km + [S])
Michaelis-Menten equation
Answer: B _____________________ There are three amino acids that are phosphorylated in eukaryotes: serine (S), threonine (T), and tyrosine (Y). The nuclear localization sequence of MYOD1 (NDAFEITKRC) contains one threonine (T) that can potentially be phosphorylated.
NDAFEITKRC The nuclear localization sequence of MYOD1 contains how many potential phosphorylation sites? A.) None B.) One C.) Two D.) Three
Nitrite
NO2-
Nitrate
NO3-
outside
Na+ concentration is higher ____ the cell
Phosphate
Nucleoside lacks what?
Chromatin
Nucleosomes coil together forming ___
Concave real inverted
Object position greater than the focal length
Concave virtual uptight
Object position less than focal length
Scotopic
Occurs at low levels of light
Transduction
Occurs when energy is transformed from one form to another
Answer: A The question asks the examinee to identify one characteristic common to arteries, capillaries, and veins. A is correct because all three types of vessels possess an inner layer of endothelial cells. B is incorrect because only veins have valves. C is incorrect because only certain types of arteries dilate or constrict to regulate blood flow. D is incorrect because the exchange of nutrients with the surrounding tissues occurs only in capillaries. Thus, A is the best answer.
One characteristic common to arteries, veins, and capillaries is the: A) presence of a layer of endothelial cells. B) presence of numerous valves that prevent the backflow of blood. C) ability to actively dilate or constrict in regulating blood flow. D) ability to supply surrounding tissues with nutrients by filtration and diffusion.
aldehydes
PCC turns primary alcohols into?
G6PD
PPP rate limiting enzyme
NADP+ and insulin ; NADPH
PPP rate limiting enzyme activated by? Inhibited by?
Fusiform gyrus
Part of visual system and plays a role in high level visual processing and recognition
Cones
Parvocellular pathway relies on?
descending limb
Permeable to H2O, impermeable to NaCl
Vision that occurs at high light levels
Photopic
Cannon - Bard
Physiological and emotional responses have occur simultaneously and independently
6.626 x 10^-34
Planck's constant
Virtual uptight and same size
Plane mirror image and position
P = F v cos θ
Power and force relation
1/focal length
Power of a lens equation
Power = W / t = F v ______________________ v = speed
Power, work, and force relation
Answer: C
Presumably, hyperglycemia promotes cellular dehydration because: A) glucose, as an energy source, accelerates the osmotic work performed by plasma membranes. B) glucose, as an energy source, accelerates plasma membrane ion exchange pumps. C) glucose molecules raise the osmotic pressure of the extracellular space. D) glucose molecules are exchanged for water molecules across the plasma membrane.
ss binding protein
Prevents the re-annealing of single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA
Post-translational modification
Process in eukaryotic cells where primary transcript RNA is converted into mature RNA. Introns are cut out
unsaturated and no precipitate forms
Qsp < Ksp
solution is at equilibrium, saturated, and no precipitate will form
Qsp = Ksp
the solution is supersaturated, and a precipitate will form
Qsp > Ksp
RNA nucleotides during transcription
RNA pol makes ___ during ____
Polar protic
ROH
Answer: B The question asks the examinee to predict the cell structure in which radioactively labeled uracil will become incorporated if added to a culture of actively dividing mammalian cells. Uracil is a component of RNA. Therefore, one would expect to find the radioactively labeled uracil in cell structures that contain RNA. B is the best answer because ribosomes contain rRNA and proteins. A is incorrect because chromosomes, by definition, consist primarily of proteins and DNA. Although DNA is composed of nucleic acids, DNA contains thymine instead of uracil. C and D are incorrect because RNA is not an integral component of either lysosomes (C) or the nuclear membrane (D). Thus, B is the best answer.
Radioactively labeled uracil is added to a culture of actively dividing mammalian cells. In which of the following cell structures will the uracil be incorporated? _ A) Chromosomes B) Ribosomes C) Lysosomes D) Nuclear membrane
higher
Reducing agents undergo a change to a ___ oxidation state
Power = work / time
Relate power and work
the greater the E°, the larger the strength of the oxidizing agent which means it is more easily reduced (take electrons from other species)
Relationship between E° (standard reduction potential values) and the strength of an oxidizing agent
Glycogen phosphorylase
Removes single glucose 1-phosphate molecules by breaking α-1,4 glycosidic bonds
R = ρL/A _____________ R, resistance / Ω ρ, resistivity / Ωm L, length / m A, cross section area / m2
Resistivity equation:
linearly
Resistivity is ____ proportional to Temperature
(R1 x R2) / (R1 + R2)
Resistors in parallel formula
Voltage
Resistors in parallel have the same what?
Endoderm
Respiratory system is derived from
Meissner
Respond to light touch
Ruffini
Respond to stretch
DCT
Responsive to aldosterone and is a site of salt reabsorption and waste product excretion, like the PCT
Sulfide
S 2-
size
SDS PAGE solely separates proteins based on?
Sulfite
SO3 2-
Sulfate
SO4 2-
temporal summation
Same space / Different time
proprioception
Sense of the position of the body in space
Form
Shape and boundaries of an object
Positive sense
Single-stranded virus that can get replicated by the host cell
Negative sense
Single-stranded virus where RNA replicase must synthesize a complementary strand which can be translated
Amplitude
Sound intensity depends on?
Ruffini
Stretch
1
The citric acid cycle requires ____ ADP and produces ___ ATP
1
The citric acid cycle requires ____ FAD and produces ___ FADH2
3
The citric acid cycle requires ____ NAD+ and produces ___ NADH
Answer: A In the Watson and Crick model of DNA structure, the nitrogenous bases form hydrogen bonds with each other in a 1:1 ratio: guanine pairs with cytosine, and adenine pairs with thymine. This implies that the amount of guanine and cytosine would be the same, and the amount of adenine and thymine would be the same. Thus, A is the best answer.
The discovery that the amount of thymine equals that of adenine and the amount of guanine equals that of cytosine in a given cell provides supporting evidence that: _ A) the Watson and Crick model of DNA is correct. B) DNA is the genetic material. C) the genetic code is universal. D) the code for one amino acid must be a triplet of bases.
the radius of the curvature
The focal length of the mirror depends only on __________
Answer: .01 __________________ The difference of two pH units represents a 100 times higher concentration of hydronium ion at the lower pH. Therefore, the ratio is 1/100 or 0.01.
The highest activity occurs at pH 6 and the lowest activity occurs at pH 4. What is the ratio of hydronium ion concentrations in solution at the pH that results in the highest MP activity to that which results in the lowest MP activity?
Mendel independent assortment
The inheritance of one allele does not influence the probability of inheriting an allele for a different trait
Answer: 100 _____________ The intensity level β in dB is defined by: β = 10Log(I/I0), where I is the intensity of the sound and I0 is the minimum intensity audible to the human ear. The question states that βB is 20 dB larger than βA, hence βB- βA = 20 dB. Thus, 20 = 10Log(IB/IA) or Log(IB/IA) = 2. This yields IB/IA = 10^2 = 100
The intensity level of Sound B is 20 dB greater than the intensity level of Sound A. How many times greater is the intensity level of Sound B than the intensity level of Sound A?
Answer: B ________________________ An increase in water conservation would result in higher urine osmolarity and lower blood osmolarity.
The osmolarity of urine in these subjects was 958 milliosmoles/L, compared with an average blood osmolarity of 284 milliosmoles/L. The higher osmolarity of urine suggests that: A.) the kidneys are secreting very little Na+. B.) the kidneys are acting to conserve water. C.) the subjects are on a low-protein diet. D.) the subjects are dehydrated.
Answer: A _____________________________ The answer to this question is A because the pentose phosphate pathway results in the generation of NADPH, which is utilized in reductive reactions
The pentose phosphate pathway results in the generation of: _ A) NADPH, which is used as a reductive agent in cellular respiratory processes. B) NADPH, which is used as an oxidative agent in cellular respiratory processes. C) NADH, which is used as a reductive agent in cellular respiratory processes. D) NADH, which is used as an oxidative agent in cellular respiratory processes.
Turning a rod cell off
The phototransduction cascade is the process of?
Approximate radial size of an electron cloud; n
The principal quantum number is a measure of what?
Answer: B ____________________ - negative symptoms are known for their absence: - ex: not showing emotion, lack of pleasure/withdrawal, lack of communication, etc - you want to identify a medication that would make these symptoms worse, or cause these symptoms to show up - antipsychotics like neuroleptics that are often used for schizophrenic's have a sedative effect and can cause a decline in mental abilities ___________________ Atypical antipsychotics relieve both positive and negative symptoms, but neuroleptics tend to only relieve positive and either worsen or maintain negative symptoms. __________________ Atypical antipsychotics treat schizophrenia without exacerbating negative symptoms
The researchers determined that two participants in the S group were taking medication that may have exacerbated their negative symptoms. Which classification of medication were these participants most likely taking? A) Atypical antipsychotics B) Neuroleptics C) Hallucinogens D) Stimulants
Answer: C _______________________________ Gly, Phe, and Ala all have nonpolar side chains, while Lys is the only one with a charged R-group. Lys side chain has an amino group which can form peptide bonds by reacting with a carboxylic acid group
The side chain of which amino acid can form a bond that is similar to a peptide bond? _ A) Gly B) Phe C) Lys D) Ala
Answer: A _______________ Isoforms are functionally similar, but have different amino acid sequences. This means same genes, but alternative splicing.
The six different isoforms of LEPR are produced by using different: A) exons of the LEPR gene. B) isoforms of the LEPR gene. C) promoters of the LEPR gene. D) protein cleavage sites of LEPRb.
Answer: 2.4 x 10^-2 mol/L ____________________ Pgas = (Xgas)(Ptotal) PN2 = (0.8)(5 atm) PN2 = 4 atm ___________________ Equilibrium (C) = (6.0 x 10 ^-3 mol/L x atm)(4atm) C = 2.4 x 10^-2 mol/L
The solubility of N2 gas in blood is 6.0 x 10 ^-3 mol/L x atm ___________ A diver is using a tank filled with 20% O2 and 80% N2 (by volume). If the pressure in the lungs in 5 atm, what is the expected equilibrium concentration of N2 dissolved in the diver's blood?
cardiac output (CO)
The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called
Thomas Theorem ————————— A child's perception of ghosts will keep him awake even though they aren't real
The way you interpret a situation causes action
VA > VB > VC
There are three bulbs (A-C) connected in series connected to a voltage source. Bulb A is the brightest, and C is the dimmest. How are the voltages across the bulbs A-C related?
Answer: 1 kg __________________ Fb = W = 10 N because the upward buoyant force felt by an object is = to the weight of the fluid it displaces (Archimedes principle) __________________ W = mg m = W /g m = 10 N / 10 m/s^2 = 1 Kg
There is a buoy that floats at the surface above a diver. Assuming the buoy is not pulled by the diver, what is the mass of a floating buoy that experiences a force of 10 N and is 20% submerged?
Answer: D; I, II, and III ________________________ Significant drops in pH would result in protonation of hydrogen-bond acceptors, leading to a loss in base-pairing interactions The presence of positive ions in solution (particularly Mg2+) leads to stabilization of the DNA fold via shielding of the repulsion between phosphate groups within the DNA backbone. The length of DNA strands would also play a role. Longer DNA strands are held together by more hydrogen bonds, meaning that more energy is required to denature the double-stranded DNA
Thermal denaturation experiments can be used to follow the transition of double-stranded DNA into single-stranded DNA. Which of the following parameters affects the Tm of dsDNA in this experiment? I. pH of solution II. Ionic strength of solution III. Length of DNA strands _ A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III
long term potentiation
This describes an enduring increase in synaptic transmission of neurons, which is the neural foundation for learning and memory consolidation. When neurons are repeatedly stimulated, they demonstrate an increased firing rate. An example would be an increase in magnitude of EPSP's
histone acetylation
This enzyme activates transcription and increases accessibility of chromatin and allows DNA binding proteins to interact
Gabriel
This generates an amino acid from potassium pthalamide
ADH (vasopressin)
This peptide hormone increases the permeability of the collecting duct to H2O, which increases H2O absorption. Result: increases BP and decreases blood osmolarity, concentrated urine
LiAlH4
This reducing agent can reduce a COOH or an ester into an alcohol
Social constructionism
This theory focuses on how the meanings we atta h to objects are a result of a collective social agreement or conventions
Thymine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor
Thymine contains __ donor and ___ acceptor
pH = pI
Titration equivalence point
Answer: C
To be an effective therapy, an antisense gene that is incorporated into a genome that contains the target gene must be: A) on the same chromosome as the target gene but not necessarily be physically adjacent. B) on the same chromosome as the target gene and must be physically adjacent. C regulated in a similar manner as the target gene. D) coded on the same strand of DNA as the target gene.
aldehydes into carboxylic acids
Tollen's test turns what into what?
V = Ed E = V/ d = 5 / .03 = 166.7 V/ m _________________ 1 V = 1 J/C
Two parallel electrodes are separated by 3 cm with a 5 V potential difference. What is the magnitude of an electrical field between the two electrodes in ionization type detectors?
Away from fetus and toward the placenta. It carries deoxygenated blood
Umbilical artery carry blood ___ from the fetus and toward the ___. It carries ____ blood
eosinophils
Used in allergic reactions and invasive parasitic infections. They release histamine, causing an inflammatory response
Basophils
Used in allergic reactions. Mast cells are related cells found in the skin
15 min - GC separates based on BP. - compounds with lower BP stay in the gas phase and move through the column quickly - high BP have longer retention time - carboxylic acids have the highest BP --> longest retention time
Using gas chromatography, you had ethanol, acetic acid, and acetaldehyde as results. The time points are 1 min, 2 min, 5 min, and 15 min. At which time was acetic acid most likely eluted?
Answer: 1.9 __________________ refractive index (n) = c / v _________________ c = speed in vacuum = 3 x 10^8 ________________ n = (3 x 10^8) / (1.6 x 10^8) = 1.9
Visible light travels through the output phosphor at 1.6 x 10^8 m/s. What is the refractive index of the material?
depth, form, motion, constancy
Visual cues include
Charles Law (V1 / T1) = (V2 / T2)
What is relationship between volume and temperature?
anterior pituitary
What part of the brain produces endorphins?
hemiacetal
What structure is usually rung open to form an aldehyde?
Answer: B ___________________ "Overextension" is the term for applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance (for example, "doggie" for a cow).
Whenever a two-year-old sees a moth, the butterfly-like pattern on her dress shoes, or hair bows that resemble the shape of a butterfly, she proudly exclaims, "Butterfly!" This process is referred to as: A.) the naming explosion. B.) overextension. C.) categorical perception. D.) bootstrapping.
mitochondria
Where does beta oxidation occur?
Answer: A ______________- The frequency is determined by the source, not the medium through which the wave travels
Which of the following properties of a 2.3 MHz ultrasound wave remains unchanged as it passes into human tissues? a) frequency b) wave speed c) amplitude d) wavelength
Answer: C; southern blotting because it will show the presence of a gene, but not the expression which the question is looking for
Which technique CANNOT be used to analyze gene expression? _ A) Western blotting B) Northern blotting C) Southern blotting D) Reverse transcription PCR
small atomic radius which makes the HF bond strong, and it also has a smaller surface area to localize charge when ionized
Why is HF a weak acid?
Gap junctions
____________ are intercellular junctions that provide cytoplasmic channels between adjacent cells.
glycerol
a three-carbon alcohol with a hydroxyl group attached to each carbon
teratogen
agent or factor that causes malformation of an embryo
no
can glycoproteins cross the membrane?
osmosis
diffusion of water
no, it has to be greater than 1
does a Hill coefficient of 1 mean cooperativity?
polar aprotic
ethyl acetate
lead
how can you stop gamma decay?
it increases it
how does the hydrophobic effect affect entropy?
the resistance increases by a factor of 4, and the current decreases by a factor of 4
if the conductivity is decreased by a factor of 4, how would this affect the resistance and current?
n = c / v c: speed of light in a vacuum v: speed of light in the medium
index of refraction equation
1 / f
lens strength =
RNA pol II
mRNA
% (m/m) = component mass / total mass
mass percent formula
the molecular weight of a molecule
mass spectrometry measures what?
carboxylic acids
oxidizing agents turn aldehydes into?
V = d / t ____________ t = d / v ___________ d = 2πr __________ t = (2π r) / (qBr / m) _________ t = (2 π m ) / (qB)
the velocity of an object in circular motion is qBr / m. What is the time equation?
ΔV = α V ΔT
thermal expansion equation when using volume?
spatial inequality
uneven distribution of wealth and resources across a geographic area
Mesopic
vision that occurs at dawn or dusk and involves both rods and cones
T = 1 / f
wave period
real and virtual
what 2 types of images can plane mirrors make?
complementary DNA that has been reverse transcribed from RNA
what is cDNA?
citric acid cycle
what is the series of reactions that oxidizes acetyl CoA?
blood glucose levels are high (fed state) and is stimulated by insulin
when would fatty acid synthesis occur?
violet 400 nm
which color on the visible spectrum has the smallest wavelength?
Answer: A _________________ Because Sites I and II bind to anionic and hydrophobic ligands, the amino acid side chains should be cationic (R) to form a salt bridge and hydrophobic (L) for London forces.
"Although diverse, the ligands tend to be mainly hydrophobic with anionic or electronegative features, and many commonly used pharmaceuticals fall within this category" Sites I and II are most likely lined with the side chains of which amino acids? A. R and L B. E and Y C. D and E D. D and H
spontaneous at high temps
+ ΔH and +ΔS
nonspon
+ ΔH and -ΔS
20 D _________ - Combined strength of two lenses: S = S1 + S2 - S = overall lens strength - S1: strength of first lens - S2: strength of second lens ___________ - S2 = 30 D - 10 D = 20 D
- Two lenses are combined to make a microscope with a combined lens strength of 30 D - If one lens has a strength of 10 D, what is the strength of the second lens?
2nd order
1 / [A]
760
1 atm = ___ torr
101,325
1 atm = ____ Pa
tetrahedral, bent
2 bonds, 2 lone pairs
trigonal bipyramidal, linear
2 bonds, 3 lone pairs
glycogen synthase and branching enzyme
2 main enzymes in glycogenesis?
Answer: 7.5 Amps ___________________________________ I (current; amps) = Q (coulombs) / t (time) _________________________________ Q (coulombs) = Capacitance (F) x Electric Potential (V) Q = (25 x 10^-6) (3000) = 7.5 x 10^-2 C _________________________________ I = Q/t = (7.5 x 10^-2) / (.01) = 7.5 A
3000 V 25 microfarad If the defibrillator described in the passage were fully charged and the entire charge were discharged through a patient in 10 ms, which of the following is closest to the average electrical current that would flow through the paddles?
tetrahedral tetrahedral
4 bonds, 0 lone pairs
trigonal pyramidal, seesaw
4 bonds, 1 lone pair
octahedral, square planar
4 bonds, 2 lone pairs
trigonal bipyramidal
5 bonds, 0 pairs
octahedral, square pyramidal
5 bonds, 1 lone pair
octahedral
6 bonds, 0 lone pairs
Thurnstone
7 mental abilities
Answer: B A carbonyl group contains a C=O double bond. The first bonding interaction between atoms is always a σ bond. The second bond is formed from π symmetry orbitals.
A carbonyl group contains what type of bonding interaction(s) between the C and O atoms? A.) One σ only B.) One σ and one π only C.) One π only D.) One σ and two π only
Answer: A _______________ The force on the charge is qE and force is also ma. Setting qE = ma and solving for acceleration a yields
A charged particle with a mass of m and a charge of q is injected midway between the plates of a capacitor that has a uniform electric field of E. What is the acceleration of this particle due to the electric field? A) Eq/m B) Em/q C) mq/E D) Emq
Answer: A _____________ The answer is A because catalytic efficiency is measured by kcat/KM, which means that a higher KM and a lower kcat gives the lowest efficiency.
A combination of KM and kcat with which relative values is indicative of the lowest catalytic efficiency for an enzymatically catalyzed reaction? _ A) A high KM and a low kcat B) A high KM and a high kcat C) A low KM and a high kcat D) A low KM and a low kcat
2 m in front of the mirror _________________________________ f = r / 2 = 4 / 2 = 2 m
A concave mirror has a 4 m radius of curvature. This mirror will focus distant objects at a location that is approximately?
Answer: C ___________ - a social constructionist sees gender as beyond categories
A constructionist understanding of gender asserts that categories of gender are: _ A) biologically determined and immutable. B) binary and the product of ingrained socialization processes. C) fluid and subject to social processes of meaning-making. D) binary, yet interchangeable depending on context.
Answer: D ________ Patients with Parkinson's disease already have insufficient dopamine levels. Therefore, a drug that blocks dopamine receptors will further reduce dopamine's impact, and worsen the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors.
A dopamine antagonist will most likely lead to: A.) increased hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. B.) increased delusions in patients with schizophrenia. C.) decreased mobility and decreased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease. D.) decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease.
Answer: B The fibers that attach to the chromosomes in mitosis and form the mitotic spindle (the spindle fibers) are microtubules. They are assemblies of tubulin proteins. Disruption of the mitotic spindle by drugs prevents the proper segregation of chromosomes into the daughter cells and usually results in unequal numbers being distributed to the two daughter cells. Many of the resulting plant cells would have more than two sets of chromosomes, thus making answer choice B the correct answer. While a plant might differ from its parent plants in the number of chromosomes, it would contain the same genes. Only in a limited sense would it have more genetic variability. Thus, answer choice A is incorrect. Answer choice C is incorrect because tubulin is not found in the cell wall. Answer choice D is incorrect because tubulin has only a minor role in motility, thus making independent movement unlikely.
A drug that binds to tubulin molecules of plant cells and prevents the cells from assembling spindle microtubules would most likely cause the resulting plants or plant cells to have: A) greater genetic variability than the parent plants. B) more than two sets of chromosomes. C) a stronger cell wall because of excess tubulin. D) independent movement because of excess tubulin.
Answer: 200 J ____________________ The easiest way to calculate the work in this pulley problem is to multiply the net force on the weight mg by the distance it is raised: 4 kg × 10 m/s2 × 5 m = 200 J.
A force F is used to raise a 4-kg mass M from the ground to a height of 5 m. What is the work done by the force F?
Answer: D Glucocorticoid secretion by the adrenal cortex increases with stress, so it is unlikely that it would decrease in someone who was under the emotional and physical stress that situation suggests, so option A is incorrect. The need to conserve water in the body would lead to an increase in aldosterone secretion that would promote the retention of sodium ions. The retention of sodium ions would in turn promote the osmotic reabsorption of water by the kidneys so option B is incorrect. Insulin is responsive to levels of glucose in the blood. No information is given about the hiker's food supply, but it is reasonable to assume that insulin levels would not be increasing due to increased glucose levels in the blood so option C is incorrect. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin) secretion would increase to enhance the permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney to promote water reabsorption and excretion of more concentrated urine. Therefore, response D is the best answer.
A hiker becomes lost and has no drinking water for 2 days. At the end of this time, which of the following changes in hormone production would be expected to be significant in this individual? _ A) Decreased glucocorticoid secretion B) Decreased aldosterone secretion C) Increased insulin secretion D) Increased antidiuretic hormone secretion
acid-base extraction; organic layer
A mixture of organic molecules with acidic and basic functional groups can be separated by ___. These acid and base components are initially in the ___ layer
stronger
A more negative reduction potential indicates a ____ reducing agent
Answer: 8 _______________________ 2x2x2 because two copies of each gene as it is heterozygous
A particular diploid organism is heterozygous in each of 3 unlinked genes. Considering only these 3 genes, how many different types of gametes can this organism produce?
Answer: D ____ They have a problem breaking down glycogen
A patient experiences fasting hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and ketosis. His doctor diagnosed him with a glycogen storage disease. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be deficient? a) branching enzyme b) glycogen synthase c) glucokinase/hexokinase d) glucose-6-phosphate
Answer: B __________________ In order for a postsynaptic cell to produce an action potential, its membrane potential must reach a threshold potential. In the described cell, this requires a shift in membrane potential from -65 mV (its resting membrane potential) to -55 mV (its threshold potential). This will be achieved by a depolarizing stimulus, which increases membrane potential. However, the described stimulus will hyperpolarize the membrane by shifting the membrane potential from -65 mV to -80 mV. The resulting hyperpolarization is associated with inhibition of the postsynaptic cell and an inability of the cell to generate an action potential.
A postsynaptic cell has a resting membrane potential of -65mV with a threshold potential of -55mV. Will an action potential be generated by a single stimulus that lowers the membrane potential of the postsynaptic cell by 15mV? A.) Yes, because the stimulus caused the membrane potential to exceed the threshold potential B.) No, because the stimulus hyperpolarized the membrane, producing an inhibitory effect C.) Yes, because the stimulus had an excitatory effect on the postsynaptic membrane D.) No, because the depolarizing effect of the stimulus did not exceed the threshold potential
Answer: A _______________ The answer is A because a protein with a low pI would be negatively charged at pH 7. This protein, being anionic, would bind to an anion exchange column (eliminates choices C and D). Largest negative net charge implies the presence of a large quantity of negatively charged amino acids, allowing the protein to bind tightly to the column. A high concentration of NaCl would be required for elution (eliminates choice B). This is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you must understand how the design of ion-exchange chromatography experiments affects the separation of proteins with various charges.
A protein with which properties will most likely have the largest negative net charge at pH 7? _ A) A protein that binds to an anion-exchange column at pH 7 and requires a high concentration of NaCl for elution B) A protein that binds to an anion-exchange column at pH 7 and requires a moderate concentration of NaCl for elution C) A protein that binds to a cation-exchange column at pH 7 and requires a high concentration of NaCl for elution D) A protein that binds to a cation-exchange column at pH 7 and requires a moderate concentration of NaCl for elution
0 because there is no relative motion between the jets, there is no frequency shift.
A receiver is in a jet flying alongside another jet that is emitting 2.0 x 106 Hz radio waves. If the jets fly at 268 m/s, what is the change in frequency detected at the receiver?
oxidation and loses electrons
A reducing agent undergoes ___ and ___ electrons
The corpus callosum
A researcher is testing neurological function. When a word is flashed in a patient's right visual field, they can correctly vocalize what they saw. However, when a word is flashed in their left visual field, they cannot vocalize it but can correctly draw it. What is most likely damaged?
This contradicts the James-Lange theory where it states that specific emotions produce specific physiological reactions
A researcher recruited 20 people with broken legs and 20 matched controls. Participants were presented images to provoke positive, negative, or no emotion. If the results show no significant difference between participants with broken legs and control participants in the emotional response, what does this mean?
Answer: B In starvation, the body uses up its stores of carbohydrate and lipids, and then begins to break down body proteins for metabolic energy. A byproduct of the metabolism of the amino acids from protein is nitrogen. The correct answer is therefore answer choice B: the nitrogen in the urine comes from breakdown of the body's proteins. Neither lipids, nor carbohydrates such as glycogen, contain nitrogen, so the excess nitrogen could not come from those sources. The reason animals have kidneys is to provide a way of eliminating nitrogenous waste products. Incomplete reabsorption of nitrogenous products is the goal of the kidney, not necessarily a pathological process.
A resident of a famine area who appears undernourished and extremely emaciated has eaten only starches for the past 3 months. A urine analysis shows that a large amount of nitrogen is being excreted. This is most likely evidence of: _ A) an abnormally high rate of glycogen breakdown in the liver. B) breakdown of the body's own structural proteins to provide energy. C) utilization of the last remaining fat reserves to provide energy. D) incomplete reabsorption of nitrogenous products due to kidney failure.
Answer: A because it is the only one in which there is a mutation in the palindromic sequence. Restriction enzymes only cut in palindromic sequences and since there is a mutation in A, you will be able to detect in in the southern blot
A single point mutation in a gene results in a nonfunctional protein. Individuals heterozygous for this mutation were identified using a Southern blot. Which pair of wild-type (WT) and mutant alleles most likely contains the mutation? _ A) WT5′- TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ Mutant5′-TAGTCGATGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ B) WT5′- TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ Mutant5′-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATAT-3′ C) WT5′- TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ Mutant5′-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATGT-3′ D) WT5′- `TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′ Mutant5′-TCGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3′
Answer: A; assessing the precision of the results ______________________ An experiment is precise (reliable) if similar results are obtained on repeated trials ___________________ Accurate: if it correctly represents "real-world" value
A specific protein process was measured in a lab. The experiment was repeated multiple times to mitigate error by: a) assessing the precision of results b) verifying the calibration of the instruments c) assessing the validity of the experiment d) verifying the accuracy of the results
Answer: A The question asks the examinee to identify the cell cycle stage in which a stable, differentiated, nondividing cell will most likely be found. A diploid, nondividing cell is most likely in G0 or G1, in which the cell remains metabolically active but is not replicating its DNA (S) or segregating its duplicated chromosomes and dividing (M). A is the only option that lists either G0 or G1. Thus, A is the best answer.
A stable, differentiated cell that will NOT divide again during its lifetime would most likely be found in which of the following stages of the cell cycle? _ A) G1 B) G2 C) M D) S
Answer: C ___________ Any bias on the part of the observers recording the data could have contaminated the original results. In this case, it is possible that proper precautions (for example, ensuring that observers were "blind" with respect to which patients received the drug and which patients received the placebo) were not taken.
A team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company tests a new cancer drug. The researchers have concluded that the drug is effective, but other scientists CANNOT replicate the findings. Which is the most likely explanation for the lack of replicability of the original results? A.) Base rate fallacy B.) Hindsight bias C.) Observer bias D.) Public verifiability
Answer: A ___________________ Whenever a question asks about the strand that encoded the mRNA, the coding strand has the exact same sequence as the mRNA, except you swap out the Us in the mRNA with Ts since the coding strand is DNA. However, the question asked for the original genetic viral code. Since HIV is a retrovirus, this means that it's genome is based off of RNA. So, the coding strand still has the exact same sequence as the mRNA. However, since HIV's genome is RNA-based, we don't swap out the Us, we keep them. ___________________ Okay this is tricky since usually it's pretty customary to switch the U/T's and reverse it and make it complementary bases. BUT, this is not what is happening here. So HIV has a RNA genome (ssRNA positive sense) and they revert back to a DNA using the enzme reverse transcriptase (goes from RNA --> DNA) instead of RNA polymerase which goes from (DNA --> RNA). I think this is information you should know (and I don't see any info regarding HIV being a retrovirus in the passage). The DNA is then making a mRNA which is coding for proteins. You are given the mRNA strand in the passage in the questions tem and asked to find the mRNA strand of the VIRUS (N
A vDNA sequence encoding a protein is inserted into a host genome by IN. The protein is translated from the hypothetical mRNA sequence shown. 5-GGCAACUGACUA-3 Based on the passage, the segment of the original viral genome that encoded this protein had what nucleotide sequence? _______________________________ A) 5-GGCAACUGACUA-3 B) 5-TAGTCAGTTGCC-3 C) 5-CCGTTGACTGAT-3 D) 5-UAGUCAGUUGCC-3
the myosin head from the actin filament ______________________ Usually, ATP is required to break down the bonds between the actin filament and the myosin head. ______________________ After death, ATP is no longer available so the myosin head cannot be released from the actin filament, resulting in the stiffening of the muscles
According to the cross-bridge model of muscle contraction, the muscles stiffen after death because ATP is unavailable to bind and directly release:
polar aprotic
Acetone
creative phosphate
Adds a phosphate group to ADP, forming ATP
Adenine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor
Adenine contains __ donor and __ acceptor
adding high salt concentrations
After cation proteins are bound to the column, how can they be removed (eluted)?
Answer: D ________________________ To answer this question, think about which compounds are needed to enter gluconeogenesis? Or be converted into a compound that can enter gluconeogenesis? __________________________ Acetyl CoA is not used for gluconeogenic purposes, but for ketogenic purposes
After the depletion of hepatic glycogen in newborns, which compounds can be used as precursors to sustain the blood glucose level? I) Acetyl-CoA II) Lactate III) Oxaloacetate IV) α-Ketoglutarate A) I and II only B) II and III only C) I, II,and IV only D) II, III, and IV only
Answer: C
Aging would include declines in all of the follow memories listed below EXCEPT? a) episodic b) flashbulb c) semantic d) source
5.4 g ___________ (0.61 F) x (1 mol e- / 1 F) x (1 mol Al(s) / 3 mol e -) x (27 g Al(s) / 1 mol Al (s)) = 5.4 g
Al(s) --> Al3+ + 3e- ___________________________ How many grams of the Al(s) anode are consumed if 0.61 faradays of electric charge pass between the aluminum rod and the iron pipe?
Answer: D
Aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption by the kidneys. What changes in blood volume and pressure would be expected as a result of aldosterone deficiency? _ A) Increased volume and increased pressure B) Increased volume and decreased pressure C) Decreased volume and increased pressure D) Decreased volume and decreased pressure
Answer: D ___________ Mnemonic: TFLN-Co (Teflon Company) __________ Thiamine pyrophosphate FAD Lipoic acid NAD Co ASH
All of the following are cofactors (coenzymes) to pyruvate dehydrogenase complex EXCEPT? a) thiamine pyrophosphate b) coenzyme A c) riboflavin d) zinc ions e) lipoic acid
Answer:
All of the following biochemical processes take place in the cytosol EXCEPT? a) ketogenesis b) HMP shunt c) fatty acid synthesis d) nucleotide synthesis
Answer: B The question asks the examinee to identify which one of four actions is not associated with normal inspiration in mammals. B is the best answer because the diaphragm does not relax during inspiration. The diaphragm contracts and pulls downward, causing air to enter the lungs. A, C, and D all describe actions that do occur during inspiration. Elevation of the rib cage increases the volume inside the chest cavity (A), reduction of pressure inside the pleural cavity causes air to move into the lungs (C), and contraction of the external intercostal rib muscles helps the chest expand (D). Thus, B is the best answer.
All of the following occur during normal inspiration of air in mammals EXCEPT: _ A) elevation of the rib cage. B) relaxation of the diaphragm. C) reduction of pressure in the pleural cavity. D) contraction of the external intercostal rib muscles.
Beta positive decay
Also known as positron emission
either a strong acid, strong base, or heat
Amide hydrolysis requires what?
Dopamine
Amphetamine blocks
extraction
An ___ combines two immiscible liquids, one of which easily dissolves the compound of interest
Answer: decrease by a factor of 4 ________________________ I (intensity) = 1 / r^2
An audience member experiences sound of intensity I as an orchestra member plays a flute. If the audience member moves farther back so that the distance from the flute player is doubled, the I would?
Answer: B _______________________ The anode is positively charged, so when the electron is traveling toward it, the potential energy between the electron and anode will be converted into kinetic energy. So by the time the electron has nearly reached the anode, it's kinetic energy will be equal to the potential energy it initially had when it was at the cathode. EDIT: The kinetic energy will be slightly greater because the electron was given a small amount of kinetic energy via the photon to knock it loose from the cathode ___________________________ Instead of an atom, think of a hand holding a ball (the "electron") at a certain distance above the ground. That ball has a certain gravitational potential energy, and when it's released it will convert all that potential energy into kinetic energy as it falls to the ground. Answers C and D don't make any sense. You're not going to lose 3/4 of the potential energy as something falls, so C is wrong. There's also obviously not going to be 0 kinetic energy, because it's falling, so D is wrong. Now to decide between A and B, we have to think about the work function. THe work function is analagous to the energy you have to apply to knock the
An electron is ejected from the cathode by a photon with an energy slightly greater than the work function of the cathode. How will the final kinetic energy of the electron upon reaching the anode compare to its initial potential energy immediately after it has been ejected? A) It will be 2 times as large. B) It will be approximately equal. C) It will be 1/4 as large. D) It will be 0.
An enzyme having a high Km shows a low affinity for its substrate. It also requires a greater concentration of the substrate to achieve Vmax.
An enzyme having a high Km shows a _____ affinity for its substrate. It also requires a _____ concentration of the substrate to achieve Vmax.
Answer: D; II and III __________________________ The answer to this question is D because uncompetitive inhibitors bind their target enzymes only when the substrate is first bound to the enzyme. Since at higher substrate concentrations, the substrate-enzyme complex are more abundant, the uncompetitive inhibitor will work most effectively when the substrate concentration is the highest. Additionally, an increase in the inhibitor concentration results in increased enzyme binding and inhibition __________________ Its because uncompetitive can only bind ES complex. If substrate concentration went down, less ES could form, so less uncomp inhibition.
An enzyme is more effectively inhibited by uncompetitive inhibitors when: I. the substrate concentration is decreased. II. the substrate concentration is increased. III. the inhibitor concentration is increased. A) I only B) III only C) I and III only D) II and III only
Answer: D ____________ So this question is mainly based on osmosis. Normally, the concentration of solutes in the blood and tissue fluid is the same (they're isotonic with each other). However, if you inject albumin into the blood, you're placing extra solute into the blood, meaning that the concentration of solute in the bloodstream will now be higher than it is in the tissue (the blood is now hypertonic to the tissue). _________________ Therefore, water (fluid) will flow from the area of low concentration of solutes (tissue) to the area with higher concentration of solutes (bloodstream) to equilibrate the solute concentration. ______________ Because albumin has nothing to do with the immune response, answer choice A is incorrect
An intravenous infusion causes a sharp rise in the serum level of albumin (the major osmoregulatory protein in the blood). This will most likely cause an: _ A increase in the immune response. B increase in tissue albumin levels. C outflow of blood fluid to the tissues. D influx of tissue fluid to the bloodstream.
Mendel first law of segregation
An organism has two alleles for each gene, which segregate during meiosis, resulting in gametes carrying only one allele for a trait
Answer: D An organism that causes human disease is isolated and studies. Researchers would conclude that the organism is a bacterium rather than a virus if the organism reproduces in a culture medium lacking host tissue. Bacteria do not require host tissue to reproduce, whereas viruses do.
An organism that causes a human disease is isolated and studied. Researchers conclude that the organism is a bacterium rather than a virus because the organism: A) undergoes mutation. B) lacks a nuclear membrane. C) contains protein in its outermost covering. D) reproduces in a culture medium lacking host tissue.
Answer: C _________________ When antisense mRNA molecules are used as described in the passage, the antisense molecules bind specifically to the sense mRNA, preventing the process of translation
Antisense nucleic acids, which are complementary to a portion of the sense mRNA, can be synthesized. The antisense molecules will bind specifically to the sense mRNA and prevent the production of the natural gene product. __________________________________________ When used as described in the passage, antisense drugs prevent: A) DNA replication. B) RNA transcription. C) RNA translation. D) cell replication.
Schiff base
Appear when proteins form a covalent bond to a carbonyl-containing compound by nucleophilic addition of an amine to form an imine linkage ____________ They serve as reaction intermediates in enzyme-catalyzed reactions or as covalent linkages
l; This quantum number provides the subshell designators s, p, d, and f.
Approximate shape of an electron cloud is dictated by the orbital quantum number?
Kohlberg
Are stages based on moral dilemmas and explain how children develop moral reasoning
Answer: C _________________ Affinity would decrease with a decrease in plasma pH, and during prolonged exercise, anaerobic respiration would decrease the plasma pH.
As blood passes through actively contracting skeletal muscle tissue, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in the muscle tissue: A.) increases as a result of an increase in plasma temperature. B.) increases as a result of an increase in plasma PO2. C.) decreases as a result of a decrease in plasma pH. D.) decreases as a result of a decrease in plasma PCO2.
It increases ________ The increase in distance between radio wave peaks due to the jet speed causes the received wavelength to be lengthened. This effect is the essence of the Doppler effect.
As the speed of the jet flying away from the receiver increases, what happens to the distance between adjacent peaks of the transmitted waves, as measured at the receiver?
Answer: 10 ________________________ P1 + pgy1 + .5pv1^2 = P2 + pgy2 + .5pv2^2 At point 1 above the fluid the pressure P1 is the atmospheric pressure and at point 2 outside the puncture the pressure P2 is also atmospheric pressure, so these terms cancel in Bernoulli's equation for this situation. pgh = .5 pv^2 gh = .5 v^2 v = sqr (2gh) = sqr (2)(10)(5) = 10
Assume that the side of the water tank is punctured 5.0 m below the top of the water, and that atmospheric pressure is 1.0 × 10^5 N/m2. What is the approximate speed of the water flowing from the hole?
resistivity, length, and cross-sectional area
At a given temp, the resistance of a wire to detect current depends only on what?
Answer: C; Positive punishment Positive refers to adding a stimulus, and punishment refers to a consequence that decreases a behavior. A meeting with the dean was added, and this decreased the behavior (unprofessional behavior), so this is positive punishment.
At one university, faculty members who behave unethically are required to have a meeting with the dean. After their meeting, their unprofessional behavior decreases. What process does this describe? a) Positive reinforcement b) Negative reinforcement c) Positive punishment d) Negative punishment
Answer: C _____________ The answer is C because the anionic peptides bind to anion-exchange columns. The strength of the binding depends on the overall charge of the peptide. Of the options given, only C and D have a net negative charge. The net charge of peptide C is -1, whereas the net charge of peptide D is -5. Peptide C would elute at a lower salt concentration than Peptide D
At pH 7, which of the following peptides will bind to an anion-exchange column and require the lowest concentration of NaCl for elution? _ A) AVDEKMSTRGHKNPG B) YPGRSMHEWDIKAQP C) HIPAGEATEKALRGD D) EAPDTSEGDLIPEVS
pKa
At the half-equivalence point (midpoint), the pH =
prostaglandins
Autocrine and paracrine signaling molecules that regulate cAMP levels. Affect smooth muscle contraction, body temp, sleep-wave cycle, fever, and paon
Kinaesthesia
Awareness of movement of the body
Answer: D ___________ Aside from microglia, all else are adaptive immune responses
Based on the information in the passage, which immune cells would mount the initial immune response to N. meningitidis that results in meningitis? A.) B cells B.) Cytotoxic T cells C.) Helper T cells D.) Microglia
fixed interval
Behavior rewarded after a consistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. For example, employees who are paid a weekly salary receive the same amount of money each Friday regardless of how hard they have worked during the week
fixed ratio
Behavior rewarded after a consistent number of responses. For example, a customer loyalty program awards a free coffee after ten coffee purchases
variable interval
Behavior rewarded after an inconsistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. For example, when awaiting an email, the frequency with which users refresh their in-boxes does not affect when a new email arrives
variable ratio
Behavior rewarded after an inconsistent number of responses, usually some average number of responses. The schedule might provide a reward after four correct responses, then after two, then after three, and so on
all three because hydroxyls., thiols, and amines commonly act as nucleophiles
Between cysteine, lysine, and serine, which can act as a nucleophile?
Depth which is a result of retinal disparity, which is the fact that each eyeball has a different perspective on the world
Binocular cues give a sense of?
Mesoderm
Blood cells are derived from
Answer: C ___________________ Peptidases are enzymes that digest proteins.
By stimulating secretion of peptidases from the pancreas into the duodenum, CCK facilitates the digestion of: A.) fats. B.) protein. C.) nucleotides. D.) carbohydrates.
Answer: D _________ proteases cleave peptide bonds using water
By which mechanism do proteases cleave bonds? a) oxidoreductase activity b) lyase activity c) isomerase activity d) hydrolase activity
Answer: 2.0 atm ______________________ X elemental gas = nH2 + nN2 / ntotal = 6 / 11 = 0.54 _____________________ P elemental gas = (X elemental gas)(P total) = (0.54)(3.7 atm) = 2.0 atm
C4H8N8O8 (s) --> 3CO2 (g) + C(s) + 2H2O(g) + 2H2(g) + 4N2(g) If the decomposition of C4H8N8O8 (s) produces a total pressure of 3.7 atm, what is the partial pressure of elemental gas?
Increased glutamate production
Caffeine inhibiting cAMP breakdown leads to what?
yes through simple diffusion
Can hydrophobic molecules pass through the membrane?
no
Can you use differences in the plane polarizing light of two compounds as a separation technique?
C=C₁+C₂+C₃+...
Capacitors in Parallel Equation
(C1 x C2) / (C1 + C2)
Capacitors in series formula
Av
Cardiac output equation
Answer: B; Variable-ratio Variable-ratio reinforcement schedules tend to produce the highest response rates that are the most resistant to extinction, which is exactly why casinos use them.
Casinos maximize the amount of money that people are willing to put into slot machines by making sure that the slot machines pay out jackpots on a reinforcement schedule that is the most resistant to behavior extinction. These machines most likely use which reinforcement schedule? a) Fixed-ratio b) Variable-ratio c) Variable-interval d) Fixed-interval
Chlorite
ClO 2-
Chlorate
ClO 3-
Perchlorate
ClO 4-
Hypochlorite
ClO-
B
Cluster ____: dramatic/emotional/erratic ; antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic
hydrocarbon and H2 in the reactants, and CO2 and H2O in the products
Combustion reactions typically involve what?
Schiff base
Commonly seen in biochemistry as imine linkages between a protein and a substrate or a prosthetic group. They are formed between a primary amine (eg, of a lysine side chain) and a carbonyl compound
Virtual (upright) and diverting system
Concave lens image and system
virtual, upright
Concave mirrors form ____ and ___ image when the object is placed inside the focal length
inverted, real
Concave mirrors form ____ and ___ image when the reflected object is located outside the focal length
Answer: C; I and III only ____________ Lack of current means no net movement of ions, which only happens when the concentration of ions is the same on both sides of the membrane or there are no ions present that the channel is specific for (K+).
Consider an experiment that consists of two ionic solutions separated by a membrane that contains a ligand-gated potassium channel. The lack of current generation in response to addition of ligand is explained by: I) lack of potassium in either solution. II) the presence of potassium in only one solution. III) equal concentrations of potassium in the two solutions.
A-band
Contains both actin and myosin. Only part that maintains a constant size during contraction
Virtual upright and smaller
Convex image and position
Real (inverted) or virtual (upright) in a converging system
Convex lens image and system
Glycogen synthase
Creates α-1,4 glycosidic bonds between glucose
Cytosine contains 1 donor and 2 acceptors
Cytosine contains ___ donor and ___ acceptors
polar aprotic
DMSO
Avery-Macleod-McCarty
DNA degradation stopped bacterial transformation, not protein degradation
DNA nucleotides during DNA replication ___________ needs an RNA primer
DNA polymerase makes __ during ___
Merkel
Deep pressure and texture sensation in the skin
is that it has a DNA-binding domain that allows it to bind to regulatory nucleic acid sequences in a gene to alter transcription.
Defining characteristic of a transcription factor
K+
Depolarization occurs when ___ ions exit the neuron
At neutral pH, the glutamate side chain is negatively charged, and therefore highly soluble. As the pH decreases, glutamate becomes protonated which neutralizes its charge and makes it less water-soluble under acidic conditions.
Describe how glutamate changes as you go from neutral pH to low pH
an oxidoreductase catalyzes the transfer of electrons to break the bond. To break the disulfide bond in cystine, a reduction step that transfers electrons back to the sulfur atom is required.
Describe the enzymatic cleavage of a protein disulfide bond
Some people are predisposed to having mental illness
Diathesis-stress model
vital capacity
Difference between minimum and maximum volume of air in the lungs
spatial summation
Different space / Same time
Endoderm
Digestive system is derived from
no; lactase digestion does not happen in the colon
Do epithelial cells in the colon lining produce digestive enzymes?
no
Do hepatocytes produce digestive enzymes?
no
Does Km vary with enzyme concentration?
no; it denatures and separates proteins based on size
Does SDS PAGE separate proteins based on charge?
yes; __________ V0 = initial velocity of an enzymatic reaction and at low concentrations of substrate and constant enzyme concentration, adding more substrate will increase V0 until max velocity is reached
Does V0 vary with enzyme concentration?
no
Does Vmax vary with enzyme concentration?
No, it contracts and pulls downward causing air to enter the lungs
Does the diaphragm relax during inspiration?
Double bonds are comprised of one sigma and one pi bond
Double bonds are comprised of _____ sigma and ____ pi bond
Answer: A _____________ During exercise, muscles produce lactate that goes into circulation. The presence of lactate will increase the osmolarity of the venous blood. _______________ Blood pressure in systemic arteries will not affect osmolarity of the venous blood.
During exercise, the osmolarity of venous blood from active muscles will increase as a result of an increase in: A.) lactate concentration in plasma. B.) O2 concentration in plasma. C.) oxyhemoglobin concentration in red blood cells. D.) blood pressure in systemic arteries.
synthesis of ketone bodies, or ketogenesis
During high rates of fatty acid oxidation, primarily in the liver, large amounts of acetyl-CoA are generated. These exceed the capacity of the TCA cycle, and the results are?
Answer: D This question requires that you identify relevant background information. Specifically, you need to know whether the voltage-gated K+ channels and Na+ channels in the plasma membrane of a neuron are open or closed during the different stages of an action potential. When the plasma membrane is at its resting potential, the voltage-gated K+ channels and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed. As triggering events bring the membrane up to its threshold potential, the voltage-gated Na+ channels open and cause further depolarization of the membrane by allowing Na+ to flow into the cell. The voltage-gated K+ channels are closed during the depolarization phase of an action potential. After the membrane reaches its peak potential, the voltage-gated K+ channels open, allowing K+ to flow out of the cell and repolarize the membrane by returning the membrane to near its resting potential. During the repolarization stage of the action potential, the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed. This answer correctly states that during the repolarization phase of an action potential, the voltage-gated K+ channels are open, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed.
During the repolarization phase of an action potential in a neuron, which of the following is generally true of the voltage-gated channels that cause that action potential? A) The voltage-gated K+ channels are closed, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed. B) The voltage-gated K+ channels are open, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are open. C) The voltage-gated K+ channels are closed, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are open. D) The voltage-gated K+ channels are open, and the voltage-gated Na+ channels are closed.
NADH dehydrogenase
ETC complex I
succinate dehydrogenase
ETC complex II
cytochrome reductase
ETC complex III
cytochrome oxidase
ETC complex IV
1.5
Each FADH2 creates how many ATP molecules?
2.5
Each NADH creates how many ATP molecules?
transmission
Electrical activation of one neuron by another neuron
Answer: B According to the item, embryonic mouse cells divide every 10 hours at 37oC. Under such circumstances, and starting with a single egg, x cells would be present after three days (or 24 x 3=72 hours). The number can be calculated by tracking the doubling time: 1 → 2 → 4 → 8 → 16 → 32 → 64 → 128 → 256. At the end of 70 hours (approximately 3 days), there would be 128 cells, assuming that each cell underwent division 10 hours after its previous division.
Embryonic mouse cells divide every 10 hours at 37oC. How many cells would be produced from an egg after three days? A) Fewer than 50 B) Between 50 and 500 C) Between 500 and 5000 D) More than 5000
QV / 2 = CV^2 / 2 = Q^2 / 2C
Energy stored in capacitors equation
R = L / σA
Equation for resistance in terms of conductivity?
Answer: B ____________ f = 1 / T The frequency is 1/(250 ms) = 4 Hz.
Excimer lasers are used in the photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) technique designed to correct vision impairment caused by excess corneal epithelium material. The cornea has an index of refraction of 1.3. Material in excess is removed by vaporization from the surface of the cornea with the use of pulsed laser radiation at time intervals of 250 ms. What is the frequency of the pulses that deliver laser radiation to the cornea? A.) 0.4 Hz B.) 4.0 Hz C.) 25 Hz D.) 250 Hz
Ebbinghaus
First person to look at decay in human memory
Base excision repair
Fixes nondeforming lesions of the DNA helix such as cytosine delaminating by removing the base, leaving an AP site
similar
For a dehydrated person, how would their blood osmolarity compare in terms of their urine and blood?
placenta
For a fetus, where does oxygenation occur?
I (current) = Q (coulombs) / time
Formula for average electrical current that would flow?
λν=c c=3.00 x 10^8 m/sec
Formula for wavelength and frequency
V = Ed Solve for E
Formula to determine the magnitude of an electrical field?
Answer: A The heart and blood vessels both differentiate from the mesoderm. Thus, A is the best answer.
From which germ layer(s) do the tissues of the heart and blood vessels differentiate? I) Ectoderm II) Mesoderm II) Endoderm _ A) II only B) III only C) I and II only D) I and III only
E° cell = E red + E ox __________ 0.46 + 0.9 = +1.36 __________ Δ G° = -nFE° cell _____________ Δ G° = -(2)(96,500)(1.36) ___________ Δ G° = 262,439 J/mol = 262 kJ/mol
GRu2+ (aq) + Cr (s) --> Ru (s) + Cr2+ (aq) Half reactions: Ru2+ (aq) + 2e- --> Ru(s) half reaction 1 E red: +0.46 V _____________________ Cr(s) --> Cr2+ (aq) + 2e- half reaction 2: Eox: +0.90 V _______________________ What is the expected change in the standard Gibbs free energy delta Δ G° for the galvanic cell?
- GC separates based on BP. - compounds with lower BP stay in the gas phase and move through the column quickly - high BP have longer retention time - carboxylic acids have the highest BP --> longest retention time
Gas chromatography retention times
Chromatin
General packing structure of DNA around proteins in eukaryotes; tightness in packaging depends on cell stage
Answer: D Breakdown of glucose proceeds first by glycolysis, then by oxidation in the citric acid (Krebs or tricarboxylic acid) cycle. The enzymes for the former process are located in the cytoplasm and those for the latter are in the matrix of mitochondria. The 14C label, therefore, would first appear in the cytoplasm, then in the mitochondria, as stated in answer choice D.
Glucose is labeled with 14C and followed as it is broken down to produce CO2, H2O, and ATP in a mammalian liver cell. In theory, during this process the label will be detectable: A) in the mitochondria only. B) first in the nucleus, then in the mitochondria. C) first in the mitochondria, then on the ribosomes. D) first in the cytoplasm, then in the mitochondria.
2
Glycolysis requires __ NAD+ and produces ___ NADH
Flynn effect
Growth of IQ in each generation
Guanine contains 2 donors and 1 acceptor
Guanine contains __ donors and ___ acceptor
Bicarbonate
HCO 3-
nonpolar liquid
HPLC: mobile phase
polar
HPLC: stationary
hydrogen sulfate (bisulfate)
HSO 4-
Answer: A _________________ The woman inherited one X chromosome from her father and one from her mother. The father only had one X chromosome to contribute and that X chromosome contained the hemophilia gene. The mother will pass on one X chromosome to her sons, either the X chromosome containing the normal (wild type) gene, or the X chromosome containing the hemophilia gene. The probability of a son receiving the hemophilia gene and being a hemophiliac is 1/2, because there is a 50-50 chance that this son received an X chromosome carrying the defective gene from his carrier mother. The cumulative probability of all three sons inheriting the hemophilia gene would be the product of the individual probabilities, or 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2. Thus, answer choice A, 1/8, is the answer.
Hemophilia, a disease in which the time required for blood to clot is greatly prolonged, is determined by a sex-linked gene. Suppose a man with normal blood clotting marries a woman with normal blood clotting whose father was a hemophiliac. If this couple has three sons, what is the probability that hemophilia will be transmitted to all three of them? _ A) 1/8 B) 1/4 C) 3/8 D) 1/2
pH = pKa + log [A-]/[HA]
Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
by converting a proton in the nucleus to a neutron by electron capture (in other words, beta decay)
How can 68Ge turn into 68Ga? (note: Ga is one less at 31, while Ge is one more at 32)
Positive attention from others for initially losing weight motivates them to lose more weight _____________ Behaviorism focuses on reinforcement and punishment
How can a behavioral theorist explain the behavior of a person with anorexia?
decreasing blood osmotic pressureq
How can a student increase the net fluid filtration out of the capillaries?
If they are converted into an ionic salt via deprotonation with either a strong base or a weak base
How can carboxylic acids with long hydrocarbon chains enter the aqueous layer?
increase the amplitude of the wave because sound wave energy is directly proportional to its amplitude squared
How can you change amplitude to produce a sound wave of greater energy?
it increases it
How do high protein levels affect urine osmolarity?
only prolines contain a secondary amine in its backbone
How do prolines differ from the other standard amino acids?
Molecules in a sample are injected into into a mass spectrometer where they are bombarded with a beam of electrons. ____________________________________________________________ This beam removes electrons from the molecule and forms a positively charged ion called a molecular ion. The molecular ion can also fragment to form smaller ions. ____________________________________________________________ An electric field accelerates ions towards a magnet, which deflects them according to mass. ____________________________________________________________ The strength of a magnetic field is gradually changed during the experiment, and each field strength causes ions of a specific mass to reach the detector which all others are deflected into the walls of the tube. ____________________________________________________________ Ions are detected and a mass spectrum is generated. ____________________________________________________________ Y-axis: ion mass abundance ____________________________________________________________ X-axis: mass-to-charge ratio ____________________________________________________________ The mass spectrum can be used to identify the mass of a molecule's fragments by t
How does a mass spectrometry work?
it does not
How does blood pressure in systemic arteries affect osmolarity of the venous blood?
converting a proton in the nucleus to a neutron by electron capture
How is a 68Ga isotope generated from 68Ge? ((**Ga is one to the left of Ge)
spreading out the ight rays before they are refracted by the lens (making the light rays diverge), which is accomplished with a concave or diverging lens
How is nearsightedness corrected?
hydrophobic interactions
How is tertiary structure stabilized?
4; composed of 6-6-6-5 assembly
How many fused rings in a steroid?
Answer: C; 3 ____________ The answer to this question is C because during conversion of α-ketoglutarate to oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle 2 molecules of NADH and one molecule of FADH2 are generated.
How many molecules of reduced electron carrier are generated during conversion of α-ketoglutarate to oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle? _ A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
Answer: 10,000 ________________________ The abbreviation ppm stands for parts per million (parts). Since 1% is one part in 100 parts, the question becomes 1 is to 100 as × is to 1,000,000, where × is the unknown. For the equality 1/100 = ×/106, × = 104 or 10,000. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
How many ppm is 1%?
110 - 70 = 40 ________________ 10 ^ 4 = 10,000 = answer _______________ perceived loudness of sound is logarithmic, so increasing the intensity of a sound by a factor of ten is perceived as being two times louder ___________________ dB = 10 log (I 1 / I 2) ___________________ I 1 has an intensity of 10 dB when it is 10 times more intense than I2 _______________________________ I 1 has an intensity of 20 dB when it is 100 times more intense than I2 ___________________________________ I 1 has an intensity of 30 dB when it is 1000 times more intense than I2
How many times greater is the intensity of the sound from object A (110 dB) compared to the intensity of the sound from object B (70 dB)?
2
How much CO2 does the citric acid cycle produce?
Answer: 7.2 moles ________________________ (.250 L) x (4.8 mol ClO3- / 1 L) x (6 mol electrons / 1 mol ClO3-) = 7.2 mol electrons
How to set this up? 6H2O + 5CLO3- + 3I2 --> 5Cl- + 6IO3- + 6H+ __________________________ If 6 moles of electrons are required to reduce 1 mole of ClO3-, how many moles of electrons are required to reduce all the CLo3- ions present in 250 mL of a 4.8 M ClO30 solution?
Answer: 18 g _______________ (11.2 L H2) x (1 mol H2 / 22.4 L H2) x (2 mol H2O / 1 mol H2) x (18 g H2O / 1 mol H2O) = 18 x H2O
How to solve this? Ca + 2H2O --> Ca(OH)2 + H2 What mass of water is necessary to generate 11.2 L of hydrogen gas if calcium metal reacts with water at standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
Kp = (PN2O2) / (PNO2)^2 _______ 8 = (n) / (0.5)^2 _______ 8 = n / 0.25 ______ Partial Pressure N2O2 = 2 atm
How to solve this? 2NO2 --> N2O4 - Partial pressure NO2 = 0.5 - Kp is 8 atm - what is the partial pressure of NO2?
Answer: 1.6 x 10 ^-1 ________________________ - first find the limiting reactant which is XeF4 --> then convert this to moles ______________________ (41.4 mg XeF4 / 1000 mg XeF4) x (1 mol XeF4 / 207.28 g XeF4) = .0002 mol XeF4 _____________________ (.0002 mol XeF4) x (24 mol HF / 6 mol XeF4) = .0008 mol HF ____________________ (.008 mol HF / .005 L solution) = 1.60 x 10 ^-1 M
How to solve this? 6XeF4 + 12H2O --> 2XeO3 + 4Xe + 3O2 + 24 HF If 41.4 mg of XeF4 is hydrolyzed in 5.00 mL of water according to the reaction above, what is the theoretical yield of HF expressed as the molar concentration in the resulting solution? (note: MM of XeF4 is 207.28 g/mol)
the pH will decrease slightly because NH3 and NH4 act as a buffer
How will the pH of a solution change if you add 1 mL of H2SO4 to 100 mL solution of NH3 and NH4?
less than 16 mmHg because some of the CO2 got consumed. ____________ (0.2 mL)(40 mmHg) = (pCO2 final)(0.5 mL) = 16
How would you set this up? A 0.2 mL blood sample has a PCO2 of 40 mmHg. During analysis, the CO2 in the sample diffuses across a membrane into the E2 electrode containing 0.30 mL of an aqueous solution. At equilibrium, the PCO2 in the combined sample-electrode sample will be?
Power (P) = Energy (E) / time (t) __________________ E = Pt
How would you set this up? ____________ A black hole emits a jet with a power of 100 W. If the black hole has a rotational period of 1 s, what is the energy emitted by the jet during one rotation of the black hole?
-0.116 kJ of heat ____________________________ ΔH fusion = 2.51 kJ/mol --> -ΔH solidification - 2.51 kJ/mol __________________________ (5.74 g P4 x 1 mol P4 / 123.9 g P4) x (-2.51 kJ / 1 mol P4) = -0.115 kJ of heat
How would you solve this? - latent heat of fusion ΔHf - 2.51 kJ / mol - How much energy in the form of heat is released when 5.74 g of P4(l) is solidified?
- forming a bond is exothermic and it releases energy (negative enthalpy) - breaking a bond is endothermic and requires energy (positive enthalpy) - ΔH°rxn = ΔH°reactants - products
How would you solve this? - you are given various bonds (i.e. H-H) and their corresponding bond enthalpies ΔH° (kJ/mol) - For a reaction in which 2 moles of H2(g) reacts with 1 mol of O2(g) to form 2 moles of H2O(g), what is the heat of the reaction?
(5.74 g) x (1 mol / 123.9 g) x ( - 2.51 kJ / mol ) = - 0.116 kJ of heat released
How would you solve this? How much energy in the form of heat is released when 5.74 g of P4 is solidified? **Heat of fusion if 2.51 kJ / mol
Answer: D __________________ the passage indicates that an integrase monomer is composed of 288 amino acids, which will have an approximate molecular weight of 32 kDa (the average molecular weight of an amino acid is 110 Da). Thus, a tetramer will have an approximate molecular weight of 128 kDa.
Human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) integrase (IN) is a viral enzyme that mediates the integration of viral DNA (vDNA) into the host chromosome. IN is a 288-residue protein composed of three domains: the N-terminal domain, the catalytic core domain (CCD), and the C-terminal domain. The CCD contains three highly conserved residues (D64, D116, and E152), and mutation of any of these three residues abolishes IN activity. _________________ An inactive tetramer of IN is expected to have approximately what molecular weight? A) 16 kDa B) 32 kDa C) 64 kDa D) 128 kDa
[A]^ a [B]^b
IP =
saturated, equilibrium
IP = Ksp
the solution is supersaturated, and a precipitate will form
IP > Ksp
1600 - 1680 (weak)
IR: C double bond C
1700 (sharp)
IR: C double bond O
sharp peak at 3300 cm-1
IR: N-H
3600-3200 (strong, broad)
IR: O-H
A would have greater power and current __________________________________ V = IR R = VI Since A and B are in parallel, V would be the same, so I would have to be greater to make up for the reduced R, hence the increase. ____________________________________ P= IV Since the I has increased, P would also increase
If A has a lower resistance to B, how would their power and currents compare if they are in parallel?
Answer: C ________________ inhibition of PPP NADPH inhibits fatty acid synthesis
If G6PD is inhibited, which pathway would be most directly inhibited? a) glycogen synthesis b) ribonucleotide synthesis c) fatty acid synthesis d) glycolysis
Answer: A ________________ The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the surface pressure. ____________________ The normal boiling point is measured at 1 atm pressure. The vapor pressure of a liquid increases with increasing temperature. Hence, the boiling point of a liquid decreases as the pressure on the surface of the liquid is decreased __________________ If a leak develops in the apparatus, the surface pressure will increase, as will the boiling points of both liquids. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.
If a leak develops in the vacuum distillation apparatus, the boiling points of the two components of caraway seed oil will: A both increase. B both decrease. C both remain the same. D become more similar.
Answer: C
If a patient is in a coma, researchers would most likely stimulate what? a) Wernicke's area b) parietal lobe c) reticular activating system d) somatosensory cortex
Answer: C ______________________ The gall bladder is an organ that stores bile produced by the liver. The major dissolved components of bile are breakdown products of hemoglobin such as bilirubin and bile salts. The bile salts are amphipathic; that is, they have a hydophobic portion that is soluble only in fats and oils and a hydrophilic portion that is soluble in water. Bile salts allow dietary fats (and oils), which do not dissolve in the watery digestive juices, to form an emulsion of tiny droplets dispersed in the digestive juices. One end of a bile salt molecule associates with the fats and the other with the aqueous solution in the gut. The dispersion of fats in the aqueous digestive juices and aids digestion by making them available to digestive enzymes. Since triglycerides are hydrophobic fats, bile would aid in their digestion, so the answer is C, triglycerides. Removal of the gall bladder would have no effect on digestion of proteins (choice A), polysaccharides (choice B) or lactose (choice D).
If a person's gallbladder is removed, the person should restrict the consumption of: _ A) proteins. B) polysaccharides. C) triglycerides. D) lactose.
Answer: D ___________________ This question requires some prior knowledge of the function of the autonomic nervous system. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system arouses the animal for "fight or flight." Blood is directed away from the digestive system and toward the skin and muscles; the digestive system becomes less active; the heart beats faster and with greater force; the bronchi of the lungs relax to let in more air; and the pupils of the eyes dilate. Rapid removal of acetylcholine from the circulation would inactivate parasympathetic stimulation of digestive secretion consonant with rapid arousal of the animal in an emergency. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
If acetylcholine is removed from the circulation faster than norepinephrine is, which of the following autonomic processes would be most rapidly inactivated? A) Dilation of the pupils B) Dilation of blood vessels in the skeletal muscles C) Rise in blood pressure D) Stimulation of digestive secretions
2 ______ The pH of a solution is defined as -log[H+]. The strong acid HCl completely dissociates in water, so an HCl concentration of 0.01 M means that the H+ concentration is 0.01 M (10-2 M), and the pH is 2. This value is given as choice C.
If an archaebacterial species lives in a pool that is 0.01 M HCl(aq), what is the pH of the water?
higher __________________ It leads to increased water reabsorption by your kidneys. Osmolarity goes down and BP goes up
If blood osmolarity is _____ than normal, your body reacts to replace this water loss by releasing ADH
(2)^2 (for the amplitude) x (2) (for power) = 8 times greater intensity
If both the amplitude of the wave and power were to double, how would it affect the intensity?
Answer: B _____________ Capacitance C is inversely proportional to the separation d between the parallel plates according to the formula C =(ϵ0 ϵr A)/d. _________________ A decrease in the separation corresponds to an increase in the capacitance. __________________ Given that the charge on the capacitor is directly proportional to the capacitance, an increased capacitance results in an increase in the charge as long as the power supply voltage is constant.
If both the capacitor and the power supply in Figure 1 are adjustable, which of the following changes would result in an increase in the charge on the capacitor? A.) Decreasing the area of the parallel plates B.) Decreasing the separation between the parallel plates C.) Removing the dielectric from the capacitor D.) Decreasing the voltage of the power supply
the same because 2^2 / 2^2
If both the distance and amplitude of a wave doubled, how would it affect the intensity?
cation (because they are positively charged in that they are cationic)
If mitochondrial proteins have an alkaline pI, they will be captured by ______ (cation/anion) -exchange chromatography at pH 7
Answer: C _______________ In water, carbonate will undergo the following reaction: CO32-(aq) + H2O(l) → HCO3-(aq) + OH-(aq). Red litmus paper will turn blue in a base.
If red litmus paper is dipped into the Na2CO3 solution, it will: A remain red, because carbonate is an acidic salt. B remain red, because sodium carbonate is neutral. C turn blue, because carbonate reacts with water to produce OH-. D turn blue, because sodium ions form sodium hydroxide in water.
Use Q = CV to get the value of the first Q using 25 μF and 3000 V. Then use this Q value to solve for the voltage using the equation Q = CV where the new C is 30 μF
If the 25 μF capacitor in the defibrillator in Figure 1 is replaced with a 30 μF capacitor, what new power supply setting would produce the same amount of charge? The original had a voltage of 3000 V.
Answer: 5 __________________________ Kb = 10^-5 ________________________ pKb = 5
If the acid dissociation constant, Ka, for HCN is about 1 x 10^-9, what is the value for pKb?
Answer: C; frequency __________________ E = hf
If the energy of a photon is doubled, which of the following properties of the photon will also double? A) Amplitude B) Wavelength C) Frequency D) Intensity
Answer: C; frequency _______________ E = hf = hc / λ ______________ Both amplitude and intensity have to do with waves, not photons
If the energy of a photon is doubled, which of the following properties of the photon will also double? a) amplitude b) wavelength c) frequency d) intensity
Answer: 1:3 _______________________ The magnitude of the electric field E of a point charge is given by kq / r^2 If q is tripled, E would also triple ____________________________ *****The q in E=F/q is the charge of the point experiencing the force in the field, and requires an external electric field to be created independently of this charge. ********On the other hand, the q in E = kq/r2 is the charge of the point creating the electric field
If the magnitude of a positive charge is tripled, what is the ratio of the original value of the electric field at a point to the new value of the electric field at that same point?
Answer: C _____________ An amber codon is a stop codon. If the third codon is replaced with a stop codon, the protein will not be synthesized.
If the third codon in the coding region of the Rdl GABA receptor cDNA is replaced with an amber codon (for example, TAG) and the modified Rdl GABA receptor cDNA is expressed in frog oocytes, functional full-length receptors will: A.) accumulate in the Golgi complex. B.) accumulate in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. C.) not be synthesized. D.) lose resistance to dieldrin.
active transport
If you are at a lower concentration and want to go to a higher concentration
keep the same order, direction, and letters, BUT JUST replace all the thymines with uracils
If you have a 5'-3' DNA strand and want to get its corresponding 5'-3' mRNA strand, what would you do?
Convert to mRNA first where you: keep the same order, direction, and letters, BUT JUST replace all the thymines with uracils __________ THEN, flip all letters (maintaining the order and sequence) to their corresponding nucleotide (keep using uracils)
If you have a 5'-3' DNA strand and want to get its corresponding 5'-3' tRNA strand, what would you do?
enamines
Imines tautomerize to form
decomposition
In ___, a single reactant breaks down
Molecular ion
In a mass spectrum, what is the heaviest ion?
an acid and a base react to form water and salt
In a neutralization reaction, what happens?
Answer: 4/9 __________________ The probability that, of the red F1 beetles, both were heterozygous is 2/3 × 2/3, or 4/9 (only red beetles were selected from and 2/3 of the red F1 beetles were heterozygous)
In a species of beetle, red body color is dominant to brown. Two red beetles are crossed and produce 31 red and 9 brown offspring (F1 generation). If two red F1 beetles are crossed, what is the probability that both red and brown beetles will appear in the F2 generation? (Note: Assume Mendelian inheritance patterns.)
In an anion-exchange column, a negatively charged molecule (hence the name anion-exchange) binds to a positively charged column
In an anion-exchange column, a _______ charged molecule (hence the name anion-exchange) binds to a ______ charged column
mass number (protons + neutrons)
In an element notion with A on top, Z on bottom next to letter X, what is A?
atomic number (number of protons)
In an element notion with A on top, Z on bottom next to letter X, what is Z?
Answer: D V0 is the initial velocity of an enzymatic reaction. At low concentrations of substrate and constant enzyme concentration, adding more substrate will increase V0 until the maximal velocity is reached.
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction where enzyme concentration is held constant and substrate concentration is relatively low, which kinetic parameter will increase with the addition of more substrate? (Note: Other than substrate concentration, assume no other changes to reaction conditions.) A) KM B) kcat C) Vmax D) V0
feature detection
In an experiment, researchers found that certain neurons in a visual cortex preferentially fire in response to a bar of light that is oriented at a specific angle, and that different neurons similarly respond to bars of light oriented at different angles. This provides evidence for what?
organic on top (also has lower density and is nonpolar)
In an extraction, is the organic or aqueous layer on top?
polar
In an extraction, the ___ layer is the aqueous (water) layer and dissolves compounds with H bonding or polarity
Negatively
In cation exchange, the beads are ___ charged, and this causes ___ charged proteins to elite first
nonpolar
In chromatography, the mobile phase is typically ___ and this causes ___ molecules to elute faster
nonpolar
In chromatography, the mobile phase is usually ____, and this causes ___ molecules to elute faster
polar
In chromatography, the stationary phase is usually ___, and this causes ___ molecules to elute slower
oxidizes
In complex I, ETC _______ NADH to form NAD+
succinate is oxidized to fumarate, and FAD is reduced to FADH2
In complex II, succinate is ___ to fumarate and FAD is ___ to FADH2
component with lower BP vaporizes first
In distillation, what vaporizes first?
The organic layer is on the top, while the aqueous layer is on the bottom. The organic layer is also the nonpolar layer
In extraction, between organic and aqueous layers, which one is on top and which is on the bottom?
Internal validity increases; external validity decreases
In general, as a study becomes more tightly controlled and confounding variables are limited, ______ tends to increase but _____ tends to decrease
Answer: A The question asks the examinee to identify the stages in the human female life cycle between which all the mitotic divisions that lead to primary oocytes occur. These stages occur in the following order: fertilization, birth, puberty, menopause. All of the mitotic divisions that form primary oocytes occur prior to birth. Thus, A is the best answer.
In human females, mitotic divisions of oogonia that lead to formation of presumptive egg cells (primary oocytes) occur between: _ A) fertilization and birth only. B) fertilization and puberty only. C) birth and puberty only. D) puberty and menopause only.
parallel
In longitudinal waves, oscillations of the spring are ____ to the direction of propagation
renin juxtaglomerular cells
In low BP, __ is released from ___
Answer: B _______________ One of the key differences between mitosis and meiosis occurs during their respective anaphases. _________________ During anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids are pulled apart at the centromeres, each becoming an independent chromosome in the two diploid daughter cells. _________________ During anaphase I of meiosis I, homologous pairs of chromosomes are separated into the two daughter cells. However, each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids joined to each other at the centromere. __________________ It is not until anaphase II of meiosis II that the centromere is split and the sister chromatids separate. Thus, B is the best answer.
In mammals, which of the following events occurs during mitosis but does NOT occur during meiosis I? _ A Synapsis B The splitting of centromeres C The pairing of homologous chromosomes D The breaking down of the nuclear membrane
abundance as it represents the y-axis
In mass spectrometry, the height of each peak is dependent on what?
Answer: A ______________ the molecular ion peak normally has the highest m/z
In mass spectrometry, which of the following statements most accurately describes the definition of the base peak? a) the peak with the highest abundance b) the peak with the highest m/z value c) the peak with the lowest abundance d) the peak with the lowest m/z value
Answer: A _________________ Continuous reinforcement refers to reinforcing every response emitted by an individual. ______________ Partial reinforcement occurs when only some of the responses emitted by an individual are reinforced. ______________ Continuous reinforcement is associated with a fast rate of acquisition, but quicker extinction. Partial reinforcement, on the other hand, is associated with slower acquisition and slower extinction.
In operant conditioning, partial reinforcement, rather than continuous reinforcement, leads to a response that is: A.) slower to acquire and more resistant to extinction. B.) faster to acquire and less resistant to extinction. C.) faster to acquire and more resistant to extinction. D.) slower to acquire and less resistant to extinction.
sensory interaction _______________________ This is the answer because sensory interaction is the idea that one sensory modality (eg, vision) may influence another (eg, balance)
In order to balance on one foot, many people need to have their eyes open. This is an example of:
Answer: A Cytochrome c is a heme protein that cycles between a ferrous (Fe+2) and ferric (Fe+3) state during oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, only a single electron is transferred in the process.
In oxidative phosphorylation, cytochrome c acts as: A. a 1-electron carrier. B. a 2-electron carrier. C. a 3-electron carrier. D. a 4-electron carrier.
oxidized; cystine
In proteins, disulfide bonds are formed when the thiol groups of cysteine residues are ____, linking them together to form ____
first order
In the Michaelis-Menten curve, at low substrate concentrations, the reaction is approximately ____ order
beats ______ HR: beats/ min ______ SV: mL / beat ______ (beats/ min ) x (mL / beat) = mL / min = cardiac output
In the cardiac output equation, what cancels out?
the outside is polar hydrophilic, and the inside (middle) is hydrophobic and nonpolar
In the plasma membrane, is the middle part polar or nonpolar?
mass spectrometry
In this technique, molecules in a sample are bombarded with a beam of electrons, producing positively charged ions and fragments of the molecule
James-Lange
In this theory, emotion occurs after a physiological response, not before: we break into a cold sweat and then feel scared
A ____________ the growing polypeptide chain is transferred from the P site to the A site to meet the new tRNA
In translation elongation, the new tRNA enters the ribosome at the ___ site
chemiosmosis
In what stage of cellular respiration is NAD+ neither oxidized nor reduced?
exergonic with low activation energy
In what type of reaction is Keq > 1 and kinetically fast?
Answer: A _____________________________ The nitrogenous base, uracil, combined with the sugar ribose and phosphate makes up the nucleotide uridine. It is found in RNA, but not in DNA. The corresponding DNA nucleotide is thymine. Uridine is incorporated into RNA in the nucleus where transcription of DNA into RNA takes place. RNA is manufactured in the nucleus from a DNA template. Therefore, the correct answer is answer choice A. RNA is necessary for protein synthesis by free ribosomes and those attached to endoplasmic reticulum, but it is not synthesized there, so answer choices C and D are incorrect. Proteins are packaged for export in the Golgi apparatus, but it too takes no part in RNA synthesis, so answer choice B is incorrect.
In which organelle of a eukaryotic cell is the pyrimidine uracil, as part of uridine triphosphate (UTP), incorporated into nucleic acid? _ A) The nucleus B) The Golgi bodies C) The ribosomes D) The endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is B because action potentials are only generated in postsynaptic neurons when the depolarization stimulus exceeds threshold. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it asks assumed knowledge of how action potentials are generated.
In which situation is neurotransmitter release from a presynaptic cell most likely to stimulate an action potential in a postsynaptic cell? _ A) In any excitable cell, if neurotransmitter binding opens ligand-gated channels at the synapse B) In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds threshold C) In a postsynaptic neuron that expresses a high density of neurotransmitter receptors D) In any excitable cell, if the neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft is acetylcholine
Answer: D ______________________________________ As blood is lost from the circulation, reduction in vessel size helps maintain the necessary pressure to keep the blood circulating to all body tissues. ________________________________________ Vasoconstriction, the narrowing of a vessel, restricts blood flow to an organ and can increase blood pressure, whereas vasodilation has the opposite effect. Increased vasoconstriction is important in maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage. ______________________________________ Vasodilation increases blood flow to both the muscle during exercise and the skin during blushing. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.
Increased vasoconstriction has an important role in which of the following situations? A) Causing the decrease in blood pressure associated with fainting B) Increasing blood flow to muscle during exercise C) Increasing blood flow to skin during blushing D) Maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage
Answer: C; glucagon ____________________ The answer to this question is C because exposure to high glucose levels results in elevated levels of circulating insulin which prevents mobilization of endogenous glucose storage. Infusion of glucagon will result in mobilization of endogenous glucose storage thereby preventing hypoglycemia and brain injury
Infusion of which peptide hormone will most likely prevent brain injury in newborn infants exposed to high glucose levels during their fetal development? A) Insulin B) Epinephrine C) Glucagon D) Cortisol
Intensity = Power / Area ________ I = (E / t) / A ________________ E = energy t = time
Intensity equation with unit change
Easier because they tend to have a more negative electrons affinity. ____________ Electron affinity is the change in energy that comes from adding an electron to a neutral atom. ___________ When a stable anion is formed, energy is released, which results in a negative value for the change in energy. ___________ Elements with a more negative electron affinity more readily accepts the addition of an electron.
Is adding electrons to nonmetals harder or easier than adding electrons to metals?
nonpolar
Is toluene polar or nonpolar?
Carboxylic acids
KMnO4 oxidizes primary alcohols into what?
10^-pKa
Ka =
pKa = -logKa ___________ - log (4 x 10^-5) ___________ 5 - 0.4 = 4.6
Ka = 4 x 10^-5. Calculate the pKa
Vmax/[E]
Kcat equation
unsaturated
Ksp > IP
hydrolase
Lactase breaks down lactose in glucose and galactose. What kind of enzyme is it?
Answer: B ___________________ - cross-sectional studies are done at a specific point in time
Later studies focused on the application of motivational theories, including a greater focus on self-determination and cognition. In a study from 2012, researchers applied goal orientation theory to medical students' sense of self-efficacy and confidence regarding their patient interactions and their ability to tolerate frustration. Goal orientation theory states that one engages in learning activities in order to pursue particular goals. These goals are mastery (e.g., to enhance one's knowledge), performance-approach (e.g., to receive rewards or recognition), and performance-avoidance (e.g., to avoid negative feedback). The students completed an assessment after completing a course of physician-patient communications. Findings from the study showed that students with a mastery goal were more likely to rate themselves as being able to handle patient interactions well, and were less likely to report maladaptive coping with stressful situations. ________________________________________ Based on the passage, the data from the 2012 study was MOST likely: A) longitudinal. B) cross-sectional. C) ethnographic. D) experimental.
Answer: D ______________________________ A is incorrect, because we know the basic genetic code is the same in every cell in your body. B and C are therefore also incorrect, because promoters and enhancers are both nucleotide sequences found in DNA, therefore they also will be the same in every cell. The only thing that can be different in adipocytes vs other cells is D. nuclear factors are a large family of transcription factors--they're proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences to trigger transcription of mRNA from those sequences. _______________________________
Leptin is a 16 kDa peptide hormone that regulates body weight by both suppressing appetite and promoting energy expenditure. Leptin is encoded by the ob gene and is primarily expressed in adipocytes in response to feeding. It circulates at a level of 5 to 15 ng/mL in the plasma of lean subjects and exerts its anorexigenic actions by binding to the leptin receptor (LEPR) located on the surface of hypothalamic neurons. __________________________________________________ Which mechanism restricts the expression of leptin to adipocytes? Only adipocytes contain: A) the ob gene. B) a promoter for the expression of the ob gene. C) enhancers for the expression of the ob gene. D) nuclear factors for the expression of the ob gene.
Answer: A _____________ An element which can act as an electron acceptor should have a high electron affinity. This is true of oxygen and sulfur, both group VI elements, but not of helium and iron. As a noble gas, He is not likely to accept or donate electrons, and as a metal, Fe is most likely to donate electrons in order to form the stable Fe2+ or Fe3+ ions. H2 is a stable molecule and again is unlikely to accept electrons. Therefore choice A, sulfur, is correct.
Like oxygen atoms in methanogens, which of the following elements can act as an electron acceptor? A S B He C H2 D Fe
1/v = (Km/Vmax)(1/[S]) + 1/Vmax
Lineweaver-Burk Plot
higher
Lower VP = ____ BP
Motion and depth ————- Think of Magneto moving stuff with his mind and having to take into account motion and depth
Magnocellular pathway good at determining
G1
Makes mRNA and proteins to prep for mitosis in the cell cycle
Answer: D ___________________ Capacitance C depends on geometric factors only, and in the case of parallel plates, C is proportional to the plate area and inversely proportional to the separation distance of the plates.
Making which of the following changes to a circuit element will increase the capacitance of the capacitor described in the passage? A) Replacing the 500-Ω resistor with a 250-Ω resistor B) Replacing the 10-V battery with a 20-V battery C) Increasing the separation of the capacitor plates D) Increasing the area of the capacitor plates
negative reinforcement because an undesirable stimulus (her anxiety about things being dirty) gets removed which encourages the behavior to happen again
Man sneezes on Sarah and after that, she becomes super OCD about cleaning and disinfecting everything. These cleaning rituals have an immediate effect of lessening her anxiety. Therefore, she spends most of her time doing this. Before seeking treatment, Sarah's behavior would be described as?
Answer: 8100 mg ______________________ mass percent (% m/m) = component mass / total mass _____________________ .04 = 324 mg / total mass ___________________ total mass = 324 mg / .040 = 8100 mg
Mass percent of Mn is 4% and the sample of the alloy contains 324 mg of Mn. What is the total mass of the sample?
Internal validity
Mostly concerned with causality, or the extent to which changes in the dependent variable can be attributed to the independent variable
External validity
Mostly concerned with generalizability, or the extent to which results can be applied to other situations
McGurk effect
Mouth movements influencing our hearing
Debranching enzyme
Moves a block of oligoglucose from the branch and connects it to the chain using an α-1,4 glycosidic bond
mesoderm
Muscles are derived from
Acetylcholine
Nicotine is a CNS agonist for what?
Shape theory (steric theory of olfaction)
Odors fit into receptors like lock-and-key
Answer: A When threshold is met at the axon hillock, voltage-gated sodium channels open, generating an action potential.
Of the events listed, which occurs first during action potential generation? A.) Voltage-gated sodium channels open at the axon hillock. B.) Hyperpolarization stimulates the opening of ligand-gated potassium channels. C.) Graded potentials propagate along the axon. D.) Calcium influx stimulates vesicle fusion and release of neurotransmitter.
Answer: D ____________ The question asks the examinee to identify the tissue that is NOT of mesodermal origin. Of the tissues listed, the only one that does not arise from the mesoderm during embryonic development is nervous tissue (D). Nervous tissue arises developmentally from ectoderm, not mesoderm. Thus, D is the best answer.
Of the following tissues, which is NOT derived from embryonic mesoderm? _ A) Circulatory B) Bone C) Dermal D) Nerve
the atomic number (# of protons)
On a periodic table, what is the top #?
mass # (sum of the number of protons and neutrons)
On an element notation (not periodic table), what is the top number?
Answer: C _________________ The extra water cannot be stored as blood because this would increase the blood volume. _____________ If the water was consumed with the food that was eaten, then it would be absorbed and accumulate in circulation, increasing the volume of blood. _____________ Extra water could be excreted through the intestine if the subjects were having diarrhea. As the passage does not indicate this condition, this answer is not likely. _____________ Extra water is normally excreted through skin and lungs. The skin excretes water through the process of transpiration, and the lungs use water to humidify the air that enters the body.
On the day of the experiment, the subjects drank about 1 L of water on average and excreted about 400 mL of urine. The most likely explanation for the difference between water intake and urine excretion is that: A.) the extra water was stored as blood. B.) water was consumed with the food that was eaten. C.) the extra water was excreted by the intestine. D.) water was excreted via the skin and the lungs.
Answer: A _________ Hans Eysenck is noted for the first empirical study he published on genetics of personality in 1951, which investigated the trait of neuroticism in identical (i.e., monozygotic) and fraternal (i.e., dizygotic) twins.
One explanation for the development of personality uses the biological perspective, which emphasizes the influence of genetics and brain biology in determining an individual's behavioral, emotional, and cognitive patterns. Which of the following psychologists' views are most closely aligned with this perspective? a) Hans Eysenck b) Abraham Maslow c) B.F. Skinner d) Gordon Allport
uncompetitive
Only binds to ES complex
Answer: A The pH of blood is higher than the pKa of organic acids, allowing them to fully dissociate.
Organic acids, denoted by HA, are only minimally deprotonated when added to pure water. HA(aq) --> H+(aq) + A-(aq) When dissolved in blood, however, HA fully dissociate. What factor can be used to explain this discrepancy? A. In blood, the concentration of H+(aq) is maintained at low levels by other equilibria. B. In blood, the reaction is coupled to ATP hydrolysis to make it more favorable. C. In blood, the ionic strength of the solvent medium is much higher than pure water. D. In blood, enzymes are used to catalyze the dissociation reaction.
ketones
PCC turns secondary alcohols into?
HCl and intrinsic factor
Parietal cells secrete
Nigrostratial
Pathway associated with motor planning and purposeful movement
James - Lange
Physiological response elicited by stimulus produces emotion; stimulus —> physiological response —> emotion ; scary dog barks at you —> increased heart rate —> fear
Linear perspective where parallel lines appear to converge in the distance
Pilots landing on an unusually long runway were most likely affected by what?
polar
RP-HPLC: mobile
nonpolar
RP-HPLC: stationary
R total equals R1 + R2 + R3 ....
Resistors in series formula
Current
Resistors in series have the same what?
Social scripts
Sets of behaviors for specific interactions
T1/R1 = T2/R2 (****only because the passage shows a linearly increasing relationship). _______________ T1*I1 = T2*I2 (since I and R are inversely related)-
Simple way to just compare two temperatures and resistances? What about current?
250 / 5 = 50 **keep on moving decimal places until you have to start adding zeroes
Solve this: 0.25 / .005
Answer: A _____________ Within still air, the speed of sound remains constant.
Sound of a known frequency, wavelength, intensity, and speed travels through air and bounces off an imperfect reflector which is moving toward the source. Which of the following properties of the sound remains the same before and after reflection? _ A) Speed B) Intensity C) Frequency D) Wavelength
Ability to perceive 2 individual presses on skin
Spatial discrimination
Labeled-like theory
States that each sensory receptor binds to a specific stimuli and is directly linked to the brain
Answer: C because it is the only gas
Step 1 The chemist placed a sample of limestone, CaCO3(s), into a sealed chamber and then heated the limestone to 1200 K to generate CO2(g) and CaO(s). _________________________________ When limestone is heated during Step 1, an equilibrium is established. Which of the following expressions is the equilibrium constant for the decomposition of limestone? A.) [CaO] B.) [CaCO3] C.) [CO2] D.) [CaO] × [CaCO3]
perception of depth that arises from the integrated information received from both eyes
Stereopsis
Answer: remain the same _____________ Electrical force depends on the particle's charge and the strength of the electric field experienced by the particle, NOT on the particle's speed.
Students constructed the electrical circuit shown below to study capacitors. A battery with a voltage of 10 V is connected through a switch to a capacitor and a 500-Ω resistor. The capacitor is constructed from two flat metal plates, each with a surface area of 5.0 × 10-5 m2. The plates are separated by 1.0 × 10-3 m, and the space between the plates is a vacuum. The connecting wires have no resistance. After the switch is closed and the capacitor is fully charged, a particle with a charge of 8.0 × 10-19 C and a speed of 1.0 m/s is injected midway between the capacitor plates. _____________________________ If the speed of the charged particle described in the passage is increased by a factor of 2, the electrical force on the particle will:
Answer: A ________________ When in series, capacitors C1 and C2 add by the inverse rule Therefore, if C1 = C2 = C, then
Students constructed the electrical circuit shown below to study capacitors. A battery with a voltage of 10 V is connected through a switch to a capacitor and a 500-Ω resistor. The capacitor is constructed from two flat metal plates, each with a surface area of 5.0 × 10-5 m2. The plates are separated by 1.0 × 10-3 m, and the space between the plates is a vacuum. The connecting wires have no resistance. After the switch is closed and the capacitor is fully charged, a particle with a charge of 8.0 × 10-19 C and a speed of 1.0 m/s is injected midway between the capacitor plates. ______________________________ Another capacitor, identical to the original, is added in series to the circuit described in the passage. Compared to the original circuit, the equivalent capacitance of the new circuit is: A) 1/2 as great. B) the same. C) 2 times as great. D) 4 times as great.
Answer: A __________________________ The most basic amino acid would increase the pI and Lys has one of the highest pKa values
Substituting residues in a peptide with which amino acid will most likely result in a peptide with an increased pI? _ A) Lys B) Glu C) Gln D) Val
converted to the trans isoemr
Suppose that a small sample of the cis isomer precipitate was heated in the solid state in an oven at 180 degrees C for 30 min, cooled, and then analyzed by far-IR spectroscopy. If the spectrum of the thermally treated sample was similar to the spectrum of the cis isomer, but displayed no absorbance bands at 459 and 281 cm-1, the sample most likely was?
Quinones
Synthesized from phenol oxidation
isocitrate dehydrogenase
TCA rate limiting enzyme
Mead
The "me" is the aspect of self that is formed through interactions with others
Answer: D ______________________ - enantiomers have many of the same chemical and physical properties, like BP, MP, solubility, polarity, and differ in how they interact with plane-polarized (linear light) - therefore, SEPARATION OF ENANTIOMERS relies on changing the PHYSICAL PROPERTIES of the molecules - a resolving agent in a chiral molecule and this is important because it adds a new chiral center into each enantiomer, creating a pair of diastereomers - diastereomers can be separated from each other because they have different physical properties, unlike enantiomers
The (R)-enantiomer of the antiasthma drug albuterol is the active isomer. If a researcher wants to separate a racemic mixture of albuterol, which of the following methods will most likely separate the enantiomers? a) extraction with dilute base b) thin-layer chromatography c) fractional distillation d) addition of a resolving agent
Answer: Adding a resolving agent. _________________________________ If two chiral centers have opposite configurations, then they are considered enantiomers, or non-superimposable mirror images. __________________________________ A 50-50 enantiomer mixture is known as a racemic mixture ________________________________ Enantiomers have many of the same chemical and physical properties, aside from how they interact with plane-polarized light. ________________________________ Therefore, enantiomer separation relies on changing the physical properties of the molecule
The (R)-enantiomer of the drug albuterol is the active isomer. If the researcher wants to separate a racemic mixture of albuterol, what method can be used?
Answer: A _______________________ Beta decay is the emission of an electron or a positron. The atomic number Z changes from 6 for carbon to 7 for nitrogen ______________________ Therefore a negative charge must have been emitted by carbon. Of all the particles mentioned, only the electron has a negative charge. The correct answer is A.
The 14C atom undergoes beta decay to 14N. What particle is being emitted from the carbon nucleus? A) Electron B) Alpha C) Neutron D) Positron
Answer: D
The Vmax of an enzymatic reaction is altered by which types of inhibitors? I. Competitive II. Noncompetitive III. Uncompetitive IV. Mixed _ A) I and II only B) II and IV only C) I, II, and III only D) II, III, and IV only
Answer: B ___________________ The answer to this question is B because based on the passage, STAT3 is a nuclear protein, which means that it requires a nuclear localization domain for nuclear translocation and a DNA binding domain for binding to regulatory regions of targeted genes. The passage also states that in addition to forming a homodimer, STAT3 associates with LEPRb/JAK2 complex which infers the presence of a protein binding domain within the STAT3 sequence. In contrast, signal sequence domains are protein domains required for proteins that are directed toward secretory pathways ____________________________________ the passage states that STAT3 is a nuclear factor, which means it must be headed to the nucleus. A "signal sequence domain" means that there is a sequence on STAT3 that will tell some other agent in the cell to carry it to the cell membrane. And thats not where it needs to go. ___________________________________ Nuclear localization domain sends proteins to the nucleus. Signal sequence domain allows proteins to enter the rough ER, in order to be involved in the cell's membrane system or to be secreted from the cell. DNA binding domain binds to regulatory region
The YXXQ motif is a consensus-binding site for a nuclear factor known as STAT3. __________________________________ Based on the information in the passage, which protein domain of STAT3 is NOT predicted to play a role in its signaling? A) Nuclear localization domain B) Signal sequence domain C) DNA binding domain D) Protein binding domain
Answer: B ________________ - the somatic NS is under voluntary control and since the adrenal medulla is in change of synthesis and secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine, it would not be voluntary - the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to stress so it would not be the parasympathetic NS
The adrenal medulla is part of which branch of the peripheral nervous system? a) somatic nervous system only b) the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system only c) the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system only d) both the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous systems
the measurement of blood flow; think velocity when it comes the doppler equation
The advantage of the Doppler ultrasound technique over the standard ultrasound technique is that it also allows:
8L _____________ λ1 = 4L ____________ Doubling the pipe doubles the wavelength so 4(2) = 8
The air in an adjustable pipe open at one end and closed at the other resonated at the fundamental frequency when the pipe has length L. The pipe is then adjusted such that it is twice its original length. What is the wavelength of the air in the pipe at the new fundamental frequency?
Answer: B The question asks the examinee to determine which biological entity is most likely to be affected by treatment with penicillin. Since penicillin inhibits the production of peptidoglycan and peptidoglycan is a major component of the bacterial cell wall, one can conclude that penicillin will be an effective treatment for a bacterial (B) infection. Thus, B is the best answer.
The antibiotic penicillin has the effect of inhibiting the production of the chemical peptidoglycan. Therefore, penicillin is likely to be most effective in treating infection by: _ A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) fungi. D) protozoa.
Answer: C ____________________ Solution: The correct answer is C. The autonomic nerve fibers that innervate the heart to slow it are the parasympathetic motor fibers of the vagus nerve. Sympathetic motor fibers increase heart rate. Sensory fibers carry information from the heart to the central nervous system. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.
The autonomic nerve fibers that directly innervate the heart to cause cardiac slowing are: A) sympathetic motor fibers. B) sympathetic sensory fibers. C) parasympathetic motor fibers. D) parasympathetic sensory fibers.
Answer: A A: Splicing is part of the post-transcriptional process: DNA is first transcribed in primary transcript and then modified to become mRNA. B: DNA coding for Factor VIII is not transcribed in tRNA. C: The mRNA coding for Factor VIII is not modified into tRNA. D: tRNA is not translated into protein.
The cutting of introns and the splicing associated with the expression of the Factor VIII gene occur during which of the following steps in the protein-synthesis process? A. DNA → mRNA B. DNA → tRNA C. mRNA → tRNA D. tRNA → protein
Answer: B ________________ The Na+/K+ ATPase, or sodium/potassium pump is an active transporter that pumps sodium and potassium ions through the membrane against their concentration gradient to maintain osmotic pressure.
The function of Na+/K+ ATPase is to transport: I) Na+ out of cells against its concentration gradient. II) Na+ into cells with its concentration gradient. III) K+ out of cells with its concentration gradient. IV) K+ into cells against its concentration gradient. A.) I and III only B.) I and IV only C.) II and III only D.) II and IV only
What is the isoelectric point?
The pH at which there is no net charge
Answer: D The pancreas produces several proteolytic enzymes, which are released into the small intestine where they are converted to their active forms of trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase. Thus, D is the best answer.
The pancreas produces which of the following substances for the digestive system? A) Bile salts B) Emulsifier C) Gastric juices D) Proteolytic enzymes
Answer: B ___________________ Histones are among the most abundant proteins in eukaryotic cells. These small, basic proteins come together with DNA to form nucleosomes, the bead-like, primary structural elements of chromatin. Interactions among histone proteins in separate nucleosomes allow those nucleosomes to form the highly compacted 30-nm chromatin fibers. Posttranslational modifications that alter the charge on histone proteins affect their ability to condense DNA. Thus, B is the best answer.
The posttranslational modification of some of the eukaryotic cell's most abundant proteins is thought to affect the ability of those proteins to condense DNA into 30‑nm fibers. Given this, these proteins are most likely: _ A) tubulins. B) histones. C) transcription activators. D) DNA polymerase subunits.
Answer: D ___________ The BBB is highly selective
The presence of which type of intercellular connections between endothelial cells of brain capillaries results in the blood-brain barrier? A.) Desmosomes B.) Gap junctions C.) Intercalated discs D.) Tight junctions
They both have the same atomic number
The reason why radioactive isotopes of an element have the same behavior as stable isotopes of an element because?
the cardiac output and the resistance to blood flow.
The two primary factors that normally determine the level of blood pressure are:
Answer: D ___________ The pulsed laser radiation interacts with the cornea for a shorter time than a continuous laser radiation, thus less heat is transferred to the cornea. This allows the cornea to maintain a lower average temperature by cooling off between pulses.
The use of pulsed laser radiation in the PRK procedure, as opposed to continuous laser radiation, allows the cornea to: A.) absorb more radiation. B.) change its index of refraction. C.) increase the area exposed to radiation. D.) maintain a lower average temperature.
Strecker and Gabriel
These are two common methods for synthesizing amino acids in the lab
Answer: (1/5) ___________________________ Percent submerged = 800/1000 = 80% submerged. This implies the fraction of the ball ABOVE the water is 20%
Three balls with the same volume of 1.0 x 10^-6 m3 are in an open tank of water that has a density (ρ) of 1.0 x 10^3 kg/m3. Assume that the density of Ball 1 is 8.0 × 102 kg/m3. Ignoring the atmospheric pressure, what fraction of Ball 1 is above the surface of the water?
Answer: C ____________ Think of cooperativity as you go from native to unfolded as you continuously denature the protein ___________ The answer is C because the unfolding of proteins is a cooperative process. Cooperative processes are marked by sigmoidal curves.
To determine a protein's thermodynamic stability, chemical denaturation studies can be performed. Assuming that only the native and unfolded states can be observed under experimentally available conditions, what is the most likely shape of the curve for the dependence of the fraction of folded protein upon denaturant concentration? _ A) Hyperbolic B) Linear C) Sigmoidal D) Exponential
Answer: C _________________ At first, denaturant concentration won't be obvious in its affect on the fraction of unfolded protein. Over time, as some unfolding begins, the entire protein quickly becomes stable and this pattern is similar to that of cooperativity which has a sigmoidal graph.
To determine a protein's thermodynamic stability, chemical denaturation studies can be performed. Assuming that only the native and unfolded states can be observed under experimentally available conditions, what is the most likely shape of the curve for the dependence of the fraction of folded protein upon denaturant concentration? _ A) Hyperbolic B) Linear C) Sigmoidal D) Exponential
Triple bonds are comprised of one sigma bond and two pi bonds.
Triple bonds are comprised of _____ sigma bond and ____ pi bonds.
Answer: C ___________________ The cleavage reaction described is a hydrolysis of the glycoside linkage in a disaccharide. In this case, the deprotonated water attacks the galactose and so this sugar will be labeled with O-18. The glucose is protonated and acts a leaving group without reacting with an oxygen atom provided by water.
Two students performed an assay to determine the concentration of lactase in a commercial preparation used to make milk consumable by those who are lactose intolerant. Lactase catalyzes the cleavage of lactose (β-D-galactopyranosyl-1→4-D-glucose) into β-D-galactose and D-glucose. A glutamate residue (Glu-1) in the active site donates a proton to an oxygen atom. Another glutamate on the opposite axial side (Glu-2) acts as a nucleophile to liberate D-glucose and generate an α-D-galactopyranosyl-modified enzyme intermediate. Then, Glu-1 deprotonates water, and the resulting hydroxide ion acts as a nucleophile to liberate β-D-galactose and regenerate the enzyme. ________________________________ Based on the description provided, if lactose was hydrolyzed under the action of lactase in O-18 labeled water, in which location(s) would the label appear? A) Neither the galactose nor the glucose products B) The glucose product only C) The galactose product only D) Both the galactose and the glucose products
2 moles of ATP per one glucose
Under anaerobic conditions, how many moles of ATP is produced?
Answer: D; II and III only ___________________________________ The answer to this question is D because increased activity of succinyl-CoA synthetase will result in greater levels of the reaction products, succinate and GTP. Succinyl-CoA is the substrate of the reaction and its levels will likely decrease with increased succinyl-CoA function
Under physiological conditions, increased activity of succinyl-CoA synthetase will most likely result in: I) increased levels of succinyl-CoA. II) increased levels of succinate. III) increased levels of GTP. _ A) I only B) II only C) I and III only D) II and III only
I = A^2 (intensity is proportional to the square of the amplitude)
Wave intensity and amplitude relationship
I = 1 / d^2 (intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source)
Wave intensity and distance from the source relationship
translational
Western blot is a technique that measures the _____ levels of a protein
AMP
What activates PFK?
AMP, F26BP
What activates PFK?
cholesterol synthesis, fatty acid synthesis, and reduction of glutathione (protects cell from ROS)
What are 3 major functions of NADPH?
Answer: D ____________________ In the reaction pictured, Mn is reduced from +4 to +2; therefore, MnO2 is the oxidizing agent. O is oxidized from -1 in H2O2 to 0 in O2; therefore, H2O2 is the reducing agent. Thus, D is the best answer.
What are the oxidizing and reducing agents, respectively, in the reaction below? 2HCl + H2O2 + MnO2 → O2 + MnCl2 + 2H2O _ A) H2O2; HCl B) H2O2; MnO2 C) MnO2; HCl D) MnO2; H2O2
Answer: I and II
What bond types are found in calcium phosphate? I. Ionic II. Polar Covalent III. Nonpolar Covalent
aldehydes and ketones only
What can NaBH4 reduce?
nothing
What changes in gamma decay?
depress the CNS
What do barbiturates do?
a positive ΔH° and an endothermic reaction
What does a negative slope in a van't Hoff plot indicate?
Inhibits phosphodiesterase that breaks down cAMP so there is more cAMP activity
What does caffeine do in regards to cAMP?
Ionophores facilitate the transport of ions across biological membranes most commonly via passive transport, which is affected by lipophilicity of the ionophore molecule. The increase in lipophilicity of the ionophore-metal complex enhances its permeability through lipophilic membranes.
What does ionophore do?
It contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic side chains in some pattern
What does it mean if a protein is amphipatic?
catalyze the reversible conversion of lactate to pyruvate with the reduction of NAD+ to NADH and vice versa
What does lactate dehydrogenase do?
It transporters fatty acids into the mitochondria to allow for beta oxidation to take place
What does the Carnitine shuttle do?
NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate
What does the PPP produce?
It is performed under reduced pressure and therefore lowers a compound's BP relative to it's BP at atmospheric pressure.
What does vacuum distillation do to a compound's BP?
G6P; NADPH and sugars
What enters the PPP? What are the products?
(4) x (1.5) / 3 _________________ third harmonic (n=3) λ3 = 4 L / 3
What equation would give the wavelength of the third harmonic for a 1.5 m pipe that is closed at one end?
ΔU = Q + W *** ΔU = internal energy ΔU = W ΔU = PΔV
What equation would you use here? - compressor exerts a pressure of 400 Pa to compress nitrogen gas from 3 L to 1 L. If there is not heat transfer, how much will the internal energy of the gas change?
- use the thermal expansion equation ΔL = alpha L ΔT __________________ alpha L = ΔL / Δ T = 2 mm / 2 degrees C = 1 mm / C __________________ ΔL = (1 mm / C) (ΔT) ΔL = (1 mm / C) (10 degrees C) = 10 mm
What equation would you use here? - you start at 25 degrees C - experiment progresses for 2 min and the liquid in the thermometer rises 2 mm and the new temp is 27 degrees C ______ - How high will the liquid rise from the 25 degrees C mark after the experiment had progressed for 4 min? (new temp is 35 degrees C)
V = λf = (0.8) (1.8)
What equation would you use? There is a frequency of 1.8 MHz. The signal travels at an angle of 30 degrees. If the wavelength is 0.8 mm, what is the speed?
I = Q / Δt ; Q = I Δt ; I = current Q = charge
What formula is used when asked to determine how much charge flows into something?
F1 / A1 = F2 / A2
What formula would you use here? - two syringes - 1st syringe has an area of 3 - 2nd syringe has an area of 6 - 1st syringe has an applied force of 10 N - what is the force of of the second syringe?
F = ma a = F / m F = k q1q1 / r ^2 a = k q1 21 / m r^2 Fe before = Fe after Fe after = 2q1 x 2 q1 / m r ^2 = Fe before Fe after = 4 ( Fe before value) = (4) (0.5) = 2
What formula? - 2 objects X and Y are at a fixed distance - X released and its instantaneous acceleration is 0.5 m/s ^ 2 - X is reset, and the magnitude of charge on both objects is doubled, without affecting the mass - When object Y is released, what is the instantaneous acceleration?
eating without feeling full
What happens if you inhibit the CCK
A neutron turns into a proton and an electron is released
What happens in a beta minus decay?
a compound breaks down into simpler substances, or its elemental substituents
What happens in a decomposition reaction?
the concentration of the inhibitor that gives a reaction rate of half the maximum reaction rate
What is Ki?
6.626 x 10^-34 Js or m^2 kg / s
What is Planck's constant?
If something has a significantly large Km
What is a good way to know if something has a small catalytic efficiency?
fatty acid attached to CoA
What is acyl-CoA?
the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself
What is an epitope?
Identify and change unhealthy thinking, problematic behavior, and distressing emotional responses
What is cognitive therapy?
it is used to add two carbon units to the fatty acid being synthesized
What is malonyl CoA used for?
the activated form of acetyl CoA
What is malonyl-CoA?
Answer: B _____________ According to the passage, to correct nearsightedness, the laser beam is directed onto the central part of the cornea, resulting in a flattening of the cornea. This means that the radius of curvature of the cornea is increased.
What is the effect produced by the PRK technique designed to correct nearsightedness? A.) The density of the cornea is increased. B.) The radius of curvature of the cornea is increased. C.) The index of refraction of the cornea is increased. D.) The thickness of the cornea at the apex is increased.
σ = (L) / (R)(A) R= resistance A = area
What is the equation for conductivity?
when thiol groups of cysteine residues are oxidized, linking them together to form cystine
What is the isoelectric point?
simple diffusion directly through the membrane
What is the mechanism of entry into the cell for hydrophobic molecles?
Answer: 0.015 mole / L ________________________________________ Since 1 equivalent of NaHCO3 provides 1 equivalent of Na+, the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution is also 0.010 M = 0.010 mole/L The molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution is 0.020 mol/L since 1 equivalent of Na2CO3 provides 2 equivalents of Na+ When equal volumes of these two solutions are mixed, the resulting molar concentration is equal to their average, (0.010 mol/L + 0.020 mol/L)/2.
What is the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in a solution that is prepared by mixing 10 mL of a 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution with 10 mL of a 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution?
Answer: 2.4 ATA ______________________ PO2 = (0.8)(3 ATA) = 2.4 ATA
What is the partial pressure of O2 in a 3-ATA multi-place chamber filled with 80% O2 and 20% N2?
Motion parallax ____________________ This is a monocular cue related to depth perception in that objects that are further away moving at a given speed seem to move more slowly and objects that are closer seem to move faster
What is the phenomenon when cars whoosh past you once they get close to your car while driving?
The higher the value of E°, the stronger the oxidizing agent
What is the relationship between the value of E° and oxidizing agent strength?
reducing agent because it loses two electrons and a proton to become NADP+
What is the role of NADPH here? NADPH --> NADP+
Answer: 128 ________________ Atomic number (# of protons = 38) # of neutrons = 90 - 28 = 52 # electrons = # protons ______________ 38 + 38 + 52 = 128
What is the sum of protons, neutrons, and electrons in strontium-90? The top number in the periodic table for strontium is 38.
-55mV. Membrane potential at which channels open to initiate an action potential.
What is the threshold potential?
refers to the attractive noncovalent pi interactions that occur with the overlap of π bonds of aromatic rings. Phe, Tyr, and Trp can participate
What is π stacking?
sigmoidal
What kind of curves are present in cooperative reactions?
Answer: D _____________________________________________________________________ TLC can be used to evaluate the purity of a compound _____________________________________________________________________ If there is a single spot with a larger Rf than the original compound's, then the reaction proceeded to completion, no more reactant remained, and the isolated product is pure _____________________________________________________________________ HPLC can be used to determine product purity only if the product showed one peak
What observation would most likely indicate that a reaction product is pure? a) one absorbance peak from size-exclusion chromatography b) two peaks in HPLC c) two unique -CH3 signals in the H NMR spectrum d) a single spot in the reaction mixture lane on a TLC plate
variable region (Fab)
What part of the antibody binds to the antigen?
primary
What protein structure is stabilized by using covalent bonds between amino acid backbone groups?
2-mercaptoethanol
What reduces disulfide bonds?
adrenal medulla
What secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?
pancreatic beta cells
What secretes insulin?
G2
What step makes organelles?
Answer: TLC with UV light ______________________________________ UV light carries a large amount of energy that can excite the electrons of UV chromophores to a higher energy state ______________________________________ UV chromophores include double and triple bonds, carbonyls, alkyl halides, and conjugated systems _____________________________________ In Mass spectrometry, electrons do not change energy levels ____________________________________ In gas chromatography, there is a phase change, not an electronic excitation
What technique can monitor the formation of 4-aminophenol by excitation of electrons with high energy photons?
beta minus decay
What type of decay would you go one spot to the right? (90Sr --> 90Y)
top-down processing
What type of processing explains this?' - participant sees a picture of an object that makes a tone sound - participant wrongly report hearing a tone sound when viewing this picture
415 because ... (414 + 1) / (1)
What would be the m/z ratio of a compound with a molecular weight of 414 g/mol that undergoes a single protonation?
It would increase to promote the retention of sodium ions
What would happen to your body's aldosterone secretion in times of intense thirst when stranded in a desert?
N2 because the gas with the lower MM has more molecules
When comparing 1.5 g of NH2 an 1.5 g O2, which occupies a greater volume at constant temperature and pressure?
I, II, and III
When comparing single, double, and triple covalent bonds, decreasing the number of pi bonds between atoms will: I: decrease the overall bond dissociation energy and bond strength II: increase the bond length III: decrease the bond rigidity (allow more twisting or rotation)
G2
When does MMR occur?
Answer: A
When experiments are performed on enzymes that display traditional Michaelis-Menten kinetics, what shape does the graph of V0 versus substrate concentration [S] have? _ A) A hyperbolic dependence on [S] B) A linear dependence on [S] C) A sigmoidal dependence on [S] D) A parabolic dependence on [S]
Answer: A ___________________ The answer is A because traditional Michaelis-Menten kinetics describes a hyperbolic dependence of V0 on substrate concentration. __________________ Cooperativity is sigmoidal
When experiments are performed on enzymes that display traditional Michaelis-Menten kinetics, what shape does the graph of V0 versus substrate concentration [S] have? _ A) A hyperbolic dependence on [S] B) A linear dependence on [S] C) A sigmoidal dependence on [S] D) A parabolic dependence on [S]
On
When it is dark, rod cells are tuned ___
Retroactive Interference
When more recent information gets in the way of trying to recall older information (eg, man introduced to Lisa first, and then Lucy. Later on, can only remember the name Lucy )
positive ______________________ If pH is LOW (like 2 or something) that means there's a lot of H+ floating around bc it's an acidic environment. More [H+] present = more [H+] available to protonate an amino acid's side chain. Hence, when pH < pI, the amino acid is protonated. ___________________ Oppositely, when pH is HIGH, this is the same as saying there's a very basic environment. More [OH-] floating around means more OH- to steal protons from an amino acid... thus if pH > pI, then the amino acid will be deprotonated
When pI < pH, the charge on an amino acid is _______
negative ______________________ If pH is LOW (like 2 or something) that means there's a lot of H+ floating around bc it's an acidic environment. More [H+] present = more [H+] available to protonate an amino acid's side chain. Hence, when pH < pI, the amino acid is protonated. ___________________ Oppositely, when pH is HIGH, this is the same as saying there's a very basic environment. More [OH-] floating around means more OH- to steal protons from an amino acid... thus if pH > pI, then the amino acid will be deprotonated
When pI > pH, the charge on an amino acid is ________
episodic
When participants respond to questions about their childhood health history, they are retrieving autobiographical information, which is an important type of ________ memory.
Answer: D ________________ The answer is D because the kcat is used to describe the rate-limiting step of catalysis under saturating conditions of substrate
When performing experiments to measure the kcat of an enzyme, the substrate concentration should be: _ A) limiting. B) equal to 1/2 KM. C) equal to KM. D) saturating.
Proactive interference
When previously learned information interferes with one's ability to recall new information (eg, person met Lisa first, and then Lucy. Can only remember Lisa's name)
By calculating the slope. The slope of the line between two species on a Frost diagram equals E° for the couple
When provided a Frost diagram in chemistry and asked to calculate the E° for a half-reaction, how would you do it?
Answer: C ___________________ The two plates of the capacitor collect charges of opposite sign. As more charge arrives it is harder and harder to fill the plates until finally an equilibrium occurs, thus C is correct.
When switch S is closed to the left, charge begins to accumulate on the capacitor. Charge cannot accumulate indefinitely because: A) the variable resistor inhibits the current flow. B) the battery continually loses charge. C) successive charges brought to the plates are repelled by charges accumulated earlier. D) the fixed resistor loses energy to heat.
Answer: A ________ The number of incident photons affects ONLY the number of electrons, NOT their energies. The electron energies depend on photon energy, the cathode work function, and the potential difference between the cathode and anode.
When the number of photons incident on the cathode with energies above the value of the work function increases, which of the following quantities also increases? A) Number of electrons ejected B ) Potential energy of each ejected electron C ) Magnitude of the electric field between the electrodes D ) Speed of electrons at the anode
Answer: A __________________________ You can tell by the lower Tm compared to WT indicating lower conformational stability
When the researchers prepared an E147D variant it exhibited a Tm < 37°C and did not exhibit aminoacylase activity. ________________________________________ What is the best explanation for the observed behavior of the E147D variant? The substitution results in: A) a repulsive interaction that reduces conformational stability and thus enzymatic activity. B) a change in net charge that changes the reactivity of the nearby Zn ion. C) increased steric hindrance of the active site and reduced access by the substrate. D) increased capacity of the site to act as a general base which eliminates the proposed reaction mechanism.
anode
When two metals are connected in a galvanic cell, the stronger reducing agent acts as the ____
mitochondria
Where does fatty acid oxidation occur?
cytosol
Where does fatty acid synthesis occur?
mitochondria of liver cells
Where does ketogenesis occur?
Answer: B; arginine
Which amino acid is non-essential under normal circumstances, but becomes essential under abnormal circumstances? a) phenylalanine b) arginine c) histidine d) serine
leucine and lysine
Which amino acids are ketogenic?
Answer: B ___________________ the exterior of a protein is typically involved in h bonding to the solvent while the interior is the hydrophobic pocket so hydrophobic residues would join together to form a dimer.
Which amino acids are most likely present at the dimerization interface of STAT3 proteins? A) Polar amino acids B) Hydrophobic amino acids C) Positively charged amino acids D) Negatively charged amino acids
Answer: B _______________ The answer to this question is B because glucose 6-phosphatase catalyzes the final step of both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
Which enzyme is used both in gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis? _ A) Phosphoglucomutase B) Glucose 6-phosphatase C) Hexokinase D) Glucokinase
Malate dehydrogenase, Isocitrate dehydrogenase, and Α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Which enzymes in the citric acid cycle are involved in the production of NADH?
Answer: A _____________________ The answer to this question is A because following glucagon binding to its receptor and activation of its coupled G protein, activities of the adenylate cyclase and the protein kinase A, and level of cAMP are all increased. In contrast activation of the G protein promotes the dissociation of bound GDP and its exchange for GTP on the α subunit
Which event is NOT a likely outcome of glucagon binding to its receptor? Increase in: A) GDP binding to Gα subunit of the G protein B) adenylate cyclase activity C) protein kinase A activity D) cAMP generation
Answer: C __________________ A) Ca release from the SR is a action potential mediated event. so it is a voltage gated channel much like voltage gated channels in the neuron and rest of the body D) this is a primary active transport mechanism. remember that Ca is kept at high concentrations in the SR. therefore, when it is released from the SR during muscle contraction, it travels DOWN its concentration gradient. therefore, we must use energy to transport it back into the SR UP its concentration gradient thus requiring ATP and primary active transport When one part of the axonal membrane becomes depolarized, the adjacent area in the direction of action potential propagation senses this depolarization and has its VG Na+ channels reach threshold and open. This is therefore not directly dependent on ligand binding. In contrast, motor neurons release the neurotransmitter onto muscle fibers which bind to acetylcholine receptors which are on Na+ channels. The binding of acetylcholine causes these channels to open.
Which event is directly mediated by a ligand-gated ion channel? A) Release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber to initiate muscle contraction B) Influx of Na+ across the axon membrane of a somatic neuron during action potential propagation C) Influx of Na+ across the motor end plate resulting in the depolarization of the muscle fiber membrane D) Re-entry of Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber to end muscle contraction
Answer: C
Which experimental results confirm that Compound 1 is an uncompetitive inhibitor of a particular enzyme? In the presence of Compound 1: _ A) the KM increases and Vmax decreases. B) the KM decreases and Vmax increases. C) both the KM and Vmax decrease. D) both the KM and Vmax increase.
Answer: B __________________ Difference between guanosine and deoxyguanosine is that for deoxyguanosine, a hydroxyl group is replaced with a hydrogen meaning it will have a lower molecular weight than its RNA counterpart
Which nucleoside has the largest molecular weight? _ A) Adenosine B) Guanosine C) Deoxyadenosine D) Deoxyguanosine
Answer: A the vector sum of the bond polarities in CBr4 is zero, whereas the vector sum is greater than zero in the other compounds
Which of the bromomethanes is LEAST polar? _ A) CBr4 B) CHBr3 C) CH2Br2 D) CH3Br
Answer: A __________________________________ For a fixed voltage between cathode and anode, the electric field is inversely proportional to the distance between them. Increasing the circuit resistance for a fixed current will decrease the electric field, but not by as much as does the length change. E = (V − IR)/L __________________________________ V = E*d, so we know that increasing distance by a factor of 2 will decrease the electric field by a factor of 2. If you review EMF and effective voltage, you'll come across the equation V_eff = V - IR, implying that the greater the resistance of a battery, the lower effective voltage it outputs. So by increasing the resistance of this circuit you could decrease the effective voltage, but when you put it all together you get the equation that AAMC gives you: E = (V-IR)/L. Changing R is not directly proportional to E like changing the distance L is, so increasing L is the most effective way. ___________________________ So the rule of thumb is V = IR for the entire circuit, but if you look up "battery effective voltage" you'll find an equation stating that the V_eff = V - IR where R is the internal resistance of the battery.
Which of the following changes to the circuit will decrease the electric field between the electrodes by the greatest amount? A) Increasing L by a factor of 2 B) Decreasing L by a factor of 2 C) Increasing R by a factor of 2 D) Decreasing R by a factor of 2
Answer: D; Phosphogluconate ___________________________ The answer to this question is D because while lactate, oxaloacetate and glycerol are gluconeogenic precursors, phosphogluconate is involved in the pentose phosphate pathway and is not a precursor or substrate in gluconeogenesis.
Which of the following compounds is NOT a gluconeogenic precursor or substrate? _ A) Lactate B) Glycerol C) Oxaloacetate D) Phosphogluconate
Answer: A Prokaryotic cells do not contain nuclei, membrane-bound organelles in which nuclear genes are transcribed in eukaryotic cells. Consequently, transcription occurs in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells. Thus, A is the best answer.
Which of the following correctly pairs a cellular process with the location in which that process occurs in a prokaryotic cell? A) Transcription, cytoplasm B) ATP synthesis, mitochondria C) Degradation of macromolecules, lysosomes D) Modification of carbohydrates on transmembrane proteins, Golgi complex
Answer: D The question asks the examinee to identify a primary function of the myelin sheath. The myelin sheath is a fatty layer surrounding the long axons of neurons in vertebrates. A primary function of this layer is to enable nerve impulses (action potentials) to travel more quickly by jumping from node to node rather than traveling continuously along the entire length of the neuron. This supports D, which states that the myelin sheath increases the rate of conduction of action potentials. A, B, and C are incorrect because they describe roles that the myelin sheath does not provide. Thus, D is the best answer.
Which of the following describes a primary function of the myelin sheath? A) It provides nutrients to motor neurons. B) It regulates synaptic vesicle discharge. C) It guides dendrite growth and branching. D) It increases the rate of conduction of action potentials.
Answer: D If one of the R groups in the triacylglycerol contained a carbon-carbon double bond and if isomerization of the double bond occurred during the saponification reaction, four fatty acids would be obtained instead of three
Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for the fact that the saponification of the triacylglycerol in the passage resulted in four different fatty acid salts? A) The triacylglycerol molecule consisted of four different fatty acid units. B) Glycerol was transformed into a fatty acid salt under the reaction conditions. C) One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and it completely isomerized under the reaction conditions. D) One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and a small percentage isomerized under the reaction conditions.
Answer: C _________________ When the RNA molecules hybridize, the antisense molecule would line up in an antiparallel fashion with the sense molecule, meaning its 3′ end would line up with the 5′ end of its complement. The nitrogenous bases would form the following pairs: A with U, G with C. The only correct sequence is C, which is 3′-GCUAUG-5′. A, B, and D do not have the correct sequence with the correct polarity. Thus, C is the best answer.
Which of the following nucleotide sequences describes an antisense molecule that can hybridize with the mRNA sequence 5′-CGAUAC-3′? A 5′-GCTATG-3′ B 5′-GCUAUG-3′ C 3′-GCUAUG-5′ D 3′-GCAUAG-5′
Answer: C ____________________________ - antisense nucleic acids are complementary to the sense mRNA - write out antisense molecule so that it is complementary and antiparallel to the sense molecule
Which of the following nucleotide sequences describes an antisense molecule that can hybridize with the mRNA sequence 5′-CGAUAC-3′? A) 5′-GCTATG-3′ B) 5′-GCUAUG-3′ C) 3′-GCUAUG-5′ D) 3′-GCAUAG-5′
Answer: D Solution: The correct answer is D. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum most resembles the Golgi apparatus in an intact eukaryotic cell when viewed under the microscope. Both organelles appear to be membranes with many folds.
Which of the following organelles most resembles the Golgi apparatus when an intact eukaryotic cell is viewed under the electron microscope? _ A) Nucleolus B) Mitochondrion C) Plasma membrane D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B _____________ The conversion of a primary alcohol to an aldehyde is readily accomplished. Oxidation of tertiary alcohols is difficult because it involves C-C bond breaking. The conversion of an aldehyde to a carboxylic acid is readily accomplished. The conversion of secondary alcohols to ketones is readily accomplished.
Which of the following oxidative transformations is unlikely to occur? A.) A primary alcohol to an aldehyde B.) A tertiary alcohol to a ketone C.) An aldehyde to a carboxylic acid D.) A secondary alcohol to a ketone
Answer: B _________ You have to know which amino acids allow for the formation of a covalently bonded dimer --> hence you are looking for peptide bonds with a cysteine residue because it can form covalent bonds and disulfide-linked dimers ___________ Only one of the answer choices (B) has a cysteine so it would be correct
Which of the following peptides is most likely to form a covalently bonded dimer? _ A) AVTSYWP B) GHICEPN C) NFMNELI D) ELIPWQN
Answer: PCC because PCC can only oxidize primary and secondary alcohols into aldehydes and ketones and cannot oxidize any further
Which of the following reagents CANNOT be used to make benzoic acid from benzaldehyde? a) CrO3 b) KMnO4 c) H2CrO4 d) PCC
Answer: C Both the active and inactive X chromosomes replicate. The chromatin of the inactivate X chromosome is more condensed compared to the one of the active X chromosome. The inactivate X chromosome is one of the last chromosomes to replicate. The inactivate X chromosome is not highly transcribed.
Which of the following statements best applies to the inactive X chromosome in mammalian females? A.) It does not replicate. B.) Its chromatin structure is less condensed than that of an active X chromosome. C.) It is one of the last chromosomes to replicate. D.) It is highly transcribed.
Answer: D The question asks the examinee to identify those tissues that are in direct contact with the external environment or elements of the external environment. Tissues that are exposed to the external environment have mucosal membranes. All of the tissues listed contain an element of mucosa (e.g., the nasal cavity, vagina and anus). Thus, D is the best answer.
Which of the following tissues have cells that are in direct contact with the external environment or elements of the external environment? I) The lining of the reproductive tract II) The lining of the respiratory tract III) The lining of the gastrointestinal tract _ A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III
Answer: B ___________________ Cytosine has 2 H bond acceptors _________________ Guanine, Adenine, and Thymine have 1 H bond acceptor
Which of the four DNA bases contains the largest number of hydrogen bond acceptors when involved in a Watson-Crick base pair? _ A) A B) C C) G D) T
Answer: B _____________________ The answer is B because the hydrogen bond acceptors are N and O. Adenine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor thymine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor guanine contains 2 donors and 1 acceptor Cytosine contains 1 donor and 2 acceptors
Which of the four DNA bases contains the largest number of hydrogen bond acceptors when involved in a Watson-Crick base pair? _ A) A B) C C) G D) T
Answer: His because all others are hydrophobic
Which of these is LEAST likely to be in the central region of a phospholipid? Ala His Val Met
Answer: C The question asks the examinee to identify the organ involved in the regulation of acid-base balance, blood pressure, water balance, and the removal of nitrogenous wastes. The only organ involved in all of these processes is the kidney (C). Within the nephron, the reabsorption of protons and bicarbonate from the filtrate contributes to acid-base balance within the body; secretion of renin from the juxtaglomerular cells helps regulate the secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex (which plays a role in regulating blood pressure, through its effects on Na+ reabsorption in the nephron); Na+ and urea reabsorption in the nephron creates osmotic pressure within the medullary interstitium of the kidney and draws water from the filtrate into surrounding tissues; and excretion of nitrogenous wastes takes place due to the urea transporter, which removes urea from the interstitium and transports it back into the ascending loop of Henle. Thus, C is the best answer.
Which organ is involved in regulation of all of the following: acid-base balance, blood pressure, water balance, and removal of nitrogen wastes? _ A) Liver B) Spleen C) Kidney D) Large intestine
Answer: C The question asks the examinee to identify which participant in the electron transport chain has the greatest attraction for electrons. A and B are incorrect because FAD and NAD+ do not directly donate electrons to the electron transport chain—it is their reduced forms that do. Electrons move to a slightly more electronegative carrier as the electrons pass through each step in the electron transport chain. Therefore, the final electron acceptor of this chain, oxygen (C), has the greatest attraction for electrons. Thus, C is the best answer.
Which participant in the electron transport chain has the greatest attraction for electrons? A) FAD B) NAD+ C) Oxygen D) Cytochrome c
Answer: D __________ Using the distance from the object of focus as a depth cue is associated with retinal disparity, which is a binocular depth cue.
Which statement does NOT describe a monocular depth cue? A.) Objects that are higher up in the visual field are perceived as being farther away than the objects that are lower in the visual field. B.) Objects that are occluded by other objects are perceived as being farther away than the objects that occlude them. C.) Objects that have more detailed textures are perceived as being closer than objects that have less detailed textures. D.) Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus.
Answer: C __________________ The answer to this question is C because while kinase catalyzes the addition of a phosphate group to a substrate, the removal of the phosphate groups are catalyzed by a phosphatase.
Which type of enzyme removes the chemical groups that are added to proteins by kinases? _ A) Phosphorylase B) Cyclase C) Phosphatase D) Acetylase
Answer: B; Uncompetitive ___________________ The answer to this question is B because uncompetitive inhibitors do not alter the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk plot, which is equal KM/Vmax.
Which type of inhibitor does NOT alter the KM/Vmax ratio of an enzyme? _ A) Competitive B) Uncompetitive C)Noncompetitive D) Mixed
Answer: A _______ The Doppler equation for frequency is Δf/f = -v/c for a given relative velocity v between source and detector. Thus, the frequency shift Δf depends inversely on the speed of the wave in the medium in which it propagates, c. The velocity of sound is much smaller than that of electromagnetic radiation, so for the same relative velocity the frequency and wavelength shifts are much greater for sound than for radio waves.
Why are the percentages of the change in frequency and wavelength much greater when sound waves are used instead of radio waves in these experiments? A) Sound waves travel more slowly. B) Sound waves have a much higher frequency. C) Sound waves have a much shorter wavelength. D) Interference in the atmosphere affects sound waves much more.
Answer: A The identical optical properties of the cuvettes ensure that the absorbed radiation is due only to the presence of glucose in the blood and not due to the difference in the absorption features of the walls.
Why was it important that the cuvettes containing the glucose oxidase and the blood sample were identical in terms of optical properties? A.) To enable the comparison of the absorption spectra B.) To reduce the absorption in the glass walls C.) To decrease the uncertainty in the wavelength D.) To increase the absorption in the solutions
Answer: A ____________________ Aldosterone, which is produced by the adrenal cortex, causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. _______________________ Such a mechanism decreases Na+ levels in the urine. The steroid aldosterone does not cause Na+ secretion into the urine. ______________________ Because ingestion of excessive NaCl would trigger Na+ secretion into the urine, plasma-aldosterone levels would not increase. _____________________ Rather, the body would rely on those homeostatic mechanisms that excreted the excess Na+. ______________________ Thus an increase in plasma aldosterone would not be expected to follow ingestion of large quantities of NaCl. The best answer choice is A.
Would an increase in the level of plasma aldosterone be expected to follow ingestion of excessive quantities of NaCl? _ A) No; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. B) No; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney tubules. C) Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. D) Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney tubules.
Answer: B; 7 _____________________________ - to bind the cation exchange column, the proteins need to be positively charged - pI < pH = (+) charged amino acid and protein ____________________________ - you want there to be a positive value and you need to find 2 proteins that are both values less than a given pH as seen with 7 _________________________ - not C or D because you only want 2 proteins
You have 4 proteins with the pI values as follows: A (8.8), B (10.2), C (4.3), and D (5.5) At which buffer pH would 2/4 of the proteins adhere to a cation exchange column? a) 3.0 b) 7.0 c) 9.5 d) 11
2-methylundecanoic acid _______________________ - in distillation procedures, component with lower BP vaporizes first, leaving the remaining components in the in the original flask
You have a solution of 2-methylundecanal and 2-methylundecanoic acid. The liquid remaining in the homogenous mixture at the end of the distillation procedure was most likely what?
The variant is highly involved in catalysis and provide conformational stability. _________________________ Kcat = Vmax / [E] _______________________ Kcat represents efficiency and measures the number of molecules a substrate turned over into product per unit time. ______________________ Since Kcat decreased, then that is indicative that the variant was involved with catalysis so it would be decreased. ____________________ ___________________ Since Tm decreased, then that means that the conformational stability decreased as well because it is now easier to break it down which is bad
You have a variant that when compared to the WT, has a decreased Tm and decreased Kcat value. What would this mean?
Keep everything the same (including the order), and just replace all the T's with U's
You have the original 5'-3' DNA sense strand. If you want to convert that to 5'-3' mRNA with codons, what do you do?
Keep the same direction, just switch the letters
You have the original 5'-3' DNA sense strand. If you want to convert that to 5'-3' tRNA with anti- codons, what do you do?
zeroth order
[A]
superego
__ is moralistic and idealistic, compelling us towards perfection
ego
__ is realistic, compelling us to believe in ways that are socially acceptable, and act as mediators
sensory and short term memory
___ and ___ are transient and based on neurotransmitter activity
quinones; synthesized through phenol oxidation
___ are conjugated diketones, but are not aromatic
feature detectors
___ are specific neurons that preferentially fire in response to very specific stimuli
Glutamate
___ associated with increased cortical arousal
trait theorists
___ attempt to explain personality in terms of observable personality characteristics using objective criteria
IR spectroscopy
___ can be used to detect structural changes within molecules during chemical conversions by monitoring sample spectra for the emergence or disappearance of peaks
id
___ is selfish, compelling us to seek pleasure and avoid pain
explicit (declarative)
___ memory accounts for memories that we must consciously recall with effort and focus
ACE
___ metabolizes angiotensin I into angiotensin II
transverse
___ waves have displacements perpendicular to the direction of motion
strong linguistic determinism, aka sapir-whorfian hypothesis
___, aka ___, states that language determines thought completely
E
___PSP generally results from depolarization and opening of Na+ channels
large intestine
____ absorbs H2O and salts, and forms feces
trait
____ can be defined as characteristic ways one often perceives situations, feels, or acts
Gravity filtration Vacuum filtration
____ can be used to collect solid product, although ___ is used because it is faster
parasympathetic activity
____ causes the detrusor muscle to contract
microglia
____ digest waste in the CNS
Nucleotide excision repair
____ fixes helix-deforming lesions of DNA such as thymine dimers
Parvocellular pathway _________ Think pink pyramid (form/shape)
____ is good at spatial resolution, determining form, high levels of detail, and color
systole (AV valves are closed; semilunar is open)
____ is the part of the cardiac cycle during which some chambers of the heart muscle contract after refilling with blood
tyrosine _______ tyrosine is converted into catecholamines in the adrenal medulla and it can go on to make epinephrine
____ is the precursor to catecholamines
Convergence
_____ gives humans an idea of depth based on how much eyeballs are turned
n
_____ is most closely associated with the potential energy of the electron. Since potential energy is proportional to the square of the distance of two oppositely charged particles by Coulomb's Law, it is also true that _____ is associated with the radial "size" of the electron cloud.
ketolysis
_____ regenerates acetyl CoA for use as an energy source in peripheral tissues
Desmosomes
__________ are intercellular junctions that function as anchors to form strong sheets of cells.
Intercalated discs
__________ are specialized intercellular junctions between cardiac muscle cells that provide direct electrical coupling among cells
Simple
___________ = below 150 degrees and if the substances you're trying to distill are at least 25 degrees or greater apart in terms of boiling point
The base rate fallacy
____________ refers to the error people make when they ignore the base rates (i.e., prior probabilities) when evaluating the probabilities (or frequencies) of events.
Vacuum
____________= when the boiling point of a substance is greater than 150, what you can do is actually lower the atmospheric pressure, and when atmospheric pressure = vapor pressure = bp, so this is the only one where you can actually change the bp of the substance
Fractional
_____________= used for less than 25 degrees apart, better for substances that are close in bp
a weak acid and its conjugate base or vice versa
a buffer consists of what?
Bronsted-Lowry base
accepts H+
Lewis acid
accepts pair of electrons
amino acids, pyruvic acids, fatty acids
acetyl coa can be formed from which three sources?
1630
alkenes
3300
alkynes
L
all chiral molecules except for cys have an __ configuration
diamagnetic
all electrons are repelled by an external magnetic field
selectins
allow cells to adhere to carbohydrates on the surfaces of other cells and are most commonly used in the immune system
alanine (A), proline (P), leucine (L), isoleucine (I), and valine (V)
amino acids with alkyl side chain groups
enamine
an aldehyde and secondary amine form what?
aldosterone; DCT and collecting duct; reabsorb more sodium allowing more water to flow with it
angiotensin II promotes the release of ___ which alters the ___ to ____
ω = 2πf = 2π/T
angular frequency equation
no
are covalent bonds reversible?
yes
are gamma rays a form of ionizing radiation?
yes so they will be found in the aqueous layer
are peptide hormones like insulin and glucagon water-soluble?
no
are sterols and glycolipids in prokaryotes?
no, because they do not account for the impact of situational factors on behavior
are trait theories good as predicting specific behaviors?
Mead
argued that social (rather than biological) factors influence identity formation
1600-1500
aromatic ring
social constructionism
asserts that people develop understanding and knowledge of the world through interactions with other people, and that the mediating force in this interaction is primarily language
ascribed social status
assigned social position (eg, race)
Na/K pump
at hyperpolarization, what restores the membrane potential?
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
attach a specific amino acid to a specific tRNA molecule.
achieved status
attained social position (eg, doctor)
carnitine acyltransferase I (CAT 1)
beta oxidation rate-limiting enzyme
noncompetitive
binds both enzyme and ES equally
RNA pol II
binds to the TATA box within the promoter region of the gene
BP = CO x TPR
blood pressure equation
mesoderm
bones are derived from
Answer: C _______________ A and B: disruption doesn't match up well with cancer since cancer is hyperactive cell growth. Inflammation is part of the immune system and although enzymes could be involved in an immune response, these options would require me to overjustify their correctness. Remember the MCAT is a surface level test, the tiny details aren't tested C: "Leukocytes" seems to be in line with an immune response. Inflammation is an immune response, seems like a good answer....check D to be sure D: You want to be sure to know the difference between dilation and constriction come test day. Make up your own example to remember this small but important difference (for me, I think of a boa constrictor suffocating its food....gross but you won't forget it. Constrict is to make smaller)...If I have an infection, blood will rush to the site in order to transport all those good 'ol immune system cells (hence, cuts get red around the edges). If I constrict my blood vessels, I am getting less blood where it needs to be. C is the correct answer
cagA, leads to inflammation and may be related to the genesis of gastric cancer. According to the passage, the cagA gene product will cause: A the disruption of host cell enzymatic activity. B the disruption of host cell protein synthesis. C the movement of leukocytes into mucosal tissue.
cahderins
calcium dependent glycoproteins that hold cells together
yes, in the Cori cycle
can lactate be converted into glucose?
No because there is no displacement of air at the closed end. The closed end is always a node (minimum displacement), and the open end of a pipe is always an antinode (point of max displacement)
can pipes closed at one end produce even-numbered harmonics?
aldol condensation
carbon-carbon bond forming reaction that requires two carbonyl compounds (ketones and/or aldehydes)
Kcat/Km
catalytic efficiency equation
Cations are positively-charged ions (atoms or groups of atoms that have more protons than electrons due to having lost one or more electrons). Anions are negatively-charged ions (meaning they have more electrons than protons due to having gained one or more electrons).
cations vs anions
P = pgh
change in pressure equation
HMA-CoA reductase
cholesterol synthesis pathway rate-limiting
chromosomes
chromatin supercoils to form
aconitase
citrate to isocitrate
A
cluster ___: odd/eccentric; paranoid, schizoid
ΔL = α L ΔT _____________________________ ** ΔL = change in length α = coefficient of expansion L = length ΔT = change in temperature
coefficient of expansion formula
extraction
combines two immiscible liquids, one of which easily dissolves the compound of interest
role conflict
competing expectations for two or more roles create tension (eg, a student (role 1) who is employed part-time (role 2) struggles to find enough time to complete homework and work late hours)
role strain
competing expectations within a single role create tension (eg, a student struggles to find enough time to complete homework (expectation 1) and attend student government meetings (expectation 2)
Km
concertation of a substrate at which half of the maximum velocity is achieved. In other words, it is the concentration of substrate that permits the enzyme to achieve half Vmax.
hershey-chase
confirmed DNA is the genetic material because only radiolabeled DNA could be found in bacteriophage-infected bacteria
Unsaturated
contain double bonds; have kinks; prevents bonding to maximum number of H
Q (volume flow rate) = A v __________ A = area v = velocity
continuity equation
reverse transcriptase
converts single-stranded RNA to double-stranded DNA
virtual, upright, reduced
convex mirrors are always
0.9
cos(30)
0.7
cos(45)
0
cos(90)
retroactive interference
decreased memory caused by a distraction task demonstrates?
retroactive interference
decreased memory caused by distraction task demonstrates?
Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
decreases latency to eat, increases motivation to eat and delays satiety by augmenting meal size
Z-line
define boundary of each sarcomere
reactants - products
delta H reaction for bond dissociation energies
Griffith
demonstrated transformation
the same
describe the current in all resistors if they are all placed in series
retina
detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process.
decreased intrathoracic pressure and inhalation and increased thoracic volume
diaphragm contraction results in what?
reinforcement encourages behavior to happen again, while punishment acts to stop it in the future
diff between reinforcement and punishment
linear perspective
distances between parallel lines appear narrower as they become farther away
BP and the liquid with the lowest BP vaporizes first and is collected in the filtrate
distillation separates liquids based on their:
no
does aldosterone have a change in blood osmolarity?
master status
dominant social position (eg, ex-convict)
Bronsted-Lowry acid
donates H+
Lewis base
donates pair of electrons
U = qV _____ U = electric potential energy (J) q = charge (C) B = electric potential (V)
electric potential energy at a specific point
beta plus decay where it goes one step to the left
electron capture is also known as?
beta plus decay where the atomic number (top one) decreases by one and you go one element backwards in the periodic table
electron capture is another name for what?
1.6 x 10^-19 C
electron charge
alpha decay
emission of alpha particle consisting of 2 protons and 2 neutrons (He nucleus)
visuospatial sketchpad
employed by manipulating visual and/or spatial information (eg, reading a map)
E = hf = hc / λ
energy of light formula
E = hf
energy of one photon
PFK
enzyme that catalyzes the committed step of glycolysis
f = c/λ
equation for frequency and wavelength
alcohol and a carboxylic acid derivative
esters are formed from what?
nearsightedness, myopia, concave and diverging lens
eye lens bends light too much
type II error
false negative
type 1 error
false positive
type 1 error; false positive
falsely conclude there is a true difference
type II error; false negative
falsely conclude there is no difference
Acetyl CoA carboxylase which activates acetyl CoA
fatty acid synthesis regulatory enzyme?
λ5 = 4L / 5
fifth harmonic wavelength equation
λ1 = 4L
first harmonic wavelength equation
1/2 (pka1 + pka3)
for an ACIDIC side chain, pI =
sigma bonds
formed by direct end-to-end overlap of hybridized orbitals
concentration cell
galvanic cell in which both cathode and anode are the same species at different concentrations
polarity and BP
gas chromatography separates molecules based on their:
BP and higher BP stays longer
gas chromatography separates molecules based on what?
condensation
gas to liquid
Spearman
general intelligence (g factor)
higher
glucokinase has a ___ Km than hexokinase
lower
glucokinase has a ___ affinity to glucose than hexokinase
pyruvate carboxylase and fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
gluconeogenesis 2 main regulatory enzymes
high
gluconeogenesis is stimulated in conditions of ___ ATP
hexokinase, PFK, pyruvate kinase
glycolysis major regulatory enzymes
lower; higher affinity
hexokinase has a ___ Km than glucokinase
higher
hexokinase has a ___ affinity to glucose than glucokinase
smaller wavelengths and higher frequencies
higher harmonics have ___ wavelengths and ___ frequencies than those in first harmonic
3 carbons
how many carbons does pyruvate have?
P=pgh
hydrostatic pressure formula
positive
if a pI is greater than 7, an amino acid will carry a _____ charge at physiological pH
histone acetylation (activates transcription)
increases accessibility of chromatin and allows DNA binding proteins to interact
noncompetitive inhibition
inhibitor binds equal affinity to enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex
feature detection
involves perceptual discrimination of specific aspects of a given stimulus
irreversible; for each turn of the citric acid cycle, 2 carbons enter as acetyl CoA and two leave as CO2
is pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH) reversible or irreversible?
Gordon Allport
known in connection with the trait perspective of personality. He argued that three key types of traits contribute to personality: cardinal traits, central traits, and secondary traits
theta waves
light sleep
first order
ln [A]
-log A
log ( 1 / A)
B + 0.A
log ( A x 10 ^ B )
structural functionalism
macro-level sociological perspective suggesting that all aspects of society work together to maintain dynamic equilibrium (societal balance)
motion
magnocellular cells process?
phonological loop
manipulating spoken and written information (eg, reading a book)
implicit
memory stored without effort or awareness (eg, procedural memory of memory of how to do things like ride a bike or tie a shoe or driving)
symbolic interactionism
micro-level sociological theory suggesting that people communicate through symbols (eg, hand gestrues)
M-line
middle of sarcomere
moles of solute/kg of solvent
molality formula
internal validity
mostly concerned with causality, or the extent to which changes in the dependent variable can be attributed to changes in the independent variable
hydrostatic pressure
moves fluid out of the blood vessel and into the interstitial fluid around it
Gardner
multiple intelligences
Answer: A
negative priming (slow, error-prone responses to stimuli that were previously ignored). ____________ Negative priming requires which type of memory process? A) Implicit memory B) Declarative memory C) Iconic memory D) Explicit memory
acid + base --> salt + H2O
neutralization reactions typically involve what?
beta minus decay
neutron becomes a proton
Vmax decreases (fewer enzymes work) Km doesnt change (binding substrate not affected)
noncompetitive vmax and km
Hans Eysenck
noted for the first empirical study he published on genetics of personality
chromatin
nucleosomes coil together forming __
normality
number of protons a molecule of acid can release in solution
gluconeogenesis
occurs during periods of fasting, starvation, low-carb diets, or intense exercise
nearsightedness (myopia)
occurs when the lens bends light too much and the image forms in front of the retina
Social facilitation
occurs when the presence of an audience improves performance on a well-practiced task
negative inforcement
occurs when unpleasant stimulus is withdrawn to encourage behavior like the beeping of the car once you put your seatbelt on
chromatid
one half of a chromosome
I-band
only actin filaments
H-zone
only myosin filaments
kg (10^3) ==> Mg ( 10^6) ==> Gg (10^9) ==> Tg (10^12)
order of the upper metric units in genchem
carboxylic acids
oxidizing agents turn primary alcohols into?
ketones
oxidizing agents turn secondary alcohols into?
G1
p53 in what step
G1
p53 is in charge of what stage of cell cycle?
Equivalence pt
pH = pI
pKa
pH at which half of the species is deprotonated
deprotonated
pKa < pH
-logKa
pKa =
protonated
pKa > pH
chromatin
packages DNA into a smaller volume to fit into the cell
longitudinal (i.e. sound)
particle movement is parallel to the propagation of the wave
transverse (i.e. electromagnetic wave, microwave, X-ray, visible light)
particle movement is perpendicular to the movement (propagation) of the wave
hydrolysis
peptide bond breakdown is an example of a ___ reaction
condensation
peptide bond formation is an example of a ______ reaction
transferase that break bonds by adding a phosphate
phosphorylases are a type of what?
ss binding proteins
prevents annealing of single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA
formaldehyde (zero alkyl groups)
primary alcohol formation in a Grignard reaction requires what?
transfection
process of introducing genetic material into eukaryotic cells
top-down processing
processing guided by information, beliefs, or ideas already stored in the brain
Arrhenius acid
produces H+
Arrhenius base
produces OH-
ethyl butanoate
product of butanoic acid and ethanol under acidic conditions?
butyl ethanoate
product of ethanoic acid and butanol?
Dopamine inhibits what?
prolactin
transcription factor; Transcription factors that are activators boost a gene's transcription. Repressors decrease transcription.
proteins that help turn specific genes "on" or "off" by binding to nearby DNA.
electron capture
proton becomes a neutron by gaining a (-) charge
positron emission
proton becomes a neutron by losing a (+) charge
dephosphorylated (***the enzyme that removes a phosphate is pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase)
pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is turned on when it is ___
pyruvate to acetyl CoA
pyruvate dehydrogenase converts?
RNA pol I
rRNA
Power _________ Power (P) = (E) / (Δt) _________ E = P Δt
rate at which energy is consumed, expended, or transferred over an interval ΔT
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
rate-limiting step of gluconeogenesis
Looking-glass self
refers to an individual basing their sense of self on how they think others perceive them. This tendency is associated with one's self-concept, rather than attraction to potential romantic partners.
Q (coulombs) = Capacitance (F) x Electric Potential (V)
relate coulombs, capacitance, and electric potential
large Kd = less binding affinity = decreased stability
relationship between Kd and binding affinity
they are inverses ___________________ resistivity = 1 / conductivity
relationship between resistivity and conductivity?
S = 1 / f
relationship between strength of lens and focal length
valence electrons closer to the nucleus and fewer core electrons = higher electronegativity
relationship between valence electrons and electronegativity?
the greater the index of refraction, the lower the velocity
relationship between velocity and index of refraction
V = λ / T ___________ If given a graph, get the wavelength by looking at the distance from one crest to the other crest and its corresponding time
relationship between velocity, wavelength, and time?
θ will decrease, because light travels slower in the new medium
relative to the angle of incidence, how will the angle of refraction (θ2) change when a monochromatic ray of light enters a medium of greater refractive index
angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
renin cleaves ___ into ___
cognitive-behavioral therapy
replaces negative thought patterns and destructive behaviors with healthy, positive thoughts and behaviors
K+
repolarization occurs when __ ions exit the neuron
voltage
resistors in parallel have the same what?
current
resistors in series have the same what?
Pacinian
respond to deep pressure and vibration
episodic buffer
responsible for temporal processing and integrating information into working memory (eg, remembering how to multiply when figuring out a tip at a restaurant)
collecting duct
responsive to both aldosterone and ADH; has variable permeability, which allows reabsorption of the right amount of H2O depending on the body's needs
collecting duct
responsive to both aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone and has variable permeability, which allows reabsorption of the right amount of water depending on the body's needs
alternative hypothesis
rivals the null hypothesis claiming that a difference between the two groups does exist
sperm and seminal fluid
semen is made up of?
theory regarding how stimuli are detected under different conditions
signal detection theory
0.7
sin(45)
1
sin(90)
one sigma and zero pi
single bonds are comprised of _____ sigma and ____ pi bond
seminiferous tubules and nourished by Sertoli cells
site of spermatogenesis
size; large
size exclusion separates based on ___, and ___ molecules elute faster
flippases
specific membrane proteins that maintain the bidirectional transport of lipids between the layers of the phospholipid bilayer in cells
feature detectors
specific neurons that preferentially fire in response to very specific stimuli
observed rotation / [solution (g/mL)] x tube length (dm) alpha (obs) / c x l
specific rotation equation
ΔH° overall = ΔH° products - ΔH° reactants
standard molar enthalpy equation
Henry's law
states that amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas
Pauli exclusion principle
states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers
null hypothesis
states that there is no difference between two groups
3 cyclohexane rings and 1 cyclopentane ring (***3 rooms and a garage)
steroids contain ___ cyclohexane ring(s), and ___ cyclopentane ring(s)
epididymis
stores sperm and where sperm gain motility
ADH secretion would increase to enhance permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney to promote water reabsorption and excretion of more concentrated urine
stranded in a desert with no water, what does your body do regarding ADH secretion?
increased aldosterone secretion to conserve water and this promotes sodium ion retention. _______________________ sodium ion retention --> promotes osmotic reabsorption of water by the kidneys
stranded in a desert with no water, what does your body do regarding aldosterone?
succinate to fumarate, while reducing FAD to FADH2 (no NAD+ or NADH involved)
succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of?
ketone (two alkyl groups)
tertiary alcohol formation in a Grignard reaction requires what?
noncovalent interactions between amino acid backbone groups
the secondary structure of a protein is stabilized by?
L
the stereochemistry of all eukaryotic amino acids except glycine is?
instinctive drift
the tendency of some trained animals to revert back to instinctual behaviors
noncovalent interactions between side chains, often bringing amino acids far apart in the primary structure close together
the tertiary structure of a protein is stabilized by?
the weight of the fluid it displaces (Archimedes principle) ______________ For an object floating at the surface, the vertical forces (its buoyancy and weight) cancel each other out and there is no net vertical force of acceleration
the upward buoyant force felt by an object = ?
estrogen
thickens uterine wall and develops the reproductive tract
insulin
this comes from beta cells of the pancreas
glucagon
this comes from the alpha cells of the pancreas
folkways
this deviance is least severe and has minor punishments like staring (i.e. wearing clothing backwards)
mores
this deviance is moderately severe and has a more severe punishment like getting arrested (i.e. no clothing in public)
diffusion
this goes from high to low concentration
estrogen
this hormone is a response to FSH in females
progesterone
this hormone is a response to LH in females
facilitated diffusion
this is an example of passive transport and diffusing into a cell without expending energy
saponification
this is the removal of an alkoxy group from an ester by a base. It forms a carboxylic acid and an alcohol
normative social influence
this most likely occurs when individuals identify with group members and want to be accepted by the group and therefore conform to fit in
informational social influence
this most likely occurs when individuals view other group members as experts and want to conform due to uncertainty of what to do or believing that others know what to do
sinθc = (n1 / n2)
total internal reflection
vas deferens
transports sperm to urethra
Sternberg
triarchic theory of intelligence
integrins
two membrane-spanning chains that permit cells to adhere to proteins in the extracellular matrix
episodic
type of explicit memory and consist of memories of personal experiences (eg, what you wore on the first day of college)
semantic
type of explicit memory and consists of facts and general knowledge (eg, presidents' names)
kgm^2/s^2 = N m = J
units for joule
lucas test
used to differentiate and categorize primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols
cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
uses principles from classical and operant conditioning, observational learning, and cognitive therapy to treat various concerns including phobias, anxiety, and maladaptive personality traits
400 nm (violet) to 750 nm (red)
visible light consists of wavelengths from about ___ to ____
noncompetitve inhibition
vmax decreases and unchanged km
Volumetric flow rate (Q) = Av (cardiac output also represents volumetric flow rate)
volumetric flow rate equation
glucagon and cortisol
what activates PEPCK?
acetyl-CoA from β-oxidation
what activates pyruvate carboxylase?
Cells that absorb nutrients in the small intestine. They also produce enzymes that digest disaccharides such as lactase.
what are enterocytes?
it is positively charged and its electric field lines point away from it
what are the characteristics of a high voltage plate if it accelerates positive ions away from it?
plasmin
what breaks down clots?
glycine, proline
what disrupts alpha helices?
ionized fragments of a sample
what do the peaks on a mass spectrum represent?
causes interstitial cells to produce testosterone
what does LH do in males?
convert acyl-CoA (a fatty acid) into Acetyl-CoA (oxidation, hydration, oxidation, thiolysis)
what does beta oxidation do?
a zwitterion
what does glycine turn into in a medium with a pH of 6?
when a variable that is not directly measurable (i.e. fatigue and depression) is defined in such a way that it can be measured for the purposes of testing/assessment (i.e. phycological reactance)
what does it mean to operationalize a variable?
That there is significant difference between control group and intervention group(s) which is a TYPE 1 ERROR (FALSE POSITIVE)
what does it mean to reject the null hypothesis?
hemiacetal
what forms when one equivalent of alcohol reacts with an aldehyde?
hemiketal
what forms when one equivalent of alcohol reacts with ketone?
an aldehyde/ ketone and ammonia/ primary amine
what functional group reacts to form the imine intermediate in the Strecker synthesis of amino acids?
some K+ channels remain open, Na+ channels reset, inside of membrane becomes more negative than RMP
what happens during hyperpolarization?
A proton inside the nucleus is converted into a neutron and a positron is released
what happens in a beta plus decay?
closure of Na+ and opening of K+ voltage gated channels
what happens to sodium and potassium during repolarization?
F-2,6-BP and AMP
what inhibits gluconeogenesis?
G6P
what inhibits hexokinase?
22.4 L/mol
what is molar volume at STP?
calcitonin
what is secreted from the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland?
2800-3000 cm-1, strong and sharp
what is the IR functional group for sp3 hybridized C-H functional group?
F = qE __________ F = (1.6 x 10^-19 C) (2000 N/C) = 6.4 x 10^-16 N
what is the force felt by a particle in a 2000 N/C electric field? (note: the charge of an electron is e = 1.6 x 10 ^-19 C)
n (number of electrons) = Q (electric charge) / e (charge of an electron) _____________________________________ n = Q / e ____________________________________ e = - 1.6 x 10 ^ - 19 C / e
what is the formula for calculating the number of electrons from electric charge gained by a rod rubbed on fur?
centripetal force (F) = mv ^2 / r ________________________________ force exerted in a magnetic field (Lorentz force) (F) = qVB ________________________________ mv ^2 / r = qVB ________________________________ now solve for R to get answer
what is the formula for the radius of curvature in a magnetic field B, for the path of an ion with mass m, charge of q, and velocity of v?
cognitive dissonance theory
what is the name of the theory that involves things like a smoker dentist or Republican who votes Democrat?
it is aided by bile salts and it increases the surface area of the lipid, allowing for greater enzymatic interaction and processing
what is the purpose of emulsification?
predicts how and when a person will detect the presence of a given sensory stimulus amidst all of the other sensory stimuli in the background
what is the signal detection theory?
4 fused hydrocarbon rings: 3 six-membered rings, and 1 5-membered ring
what is the structure of a steroid?
steroid
what kind of hormone is aldosterone?
only virtual and upright
what kind of image can concave lens produce?
real and virtual and both are part of a converging system
what kind of image can convex lens produce?
Active transport is the energy-requiring process of pumping molecules and ions across membranes against a concentration gradient. The sodium-potassium pump is an active transport pump that exchanges sodium ions for potassium ions
what kind of transport is the sodium potassium pump
diffusion directly through the membrane
what kind of transport will a steroid undergo?
delta
what kind of waves in deep sleep?
progesterone
what maintains and protects the endometrium?
motion parallax ___________________ (****objects in the foreground are perceived as moving faster than objects in the background)
what process helps in the perception of depth and motion required during the driving stimulation?
Answer: D _____________ urea cycle also happens in both
what processes occur in BOTH the cytosol and mitochondria? a) TCA cycle b) ETC c) ketogenesis d) gluconeogenesis
insulin
what promotes glucokinase?
chief cells of parathyroid
what secretes PTH?
adrenal cortex
what secretes aldosterone?
pancreatic alpha cells
what secretes glucagon?
G1
what stage in cell cycle makes mRNA and proteins to prep for mitosis in the cell cycle?
G2
what stage of cell cycle are organelles made?
glucagon
what stimulates gluconeogenesis?
conjugated or aromatic C=C
what structure has an IR of 1580 - 1610 cm-1?
ethanoic acid + hexanoic acid *** anhydrides are formed from the condensation if 2 carboxylic acids
what two things can you mix to get acetic hexanoic anhydride?
ethanol + hexanoate acid ***ester because 1st prefix corresponds to an alcohol alkyl side chain (ethyl) and -ate is a carboxylic acid suffix ***esters are formed from an alcohol and a carboxylic acid derivative
what two things do you need to mix to get ethyl hexanoate?
tight junctions
what type of junction is in the lining of the digestive tract?
episodic/ explicit/ declarative
what type of memory includes experiences and events?
semantic
what type of memory includes names of people, colors, and vocabulary?
implicit
what type of memory includes procedural skills and tasks?
episodic
what type of memory would include when you bought your first car or first day of college?
the focal length will shift closer to the eye's lens as this is hyperopia (farsightedness)
what will happen if a corrective lens is placed in front of an eye that is unable to form a clear image of a nearby object?
2 molecules: carboxylic acid or ester/amide depending on whether nucleophile in an alcohol or amine **cyclic anhydrides are not cleaved into two molecules, but the ring is broken placing the carboxylic acid and ester/amide at opposite ends
when anhydrides undergo nucleophilic acyl substitution, what is made?
resistance increases, and current decreases
when conductivity decreases, the resistance ___, and current ____
uncompetitive inhibition and Vmax and Km both decrease
when inhibitor binds only with the enzyme-substrate complex
no, just the bottom which is the atomic number
when it comes to beta -, beta +, and electron capture, does the top number change in the element notation (not periodic table)?
In response to angiotensin 2 or high [K+] and it increases sodium reabsorption in the DCT and collecting duct, thereby increasing H2O reabsorption. _________ Result: increase in BP, but no change in blood osmolarity
when would aldosterone be synthesized?
fovea of the eye
where are cones located?
periphery of the retina
where are rods located?
liver and muscle
where does glycogenesis occur?
fovea
where in the eyes are cones located?
Answer: D ______ AA can only raise blood sugar via gluconeogenesis, therefore they are glucogenic amino acids _____ Leu is ketogenic, unlike the others which are glucogenic
which AA cannot be used to contribute to the process of raising blood sugar during prolonged starvation? a) Ala b) Arg c) Tyr d) Leu
Isoleucine, Phenylalanine, Tyrosine, Tryptophan, Threonine, and Serine
which amino acids are both glucogenic and ketogenic?
all but leucine and lysine
which amino acids are glucogenic?
leucine, isoleucine, and valine
which amino acids have branched alkyl side groups?
Answer: C
which of the following is true regarding glucokinase? a) it has a lower Km than hexokinase b) it has a lower capacity (Vmax) than hexokinase c) it's present in the islets of Langerhans d) it has a higher affinity than hexokinase
HPLC (***not gas chromatography because it separates compounds based on BP)
which separation technique is optimal for purification of small sample sizes and employs a stationary phase, a liquid mobile phase (under pressure), and a detector to separate compound mixtures based on polarity
Answer: A; PEP __________ 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate could also have been an answer**
which substance is a high-energy intermediate in glycolysis that can be utilized in substrate-level phosphorylation? a) phosphoenolpyruvate b) glucose-6-phosphate c) fructose-1,6-bisphosphate d) 3-phosphoglycerate
Answer: D
which type of molecule is LEAST likely to be found in a eukaryotic cell membrane? a) phospholipid b) cholesterol c) glycoprotein d) peptidoglycan
Allport with cardinal, central, and secondary traits
who is responsible for the trair theory?
1. frequency of sound emitted 2. frequency observed 3. speed of sound 4. speed of moving object/ source
write out the doppler equation
y = b^x
x = logb(y)
