VTNE Study Guide

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Culture or draining lesions of which bacteria gives a characteristic sweet smell?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is a gram-negative bacterium that often has a sweet or fruity smell.

Which blood chemistry value may be artificially lowered if analysis of a blood sample is delayed?

Glucose. Even after sample collection, glucose continue to be metabolized and, as a result, an artificially low blood glucose value can be expected if analysis is delayed.

Which of the following areas should be avoided when giving intramuscular injections in cattle?

Gluteal muscles. This area should be avoided because of increased chance of injection-induced abscesses at this site.

A preanesthetic that has pharmacologic properties similar to those of atropine is:

Glycopyrrolate.

Anticholinergics can be used in small mammals as part of a preanesthetic protocol. Of the following, which anticholinergic is the best choice for use in rabbits?

Glycopyrrolate. Both atropine and glycopyrrolate can be used in small mammals, but glycopyrrolate is preferred for use in rabbits. This is because the effect of atropine is less effective in this species because many animals have high levels of atropinesterase. Both diazepam and midazolam are benzodiazepines, not anticholinergics.

What term describes an enlarged thyroid gland?

Goiter. Goiter is the abnormal gross enlargement of the thyroid gland. Thyroiditis is inflammation of the thyroid tissue. Thyroidosis is not a medical term. Hypothyroidism is inadequate production of thyroid hormone.

What equine gastrointestinal parasite, when deposited at an abnormal site on the skin or mucous membranes, is responsible for causing the eosinophilic granulomas known as summer sores?

Habronema spp. Habronema spp. and Draschia spp. are stomach worms of the horse. The larvae in feces are ingested by the maggots of flies, and the flies can deposit them at susceptible moist skin areas, damaged skin areas, or mucous membranes where the larvae cause an eosinophilic granuloma as a reaction to their migration.

Which species is not susceptible to "hoof-and-mouth" disease?

Horses. Hoof-and-mouth disease (often called foot-and-mouth disease) is a viral disease of cloven-hoofed animals including cattle, pigs, sheep, and goats.

You are asked to prepare a patient for a bone marrow aspirate. Which of the following sites are commonly used in dogs to obtain a bone marrow sample?

Humeral head and iliac crest. The most common collection sites in the dog are the humeral head, iliac crest, and femoral canal. In cats, the femoral head can be used. In horses, bone marrow can be obtained from the sternum.

The viscosity of synovial fluid is directly related to which component in the fluid?

Hyaluronic acid. Hyaluronic acid is found in all connective tissues. It is highest in the joints where it acts as a cushion. In inflammatory conditions, the fluid gets thinner, and thus the overall quality of the joint fluid decreases. To test the viscosity or "stickiness" of the fluid, take a drop of synovial fluid between two fingers, press and pull your fingers apart. The stringy component (viscosity) of the fluid is related to the hyaluronic acid component.

The average urine specific gravity for a normal cat is:

1.030.

Which of the following will absorb the fewest X-rays?

Air.

Which of the following cells has cytoplasmic granules that stain blue to blue-black and gray-blue cytoplasm often with small vacuoles?

Basophil. Blue color is the reason for the Basophil name.

Which of the following statements regarding overgrown nail trimming in the dog is true?

Nails should be gradually trimmed back over the course of several weeks. Gradual clipping back will bring about a regression of the quick.

The pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contraction is:

Systolic blood pressure.

Which of the following is a clinical sign you would see in a dog with chocolate toxicosis?

Tachycardia. The toxic principles of chocolate are methylxanthines (specifically theobromine and caffeine). Methylxanthines can cause CNS excitation tachycardia, and vasoconstriction. Signs include vomiting, diarrhea, hyperactivity, polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and death.

The four-quadrant, streaking method of solid-media inoculation of plates is specifically designed to:

Detect all types of bacteria by allowing isolated colonies to form.

Film placed in an auto processor, passes through the following chemicals in which order?

Developer, fixer, wash

The inhalant anesthetic isoflurane:

Is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container.

You are responsible for anesthetizing an adult cat. What size endotracheal tube would you have ready for this patient?

#4. The average adult cat is properly intubated with a #4 endotracheal tube. A #2 would be too small for an adult. It could be used for a young kitten. The #6 and #8 would be too big for a cat and would be applicable for small to medium dogs.

When doing a tie-over bandage, which suture would be the best suited for the "loop sutures" located around the wound periphery?

0 or 1-0 monofilament non-absorbable suture. For the loop sutures, you want a strong and non-absorbable suture. A 0 or 1-0 size suture is the largest and strongest of these choices.

You are working in the critical care unit and learning to perform central venous pressure readings. What is a normal CVP reading?

0-10 cm H2O. The central venous pressure is the blood pressure of the thoracic vena cava. It is very helpful in monitoring the hydration status of a patient. A value less than zero would indicate dehydration and a value starting to trend upward around 5-8 indicates adequate fluids. Readings over 10 may indicate fluid overload or venous congestion. These values should always be interpreted in light of the patient's clinical status (i.e. body weight, skin turgor, heart rate, mucus membrane status, etc.)

The maximum permissible dose (MPD) for whole-body radiation per year in Sieverts is:

0.05. One Sievert equals 100 rem (MPD is 5 rem or 5000 mrem).

A dose of 30 mEq KCl has been added to 1 liter of normal saline. What drip rate would provide a patient with 2 mEq KCl per hour?

67 ml/hr. 1000 ml (or 1 liter) / 30 mEq = 33.33 x 2 = 67.

A 10-year-old male neutered Pug presents in respiratory distress and appears to be having an allergic reaction. He has hives and a swollen face. The doctor asks you to get epinephrine ready at a dose of 0.02 mg/kg. He weighs 9 kg. When you get the bottle of epinephrine from the refrigerator it says it is a 1:1000 solution. How many ml will you draw up for this patient?

0.18 ml. First you have to understand what 1:1000 concentration means. A 1:1000 solution is the same as saying 1 gram in 1,000 ml. And we know that 1 gram is equal to 1,000 mg. So it would be 1,000 mg: 1000 ml, which is the same as 1 mg/ml (when the thousands cancel out).

0.18 ml. First you have to understand what a 1:1000 concentration means. A 1:1000 solution is the same as saying 1 gram in 1,000 ml. And we know that 1 gram is equal to 1,000 mg. So it would 1,000 mg: 1,000 ml which is the same as 1 mg/ml (when the thousands cancel out). Next you take the patient's weight in kg X the dose: 9 kg/dog X 0.02 mg/kg (the kg cancel out) = 0.18 mg/kg. Now divide the dose by the concentration: 0.18 mg/dog X 1 mg/ml (mg cancel out) = 0.18 ml/dog.

What is the maximum amount of fluids that can be injected IP to a 50 gram mouse?

0.5 to 1.0 ml. Mice may be injected IP at 20 ml/kg.

A 12-lb (5.45 kg) cat is 6% dehydrated. The veterinarian would like to correct only the dehydration within the first 8 hours. Using a 60-drop/ml administration, what is the drip rate in drops/sec?

0.7.

Which of the following conversions is most accurate?

1 fl oz = 30 ml.

When performing a direct fecal smear to look for "swimmers" or parasitic trophozoites, the feces cannot be older than which of the following?

1 hour. Fresh feces are needed for a direct smear. The smear should be made and read within 1 hour of fecal collection for most accurate results. Also, serial samples are ideal. Sometimes 4 to 5 smears are needed to find an organism. A negative direct smear does not rule out a parasite.

You draw up a canine distemper-parvo combination vaccine. How long is the vaccine considered viable at room temperature?

1 hour. Vaccines should be discarded if they have been left out at room temperature for longer than one hour. Most references state that if they are refrigerated they can be used within 24 hours, but this is controversial. The best option is to use the vaccine shortly after it is drawn up to avoid any concerns.

What is the normal amount of gastric reflux obtained from a healthy horse via nasogastric tube placement?

1-3 liters. Normally, a healthy horse will have a small amount of gastric reflux, 1-3 liters. If you get back 8-12 or more liters of reflux, the horse likely has an obstructive intestinal disease or ileus of some sort.

What is the maximum amount of blood could you safely take from your 360 gram rat when performing venipuncture?

1.8 ml. Rats have 50 ml of blood per kg of weight. You can safely draw 10% of total blood volume.

For a 20-kg dog that is 5% dehydrated, how much fluid replacement is required?

1000 ml.

A dog refuses a rectal temperature. You take his temperature under the axillary region and get a reading of 99.5 F. What is likely his core body temperature?

101.5 F. Typically a temperature taken in the ear or under a peripheral limb reads 1 to 2 degrees lower than rectal temperature, or core body temperature.

A dog has snail bait poisoning (metaldehyde) and presents with seizures. His temperature is 109F, and you begin cooling techniques while the veterinarian treats the seizures. At what temperature should you stop trying to cool him?

103F. When the temperature reaches 103F, it is time to cease the cooling techniques, as the temperature can continue to drop and get dangerously low.

What is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken?

107 F. This is the deep body temperature.

Your practice recently purchased a portable ultrasound machine. A client calls and asks how early her mare can have an ultrasound to determine if she is pregnant. What is the very earliest that a pregnancy can be confirmed with an ultrasound in a horse?

11 days. Pregnancy may be detected via ultrasound as early as 11 days after service however, most practices recommend to wait about three weeks after the mare was bred or serviced before performing ultrasound to be certain. Experienced practitioners may choose to do it closer to two weeks post breeding.

Plaster of paris-type casting material can bear weight how soon after application?

12 hours.

You are monitoring an adult cat under anesthesia. Since induction, the heart has been slowing down. What is the appropriate lowest acceptable heart rate for this cat?

120. If the heart rate drops below 100-120 beats per minute in an anesthetized cat, the heart rate needs to be increased and the anesthetic depth should be evaluated. If appropriate, atropine may be administered in this situation, and anesthetic gas turned down if possible.

Pregnancy check in the mare can be performed via ultrasound as early as which of the following?

14 days. Ultrasound is the method of choice for detecting pregnancy in the mare and can be done as early as 11 to 14 days (around 2 weeks).

What is the maximum volume that can be injected intramuscularly in the larger muscle groups of an average adult horse?

15 ml. Volumes approaching 15 ml or over should be divided into 2 different sites.

At what age should orphaned kittens no longer need stimulation for urination and defecation?

15-20 days.

What is the average gestation for goats and sheep?

150 days. This list of gestations should be committed to memory: Llama 1 year (350 days), Horse 11 months (330 days), Cow 9 months (280 days), Sheep/Goats 5 months (150 days), Pig 4 months (114 days), Dog/Cat 2 months (63 days), Ferret 1.5 months (42 days).

You make a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample and measure the urea nitrogen. The analyzer reads that the concentration of urea nitrogen is 30 mg/dl. What is the urea nitrogen level of the patient's serum?

150 mg/dl. When a dilution is made prior to analyzing a sample, you must multiply that dilution factor with the reported value to obtain the true level in the sample. In this case, the sample diluted by a factor of 5. Therefore, 30 x 5 = 150.

A client calls and would like her dog's phenobarbital refilled. He is currently getting 1/4 grain every 12 hours. How many milligrams is in 1/4 grain?

16.2 mg. 1 grain is equal to 64.8 mg.

Determination of adequate passive transfer of maternal antibodies (IgG) to a neonatal foal is typically performed at what age?

18-24 hours of age. Newborn foals are immunocompetent but have few antibodies in their body when they are born; thus, rely on acquiring antibodies from their dam's colostrum. In the foal, the IgG should be checked around 18-24 hours of age to allow for the foal to absorb the maternal antibodies that are consumed. The foal's gut "closes" or loses its ability to absorb colostral antibodies around 18 hours of age.

How many grams of sodium chloride should be dissolved in 1.5 L of water to make a 12% solution?

180 g.

What minimum quantity of feces is required to run a reliable fecal test for ova and parasites?

2 grams. About the size of a garbanzo bean, is the smallest quantity of feces that would be acceptable to run a reliable fecal flotation with zinc centrifugation. Five grams is ideal.

Esmarch bandages and tourniquets are occasionally used in equine surgery. What is the maximum time that a tourniquet may be left in place?

2 hours. The maximum recommended time is 2 hours. The purpose of the Esmarch bandage is to help push blood out of a limb by wrapping the bandage from distal to proximal and then applying a tourniquet. In this way, the surgeon can minimize the amount of bleeding at the surgical site. However, prolonged use can result in severe ischemia and deleterious effects.

Approximately what percentage of body weight should a horse consume in forage (i.e. hay) per day?

Which of the following is the correct dental formula for an 8-week-old kitten?

2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2) = 26

What is the minimum volume of water required by mammals to sustain life?

2-4 mls/kg/hr.

How many mammary glands does the goat have?

2. The cow has 4 mammary glands; the horse has 2 mammary glands.

For a strain to be considered inbred, a minimum of how many generations of brother to sister or parent to offspring must occur?

20.

Which temperature is best for laboratory rodents?

22 C. Which is roughly 72-74 F.

What is the ideal time period to withhold food in large ruminants prior to general anesthesia for an elective procedure?

24-48 hours. Bloat results from continuous fermentation in the rumen when the ability to eructate is absent. In general there is less risk of bloat if cattle are fasted for 48 hours prior to anesthesia. This may not always be possible in emergency situations, but ideally for an elective procedure should fast for at least 24-48 hours.

The heart rate for an adult horse should generally be in which of the following ranges?

25-50 beats per minute. Horses on average have a heart rate of around 35 beats per minute (with a range of 25 to 50 beats per minute).

Which of the following heart rates would be considered abnormal for a healthy adult cat?

250 beats/minute. Normal range for cats extends to 220 bpm. Older large adult cats may be as low as 100 bpm.

Your radiograph technique chart indicates that you should use a kVp setting of 50 and mAs setting of 12.5. Which of the following would be appropriate?

250 mA, 1/20 sec. mAs is a measure of the total exposure. It is the product of mA and time in seconds. Generally, it is also best to maximize the mA and minimize exposure time to decrease motion artifacts.

When conducting a food trial for possible food allergy manifesting as allergic skin disease, how long as a minimum should the trial last?

3 months. For food-related skin allergies, a food trial should last at least 3 months. For possible food allergy manifesting as inflammatory bowel disease, the trial should last at least 3 weeks. A food trial should consist of a novel protein and a novel carbohydrate source such as Rabbit, Duck, Venison, etc. Another option is a diet with hydrolyzed proteins such that the body cannot form an immune response (Z/D is an example of this).

What is the ideal age for tail docking in puppies?

3 to 5 days.

If a patient has a WBC count of 10,000/ul showing 30% monocytes and 70% lymphocytes, the patient's absolute monocyte count is:

3,000 cells/ul.

How many chambers does the stomach of a llama have?

3. The llama has a stomach that functions similar to that of a true ruminant, but it only has 3 compartments (rumen, omasum, and abomasum). True ruminants such as cows, goats, sheep, and deer have 4 compartments including the rumen, omasum, abomasum, and the reticulum.

How many feline blood types exist?

3. There are three feline blood types: A, B, and AB. Group A is the most common, as 98% of cats are type A. Type B is more rare and seen most often in some exotic breeds. Only approximately 1.7% of cats have type B blood. AB is rare in all breeds. Always crossmatch cats unless you know their blood types. Dogs have 13 blood types.

You are instructed to add 40 mEq of potassium chloride (KCl) to a Liter bag of 0.9% sodium chloride for a patient. The patient to receive fluids weighs 50 pounds and will be on a rate of 85 ml/hr. You know that the maximum potassium a patient should receive is 0.5 mEq/kg/hr. What is his potassium intake, and is it too high?

3.4 mEq/hr; No. This is 1/3 of his maximum potassium dose per hour, so it is not too high. First, calculate how many mEq/hr he will be receiving with this dose and rate: (There are 1,000 ml in 1 Liter) 40 mEq/1000 ml = 0.04 mEq/ml. Next multiply by his fluid rate: 0.04 mEq/ml x 85 ml/hr (ml cancel out) = 3.4 mEq/hr he is receiving currently. Now calculate his maximum dose: Convert his body weight to kg: 50 pounds/2.2 pounds/kg = 22.7 kg. 0.5 mEq x 22.7 kg = 11.3 maximum mEq/hr he can have. He is getting 3.4 and his max is 11.3, so he is only getting 1/3 of his maximum.

You are working in the large animal ward at the hospital. You are receiving a horse that needs immediate treatment for dehydration. The vet asks you to calculate the fluid deficit for this horse. He is 950-pound horse that is about 7% dehydrated. What is his fluid deficit?

30 L. Body weight in kg multiplied by % dehydration = Liters needed to re-establish hydration.

Perioperative antibiotics are essential in preventing unwanted infections. What is the best time to administer the antibiotic?

30 minutes prior to making an incision. Research has shown that the best time to administer perioperative antibiotics is approximately 30 minutes prior to making an incision. This allows time for the antibiotics to have adequate circulating blood levels, resulting in good protection. By convention, most surgeons will repeat a dose of antibiotics every 90 minutes while in surgery. There is no literature to support the use of antibiotics after surgery in uncomplicated surgeries. If there is substantial contamination, break in technique, or other indication for continued use of antibiotics such as discovery of an abscess, then it is beneficial.

The gestation period of a rabbit, guinea pig, and mouse are, respectively:

30, 68, 21 days.

Which of the following is the best approximation of the typical tidal volume of a 20 kg dog?

300 ml. The tidal volume is volume of air that is normally displaced during inspiration and expiration. Typical tidal volume for a dog is about 15 ml/kg (slightly more for smaller dogs and slightly less for large dogs). Tidal volume can be used to help estimate minute volume and the necessary fresh gas flow rates with various gas anesthesia machines.

How long is the gestation period in the mare?

326-354 days.

Your clinic has decided to start harvesting blood from volunteer donors to administer to patients. How long can whole blood units be stored in the refrigerator if properly collected?

35 days.

To separate serum, whole blood should be spun down in a centrifuge at:

3500 rpm for 10 minutes.

The temperature of a bacterial incubator should be set for:

37 F. This corresponds with approximately 100 F, the normal body temperature of many animals.

You remove an IV catheter from a peripheral vein and place a pressure bandage. What is the maximum amount of time this bandage should stay on?

4 hours. Venous return can become compromised if a compression bandage or pressure wrap is left on for more than 4 hours. It is best to remove the pressure bandage once the bleeding has stopped so that the bandage is not forgotten and venous return is not compromised.

How long does estrus in the dog typically last?

4-13 days with an average of 9 days. The entire estrous cycle in the dog is approximately 6 months.

The permanent canine teeth in dogs generally erupt at about what age?

4-5 months.

If the veterinary technician needs to draw 12 units of insulin and the solution concentration is 40 units/ml, which of the following equations should be used to determine the required volume?

40 U/1 ml = 12 U/x ml.

A vial containing 1 gram of medication has to be reconstituted to a 2.5% solution (w/v). What volume of diluent is needed and what concentration will result?

40 ml, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/ml.

You have a bottle of 50% dextrose. You are asked to add it to a bag of LRS for a pet in diabetic ketoacidosis to create a 2.5% solution. The pet has 800 ml left in his bag. How much will you add to his bag?

40 ml. 800 ml x 0.025 = 20 ml. If this were 100 % dextrose, adding 20 ml to the bag would create the 2.5% concentration. Since it is 50% dextrose, this number must be doubled: So, 20 ml x 2 = 40 ml. Draw out 40 ml from the bag (now there are 760 ml left in the bag). Add in 40 ml of 50% dextrose. Now, 2.5% of the total 800 ml is dextrose. Double check the math: 40 ml/800 ml = 0.05 (i.e. 5%) divided by 2 (because it was 50% dextrose that was added) = 0.025 = 2.5%.

How many days after fertilization will canine fetal skeletons first appear on a radiograph?

42. Calcium is absorbed into the fetal skeletons at this time and makes them visible on the radiograph.

An owner brings her 4-year old female Labrador Retriever to your clinic because she believes she might be pregnant. She does not remember when the dog's last heat cycle was. The dog's abdomen appears fairly distended and you take a lateral abdominal radiograph. What would be the earliest time you would expect to be able to see fetal skeletons on abdominal radiographs in the dog?

43 days gestation. The fetal skeleton ossifies at 42-45 days in the dog and 35-39 in the cat. In the dog, a mineralized fetus can usually be seen around 42-46 days. The scapula, humerus, and femur can be made out around 46-51 days. The ribs can be seen at 52-59 days. Teeth and toes can be seen at 58-63 days.

What is the shock dose of fluids for a cat?

45ml/kg. When giving shock doses of fluids, they are often given in 1/4 increments. The shock dose of fluids for dogs is 90 ml/kg.

A vial of penicillin contains 2,000,000 units of the dry drug. To make the penicillin into a solution that contains 400,000 units per milliliter, how much diluent is needed?

5 ml.

What is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?

60-100 mg/kg. The LD50 toxic dose of theobromine in dogs which many texts lists is 100-150 mg/kg. HOWEVER, this means that about 50% of pets die at this level; therefore, obviously the true toxic dose would be lower than this. In some sensitive pets, toxic doses could be as low as 20 mg/kg. On average, the toxic dose is likely somewhere between 60-100 mg/kg.

Which of the following is the smallest suture?

5-0.

A cat is starting weekly subcutaneous fluid administration for renal failure at the clinic where you work. The client asks how long it will take for him to absorb the fluids after they are given. You tell him most cats will absorb the fluid within:

5-8 hours. However, fluids are absorbed when they are needed, and absorption is dependent on having adequate SQ blood flow, which can be decreased in severely hypothermic or dehydrated patients.

For a veterinary X-ray technician, what is the maximum permissible dose of radiation they can receive in one year?

50 mSv. There are many units of radiation exposure and dose that are used. Old terminology used the unit of the rad for measuring dose. For radiation safety, a "quality factor" is typically multiplied by the dose to give a "dose equivalent". The rem (radiation equivalent in man) is the dose in rad multiplied by a quality factor. Accepted terminology has changed over the years, and the standard (SI) unit of dose is the Gray (Gy). There are 100 rad per 1 Gy (1 rad = 1 cGy). The Sievert is the dose in Gy multiplied by the quality factor. The maximum permissible dose for a radiation worker as described in this question is 5 rem. (5,000 mrem). This converts to 50 mSv, which is the correct answer to this question.

When taking a lateral thoracic radiograph of a dog, where should the field be centered?

5th rib and caudal border of the scapula. A lateral thoracic radiograph should be taken by drawing the forelimbs forward to prevent them from overlapping the cranial thorax. The film should be centered at the 5th rib and caudal border of the scapula; the film should also be collimated to include the manubrium (as the cranial landmark) and half way between the xiphoid and the last rib (as the caudal landmark). The head and neck should be in a natural position, neither extended nor flexed, and the sternum and dorsal spinous process should be in a plane parallel to the table, indicating that the animal is not rotated. All lung fields should be included, and the film should be taken on maximum inspiration.

You are planning to get some goats out on your ranch property and would like to keep them confined to a certain area to keep the weeds down. How tall of a fence (minimum) would likely be required to keep the goats confined?

6 feet. Fencing is a very important aspect of raising sheep and goats. Most goats can jump or climb over a fence that is shorter than 6 feet, so this would be the minimum recommended height.

When collecting blood for a blood transfusion, the maximum recommended amount that can be collected from a donor horse (500 kg) is what volume?

6-8 liters. A safe amount of blood to collect from a horse is 15-16 ml/kg, equaling 6-8 liters in a 500 kg horse. Typically, blood is only collected from a donor every 30 days or longer.

What is the maximum amount of oral fluids that a horse should receive at a time?

6-8 liters. The average size horse (800 to 1200 pounds) has a stomach capacity of only about 4 gallons. It is best to give smaller quantities of fluids more frequently, and no more then 6 to 8 liters should be given at one time.

When an anesthetized patient is to be placed on a circular or semiclosed anesthesia circuit, the correct bag size is determined by using which of the following?

60 ml/kg.

A breeder calls and wants to know how long sperm may be viable to fertilize an egg after dogs have mated. What will you tell her?

7 days.

How many cervical vertebrae do cows have?

7. Cows as well as dogs, sheep, pigs, cats, goats, horses and humans have 7 cervical vertebrae.

Most bacteria grow best at pH:

7. Most bacteria grow optimally in a neutral pH. Mammalian blood is slightly alkaline in nature.

If a thoracic radiograph taken using 80 kVp and 10 mAs is excessively dark, which of the following settings should be used for a retake?

70 kVp and 10 mAs.

An administration set labeled "1 ml = approximately 60 drops" is being used for parenteral fluids for an animal requiring 500 ml/hr. What is the rate to meet this requirement?

8 gtt/sec.

A dog has recently obtained a fresh superficial linear wound after lacerating its flank on a fence. Within what time period can this wound be optimally repaired by primary closure?

8 hours. After 8 hours pass, the wound tissue starts to become increasingly compromised, and risk of infection and necrosis increase. Primary closure is used when a wound is classified as clean or clean-contaminated. Closure of these involves immediate lavaging, suturing, and closure of the wound. Delayed primary closure is used in clean-contaminated wounds or contaminated wounds and is performed 2-5 days later. The wound is lavaged and debrided. Closure of the wound takes place before the development of granulation tissue. Secondary closure is wound management consisting of lavage and debridement until granulation tissue develops (3-5 days). Then, the edges of the wound are excised, and the skin edges are sutured over the granulation tissue. Second-intention healing is when a wound is allowed to heal by granulating in, wound contraction, and epithelialization; no surgical closure is performed.

Socialization plays an important role in companion animal behavior. At what age is it vital that painful and/or traumatic experience be avoided?

8-10 weeks. Between the ages of 8 and 10 weeks puppies experience a fear period. Because of this, painful and traumatic situations should be avoided. Between the ages of 3 and 8 weeks puppies socialize best with other dogs. At 16 to 20 weeks puppies go through a period when they are curious and exploring new environments.

The respiratory rate for an adult horse should generally be:

8-20 breaths per minute. Dogs breathe 10-30 times per minute at rest. Cats breathe 24-42 times per minute at rest.

During the maintenance period of anesthesia in a cat or dog, respiratory rates lower than how many breaths/minute may indicate excessive anesthetic depth?

How many canine blood groups have been identified?

When Isospora is infective in its sporulated state, how many sporozoites does it contain?

An adult canine patient is in cardiac arrest and it is your job to administer thoracic compressions. How fast should you give compressions?

80-120 beats per minute. Any faster or slower than 80-120 bpm and one runs the risk of the circulation becoming impaired. This will then result in organs and muscles not getting the oxygen that they need.

If a horse is given 825 ml of a 10% solution of guaifenesin, the amount in grams of guaifenesin given is:

82.5 g.

Some orphaned kittens are left on the doorstep of the clinic where you work. You volunteer to take care of these kittens. What volume can the stomach of a kitten or puppy hold on average?

9 ml/kg. Giving more than this at a time can lead to regurgitation and causes increased risk of aspiration.

When taking a radiograph of an equine limb, you take a radiograph where the portable X-ray unit source is 90 cm away from the cassette. You then move closer so that the X-ray source is now 30 cm away from the cassette. If no changes were made to the settings of the machine, what will the beam intensity be at the second radiograph relative to the first one?

9 times greater intensity at 30 cm compared to 90 cm. The inverse square law states the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the X-ray source. Therefore, the intensity is greater as the cassette is moved closer to the source. To calculate the answer, the intensity of beam 1 is (x/90)^2 and the intensity of beam 2 is (x/30)^2 where x is the number of photons produced by the x-ray machine. The math here works out as follows: (x/30)^2 / (x/90)^2 = [(x/30) / (x/90)]^2 = (90/30)^2 = (3)^2 = 9

During the first week of life, orphaned puppies and kittens should be reared in an environmental temperature of:

90 F. Which is similar to mom's body temperature. Temperature can be lowered to 80 F during the second week of life.

You are asked to start a dog on maintenance fluids. The dog weighs 80 pounds. What fluid rate do you start on this dog?

90 ml/hr. There are several ways to calculate maintenance fluids. Some are more accurate than others, with the more accurate ones requiring more complex math. Fortunately, in most patients, being off by a few milliliters does not adversely affect the patient. The most basic calculation to approximate maintenance rate fluids in a dog is 60ml/kg/day.

What percentage of mammary gland tumors in the cat are malignant?

90%. In the dog, the chance is closer to 45-50%.

"Bernie", a 4-year-old Maltese mix presents to your clinic after having ingested a full milk chocolate bar about 20 minutes prior to his arrival; this means he consumed about 1.55 ounces, according to the package the owner brought. How many milligrams of theobromine would this be? (Hint: Milk chocolate contains about 60 mg per ounce of theobromine, the toxin we are concerned about.) Bernie weighs 15 pounds.

93 mg. 1.55 oz x 60 mg/oz = 93 mg ingested. The toxic dose of chocolate can vary per patient. At 20 mg/kg may be hyperactive, agitated, and have GI symptoms. Around 50 mg/kg may start to have cardiac effects such as tachycardia or arrhythmias. Doses above 60 mg/kg may start to cause neurologic symptoms such as tremoring, seizures, etc.; in severe cases death may occur. To see what effects Bernie might have, let's take it one step further: He weighs 15 pounds/2.2 pounds/kg = 6.8 kg. 93 mg ingested/6.8 kg = 13.6 mg/kg dose ingested (this is well below the 20 mg/kg that may cause hyperactivity). Going off the information about side effects above, Bernie is not likely to have any severe effects other than possibly some GI upset. If he just ate the chocolate, the vet may still wish to induce vomiting, or just monitor.

While caring for a week old orphan puppy, it is important to monitor body temperature. Rectal temperature should be between:

94-99 F. If the temperature falls below 94 F, the heart rate will drop and intestinal motion ceases. Death will occur if not corrected.

What is the normal body temperature of a kitten during the first 2 weeks of its life?

96 F. Like all newborns, they must have warmth and lack the shivering reflex.

You are responsible for autoclaving surgical packs in the hospital. You are using a steam sterilizer and heat to a temperature of 250 degrees Fahrenheit (121 degrees Celsius) for 30 minutes. What minimum humidity level is needed in order to provide adequate sterilization?

97-99%. The relative humidity in the steam sterilizer must reach 97-99% humidity in order to provide proper sterilization.

A reticulocyte count should be included on a complete blood cell count in which of the following instances?

A 13-year old cat with a packed cell volume of 19%. Or in cases of anemia.

Finochietto retractor

A Finochietto retractor is specifically designed for rib retraction. Balfour retractors are designed for retraction of the abdominal wall. Gelpis retractors are used to increase visibility in small areas such as the knee joint. Army-Navy retractors are very versatile and can be used to retract in many situations.

Leukopenia is:

A decrease in WBCs. Leuko- means white and -penia is low or decreased numbers.

Ancylostoma caninum and Cystoisospora are parasites that have a direct life cycle. What does this mean?

A direct life cycle indicates that the parasite does not require an intermediate host and can undergo its entire life cycle within a single species. This is true for both Cystoisospora and Ancylostoma caninum, the canine hookworm.

A 6-year old male domestic short hair presents dyspneic with fluid dripping from both nares. The veterinarian suspects heart failure due to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What type of injection would most likely immediately be given?

A diuretic. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition whereby the myocardium becomes thickened and diastolic function becomes impaired, often resulting in congestive heart failure. The diuretic is given to decrease blood volume and therefore reduce the strain on the heart. Intravenous fluids should not be given as they would increase plasma volume. A sedative might be advantageous to calm the patient but should be given after treatment has begun. An antibiotic will not treat HCM. Corticosteroids are contraindicated in cases of heart failure.

A veterinary technician is asked to administer a drug that is considered a vesicant. What is a vesicant?

A drug that causes tissue damage when given extravascularly.

Which of the following best describes a seroma?

A fluid pocket at an incision that is not infected. A seroma is a pocket of fluid that sometimes develops at a surgery site post-op. It is typically a clear or pink serous fluid and is not infected. It often builds up in dead space or from a suture reaction. An abscess is a pocket of pus (infection). Air under the skin is referred to as subcutaneous emphysema. A granuloma is a mass of immune cells that forms from tissue injury.

Which animal might receive a perineal urethrostomy?

A male cat with a urethral obstruction. Perineal urethrostomies are performed in male cats with a urethral blockage. The procedure is performed when a cat has had multiple episodes of obstruction or when the obstruction cannot be relieved manually. The procedure entails making a new opening in the urethra in the perineal area and removing the penis.

Which ICU patient on fluids needs to be watched closely for jugular distention?

A patient with a heart murmur. A patient with underlying cardiac disease is at the highest risk of pulmonary edema (fluid in the lungs) from fluid overload. An indication of possible fluid overload is jugular distention. A good way to monitor hydration status of patients like this in the ICU is via central venous pressure readings.

Which of the following vitamins are fat-soluble?

A, D, E and K are fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) and the B-complex vitamins are water-soluble.

Which organization establishes standards for label information and the description of ingredients on pet food sold in the United States?

AAFCO. AAFCO is the Association of American Feed Control Officials and is the organization that sets these standards. They ensure that adequate information is communicated to the consumer about the food product.

Urticaria

AKA "hives" or "wheals". It is frequently a symptom of an allergic reaction to vaccines or other allergens. Erythema is redness of the skin, which can be seen in allergic reactions. Pemphigus is the shortened name for a number of different auto-immune skin diseases which usually show up as crusting or ulceration of the skin, particularly on the nose and paw pads. Dermatophytosis is another term for ringworm, which is a fungal infection of the skin that causes alopecia and red, circular, itchy plaques.

You are training a radiology technician on methods of restraining patients using sandbags and positioning devices that will allow her to step out of the radiology suite during the radiograph exposure. The radiology technician asks you why this is necessary, since she always wears her dosimetry badge and has always been well below the established exposure limits. What important principle of radiation safety dictates that further efforts such as these should still be made to decrease radiation exposure to the radiology technician?

ALARA. ALARA stands for "As low as reasonably achievable". This is the radiation safety principle that all personnel should take all reasonable efforts to minimize their radiation exposure. Even though the technician's absorbed dose is below the maximum permissible dose, it is still preferable to minimize her dose further if it is reasonably achievable. Even though doses below the maximum permissible dose are generally considered safe, there is a consensus that a lesser dose is even better and all reasonable efforts should always be taken to minimize radiation exposure. MPD stands for maximum permissible dose, which is what the radiology technician was referring to when she stated that her dosimeter badge has always measured below the established limits. Monitoring personnel dosages and ensuring that they are kept below the MPD is important but does not replace the principle of ALARA. Rad stands for "radiation absorbed dose" and is an old measure of absorbed dose that has been replaced by the Gray (Gy), which equals 100 rad. Rem stands for "radiation equivalent is man" and is a measure of absorbed dose multiplied by a quality factor that takes into account the type of radiation that was absorbed. This value has been replaced by the Sievert (Sv), which is 100 rem. Time, distance, and shielding is the principle describing the 3 ways to reduce radiation doses; these are to decrease the time of exposure, increase the distance between personnel and the exposure source, and to add shielding devices between the exposure source and personnel. It does not provide the answer to the question of why additional effort needs to be made to decrease exposure, despite the notion that the radiology technician receives less than the MPD.

The licensure we receive before being able to practice as a veterinary technician is an example of which branch of ethics?

Administrative ethics. Administrative ethics are defined as: Rules set by government bodies that regulate veterinary medicine.

Which organ is responsible for producing cortisol?

Adrenal gland. It also produces epinephrine and aldosterone.

Which of the following forceps do veterinary surgeons most often use to aid in suturing?

Adson.

Horses have higher (blank) values than other species.

AST. Test method should be specific to the species being tested or the horse specimen should be diluted before beginning the testing.

What is the most common cause of flexural and angular deformities in horses?

Abnormal development. Flexure and angular deformities occur as a result of musculoskeletal growth deformities. These abnormalities may be present at birth or develop over the first few months to years of life. Treatment may be as simple as corrective shoeing or bandaging, but more advanced cases may require surgical intervention. The three main types of flexural deformities are carpal, distal interphalangeal (coffin joint), and metacarpophalangeal.

Which of the four compartments of the ruminant stomach is called the "true stomach"?

Abomasum.

Which of the 4 stomach compartments in the ruminant is considered the true glandular stomach?

Abomasum. The abomasum is the true glandular stomach and is responsible for mixing food with digestive enzymes. The omasum grinds up the food material and absorbs water and bicarbonate. The rumen is where all the fermentation is occurring thanks to the help of symbiotic organisms that help break down the food. The rumen occupies the majority of the LEFT side of the abdominal cavity. The reticulum acts as a conduit for food and helps pace the contractions of the rumen.

What is a localized accumulation of pus in the body known as?

Abscess. An abscess is a collection of pus that accumulates and is surrounded by inflammatory tissue. A cyst is a closed-off sac that may contain fluid, air, semi-solid material, etc. A vesicle is a small blister on the skin or mucosa, similar to a cyst. Adenoma is a benign glandular tumor. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by either greasy skin from excessive sebum (overproductive glands in the skin), or dry skin characterized by flaking scales.

RBCs with multiple, irregularly spaced projections are:

Acanthocytes. Acanthocytes have a few projections of various lengths; Crenated cells have shorter projections which are evenly spaced around the cell; Schistocytes are pieces of RBCs following hemolysis; Anisocytes are RBCs with a range of sizes.

You are working with an equine veterinarian on a breeding farm. You will be sedating a young stallion for an oral examination. You are well aware that the veterinarian will not be using which tranquilizer for the procedure?

Acepromazine. Acepromazine causes penile prolapse in horses which can result in edema and paralysis; not recommended in stallions.

You are to give a gerbil a preanesthetic combination before induction in a chamber box. You can use all of the following except for:

Acepromazine. Gerbils have a low tolerance for drug-induced seizures. Acepromazine lowers the threshold for seizures. Diazepam, atropine, and telazol can all be given.

Which of these drugs should be used with great caution in stallions due to the risk of causing paraphimosis or priapism?

Acepromazine. Phenothiazine tranquilizers can cause relaxation of smooth muscles and engorgement of the corpus cavernosum with blood, leading to an inability to withdraw the penis into the sheath, or paraphimosis. While this drug side effect is very rare, veterinarians should be cautious in the use of acepromazine in stallions and should consider another sedative such as xylazine or detomidine when sedation is necessary.

Which of the following drugs are toxic to cats?

Acetaminophen. AKA Tylenol, even in small doses, can be very toxic to cats. They are very sensitive to this drug due to low levels of an enzyme (glucoronyl transferase) in the liver that is needed to metabolize acetaminophen. Prednisolone is a glucocorticoid steroid that may be used in cats that are deficient in glucocorticoid production (rare) or for its anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressive properties. Ketoprofen is an NSAID sometimes used in cats. Famotidine is a gastric acid reducing drug. Xylazine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist sometimes used in cats for sedation or as an emetic.

What is the neurotransmitter for skeletal muscle?

Acetylcholine. Acetylcholine (ACh) is the transmitter for skeletal muscle and is located at the terminal ends of each motor neuron. Acetylcholinesterase destroys ACh and thus turns off muscle activity. GABA and Dopamine are CNS neurotransmitters. Norepinephrine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in smooth muscle.

A cat is given methionine to alter the pH of his urine in an effort to dissolve his struvite stones. The drug has which of the following intended effects?

Acidification of the urine. Struvites form in alkaline urine; acidifying the urine helps dissolve them.

A young male cat with symptoms of feline lower urinary tract disease and struvite crystalluria should receive:

Acidifying diet. Struvite crystals form when the pH of the urine is high or alkaline. Therefore, an acidifying diet would help to decrease the pH of the urine and prevent formation of the crystals. It can often be of benefit in cases of FLUTD in addition to increasing water intake (canned diets can help with this) and decreasing stress in the home.

A young male cat with symptoms of feline lower urinary tract disease and struvite crystalluria should receive?

The contrast media that are most used in veterinary radiography are iodine, barium sulfate, and:

Air.

Which disease can cause a sever bradycardia that could be life-threatening?

Addison's disease. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) can cause a high potassium level (hyperkalemia) and can be life-threatening. Addison's occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol, resulting in a crisis. A low heart rate is often associated with high potassium. Sodium chloride is the fluid treatment of choice to help reduce the potassium.

Which disease can cause a severe bradycardia that could be life-threatening?

In treating hypovolemic shock in the canine, the most important form of therapy is to:

Administer IV fluids.

Which type of immunoassay typically results in the visible clumping of particles?

Agglutination test.

What adverse side effect can occur in cats given metoclopramide?

Aggressive behavior. Rare side effects that can occur are nervous, jittery, or aggressive behaviors. The antidote for these types of behaviors is diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Head bobbing can also rarely occur as a side effect of Reglan (metoclopramide).

Which food is a good source of calcium for large animals?

Alfalfa. Legumes (such as clover and alfalfa) and beet pulp are all high in calcium; corn, oats, and barley are low in calcium.

Which materials is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation?

Alginate. This material is mixed, placed into an impression tray, and placed over the teeth. After it sets, the tray is removed in one motion in the direction of the long axis of the teeth. Plaster of Paris is the classic material that used to be used to make casts; however, nowadays most doctors use fiberglass to make casts. Gel foam is a collagen sponge that surgeons use to help create clots during surgical procedures.

You are assisting with chemotherapy treatments. Which of the following is true regarding blood collection from chemotherapy patients?

All blood samples should be drawn from the jugular if possible. Blood should be drawn from the jugular veins when possible. Peripheral veins are spared for intravenous chemotherapy administration or for catheter placement during hospitalization stays.

How do avian blood cells differ from those of mammals?

All of the mature blood cells are nucleated. This includes erythrocytes.

Which of the following terms would refer to a malocclusion in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors?

Anterior crossbite.

Ivermectin is classified as which type of agent?

Anthelmintic.

In what class of antimicrobial drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects?

Aminoglycosides.

A Dalmation presents with difficulty urinating. Bladder stones are confirmed with the ultrasound and a cystotomy is performed. Which crystal is commonly observed in the Dalmation and not expected to be seen in other dog breeds?

Ammonium biurate. Ammonium biurate crystals are abnormal in all other breeds except for Dalmations. Some Dalmations have a genetic defect that results in the production of ammonium biurate crystals. If the defect is severe, they will be predisposed to developing ammonium biurate uroliths.

Butorphanol is an opioid that is often used for its analgesic properties but is also used in other clinical scenarios as:

An antitussive agent. It can be an adjunct treatment for kennel cough.

Anemia would likely result from a heavy infection with which parasite?

Ancylostoma. The most significant risk to an animal with hookworms is anemia. Hookworms live in the small intestine and ingest blood. Ancylostoma and Uncinaria are the two hookworms in dogs and cats. Cystoisospora (coccidia) can cause a significant bloody diarrhea in some cases, which could lead to anemia, but this is not likely as with hookworms. Toxocara (roundworm) and Dipylidium (tapeworm) are not as likely to cause a severe anemia.

What causes cutaneous larval migration in humans?

Ancylostoma. These are hookworms; when they come in contact with unprotected skin, the infective larvae penetrate the epidermis but generally cannot penetrate the basement membrane. They therefore migrate aimlessly, and the disease is usually self-limiting in humans.

A urine filled bladder will appear as what classification on an ultrasound screen?

Anechoic. Anechoic objects and tissues reflect few to no echoes (such as fluid in an organ) and thus present a black image on the ultrasound machine.

A dog with a hematocrit of 23% has which of the following?

Anemia. The hematocrit and packed cell volume (PCV) are red blood cell counts. A hematocrit or a PCV of 23% would be considered low, otherwise known as anemia. Thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count. An animal with dehydration would have hemoconcentration and typically, an elevated hematocrit, unless the animal has both anemia and dehydration concurrently.

Agglutination of blood and spherocytes seen on a blood smear are indicative of which type of disease?

Auto-immune. Agglutination occurs in immune-mediated disorders due to antibodies coating the red blood cells. This results in clumping of the erythrocytes. Spherocytes are often seen with Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA).

When using a technique chart to determine machine settings, for which of the following patients would the mAs need to be significantly increased above the chart recommendations?

Animals with ascites. Ascites in an abdomen full of fluid - better increase mAs for best penetration.

A 4-year-old domestic short hair cat presents with her pupils being noticeably of two different sizes. What is the proper term for this condition?

Anisocoria. Anisocoria is the proper term for two differently sized pupils. It can have a variety of causes, including Horner's syndrome, trauma, middle ear disease, inflammatory conditions, or neoplasia. Buphthalmos is enlargement of the globe or eye itself. Mydriasis is the dilation of both pupils. Miosis is the constriction of both pupils.

Which of the following terms describes variation in cell size?

Anisocytosis. Anisocytosis is the term used to describe variation in cell size. Agglutination is a descriptive term for red blood cells that are adhering or clumping with each other. Anisokaryosis implies variation between cells in the amount of cytoplasm present. Megalocytosis implies enormous and abnormal cells, usually with multiple nuclei present.

The heel effect is going to result with lighter exposure on which area of the film?

Anode side. Anode is angled and intensity is greater bouncing back towards the cathode; thus the cathode end of the patient will receive more electrons and more exposure; the anode end of the patient will receive less electrons and less exposure; why skull is usually to the left.

The tip of the tooth root is called the:

Apex.

Drugs from which of the following categories are inappropriate to inject into the epidural space?

Antibiotics (i.e. ampicillin).

One of the most common incisional complications encountered in veterinary surgery is the formation of a seroma. Which of the following is a poor treatment choice for an incision diagnosed with a seroma?

Antibiotics. Seromas are not infections and do not need to be treated with antibiotics. They consist of serous fluid, which is usually secondary to excessive dissection or "dead-space" that was created during surgery. Excessive activity and motion at the surgical site may predispose to the formation of a seroma. A warm compress will help increase blood flow to the region and thus help the body reabsorb the fluid. Nonetheless, it may take days to weeks for a seroma to completely resolve. Placing a drain at the site of a seroma may help speed up its resolution, as this helps keep the tissues adhered to each other.

Metoclopramide belongs to which class of drugs?

Antiemetic.

You are performing an FeLV snap test on a kitten that was found by your neighbor. What type of test is this?

Antigen test. The FeLV (feline leukemia virus) test is an antigen test, meaning it is testing for the agent itself. The FIV test is an antibody test, meaning it is testing for antibodies made by the host against the agent (immune response). Antigen tests are often referred to as an ELISA test (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay).

A correct statement about vaccines is that they contain:

Antigens.

The prevention of decubital ulcers in a paralyzed patient can be accompanied by all of the following procedures except:

Appropriate analgesic therapy. Appropriate analgesic therapy is necessary for patient comfort; however, it will not prevent decubital ulcers.

What is the average gestation length of a cat?

Approximately 60 days. The average gestation length of dogs and cats is 63 days. Horses have a gestation length of approximately 340 days. Although the average for horses is approximately 11 months, it can vary by as much as 30 days. Cows have an average gestation length of 285 days (about 9 months).

The natural ovulatory season for mares in the northern hemisphere occurs during approximately which months?

April-August. The natural ovulatory season for mares occurs during April through August and September in the northern hemisphere. Some horse breeders will induce early ovulatory cycles in mares by supplying artificial lighting during the winter months.

What is the fluid in the anterior chamber of the eye called?

Aqueous humor. It is produced by the ciliary body. The vitreous humor is the gel filling the area between the lens and retina.

Bacterial endospores:

Are resistant to heat and desiccation. Bacterial endospores are "survival capsules" that allow the organisms to survive harsh environments. They are not a form of reproduction.

Calcium oxalate crystals:

Are seen in ethylene glycol toxicity. Commonly found as the kidneys try to excrete the antifreeze.

Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of measuring?

Arterial oxygen saturation.

An "FHO" would most likely be performed on a patient with which of the following problems?

Arthritic hip. "FHO" stands for Femoral Head Osteotomy. This procedure is removal of the femoral head from the hip joint. It is often performed when there is severe arthritis of a hip or due to fracture or disease from trauma to that hip joint.

In which situation would perioperative antibiotics be strongly indicated?

Arthroscopy. Procedures that are considered uncomplicated and clean typically do not require perioperative antibiotic therapy unless there is a break in sterility. Performing arthroscopy carries a very low likelihood of infection; however, because an infection of the joint can be catastrophic, it is recommended that perioperative antibiotics be administered.

What is the most common swine gastrointestinal parasite?

Ascaris suum. Ascaris suum is the large roundworm of pigs. This parasite undergoes hepato-tracheal migration (the egg with L2 is ingested; the larvae undergo hepatic migration and molt to L3, then migrate to lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed. They molt two more times and become adult roundworms in the intestine). Stephanurus dentatus is the swine kidney worm. Erysipelothrix is a bacterium which causes diamond skin disease in pigs. Trichuris suis is the swine whipworm which lives in the cecum; it is also fairly common but not as common as the roundworm.

A 10-year old Golden Retriever presents with a distended abdomen, and when you touch his belly you notice a fluid wave. What is the medical term for free fluid in the abdomen?

Ascites.

Abdominal distention caused by fluid accumulation is commonly known as:

Ascites.

While performing an epidural on a dog, your needle begins to fill with a clear pale straw colored fluid, what is the appropriate action?

Aspirate and if there is no blood it is ok to administer half of the calculated dose of anesthetic.

Barium for an upper GI radiograph series should not be given to a patient with which of the following?

Aspiration pneumonia. Patients with aspiration pneumonia or who are at risk for aspiration pneumonia should not be given oral barium for an upper GI series due to the risk of aspiration of the barium. Dehydration and renal failure are contraindications for other types of contrast such as iodide contrast agents, which are hyperosmolar and can cause osmotic diuresis and diarrhea. Barium is commonly given to animals with partial obstructions and/or diarrhea as part of their diagnostic work-up and is not contraindicated.

Which of the following correctly indicates where electrons are generated in an x-ray machine?

At the filament of the cathode. The cathode filament of the x-ray machine is where electrons are generated. The kVp applied directs those electrons to the anode, where they hit a tungsten target to produce x-rays.

Some anesthetists routinely bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every five minutes to prevent:

Atelectasis. Atelectasis is a respiratory condition characterized by partially collapsed alveoli. It may be the result of shallow breathing, which causes a decrease in tidal volume. Bagging the patient helps prevent atelectasis by gently forcing air into the patient's breathing passages.

What is the major concern when a patient has a long recovery post-op and is laterally recumbent for an extended period of time?

Atelectasis. Atelectasis is collapse of all or part of a lung. In a patient who is recumbent for a long period of time, there is increased risk that the lung could collapse (usually the lung that is down). This is why it is so important to turn the patient every 15 to 20 minutes after recovery. Turning the patient will help them to recover more quickly and will help to prevent atelectasis.

The effects of dexmedetomidine/medetomidine may be reversed by administering:

Atipamezole.

Which joint allows rotational movement of the head from side to side (from right to left or left to right)?

Atlantoaxial. The atlantoaxial joint is a pivot joint which allows rotation of the head from side to side. It is located between the atlas and axis. The atlantooccipital joint provides the up and down motion of the head and is located between the occipital condyles of the skull and C1 (atlas). The coxofemoral joint is the hip joint. The scapulohumeral joint is where the scapula joins with the proximal humerus.

Which joint allows rotational movement of the head from side to side (rom right to left or left to right)?

Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type I hypersensitivity where chemical mediators are released from mast cells after encountering an antigen?

Atopy. There are 4 types of hypersensitivity: Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity and results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen. Common examples are atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. An example is autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease and occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. Examples include certain contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).

Quinidine is a medication used to treat which condition in horses?

Atrial fibrillation. Quinidine is a class 1 antiarrhythmic medication used mostly in horses to treat atrial fibrillation.

When skeletal muscles are not being used, or when they lose their nerve supply, they tend to:

Atrophy.

A canine hospitalized following a TPLO surgery unexpectedly cardiac arrests. Endotracheal intubation and chest compressions have been initiated. What two drugs are usually administered FIRST during CPCR?

Atropine and epinephrine. Atropine is used in CPCR because it blocks signals from the vagus nerve and is used to treat bradycardia. Epinephrine is used because it increases cardiac output by causing peripheral vasoconstriction and causes bronchodilation. Mannitol and hypertonic saline are used to decrease intracranial pressure and are not the first drugs to be administered during CPCR. Dex SP and methylprednisolone are both steroids and do not increase cardiac function or output. Propofol and diazepam are drugs that might be given during status epilepticus, not during CPCR. Dextrose and fluids may be administered during CPCR but are not usually the first drugs of choice.

Which medication is commonly given to patients with organophosphate toxicity?

Atropine. Atropine is an anticholinergic drug and is an important treatment of organophosphate toxicity. This is because organophosphates are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, and toxicity allows a buildup of acetylcholine. Atropine counteracts these effects.

Pemphigus is a disease affecting the skin and mucous membranes. Pemphigus is which type of disease?

Autoimmune. Pemphigus is an autoimmune condition that affects the skin and mucous membranes. Antibodies made by an animal's immune system attack the bridges that hold skin cells together. Antibodies are deposited in the intercellular spaces causing the cells to detach from each other (also called acanthosis). Treatment for this condition involves the use of immunosuppressants such as corticosteroids. In some cases it may be caused by a drug allergy or reaction, but is still an autoimmune condition.

Which of the following foods is considered toxic to parrots?

Avocado. A toxin found in the Guatemalan type of avocado causes myocardial necrosis in parrots. Blueberries and peppers (even "hot" peppers) are not toxic to psittacines. Chicken and cheese are high in fats and are not appropriate to feed parrots, but there is no toxicity associated with them.

Constant Rate Infusion (CRI) of an analgesic:

Avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection.

What is the term that describes an animal with elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels measured in the blood?

Azotemic. Azotemia is the term meaning an animal has elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. Uremia indicates a clinical syndrome seen in animals with severe kidney disease where they develop nausea, inappetence and potentially other signs such as oral ulcers. Hyperemia refers to red-colored mucous membranes. Nephrotic syndrome refers to a series of changes found in animals with ongoing or severe proteinuria.

Which lab test is used to assess kidney function and its breakdown product of protein?

BUN. It measures blood nitrogen levels that come from the waste product urea. Urea is made when proteins are broken down. Creatinine is a waste product from breakdown of muscle tissue which is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys.

Tyzzer's disease is caused by:

Bacillus spp. Bacillus piliformis (Clostridium piliforme), a gram-negative spore forming flaggelated rod is the causative agent. Poor sanitation and over-crowding predispose lab animals to this disease.

Species of which genus are common contaminants and the causative agent of anthrax?

Bacillus. Bacillus species (rod-shaped) are among the most common laboratory contaminants; Bacillus anthracis is the causative bacteria of anthrax.

What is the most common lead system used in a horse for electrocardiography (ECG) tracings?

Base-apex lead. The most common is the 3-lead base-apex system in which the electrodes are placed at the left axillary region, right jugular region and a ground on the neck or withers region.

A 3-month old kitten presents for mucoid diarrhea and anemia. The clinic where you work has recently seen several other puppies and kittens with similar clinical signs that were infected with Strongyloids stercoralis. You look up and find that this parasite is passed in the feces in the L1 larval form. What is the best way to recover and identify this parasite?

Baermann fecal technique. Strongyloides stercoralis mainly causes a mucoid diarrhea and possibly anemia in puppies and kittens. It passed in the feces in the L1 larvae form. The best technique for recovering larvae is the Baermann technique. Fecal flotations are good for eggs that float. Fecal sedimentation is good for eggs that sink, such as most fluke eggs. A direct fecal smear can find any type of egg or larva passed in feces but does not concentrate the sample to improve the yield in finding the eggs or larvae.

Which of the following methods involves collecting nematode larvae by allowing them to pass through a wire net or cheesecloth?

Baermann technique. This involves placing a fecal sample in a warm water or saline solution over a cheesecloth. This stimulates larvae to travel through the cloth toward the bottom of a funnel. This technique is useful in collecting motile larvae. The Wisconsin technique and McMaster technique are both quantitative fecal count procedures, and Sheather's solution is a sugar solution used for fecal flotation.

When performing abdominal surgery, which of the following instruments is frequently used to retract the abdominal wall?

Balfour retractor. Balfour retractors are self-retaining retractors specifically designed to hold the abdomen open. Finochietto retractors are designed for thoracotomies to spread the ribs apart. A Malleable retractor is a versatile retractor that can be bent in multiple directions to achieve the desired retraction. A Meyerding retractor is typically used in orthopedics to hold muscle bellies out of the surgical field.

Which of the following is the most mature neutrophil precursor?

Band. The neutrophil lineage, from most immature to mature, proceeds as follows: Myeloblast, promyelocyte, neutrophilic myelocyte, neutrophilic metamyelocyte, neutrophilic band, neutrophil. A prorubicyte is an erythrocyte precursor.

You are examining a blood agar plate from a submitted bacterial culture and see an area of complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony. What type of hemolysis is this?

Beta hemolysis. Alpha hemolysis is partial hemolysis, creating a band of slimy discoloration around a bacterial colony. Beta hemolysis is complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony. Gamma hemolysis causes no change in the medium's appearance. Delta hemolysis creates a double zone of hemolysis wherein a narrow area around the colony is hemolyzed and surrounded by a larger region with some hemolysis.

Approximately how much urine should a 40-pound dog produce in a 24-hour period if the dog is drinking and urinating normal amounts and is not dehydrated?

Between 450 and 850 ml of urine. Normal urine output for a dog is 1-2 ml per kg per hour.

To assess liver function in patient with a possible portosystemic liver shunt, which of the following tests is most likely to be helpful?

Bile acid test. This is a test for liver function. Insulin-to-glucose ratio is a test that may be used to diagnose functional insulin-secreting tumors, dexamethasone suppression test are typically used to diagnose Cushing's disease, and a water deprivation test may be used to diagnose diabetes insipidus.

A patient needs to be fasted for which of the following blood test?

Bile acids. For a bile acids test, a fasted blood sample is drawn, the patient is fed, and another sample is drawn 2 hours after feeding (post-prandial). A fructosamine test (to check for diabetic regulation) gives an average blood sugar reading from the previous 2 weeks, so fasting is not necessary. Fasting is not needed for any of the other mentioned tests.

Assessing which of the following on serum chemistry is most appropriate in the assessment of liver function?

Bilirubin. Bilirubin is an indicator of liver function. However, bilirubin levels must be interpreted cautiously because factors unrelated to liver function can also cause elevated bilirubin. BUN and creatinine are primarily indicators of kidney function.

The degree to which an administered drug is absorbed intact into the systemic circulation is known as which of the following?

Bioavailability. Bioavailability is a word used to describe how chemicals are absorbed by the body. It is the administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation. This is the amount of the drug that the body can actually use. IV drugs are 100% bioavailable to the body, because they don't pass through the gastrointestinal system and are directly injected into the circulation. Some oral medications are not fully absorbed so they have a lower bioavailability than IV medications. Drug interactions can also affect the bioavailability of certain drugs.

How are the RBCs of birds and reptiles different from those mammals?

Birds and reptiles have nucleated mature RBCs. This is the main difference, all avian and reptilian erythrocytes retain their nucleus; only immature retics in mammals have remnants of a nucleus.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding platelets?

Birds and reptiles have nucleated platelets. Birds and reptiles have nucleated red blood cells, not nucleated platelets. A purple top is used for platelet counts. Clumping of platelets can cause a low reading, so the periphery of the slide should be checked for clumping. In cases where clumping is present, a platelet estimate may be more valuable. The megakaryocyte is a bone marrow cell responsible for the production of blood thrombocytes (platelets).

In which species would you find the bursa of Fabricius?

Birds. Birds have a bursa of Fabricius (BF), which is an outpocketing of the cloaca. This bursa is the site of hematopoiesis in young birds and is needed for B cell development. It involutes during sexual maturity.

Uric acid is the major end product of nitrogen metabolism in which of the following animals?

Birds. Birds metabolize most of their nitrogen to uric acid, whereas mammals metabolize most of their nitrogen to urea.

In order to prevent distortion on a dental radiograph when parallel technique cannot be used (impossible to position the film parallel to the long axis of the tooth), which of the following will prevent image distortion (elongation or foreshortening)?

Bisecting angle technique. In most radiographs, to avoid distortion (elongation or foreshortening), the x-ray beam should be perpendicular to the long axis of the bone and the x-ray cassette. If the bones are not perpendicular to the beam, they will appear foreshortened. If the cassette is not perpendicular to the beam, the bones will appear elongated. In dental radiography, it is frequently impossible for the long axis of the tooth and the film to be parallel to each other. In this case, the bisecting angle technique may be used, where the beam is angled half-way between the angle of the long axis of the tooth and the angle of the film in order to obtain a true image that is neither elongated nor foreshortened. By angling half-way between those two angles, this technique effectively balances out the two types of distortion to obtain a true image.

Pediatric patients, those younger than three months, who undergo anesthesia, are at higher risk than adult patients for all of the following except:

Biting the ET tube in half. Fluid overdose, developing hypothermia and hypoglycemia are all items to guard for when anesthetizing a pediatric patient.

What is a comedone?

Blackhead. Comedones are fairly common in dogs with seborrhea (excess production of sebum), endocrinopathies, and demodex.

What organism is a large, thick-walled yeast, often seen budding, which may infect the skin as well as deeper tissues?

Blastomyces. This can also infect the skin, sensory organs, and viscera. Histoplasma and coccidiodes are deep systemic mycoses.

Endotracheal intubation of the horse is usually performed:

Blindly.

The menace test will elicit which response? Which two nerves is this testing?

Blink, Cranial nerves II and VII. The menace is when you wave your hand to the eye to try and elicit a blinking response. This is testing vision via the Optic nerve (Cranial nerve II). I - Olfactory nerve (smell) II - Optic nerve III - Oculomotor nerve IV - Trochlear nerve V - Trigeminal nerve (sensory to the face) VI - Abducens nerve VII - Facial nerve VIII - Vestibulocochlear nerve IX - Glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory for gag reflex) X - Vagus nerve (motor for gag reflex) XI - Accessory nerve XII - Hypoglossal nerve

Which of the following typically appear hyperechoic (bright white) on ultrasound imaging?

Bone and gas. Sound is strongly reflected by mineral and gas, resulting in a hyperechoic appearance of bone and gas in the gastrointestinal tract or air in lungs. Fluid such as urine in the bladder typically appears hypoechoic or anechoic (black), and most soft tissues such as spleen, liver, and kidney have varying echogenicities in between the two. In addition to a hyperechoic appearance, mineral and gas also typically create a shadow that obscures deeper structures because the sound is unable to penetrate.

The appropriate surgical instrument for harvesting an autogenous bone graft is a/an:

Bone curette.

Blood lactate is a marker of what?

Blood perfusion and oxygen delivery to tissues. When there is adequate oxygen present in the patient, aerobic metabolism (oxidative phosphorylation) occurs, producing energy. When there is a lack of oxygen delivery to the body or a specific tissue/organ, anaerobic metabolism occurs and produces lactate as a by-product. Instances in which lactate may be elevated include sepsis, GDV in dogs, and strangulating lesions in horses.

Which chemistry function test evaluates filtration and function and has increased levels in renal insufficiency?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). BUN is the chemistry test. Creatinine is formed in the muscles.

Which of the following statements regarding cesarean sections is false?

Bloody vaginal discharge is an abnormality and should be reported immediately to the DVM. Some bloody discharge is normal following a C-section.

During surgery, an atraumatic method of hemostasis is:

Blotting with gauze sponges.

What is a good way to assess daily changes in hydration status of a patient that is in the hospital for several days or longer?

Body weight. It is especially helpful when monitoring hydration status of hospitalized patients that are weighed daily. Tacky or dry mucus membranes and increased skin tenting are clinical signs of dehydration. Heart rate is often increased when patients are dehydrated, but increased heart rate can also be from other causes, such as stress.

A Jamshidi needle is used for which of the following procedures?

Bone marrow core biopsy. A Jamshidi needle is used to obtain a bone marrow core by inserting the needle into the cortical bone, usually of the iliac crest, and then rotating back and forth to cut a piece of bone. A Michele trephine is also used for the same purpose.

What tissue is the MOST sensitive to radiation therapy?

Bone marrow. Bone marrow consists of progenitor and stem cells, the most radiosensitive cells. Cells going through division are generally the most sensitive.

Ultrasound waves have difficulty traveling through:

Bone.

Ticks can serve as vectors to transmit several diseases in animals including Lyme disease. What is the agent that causes Lyme disease?

Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi is the name of the rickettsial organism that causes Lyme disease. Ixodes is a genus of tick that may transmit the disease. Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Neorickettsia helminthoeca is the causative agent of salmon poisoning.

Which type of suture material is more likely to "wick" fluid along it and therefore, should not be used in a contaminated environment?

Braided polyglactin 910.

An injury to what region of the brain is most likely to result in respiratory arrest?

Brain stem. The brain stem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. The pons contains important respiratory centers. The medulla also influences the respiratory rate as well as heart rate. The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and balance. The diencephalon contains the thalamus and hypothalamus. The thalamus behaves as a relay station for sensory input. The hypothalamus is involved in helping regulate many endocrine functions of the body. Motor control and interpretation of sensory impulses occurs at the cerebrum.

Circling is usually a result of which type of disease?

Brain. Circling is when an animal circles to the right or left and is usually a sign of brain/neurologic disease.

A dog is going to be euthanized due to aggressive behavior, and the owner wants the dog tested for rabies. The dog has not bitten anyone. What should be submitted?

Brain. Direct fluorescent antibody testing on the brain is the diagnostic test of choice for confirming rabies. This test detects viral antigens and should be conducted on two locations within the brain (brain stem and cerebellum). If a dog/cat bites a human, it must be quarantined for 10 days or euthanized for rabies testing.

Birds are attracted to:

Brightly colored feed. Visual stimulation is important for birds.

The Minimum Alveolar Concentration of an anesthetic agent is a reflection of the amount of gas needed to:

Bring unconsciousness in 50% of the patients.

What does a beta-2 adrenergic agonist cause?

Bronchodilation. The beta-2 adrenergic agonists are often used in treating cases of "asthma" or other conditions that require bronchodilation as a treatment. Examples of short acting beta-2 agonists are terbutaline and albuterol.

A 12-year old flat coated retriever presents early for an appointment with a 24-hour history of lethargy. The patient is alert and responsive, has very strong pulses, and a heart rate of 160 beats per minute. The veterinarian has just begun a new pet appointment with a long-term client. This patient should be:

Brought into the treatment area and be immediately examined by the veterinarian. This patient is most likely in compensatory shock and should be examined by a veterinarian immediately. A heart rate of 160 is well over the normal range for a large dog and very strong pulses are often bounding pulses indicating hypovolemia. Sending this patient to another clinic will delay treatment, and that decision should be left to the attending veterinarian. Intravenous fluids may or may not be indicated depending on the dog's diagnosis, and the decision to administer them should also be left up to the veterinarian.

A dog presents with lethargy, fever, stiffness, and decreased appetite. His Ehrlichia snap test is positive. Ehrlichia canis is most commonly transmitted by which parasite?

Brown Dog Tick (Rhipicephalus). The Brown Dog Tick (Rhipicephalus sanguineus) transmits the rickettsia (bacteria) Ehrlichia canis. Doxycycline is the treatment of choice. The American Dog Tick (Dermacentor variabilis) transmits Rickettsia rickettsia which causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. The Lone Star Tick transmits Ehrlichia chaffeensis which causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis. The dog flea (Ctenocephalides canis) is the intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum (tapeworm). It is transmitted by ingestion of the flea carrying the tapeworm larvae, which then develop into adult worms in the intestine of the definitive host. The Deer Tick (Ixodes) transmits the spirochete bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi which causes Lyme disease.

Horses develop enamel points on which surfaces of the teeth?

Buccal edge of the upper arcade and lingual edge of the lower arcade.

A male rabbit is also referred to as a:

Buck. A female rabbit is a doe.

Which of the following drugs is NOT useful in the treatment of seizures?

Butorphanol. Butorphanol is an opiate partial agonist and is mostly used as an antitussive, analgesic, or sedative. Propofol can be useful when treating status epilepticus.

Which of the following is considered a partial mu agonist/antagonist?

Butorphanol. Butorphanol provides analgesia and sedation by binding to the mu receptors, while also reversing some actions of pure mu agonists (like morphine) due to its antagonist properties.

Given the following four patients in an emergency clinic staffed by one veterinarian and one veterinary technician: A. A dog bleeding profusely from a paw laceration B. A cat that has been inappetant for 3 days C. A rabbit with dyspnea D. A dog with a suspected hock dislocation In which order should the technician recommend that the veterinarian see the patients?

C, A, D, B.

In cattle, black leg is caused by which of the following clostridium species?

C. chauvoei. C. novyi causes black disease. C. botulinum causes botulism. C. septicum causes malignant edema.

Which cranial nerve is known for three major branches?

CN V. Cranial nerve V (five) is the Trigeminal nerve and has three major branches: First branch: Ophthalmic nerve - sensory to the eye socket and its contents, the anterior nasal cavity, and the skin of the nose and forehead. Second branch: Maxillary nerve - sensory to maxilla, nasal cavity/sinuses, palate, and part of the face. Third branch: Mandibular nerve (the largest branch) - sensory fibers to the lower jaw, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the lower teeth, and supplies motor fibers to the muscles of mastication (note: that this is the only branch that supplies motor function).

What sample should have the least amount of cells in a healthy animal?

CSF. Cerebrospinal Fluid. Semen and plasma should have a multitude of cells.

A cat may have ingested ethylene glycol. You are examining the urine sediment and are looking for:

Calcium oxalate crystals. Antifreeze poisoning causes the formation of calcium oxalate crystals in the urine. White blood cells when seen are usually a sign of urinary tract infection, but may also be associated with other disease processes occasionally. Struvite crystals are not uncommon to find in urine samples. Cystine crystals, although not commonly seen, in urine samples do not necessarily imply there is a problem.

Parathyroid hormone mostly regulates which blood value?

Calcium. Parathyroid hormone is the endocrine regulator of calcium and phosphorus concentration. This hormone is secreted from the parathyroid glands and acts on target cells mostly in bones, kidneys, and small intestine. It acts by mobilizing calcium from bone, helps absorption of calcium in the intestine, and decreases calcium loss in urine. By doing these things, it helps to prevent hypocalcemia (low calcium). Parathyroid hormone also acts on the kidney to stimulate loss of phosphate ions in urine.

Release of what molecule from the sarcoplasmic reticulum ultimately helps to achieve muscle contraction?

Calcium. This is required for muscle contraction.

It is necessary to immunize ferrets against:

Canine distemper.

Which of the following terms best describes the region at the corner of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet.

Canthus. The "canthus" is the palpebral commissure (where the eyelids come together at the corners). There is a medial and a lateral canthus to an eye. Medial is towards the nose and lateral is towards the ear.

Which nematode may be found in the bladder or urinary tract of dogs?

Capillaria plica. Capillaria plica is the "bladder worm" in dogs. The eggs pass out of the bladder through the urine. The embryonated egg may be ingested by an earthworm where it transforms to its infective stage, and then may be passed on to a dog if ingested. Capillaria aerophila is a lungworm. Capillaria ova look similar to Trichuris eggs but are smaller and have asymmetric terminal plugs.

Adequate tissue perfusion is presumed when an animal exhibits normal:

Capillary refill.

What is the "top" shell of a tortoise called?

Carapace. The plastron is the bottom shell. Patagium is the skin or membrane that extends between the body and a limb or wing (such as seen in a flying squirrel or wing of a bat). A scute is a bony external plate or scale. A choana is either of the pair of posterior openings between the nasal cavity and nasopharynx. The cloaca is the posterior opening that serves to pass feces, urine, and reproductive excretions (connects the rectum, vagina, and urethra into a single channel), such as in reptiles and birds.

A 9-year old male castrated Westie presents on emergency after being recued from a house fire. On presentation, the dog has a respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute with increased inspiratory effort and moderate distress. The dog's mucous membranes are bright red. What is the likely cause of the bright red color of the dog's mucous membranes?

Carbon monoxide. The bright red mucous membranes in a dog suspected of having smoke inhalation are concerning for carbon monoxide toxicity. Carbon monoxide displaces oxygen on hemoglobin molecules, forming carboxyhemoglobin complexes, which leads to tissue hypoxia. The dog should be supplemented with 100% oxygen which reduces the half-life of the carboxyhemoglobin complexes from 4 hours on room air to 30 minutes. Other treatments for smoke inhalation include humidifying the air to promote mucociliary clearance and to prevent drying injuries to the airways.

What is the name of the portion of the stomach that attaches to the esophagus?

Cardia. The cardia is the anatomical term for the portion of the stomach attached to the esophagus. The cardia overlaps but does not contain the lower esophageal sphincter. The pylorus is where the stomach opens into the duodenum.

When performing CPR in the neonatal calf which are the two most critical procedures to begin?

Cardiac compressions and establishing an airway. Establishing an airway and adequate cardiac compression rate first contribute to positive outcomes when performing CPR in the neonatal calf.

A deficiency in the essential amino acid taurine in a feline diet can result in:

Cardiomyopathy.

In which direction do electrons in the X-ray tube travel during exposure?

Cathode to anode. Cathode is negative; produce negatively charged electrons.

Erythropoietin (Epogen) is primarily used in which of the following feline patients?

Cats with chronic renal failure. EPO is made by the kidneys; when they fail, EPO production falls which results in anemia; EPO is given to stimulate RBC production by the marrow.

What is the term given to the end of the spinal cord?

Cauda equina. The cauda equina is at the lower end of the spine and is made up of nerve roots. The base of this region includes around 3-5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and a coccygeal nerve. The reason it is called the cauda "equina" is that the appearance of this area grossly resembles a horse's tail.

Where is the standard tuburculosis test administered in the bovine species?

Caudal tail fold. The TB test in cows is given intradermally in the caudal tail fold. This area is used because it is easy to give the injection at this location and a reaction can be easily seen. The eye lid is used in primates.

A hypotonic solution will do what to a red blood cell?

Cause the red blood cell to burst. In a hypotonic solution, the extracellular fluid is less concentrated than the intracellular fluid causing the water to move into the cell and burst. Hypertonic solution causes water to move out of the cell due to the extracellular fluid being more concentrated than the inside of the cell.

Why is nitrous oxide contraindicated in gastrointestinal surgeries?

Causes nitrous build up in the GI tract. Nitrous oxide moves into closed gas spaces such as the intestines. As such, its use is contraindicated in bowel surgeries. You should also be aware that nitrous oxide decreases fractional inspired oxygen levels, although this can be managed and monitored in most instances. Nitrous oxide is also contraindicated when pathology such as pulmonary bullae are present.

You are developing a template for the drug labels at your new hospital. Every prescription drug label should include the following statement:

Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by the order of a licensed veterinarian. Federal regulation requiring labels to bear statements such as "For veterinary use only" represents a sales policy and hold no legal basis. Every label should include the caution label, dosage, route of administration, quantity of ingredient, and a lot or control number.

A veterinarian asks you to give a 1 ml/kg dose of lidocaine to a dog that is having ventricular premature complexes. You realize after it is too late that you miscalculated the dose and gave 10 times what was asked for. What is the most common early sign of lidocaine toxicity in dogs?

Central nervous system depression. In dogs, toxicity of lidocaine is manifested primarily as CNS signs. Drowsiness or agitation may progress to muscle twitching and convulsions at higher doses. This occurs before respiratory or cardiac depression. Hypotension may develop if an IV bolus is given too rapidly. Cats are more sensitive to lidocaine toxicity and may show cardiac suppression and CNS excitation.

Use of an automated hematology analyzer makes which of the following unnecessary when performing a CBC?

Cell count on a hemocytometer. There is no need to count cells by hemocytometer if you are using an automated hematology analyzer since the analyzer is likely more accurate than a manual cell count. However, a hand differential count is still more accurate than a machine count and provides more detailed information. A platelet estimate is still necessary because platelet clumps may affect the accuracy of a machine platelet count. Automated hematology analyzers also do not report red blood cell morphology characteristics such as spherocytes, Heinz bodies, or hemoparasites, all of which may be important to the clinician.

What is the best construction form for a tortoise outdoor enclosure?

Cement blocks. Cement blocks mortared together will prevent falling as tortoise digs, and is sturdy enough for even the biggest tortoise. Chain link fence is fine if the bottom of the fence is covered. If a tortoise can see through the fence, it will try to escape. Pressure treated wood may have chemicals in the wood that is bad for the tortoise. Chicken wire is not strong enough to hold a large tortoise. The rocks could cause injury if they fell on the tortoise while it was digging, or if it tried to climb.

Dentin is covered by:

Cementum and enamel. Dentin is as hard as bone, but softer than enamel. It is covered by enamel on the crown and by cementum over the roots.

Eimeria, Cystoisospora, Cryptosporidium, Sarcocystis, and Toxoplasma are all what type of parasite?

Coccidia, a type of protozoan parasite; they are not worms. Tapeworms are cestodes, nematodes are roundworms, trematodes are flukes, and ascarids are a type of nematode (roundworm).

An animal that demonstrates an allergic response to penicillin administration should not be given which of the following antibiotics?

Cephalosporins. There is some cross-reactivity between penicillins and cephalosporins.

Which part of the brain coordinates motor activity? Disease of this part of the brain can cause a hypermetric gait.

Cerebellum. The cerebellum has a major role in motor control. It helps to coordinate voluntary movement and is located just above the brainstem. Hypermetria is an exaggerated gait in which the movements extend beyond what is intended.

Which of the following is another term for the type of parasite known as a tapeworm?

Cestode. Tapeworms or cestodes are long, segmented, flat worms. Examples include the canine tapeworms, Taenia pisiformis and Dipylidium caninum. Trematodes are flukes, nematodes are roundworms, ascarids are a type of nematode (roundworm), and protozoans are single-celled organisms that may be parasitic.

All of the following are methods that reduce waste gas levels except:

Chamber and mask inductions. Chamber and mask inductions cause increased waste anesthetic gas exposures to personnel involved in the procedure.

A patient is hospitalized with a resistant infection and is getting Amikacin injections and IV fluid therapy. Amikacin can cause kidney damage. What could you do to monitor for early renal side effects?

Check a daily urine protein. Proteinuria can be one of the first things seen if there is damage to the kidneys. Urine output and specific gravity would not be reliable indicators since this patient is on IV fluids. Ultrasound would not be helpful picking up early kidney damage since this occurs at a microscopic level in the renal tubules. Kidney changes can be seen with ultrasound only if gross disease is present in the renal architecture. BUN and creatinine levels can be helpful, however, remember that usually these values do not become elevated until more than 70% of the renal function has been compromised.

A rabbit is brought in for skin problems. Upon exam, you notice large flakes of dead skin over the dorsum. Some of these flakes appear to move. What might you be seeing?

Cheyletiella. AKA "walking dandruff". It is an 8 legged mite that can live on the skin of rabbits, dogs, cats and humans. They do not bury in the skin but live in the keratin layer. They have a 21 day life cycle and cannot live more than 10 days off the host.

Which of the following small mammals has the longest life expectancy?

Chinchilla. A chinchillas life expectancy is 10 to 15 years. This exceeds the life expectancy of most other small mammals including rabbits (5 to 8 years depending on species), rats (3 years), guinea pigs (4 to 7 years) and hamsters (1.5 to 2 years). Other small mammals with relatively long life expectancies are ferrets (8 to 10 years) and sugar gliders (8 to 10 years).

Which of the following medications requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in humans?

Chloramphenicol. Because of this, chloramphenicol is typically used as a last resort and only in special situations. Direct contact with the drug should be avoided and therefore gloves must be worn when handling. The tablets should never be crushed to avoid inhalation of any powder.

The class of antimicrobial drug that should be avoided in all food-producing animals is:

Chloramphenicol. Due to it causing aplastic anemia in humans.

Many factors can contribute to insulin resistance in pets. Which of the following can lead to insulin resistance and type II diabetes?

Chronic use of corticosteroids. Type II diabetes occurs mostly due to insulin resistance and can occur from things such as chronic use of corticosteroids, obesity, or pancreatitis. Acinar cells secrete digestive enzymes. Beta cells of the pancreas actually make insulin, and degeneration of these cells can lead to type I diabetes. Increased drinking and urinating is a clinical symptom of diabetes but doesn't cause insulin resistance. A high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet actually helps with glycemic control.

Endoscopy can be a beneficial diagnostic tool for which of the following conditions?

Chronic vomiting. Endoscopy is a scope that is used in the upper gastrointestinal tract. It is used to take biopsies of the stomach and small intestine. It is very useful to examine for underlying disease grossly (via the endoscope's camera) and microscopically via the biopsy specimens. Colonoscopy is used to examine the large intestine. Bronchoscopy is used in the airways and would be useful in a case of chronic coughing.

Endoscopy can be beneficial diagnostic tool for which of the following conditions?

Pyrethrin (which is used to kill fleas) is derived or extracted from which of the following plants?

Chrysanthemum. It acts on the nervous system to cause flea death.

A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following?

Chylothorax. Chyle (a fluid high in chylomicrons and lymph) effuses from the thoracic duct into the pleural space if the thoracic duct tears or ruptures (usually trauma related). The effusion typically appears as a milky white fluid and is odorless. This is only one cause of chylothorax. Other causes include lymphangiectasia, lung lobe torsion, heartworm disease, cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, idiopathic, and others. If the triglyceride level of the effusion is greater than that of peripheral blood, this can help to determine the effusion is chylous.

Which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated for use in cats?

Cisplatin. This chemotherapy drug causes pulmonary toxicity. Remember the phrase "Cisplatin splats cats".

Which of the following is an appropriate anticoagulant for collection of blood from a donor horse for the purposes of blood transfusion to a recipient horse?

Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA). CPDA is an appropriate anticoagulant to use for blood transfusions; the solution must prevent clotting of blood while providing a "fuel" source, such as dextrose to the cells.

An abnormally short mandible is generally classified as what occlusion class?

Class II. This is an overbite, class II malocclusion.

An example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a B-lactamase inhibitor is:

Clavamox. Penicillins can be inactivated by B-lactamase, an enzyme made by some bacteria which renders penicillins inactive; the addition of clavulanic acid to the penicillin makes a potentiated compound which is resistant to inactivation and kills a broader spectrum of bacteria.

Some bacteria produce beta-lacatamases that destroy or inactivate penicillins. What beta-lactamase inhibitor is added to amoxicillin to prevent this from occurring?

Clavulanic acid. Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor added to amoxicillin to prevent some types of antibiotic resistance. Sulfamethoxazole is a sulfonamide bacteriostatic antibiotic typically given with trimethoprim. Sulfa medications can cause side effects such as dry eye, acute hepatitis, and bone-marrow toxicity. Procaine is a local anesthetic, historically added to penicillin to reduce the pain associated with the injection. Clavulanic acid contains a potassium salt, but not chloride.

Onychectomy is correctly defined as the surgical removal of:

Claws.

A very young puppy presents with a history of milk coming from the nose and seems to cough and gurgle when he eats. What deformity commonly results in this presentation?

Cleft palate. A common presentation for cleft palate is milk coming from a puppy's (or kitten's) nose after or during eating. It is a defect that affects the upper lip and/or the roof of the mouth. Cleft palate can involve only the soft tissue in the back of the mouth (soft palate) or extend forward through the front of the mouth (hard palate). If there is a hole in the roof of the mouth, milk can travel out the nose while the puppy is drinking.

A method of castration in cattle that is performed without incising the skin is known as:

Closed castration. Closed castration is a method sometimes used in cattle or small ruminants which involves use of an emasculatome, which crushes the cord within the scrotum without cutting the scrotal skin. It is also referred to as a "bloodless" castration. Incisions are more likely to attract insects and cause disease susceptibility in a field situation. A "closed" castration may also refer to castrations when an incision is made in the skin, but the vaginal tunic is not entered.

In a lateral pelvic projection, the affected limb should be:

Closest to the film and pulled slightly cranially. The affected area of interest should normally be placed against the table (film), so that a truer image is projected with less chance of elongation, foreshortening, or distortion. It is best that the affected limb be pulled cranially, so that there is minimal joint interference. In a right lateral pelvic shot, the right leg is down and pulled cranially with the right marker just in front of the right leg. In a left lateral pelvic shot, the left leg is down and pulled cranially with a left marker just in front of the left leg.

Which of the following is a Gram-positive spore-forming rod?

Clostridium perfringens.

A proliferative honeycomb beak along with scaly crusty lesions on the legs and feet of a bird can be a sign of which of the following?

Cnemidocoptes pilae. Cnemidocoptes pilae, is also known as "scaly face" or "scaly leg". This mite can be treated with topical or oral ivermectin. It is more common in birds that are immunocompromised, and beak deformity may be permanent even after the mite is cleared. Avian pox can cause skin lesions, diptheric membranes, or septicemia. Mycobacterium avium causes granulomatous disease throughout the liver and GI tract. Chlamydophila psittaci is the causative agent of psittacosis, and causes lethargy, respiratory, and GI signs.

Microscopic evaluation of peritoneal fluid would be useful in a horse with which of the following?

Colic. Collecting abdominal fluid for microscopic evaluation can be useful if a horse is showing symptoms of colic (abdominal pain). The fluid is evaluated to look for inflammatory cells, presence of bacteria, or neoplasia. There are many different causes of colic in a horse. Symptoms of colic can include biting or kicking at the abdomen or sides, or pawing or rolling on the ground.

Sulfasalazine is sometimes used in veterinary medicine to treat which chronic condition?

Colitis. Sulfasalazine (Azulfadine) is used in treating chronic intestinal conditions, such as ulcerative colitis, because it reduces inflammation in the colon. It is a sulfonamide antibiotic.

Which of the following are intended to shield the user from the primary X-ray beam?

Collimator. Only the collimator contains enough lead to shield the primary radiation beam. The other equipment is only intended to absorb scatter radiation. Even when wearing appropriate radiation-protective equipment, no part of the technician should ever be in the primary field of a radiograph.

An animal is hit by a car and has a broken leg in which the bone is sticking out through the skin. This is an example of which fracture type?

Compound. Fracture types: Oblique - A fracture which goes at an angle to the axis. Comminuted - A fracture of many relatively small fragments. Spiral - A fracture which runs around the axis of the bone. Compound - A fracture which breaks the skin. Greenstick - A fracture of soft bone where the bone can bend and be partially broken, seen in young animals.

An animal is hit by a car and has a broken leg in which the bone is ticking out through the skin. This is an example of which fracture type?

When viewing a slide on a microscope, the objects themselves are in focus but there appear to be haloes or fuzzy rings around the objects you are viewing that you cannot eliminate using the focus knobs. Which of the following is probably not adjusted correctly?

Condenser. This problem is what is typically seen when the condenser is not appropriately adjusted. The condenser functions to focus light on the object, and when it is not set appropriately, rings of light or haloes appear around objects. The rheostat adjusts light intensity. The iris diaphragm also regulates the amount of light reaching the object. Because the object is in focus and the problem is not resolved by adjusting the focus knobs, this is not a problem with the coarse or fine focus.

A dog has ruptured a chordae tendinae. What condition can this lead to?

Congestive heart failure. The chordae tendinae are cord-like tendons that connect the papillary muscles to the tricuspid valve and the mitral valve in the heart. If this structure ruptures, the valves can no longer function properly, and this can lead to congestive heart failure.

Which of the following is NOT a use for an indwelling arterial catheter?

Constant rate of infusions. Injections should never be given into an arterial catheter (a-line). Arterial catheters are a great way to get real-time blood pressure measurements. These measurements are also helpful when trying to evaluate general cardiac output. They are often used to collect small blood samples, most notably for blood gas measurements.

Which of the following is not normally present in the stage IV anesthesia?

Constricted pupils. Stage IV is too deep with critical signs leading to respiratory and cardiac arrest. Constricted pupils would not be a sign of such severe suppression, eyes would be dilated.

Which of the following tests can be used to evaluate a patient for immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?

Coomb's test. A Coomb's test is used to detect the presence of immunoglobulins against the patient's red blood cells. The Coggin's test is used to diagnose equine infectious anemia. Latex agglutination tests and agarose immunodiffusions are tests that are used to detect the presence of specific patient antibodies.

Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type IV hypersensitivity, also known as delayed type hypersensitivity, as a result of a T-cell response to an antigen?

Contact allergy to plastic. There are 4 types of hypersensitivity. Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity and results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen. Common examples are atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. An example is autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease and occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. Examples include certain contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).

Contagious ecthyma is a disease that causes painful oral ulcerations, pustules, and scabs. It is most often seen in sheep and goats, and is more commonly known as:

Contagious ecthyma, most commonly called Orf is a highly contagious and zoonotic parapox virus. Blue tongue is a virus of ruminants and camelids causing fever, lung disease, and congestion of the lips and oral mucosa. Oral thrush is Candidiasis (yeast). Thrush is caused by an overgrowth of normal yeast flora seen mostly in immunocompromised animals. Foot-and-mouth disease is a contagious vesicular virus that affects cloven-hooved species. It causes vesicles and ulcers in the mouth, lameness of the feet, and is a reportable disease.

A subtotal colectomy in which a small amount of colonic contents spills into the abdomen in a cat is an example of which of the following?

Contaminated surgery. In order from cleanest to most at risk from infection, surgery can be categorized by the following system: Clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, and infected surgery. These can also be referred to as category I, II, III, or IV surgeries respectively. A clean surgery is one where the surgical wound is made under aseptic conditions, no contaminated viscous is entered, and no breaks in sterile technique occur. Examples include castration, splenectomy, and hernia repair. A clean-contaminated surgery is one made under aseptic conditions that enter the oropharynx, respiratory, alimentary, or urogenital tracts, but there is no other source of contamination (i.e. no spillage of contents). Examples include lung lobectomy and gastrotomy. A contaminated surgery is one where there is either a spill of contaminated material, a break in sterile technique, or entry into a region with a high bacterial load such as the oral cavity or colon. An infected or dirty surgery is a procedure involving a site with known infection. Examples include ear canal ablation or removal of abscessed or necrotic tissue.

A wet-to-dry bandage is best for what type of wounds?

Contaminated wounds that need to be debrided. Wet-to-dry bandages debride necrotic tissue and will not disrupt delicate granulation tissue.

The main purpose of X-ray developer is to:

Convert the exposed silver crystals into black metallic silver. Underexposed crystals are washed away.

You are riding along with the veterinarian to a small sheep operation. The operation has had two sheep die in the last 24 hours. Upon arrival, icterus, depression, and weakness are noted in several sheep in the herd. One sheep urinates and the urine is very dark. Toxicity from which mineral can cause icterus and hemoglobinuria (red urine) in sheep?

Copper. Sheep are highly susceptible to copper toxicity. Because this causes an acute hemolytic crisis, the most common signs are acute death, icterus, depression, hemoglobinuria, increased respiratory rate, and weakness. Pathology often shows dark, hemoglobin filled kidneys ("gun metal blue"). Goats and cattle are less susceptible to copper toxicity. While you will not be responsible for diagnosing animals, you should know that copper toxicity causes icterus in sheep. Salt toxicity in livestock often causes neurologic symptoms. Selenium and potassium toxicities are not common. Selenium deficiency (along with Vitamin E deficiency) may cause poor wool production, decreased fertility, and is the cause of white muscle disease.

Through which structures does light pass as it moves from the outside to the inside of the eye?

Cornea, pupil, lens, retina. The cornea is the clear coating that surrounds the eyeball itself, and light passes through the cornea first. The iris is the colored part of the eye which encompasses the pupil. The iris controls the amount of light coming in to the eye by dilating or constricting the pupil. After passing through the pupil, light reaches the lens, which focuses light onto the retina. The vitreous body is located behind the lens and in front of the retina.

What is the most rostral structure of the eye?

Cornea. This is where light first enters. The retina is at the back of the eye and is the location of the photoreceptors. The lens is responsible for focusing light onto the retina and is located caudal to the pupil and iris.

Which of the following nerve blocks is acceptable for providing analgesia during dehorning of a cow?

Cornual.

When discussing the equine hoof, which structure produces cells that become the hoof wall?

Coronary band. The hoof wall grows from the coronary band. The coronary corium produces cells that become the horn of the hoof wall. It is soft skin tissue such as the cuticles on our fingers. If the coronary band is ever damaged, the hoof may grow improperly and could cause lameness. The ergot is a callus-type structure on the underside of the fetlock. The sole is the bottom of the hoof. The frog is the structure that is shaped like a heart and extends forward across two-thirds of the sole. It grows from front to back where it then merges with the heel periople.

What is the term used to describe the junction between the skin and hoof of the horse's distal limb?

Coronet. The transition is called the coronet or coronary band; the hoof is formed by epithelial keratinization over a greatly modified dermis.

Which of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal glands?

Cortisol. Cortisol is a steroid hormone, or glucocorticoid, produced by the adrenal glands. ACTH, GH, and TSH are all produced in the pituitary gland. ADH is produced in the hypothalamus, then stored and released from the pituitary gland.

What type of placenta does a ruminant have?

Cotyledonary. Ruminants (not including camels) have a cotyledonary placenta. This means they have numerous smaller placentae instead of a single large contact area between the mother and fetus. Ruminant placental cotyledons attach to a caruncle to form a placentome. The ruminant placenta is epitheliochorial (they have all three layers: endometrium, connective tissue, and uterine endothelium). The cotyledon is the fetus side of the placenta. The caruncle is the maternal side of the placenta. The placentome is the cotyledon and caruncle together. Dogs and cats have a zonary placenta. The placenta forms a band of tissue surrounding the fetus. They have an endotheliochorial placenta (onlt has the uterine endothelium). Primates and rodents have a discoid placenta (a single discoid shaped placenta). They have a hemochorial placenta (no maternal layers, but instead direct contact of maternal blood with the chorion). Horses and pigs have a diffuse placenta. The placenta is formed by the whole allantochorion surface. They also have an epitheliochorial placenta like ruminants.

What is most often seen in a cat with heartworm disease?

Coughing. Most cats with heartworm are not clinical for the disease. If they do show symptoms, they are typically respiratory in nature (coughing, wheezing). Chronic vomiting can also be a sign. All coughing cats should be tested for heartworm.

You are assisting in radiographing a four-year-old German Shepherd. The dog has been limping on his left hindlimb. The veterinarian elicits a "drawer motion" in the limb during physical exam, and the doctor's suspicion is confirmed by the radiographs. What diagnosis is supported by these findings?

Cranial cruciate ligament rupture. Cranial cruciate ligament injuries are the most common orthopedic problem seen in dogs. Based on the radiographic finding of stifle effusion of the left stifle noted by the displacement of the infrapatellar fat pad, this patient likely has a cranial cruciate ligament rupture. The clue in this question is the veterinarian palpating "drawer motion". This is most commonly associated with a cranial cruciate rupture. (You would not be expected to diagnose this patient, but you should know the general fact the drawer motion is usually caused by a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament.)

In the avian species, the ventral wall of the esophagus is expanded to form the:

Crop. The crop juts out and lies next to the breast muscle.

A 10-year old Chow Chow needs a whole blood transfusion due to anemia from chronic renal failure. The patient has received multiple blood transfusions over the last 2 years. What blood test is needed prior to initiating the transfusion?

Crossmatch. Patients who have had multiple blood transfusions are more likely to have a reaction to subsequent blood product transfusions. In order to reduce the likelihood of a reaction, a major and minor crossmatch should be performed prior to administration. To know what donors would most likely be compatible, the patient's blood type could be determined. Dogs with the same blood type still require a crossmatch, especially if the dog has received prior transfusions.

What zoonotic pathogen might a technician contract from treating a 10 day old dairy calf with diarrhea?

Cryptosporidium parvum. Cryptosporidium is a major cause of calf diarrhea, and just a few oocysts can be infective to humans and cause diarrhea lasting several days.

You have been working in the barn with baby calves that have been having severe diarrhea. You now are having a severe watery diarrhea. Which parasite would be most likely for you to have contracted from these calves?

Cryptosporidium. Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoan parasite that causes gastroenteritis in animals and humans. People with an adequate immune system have self-limiting disease, but immunocompromised people can develop life-threatening complications from this parasite. Some studies show that greater than 44% of calves with diarrhea can have this parasite isolated. Thus, this is a very important cause of calf scours.

Which of these organisms is considered a "coccidian"?

Cryptosporidium. Giardia is a protozoan. Bunostomum is a hookworm. Taenia is a tapeworm.

Which of the following is the intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum and is important in its transmission?

Ctenocephalides felis. Dipylidium caninum is the common canine tapeworm. The flea (Ctenocephalides felis) is the intermediate host. The parasite is usually acquired by dogs when they groom and ingest fleas carrying the tapeworm cysticercoid. This is important because the diagnosis of tapeworm in a dog may also be a sign that flea control is needed.

How is a bull tested for Trichomonas foetus?

Culture of smegma. Trichomonas is a venereal disease of cattle caused by the flagellated protozoan Trichomonas foetus. The prepucial hairs are shaved and the prepuce cleansed and dried. A dry plastic insemination pipette is placed into the prepuce and used to suction and scrape the prepucial membrane and penis to collect approximately 1 ml of smegma for culture. The culture is placed into a vial with 2 ml of saline and then placed on Diamond's medium for culture.

Which of the following instruments is used for removing subgingival plaque?

Curette.

Chronic administration of prednisone to animals can cause an iatrogenic form of what condition?

Cushing's disease. Cushing's disease (hyperadrenocorticism) naturally occurs when the adrenal glands produce too much cortisol. This can be due to a functional adrenal tumor or due to a functional pituitary tumor that secretes ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) which stimulates cortisol secretion from the adrenal gland. Prednisone is a synthetic glucocorticoid, and chronic administration for conditions such as allergies can lead to iatrogenic Cushing's disease. Addison's disease (hypoadrenocorticism) occurs due to inadequate cortisol levels and can be caused by prompt withdrawal of prednisone after prolonged use. Tyzzer's disease is a bacterial disease caused by Clostridium piliforme. Bang's disease, or Brucellosis, is an infectious disease of cattle caused by the bacteria Brucella abortus. An iatrogenic disease is one caused by a medical or surgical procedure.

When collecting a sample, when should the needle never be re-directed?

Cystocentesis. There is too great of risk the bladder could tear, or that other damage could be caused by the needle.

A rancher pulls into the clinic you are working at and rushes in to say his horse is having difficulty breathing. You assist the vet in examining the horse and note that the horse is in respiratory distress. He has dilated pupils and bright red mucous membranes. You are asked to pull blood for testing which you note is also bright red in color. Which of the following may cause this in the horse?

Cyanide toxicity. The bright red-colored blood and mucous membranes with signs of respiratory distress are typically findings for cyanide toxicity. There are many plants that can accumulate cyanide to level that are toxic to horses. They include Sudan and Johnson grasses, cherries (chokecherries), and Sorghum. Treatment is with sodium nitrate or sodium thiosulfate IV. Use of black walnut shavings in horse bedding can cause laminitis. Choke is an obstruction in the esophagus. It may cause coughing or distress, but not bright red blood. COPD, also called heaves due to heavy expiration, can be caused by dusty or moldy hay, dust and molds in bedding, or pollens, dust and other irritants in the environment. Horses housed with these symptoms should be led out to pasture to remove them from the irritating environment.

While the surgeon is focused on the task at hand, it is the anesthetists job to make sure the patients vitals are maintained at a normal plane. Which of the following is not suggestive of significant blood loss?

Cyanotic mucous membranes. Patients suffering from substantial blood loss can be expected to have tachycardia, tachypnea, and weak pulses. In addition, pale/white mucous membranes as opposed to cyanotic mucous membranes would be noted. Cyanotic mucous membranes are seen when the patient lacks oxygen.

You are performing a urinalysis and identify a six-sided crystal. What type of crystal is this?

Cystine. You will know cystine crystals by their hexagon shape. They are caused by a renal tubular amino acid reabsorption defect which appears to occur due to a genetic abnormality.

A fresh biopsy sample from a nasal lesion is pressed against a glass slide several times to leave an impression. The cells that are on the slide are stained with a Romanowsky stain and viewed under a microscope. Which of the following tests is this an example of?

Cytology. This is an example of cytology (referring to the examination of cells from body tissues or fluids). Cytology specimens may be collected by impression smear as described in this question or by other techniques including needle aspirate, aspiration of fluid (centesis), or by swab with a cotton-tipped applicator. Histology involves the examination of complete tissue and architecture and is usually performed on tissue collected by biopsy and processed intact. Histopathology is the same except that it involves the assessment of diseased tissue. Immunocytochemistry involves using special stains that are taken up by specific cellular components or markers on a cytologic specimen. Immunohistochemistry involves similar special stains applied to histologic sections.

The current accepted standard image format for digital radiographs is called DICOM (digital imaging and communications in medicine). DICOM files have many advantages over other types of image files. Which of the following is NOT true of DICOM images?

DICOM image files can be sent to other veterinarians or to owners and can be viewed in almost any photo viewer. DICOM image files require special viewing software (i.e. eFilm or OsiriX) and cannot be opened in most photo viewing or editing software (i.e. Photoshop). This makes it difficult for the images to be altered, which maintains their integrity as a medical document. DICOM files contain information about the patient and study performed, and they can be stored, retrieved, and manipulated. Files are arranged into images, studies, and series where each study may consist of one or more series, and each series may consist of one or more images.

Which breed is over-represented and prone to intervertebral disk disease?

Dachshunds. Due to their anatomy, Dachshunds' long back make them more prone to having a disk protrusion that can compress the spinal cord. This is why it is necessary to recommend to owners of Dachshunds (and other breeds with this type of conformation - corgis, bassets, etc.) that the dogs should not jump on and off furniture beds; this is one measure that may help to prevent such an injury.

If gram-stained because they are present in a bacterial sample, yeasts will appear what color?

Dark blue or purple. Yeasts will appear as large gram-positive cocci, but much larger than bacteria.

Which of the following instruments is the least traumatic to use on the intestine?

Debakey forceps. The Debakey forceps are thumb forceps designed to be atraumatic.

When taking radiographs, you should optimally use:

Decreased exposure time, increased distance from radiation sources, and increased shielding. Time, distance, shielding (shortest time possible, far away as possible, maximum shield).

A diet high in concentrates or grains may lead to which of the following in cattle?

Decreased rumen pH. Rumenal acidosis (decreased pH) may occur when feeding a high concentrate diet. This is due to microbes fermenting the starches in the grains too quickly such that the pH drops dramatically (less than a pH of 5.5). This increased acidity in the rumen can cause severe damage to the ruminal papillae.

Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia:

Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required. Because of its quick induction quality, nitrous is often used in conjunction with other more potent maintenance general anesthesia to allow lower levels of the more potent agents.

Which of these is the term for the animal that harbors the mature, sexual stage of a parasite?

Definitive host. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A paratenic host (also known as a transport host) indicates a type of intermediate host on which a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals.

Lipase is a pancreatic enzyme that:

Degrades fat.

Decreased total protein can suggest all of the following except:

Dehydration. An increased total protein is most indicative of dehydration.

Low environmental humidity puts neonatal puppies at risk for:

Dehydration. Because dry air is dehydrating.

Pre-renal azotemia is most commonly caused by which of the following?

Dehydration. Dehydration is the most common cause of pre-renal azotemia. Azotemia is the term for elevated renal values (BUN and creatinine). When a patient is dehydrated, renal values may be elevated. When re-hydration occurs, renal values should return to normal. Renal failure (acute or chronic) causes primary renal azotemia. Post-renal azotemia is most often caused by obstruction either in the bladder or urethra, which prevents urine from being voided.

What is the most common cause of urate bladder stones in a Sulcata tortoise?

Dehydration. Dehydration leads to crystallization of urates and causes bladder stone formation. Dehydration and improper diet are the two most common causes of bladder stones in tortoises, but poor husbandry in general may contribute.

Which of the following would not be an underlying cause for a urine specific gravity of less than 1.020?

Dehydration. Dehydration usually results in an elevated urine concentration (USG > 1.050). Overhydration would result in an increased urine output in an effort to a normal hydration state. This would result in more dilute urine. Renal failure, hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's), and diabetes mellitus can all be causes of dilute urine and all cause polyuria and polydipsia.

Which of the following mites that can be found on dogs is not contagious?

Demodex. Demodex is a normal inhabitant of the skin and causes disease only when there is either a genetic predisposition or systemic disease that allows Demodex to develop into disease. Therefore it is not contagious in dogs. Demodex gatoi in cats is thought to be contagious amongst cats.

Which of the following is not typically associated with pruritus?

Demodex. Demodex mites are typically not itchy. It is important to note however that with severe infections of demodex, secondary bacterial infections are common, and those can be itchy. Sarcoptes (scabies mites), Cheyletiella mites, Otodectes (ear mites), Malassezia (yeast), and Microsporum canis (ringworm) all cause pruritus.

The part of the mature tooth that is continuously deposited throughout life by odontoblasts is the:

Dentin.

Cattle, or other livestock, exposed to prolonged rainy conditions are most likely to develop:

Dermatophilosis also known as Rain Rot or Rain Scald) is caused by the bacterium Dermatophilus congolensis. It is a common skin infection seen in livestock during rainy seasons or in damp warm weather. Habronema is a gastrointestinal parasite seen in horses. Pediculosis is a lice infestation. Photosensitization would be more common with prolonged sun exposure.

As a technician, it will be your responsibility to administer medications in most situations. Which of the following is not a common medication administered to horses post-operatively?

Dexamethasone. Dexamethasone is a steroid and is not a commonly used medication post-operatively. When this medication is noted as a treatment after surgery, the technician should double check with the clinician in charge. Inadvertent administration of steroids can result in immunosuppression and secondary infection at the surgical site. Banamine is a very commonly used non-steroidal anti-inflammatory in horses. Procaine-penicillin G is a commonly used antibiotic which may be used by clinicians post-operatively. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases the amount of stomach acid production in horses to help keep them from developing gastric ulcers.

An 11-year old German shepherd dog with previously diagnosed dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) presents to your clinic following a dog fight. The dog is significantly aggressive and resistant to handling. What medication should NOT be used to sedate this patient?

Dexmedetomidine. Dexmedetomidine should only be used in patients with normal cardiac function as it can cause a significant reduction in cardiac output due to reduced heart rate. It should be avoided whenever possible in patients that have compromised cardiac function. Butorphanol and buprenorphine would be better options for sedation as these drugs would not have as much effort on cardiac output and would provide some pain relief. Midazolam can be used to sedate the patient via IM administration and, although it would not provide any pain control, it would allow for safer handling of the patient. Atropine is not a sedative, but an anticholinergic used most commonly to increase heart rate.

A deficiency in antidiuretic hormone would likely cause :

Diabetes insipidus.

Which of the following diseases would be most likely to cause the development of cataracts in dogs?

Diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus very commonly causes the development of cataracts in dogs. Cats do not typically get cataracts from diabetes. Toxocara canis (roundworm intestinal parasite) may cause ocular larval migrans in humans and thus is a zoonotic disease. It does not cause cataracts. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) does not cause cataracts. Hypothyroidism could lead to elevated blood lipids and an increased chance of lipid corneal deposition but would not lead to cataract formation.

Chronic use of glucocorticoids has been associated with possible predisposition to which of the following diseases?

Diabetes mellitus. Especially Depo-Medrol; the body stops responding to its own insulin.

Potential side effects of the phenothiazines include all of the following except:

Diarrhea. CNS depression, lowering of the seizure threshold, and hypotension are all side effects.

What is the name for the blood pressure measurement when the ventricles of the heart are relaxed?

Diastolic pressure. Diastolic pressure (DP) is the minimum arterial pressure during relaxation and dilation of the ventricles, which represents the pressure when the heart is resting. The systolic pressure (SP) is the pressure when the heart is contracting. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is essentially an average blood pressure that represents the perfusion pressure seen by the organs in the body. It is calculated by using the systolic and diastolic pressures as seen by the formula: MAP = DP + 1/3 (SP - DP). Central venous pressure (CVP) is the pressure of blood in the thoracic vena cava and is a good estimation of right atrial pressure. CVP reflects the amount of blood returning to the heart and the ability of the heart to pump blood. Mean corpuscular volume is a laboratory term used to describe average volume of red blood cell that helps to classify an anemia as microcytic or macrocytic.

An owner calls your vet clinic in a panic because her epileptic dog is currently having a seizure. She says that the vet at your hospital had given her a drug to give rectally to help. She starts to list off the medications in her medicine cabinet. Which of these is the appropriate drug for this instance?

Diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that can stop a seizure. It is most commonly given intravenously in the clinic but it can be given rectally by an owner at home and is sometimes dispensed for this purpose. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic and an NMDA antagonist that is used in anesthetic drug combinations, but it can be seizurogenic and should not be used in dogs prone to seizures. Potassium bromide is used as an anti-seizure drug; it is usually given orally for seizure prevention but an IV loading dose can be given. It is not effective per rectum and must be given over too long of a period of time to be effective at stopping an ongoing seizure. Clomipramine (Clomicalm) is an antidepressant sometimes used as part of the treatment of behavioral disorders in dogs. Naloxone is an opioid reversal agent.

Where is the hypothalamus located?

Diencephalon. The diencephalon is composed of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland. The brain stem is the posterior part of the brain adjoining the brain and spinal cord. Most of the cranial nerves originate in the brain stem. The brain stem includes the medulla oblongata, pons, and the midbrain. The thymus is located in the mediastinum. The mesencephalon is the mid-brain (part of the brain stem).

What does a Wright's stain do?

Differentiates blood cell types. A Wright's stain is used to stain blood smears when doing a differential. It stains red cells red and white cells various shades of blue/purple. It allows for subtle color differences between the different white cells to enhance proper identification. A Gram stain is used to differentiate bacteria, thus the term Gram +, Gram -. New Methylene Blue is the stain to enhance visualization of reticulocytes. Sedi Stain is the stain most commonly used for urinalysis.

Because of its potential side effects that can occur due to toxic serum levels, a blood level of which medication should be monitored closely?

Digoxin. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside. Because of its narrow therapeutic index, blood levels of this drug must be monitored. This medication is used most often in certain cases of congestive heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and supraventricular tachycardias. Toxic levels can cause arrhythmias, gastrointestinal upset, lethargy, neurologic signs, and others.

On a CBC on a 5-year old Basenji at a routine wellness exam, you identify microfilaria. There are two species of microfilaria that can be seen in the peripheral blood in dogs. What are they?

Dirofilaria immitis and Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum. Dipetalonema reconditum is a blood parasite that looks similar to the microfilariae of Dirofilaria immitis, the agent of heartworm disease. The two parasites must be differentiated because Dipetalonema reconditum is not pathogenic and is therefore not treated. Uncinaria stenocephala and Filaroides osleri would not be found in the blood.

Colic is a common condition in horses. Which of the following is not a common cause of colic?

Displaced abomasum. Horses are not ruminants and therefore do not have an abomasum. The abomasum is the fourth stomach in ruminants and functions in a similar fashion to a monogastric stomach. Enteroliths are stones that can form in the gastrointestinal tract that result in an obstruction. Intestinal incarceration is the trapping of intestines through a small opening. Finally, an intestinal volvulus occurs when a section of intestine spins about its axis and occludes its own blood supply.

To obtain an accurate blood pressure on a patient where the cuff is placed on a hindlimb, the doppler crystal should be placed:

Distal to the blood pressure cuff but proximal to the metatarsal pad. This is done so the blood flow is not occluded.

Which of the following would not help decrease waste anesthetic gas exposure?

Frequent changing of the soda lime CO2 cannister. The soda lime canister absorbs CO2, not waste anesthetic gas.

Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have a 4 year old domestic short hair named Fluffy that has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Mrs. Johnson normally administers 2 units of PZI insulin by subcutaneous injection to their cat twice a day, but she is out of town. Mr. Johnson calls your hospital and says that when he gave Fluffy her morning dose she jumped and he is not sure if all of the insulin was injected. He wants to know what to do. Which of the following is the correct advice to give Mr. Johnson?

Do not give Fluffy more insulin until her evening dose is due. At that time he should give 2 units of PZI. Because he does not know how much insulin was actually administered when he gave the morning dose, giving more insulin at this time could cause Fluffy's blood glucose level to drop too low and she could become hypoglycemic. The insulin should never be doubled or increased at the next dose. Because insulin injections decrease blood glucose levels it is not necessary to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia after missing a dose. Mr. Johnson should not wait until Mrs. Johnson gets home because chronic hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) can lead to a state of ketoacidosis. If Fluffy misses her insulin for too long, she would be at risk for developing ketoacidosis.

Which of the following correctly lists the species in order from shortest to longest gestation length?

Dog, pig, sheep, horse, llama. This list of gestations should be committed to memory: llama - 1 year (350 days), horse - 11 months (330 days), cow - 9 months (280 days), sheep/goat - 5 months (150 days), pig - 4 months (114 days), dog/cat - 2 months (63 days), ferret - 1.5 months (42 days).

Which of these are used in the major cross-match for blood products to be transfused to a dog?

Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma. In a major crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the recipient are going to react to the donated red blood cells.

A 6-year old Doberman cardiac arrested and was resuscitated. However, the dog has a consistently low systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg. What drug may be prescribed to increase the blood pressure and via what route?

Dopamine via intravenous infusion. Dopamine increases blood pressure by increasing systemic vascular resistance and is administered via intravenous constant rate infusion. Dopamine is not labeled for intramuscular use. Hydromorphone is an opioid and may cause a reduction in the patient's blood pressure. Terbutaline is a bronchodilator.

What is the most common location for placement of an arterial catheter (a-line) in a dog?

Dorsal metatarsal artery.

A tibial fracture needs to be repaired. The surgeon is intending to place a bone plate on the medial aspect of the tibia. How should the patient be positioned and prepped?

Dorsal recumbency with the affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped.

For a midline ovariohysterectomy, the patient is positioned in which type of recumbency?

Dorsal.

Which of the following drugs is injected to stimulate breathing of neonates after delivery by cesarean section?

Doxapram.

Which chemotherapeutic agent has been associated with cardiotoxicity?

Doxorubicin. Different chemotherapy drugs are known for causing certain side-effects. Doxorubicin has been associated with cardiotoxicity. Cyclophosphamide is associated with cystitis. A more common side effect of L-asparaginase is anaphylaxis. Lomustine may cause pancreatitis.

Which medication has been associated with esophageal strictures in cats, therefore the liquid preparation is preferred?

Doxycycline. Doxycycline and clindamycin are the two medications most associated with esophageal strictures in cats (mostly doxycycline). This occurs when a pill gets lodged in the esophagus. Anytime this medication must be given in tablet form, the tablet should be followed with at least 6 mls of water to help wash the tablet down. Liquid preparations are preferred.

Which of these antibiotic choices is bacteriostatic?

Doxycycline. Tetracycline antibiotics (such as doxycycline) are bacteriostatic, meaning they do not kill bacteria, but instead inhibit their growth. Doxycycline inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosomal subunit. The other antibiotics listed are bactericidal (kill bacteria).

Which antibiotic choice is NOT bactericidal?

Doxycycline. Tetracyclines (including doxycycline) are bacteriostatic, which means these antibiotics do not kill bacteria. Bacteriostatic antibiotics act to inhibit bacterial growth. Tetracyclines, the macrolides (like erythromycin), chloramphenicol, and trimethoprim sulfa are all bacteriostatic. Bacteriostatic antibiotics can be sufficiently effective if the host's immune system is strong.

Which instrument is specifically designed for atraumatically clamping across the intestine?

Doyen forceps. Doyen forceps are the only forceps used in veterinary medicine for atraumatically occluding a loop of bowel.

You are scrubbed in as the surgery technician and are assisting with an intestinal foreign body removal. The surgeon wants to clamp the intestine above and below the foreign body. What instrument could be used for this?

Doyens. Doyen intestinal forceps are a curved non-crushing occluding clamp with longitudinal grooves. They are used for the purpose described, but over-tightening should be avoided because they can still damage the intestinal tissue. Debakey forceps are vascular forceps that are used to hold vascular tissue with minimal damage to the vessels. Brown-Adson forceps are for holding tissue and have grasping teeth. The Gelpi is a self-retaining small retractor.

A fistulogram involves taking a radiograph after a contrast agent is administered into what location?

Draining tract. A draining tract, also known as a fistula, can be evaluated by injecting a contrast agent into the tract and taking a radiograph to track where the tract goes.

To perform a bile acids test, what is required?

Draw a fasted blood sample, feed the animal, draw another sample 2 hours after feeding. A typical bile acids test includes "pre-prandial" (before eating) and "post-prandial" (after eating) samples. A fasted sample is drawn, the pet is fed, and another sample is drawn 2 hours after feeding. A 12-hour fast is recommended for this test.

Which of the following statements regarding multidrug chemotherapeutic protocols is true?

Drugs are usually selected that work in different parts of the cell cycle. Different parts of the cell cycle so more fast-growing abnormal cells can be "killed" by the drug regimen.

Which of the following description of the properties of an inhalant anesthetic is true?

Drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) are the most potent. MAC is a measure of anesthetic potency or, the concentration of drug required to prevent response to a stimulus in 50% of patients. Listed from lowest to highest MAC, inhalant anesthetics include methoxyflurane, halothane, isoflurane, enflurane, sevoflurane, and desflurane. This means that methoxyflurane is the most potent, or, it requires the lowest percentage of gas to cause its effects. Desflurane is the least potent (requires the highest percentage of gas to cause its effects). Potency is not necessarily related to the speed of induction and recovery with an inhalant anesthetic; this property is determined by solubility.

Which of the following statements regarding inhalant anesthetics is true?

Drugs with low solubility (blood/gas solubility coefficients) produce rapid induction and recovery rates. The solubility of an inhalant anesthetic determines the speed of induction and recovery. Low solubility drugs produce rapid induction and recovery. Listed from least to most soluble, inhalant anesthetics include desflurane, sevoflurane, isoflurane, enflurane, halothane, and methoxyflurane. Therefore, desflurane has the fastest induction and recovery rates, and methoxyflurane has the slowest. MAC is a measure of anesthetic potency or the concentration of drug required to prevent response to a stimulus in 50% of patients.

In a fetus, blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta via what structure?

Ductus arteriosus. The ductus arteriosus is the shunt connecting the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch. In this way, the blood bypasses the lungs, or pulmonary circulation in utero. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is when this opening persists after birth and arterial blood is recirculated through the lungs, which is abnormal. The foramen ovale allows blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium. The ductus venosus shunts some blood flow from the umbilical vein to the vena cava. The foramen magnum is the large opening in the occipital bone at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes.

The pancreas connects to which part of the intestine?

Duodenum (the first segment of the small intestine). It secretes digestive enzymes into the duodenum via the pancreatic duct.

What are the three layers of the meninges?

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater. The meninges are layers that cover the brain and spinal cord. The meninges consist of the dura mater, the arachnoid mater, and the pia mater. The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid, function to protect the central nervous system (CNS).

You are preparing to collect abdominal fluid from a horse presented for signs of colic. Collection of abdominal fluid for cytologic examination should be collected in what type of sample tube?

EDTA (purple top). Cells from fluid samples are best preserved and prevented from clotting in an EDTA tube.

What is the most sensitive and preferred test for detecting Giardia?

ELISA. This is the most sensitive test that will detect in 95% of cases. The fecal flotation with zinc centrifugation will only detect Giardia less than 70% of the time. A direct smear can be used to look for trophozoites but is not highly sensitive, and multiple smears may be needed to find the organism.

From youngest to oldest, which is the correct order of the tick's life cycle?

Egg, larva, nymph, adult. The exact time course and types of hosts can vary, but female ticks commonly lay thousands of eggs, usually on the ground. These hatch into larval ticks, which will feed on a host and then molt to the nymph stage. The nymphal tick then feed off a second host and falls off when fully fed. It then becomes an adult that will feed, and the cycle repeats.

The most common method of identification of pigs is what?

Ear notching. Ear notching is used because it can be identified from a further distance than the other methods.

A sick mare comes in to your facility. You are asked to assess the color of the mucous membranes. Which one is not used for this purpose?

Ear pinna. Mucous membranes line parts of the body that lead to the outside and are exposed to air. Ear pinnae do not have mucous membranes. They are covered in skin, both inside and out. The only part of the ear which has a mucous membrane covering is the ear drum.

What is cerumen?

Ear wax. It is the yellowish waxy hydrophobic protective substance that is secreted in the ear canal. Sebum is an oily substance that is produced by the sebaceous glands.

When do most bitches normally ovulate?

Early in estrus.

A crenated cell is also called a(n):

Echinocyte.

Which sling is used to stabilize the femur bone?

Ehmer. Ehmer is for the femur. Velpau is for the elbow.

Which intestinal protozoan is commonly found in ruminants?

Eimeria.

When the veterinarian orders radiographs to investigate a suspected fracture of the left olecranon in a canine patient, the technician should radiograph the left:

Elbow.

Which is a hinge joint connecting the humerus to the radius and ulna?

Elbow. The elbow joint is a hinge joint connecting the humerus to the radius and ulna. The shoulder joint is formed by the scapula and humerus. The tarsus and stifle are joints of the hindlimb. The tarsus connects the tibia/fibula to the metatarsus (the ankle); the stifle connects the femur to the tibia/fibula (the knee).

A dog presents with excitability, muscle tremors, and hyperthermia. A blood panel shows hypocalcemia, and the patient is prescribed an intravenous dose of calcium gluconate. What monitoring must be performed during calcium gluconate administration?

Electrocardiogram. ECG monitoring must be performed during calcium gluconate administration, and the administration should be slowed or discontinued if bradycardia or arrhythmias occur. Respiration should be monitored but might not change until the heart rate has already significantly slowed. The same is true of blood pressure. Central venous pressures or CVPs would not provide information on the electrical activity of the heart. ETCO2 would also not provide any information pertinent to the infusion.

Which of the following monitoring devices displays heart rate and rhythm?

Electrocardiography.

Which of the following should be done with a dog after a myelogram to decrease the risk of procedure-related complications?

Elevate the head. After a myelogram, dogs have a risk of having a seizure due to the contrast administration. The risk can be decreased by keeping the head elevated after the procedure.

Which of the following is not a sign of shock?

Elevated body temperature. Shock patients have low body temperature because the body is shutting down.

What is the purpose of a Potter-Bucky diaphragm on an X-ray machine (sometimes called a "Bucky tray")?

Eliminate grid lines on the film. A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is a moving grid. A grid is a series of short strips of lead that is placed over the cassette, absorbing all radiation that does not go between the strips. The strips are geometrically arranged to allow the primary radiation through but to absorb any radiation that is scattered in other directions. This results in increasing the resolution of structures on the film. However, using a grid results in the appearance of grid lines on the film unless a Potter-Bucky diaphragm is used. Using a Potter-Bucky diaphragm requires increased exposure time and/or kilovoltage.

Wry mouth refers to which of the following types of oral malocclusions?

Elongation of the head on either the left or right side. When one-half of the head is longer than the other, the resulting outcome is a malocclusion on both sides (right and left) between the maxillary and mandibular teeth.

Lincosamides (such as lincomycin and clindamycin) are contraindicated for use in which species of animal?

Equine. Lincosamides are contraindicated in horses, ruminants, rodents, and rabbits. These drugs can cause sever GI effects in these species and can even result in death.

Which drug is known as an ACE-inhibitor?

Enalapril. Ace-inhibitors like enalapril are vasodilators which block angiotensin-converting enzyme to prevent angiotensin II (a vasoconstrictor) and aldosterone (causes sodium retention) from forming. Ace-inhibitors help to relax smooth muscle in the arterioles and veins. They are most commonly used in cases of heart and kidney disease. Note that ace-inhibitors usually end in a "pril" (benazepril, captopril, enalapril, etc.)

Blood vessels are lined with a type of epithelium known as which of the following?

Endothelium. Endothelium is the thin layer of cells lining the inside surface of blood vessels. The cells that form the endothelium are called endothelial cells. Mesothelial cells are specialized epithelial cells that line the internal organs and body wall in the peritoneal and pleural cavities and line the pericardium. Keratin is a part of the epidermis, or the skin. Urothelial cells, or transitional cells, are part of the urinary system and line the inside wall of the bladder.

Which of the following vaccines is not available for horses?

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis Vaccine. While equine protozoal myeloencephalitis is a common neurologic disease in horses caused by Sarcocystis neurona, there currently is no effective vaccines to prevent this disease.

Which of the following medications should be used with caution in cats, as it could cause blindness in some cats?

Enrofloxacin. Enrofloxacin (Baytril) is used in cats at no higher than 5 mg/kg per dose. Higher doses increase the risk for blindness in cats, and in general this drug should be used with caution because of this potential side effect.

A 5-week old cat received emergency surgery for a laceration. What antibiotic should NOT be used in this patient?

Enrofloxacin. Young animals should not receive enrofloxacin (Baytril) due to risk of cartilage defects (mostly in young large breed dogs). This drug must be used with caution and at lower doses in cats because it may cause blindness.

Test kits commonly used in private practice which show a color change due to antigen presence, such as those used to diagnose CPV, FeLV, and FIV are examples of:

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA).

The leukocyte most commonly associated with parasitic and allergic conditions is the:

Eosinophil. Eosinophils are present in higher numbers on CBC when animal is allergic or has a parasitical load.

You run a CBC on a dog that is heartworm positive. Which blood cell is commonly elevated in dogs with heartworm disease or other parasitic infections?

Eosinophils. Parasitic infections (such as heartworm, intestinal parasites, and fleas) often cause an elevated eosinophil count. Other diseases which may cause an elevation of eosinophils include allergies, chronic dermatitis, and feline asthma.

Where is the best place to give an intramuscular injection in a dog?

Epaxial muscle. This is a large group of muscles between the spine and the wings of the ilium. They are easy to find and use. Semitendinosus muscles on the rear legs can be used, but there is a possibility of sciatic nerve damage if not done carefully. The sternohyoid muscle is a muscle of the neck and not appropriate to use for intramuscular injection. Muscles used for intramuscular injection need to be large, vascular, and easy to find and use. Not all muscles are appropriate.

The best locations to administer intramuscular injections, such as penicillin, to a horse include all of the following EXCEPT?

Epaxial muscles. The epaxial muscles, which are at the dorsum of the horse surrounding the vertebrae, are not an acceptable location for an intramuscular injection due to their relatively small size and location near the spinal cord. All the other injection sites are acceptable.

Parascaris equorum

Equine roundworm

Where do sperm mature?

Epididymis. The epididymis is the tube attached to the backside of the testes. It is found within the scrotum and is a coiled segment of the spermatic ducts in which spermatozoa mature. It connects the testicle with the vas deferens. Sperm mature within this tube. Oviducts, also called fallopian tubes, are found in the female reproductive tract. The egg passes from the ovary into the uterus via the oviduct. The prostate stores and secretes a portion of the seminal fluid.

You should not give a phenothiazine tranquilizer to an animal with which disease?

Epilepsy. Phenothiazine tranquilizers such as acepromazine or chlorpromazine are traditionally thought to be contraindicated in patients with seizure disorders. More recent research has shown that they are not nearly as dangerous as originally perceived and some don't consider these medications as being contraindicated.

A vet at your clinic is preparing to perform a punch biopsy of a dermal mass in a cat under local anesthesia. He asks you to add epinephrine to his lidocaine before administering the local anesthetic. What is the rationale for adding epinephrine?

Epinephrine prolongs the duration of lidocaine's effects. Epinephrine is used with lidocaine to cause local vasoconstriction, preventing rapid systemic absorption. This is typically done to prolong the duration of local anesthetic effects of lidocaine by maintaining it at the site. It can decrease systemic uptake and toxicity, but it is not a lidocaine antagonist. Epinephrine does not neutralize the pH of lidocaine; sodium bicarbonate is sometimes added for this purpose.

An effective drug for treating anaphylaxis is:

Epinephrine.

If anaphylaxis occurs after the administration of any vaccine or drug, which drug will best reverse the effect of shock?

Epinephrine.

The neurotransmitter listed below that is most responsible for sympathetic action is:

Epinephrine. Acetylcholine, dopamine, and serotonin all suppress the sympathetic system.

You are assisting with Coggins testing. What does this test for?

Equine Infectious Anemia. The Coggins test checks for Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) antibodies in a horse's blood. Blood samples must be sent to a state-approved laboratory. This test is often needed before taking a horse to a show and whenever a horse is transported across state lines. EIA is a virus transmitted by the horsefly. Streptococcus equi causes Strangles.

You are called to a pig operation where some of the adult pigs are experiencing sudden death. The vet points out purple skin lesions that look like a "diamonds". What organism causes "Diamond Skin Disease" in pigs?

Erysipelas rhusiopathiae. Erysipelas may cause diamond shaped purple skin lesions in pigs. This bacterium is commonly found in the tonsils of pigs, but may cause disease and death if the pigs experience stress, poor sanitation or feed, causing the bacteria to invade the bloodstream and cause sepsis. Staphylococcus hyicus causes greasy pig disease (exudative epidermitis). Haemophilus parasuis causes Glasser's disease (polyserositis/arthritis/cyanotic ears and skin). Streptococcus suis is more common in weaning pigs (may cause meningitis, and also has similar symptoms to Glasser's disease).

Where would you find Anaplasma marginale?

Erythrocytes of cattle. Anaplasma marginale is the most prevalent tick-borne pathogen in livestock. This is a rickettsial disease, and the organisms are found in the red blood cells of cattle.

Which type of cell should not be found in normal joint fluid?

Erythrocytes. Normal synovial fluid should contain no erythrocytes and moderate numbers of nucleated cells (<3000/ul). The cells are normally about 95% mononuclear cells, with approximately equal numbers of lymphocytes and macrophages. There should be <10% neutrophils and very few eosinophils. Blood contamination can make it difficult to interpret synovial cytology.

Which hormone causes the vaginal cells of the female dog to proliferate and form cornified epithelium?

Estrogen. As estrogen rises during proestrus, the vaginal epithelium proliferates, cornifies, and keratinizes, presumably in preparation for mating.

The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is:

Estrogen. Progesterone is produced after fertilization to support pregnancy. Prolactin is produced by the pituitary to support milk production. Oxytocin is produced by the pituitary to stimulate uterine contractions.

The time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the beginning of the next is called the:

Estrous cycle.

Your neighbor just bought some pet mice and asks you about breeding them. He wants to know how long their estrus and gestation are. Which of the following is most accurate?

Estrus 4-6 days, gestation 19-21 days.

What is the most likely period of time during the estrous cycle that a female will be receptive to mating?

Estrus. Estrus is the main period of sexual receptivity. At this point, the uterus and uterine horns are primed for receiving an embryo. Proestrus is the period just prior to estrus and is under the influence of a hormone called follicular stimulating hormone (FSH). During this period FSH stimulates release of estrogen. During diestrus the corpus luteum (ruptured follicle) secretes hormones. If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate and stop secreting hormones. Anestrus is the period in which there is sexual inactivity.

Ovulation occurs during which part of the estrous cycle?

Estrus. Ovulation occurs when a mature egg is released from the ovary and is available to be fertilized. It occurs in estrus or just shortly thereafter.

Which suture type is non-absorbable and would be ideal for placing skin sutures in a laceration?

Ethilon. Ethilon is nylon suture. Nylon sutures are non-absorbable and are often used for skin sutures that will be removed.

On average, cows have their estrous cycle how often?

Every 21 days. Cows are non-seasonal polyestrous (have estrous cycles year-round). The average estrous cycle in the cow is 21 days (every 18-24 days).

In an anesthetized patient, hypocarbia (hypocapnia) could be attributed to:

Excess artificial ventilation.

Why should atropine, a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine receptors, be used cautiously in horses (i.e. what is a major side effect of the drug)?

Excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic). Atropine is commonly used topically to dilate the pupil in horses with uveitis; with excessive administration, atropine can cause intestinal motility to decrease, possibly resulting in abdominal pain (colic) in the horse. Atropine is also used to increase the heart rate during general anesthesia.

In which situation would perioperative antibiotics NOT be indicated?

Excisional biopsy of a 2 cm mass. Diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism, and chronic steroid therapy can all result in immunosuppression; these patients should be treated with perioperative antibiotics unless the surgeon specifically requested that an antibiotic not be used in the event that an intraoperative sample is needed for bacterial culture. Any patient having an orthopedic procedure involving the placement of implants should have perioperative antibiotics. A clean procedure performed under 90 minutes in an otherwise healthy and immunocompetent patient does not require perioperative antibiotics. An excisional biopsy of a 2 cm mass would fall under this category.

A dog has been brought into your clinic showing stage two signs of rabies. What are the animal's symptoms?

Excitability, viciousness, biting, and snapping. Stage two of rabies is the furious stage. Animals will bite, snap, and attack for no reason, spreading the disease in their saliva through bite wounds. Stage one is the prodromal stage which is characterized by changes in attitude. The animal may become shy, nervous, and apprehensive. Stage three of the disease is the paralytic stage. Muscles will become uncoordinated and paralysis sets in. The animal will lose the ability to swallow and excessively salivate.

In dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except:

Excitement. Opioids in the dog are commonly associated with respiratory depression, bradycardia, and analgesic activity. Excitement is rare.

Which of the following is a common cause of epistaxis in horses?

Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage.

For proper radiographic exposure, a radiograph should be taken during maximum:

Expiration for the abdomen and inspiration for the thorax. Inspiration and expiration affects the location of the diaphragm and size of the cavity.

A palpebral reflex is checked at the:

Eyelid.

Where is a meibomian gland located?

Eyelid. Meibomian glands line the eyelids. They secrete sebum and help to prevent evaporation of the tear film. Meibomian growths are common in dogs.

Where on a primate's body are they tested for tuberculosis?

Eyelid. Primates are tested for tuberculosis with an intradermal skin test on the eyelid. This allows the reading to be done without having to restrain the animal. It is much safer for personnel and less stress for patient.

In neonatal calves and foals, what is the most common reason that these animals succumb to disease and death?

Failure of passive transfer. Newborns require essential maternal antibody absorption from the colostrum to help protect against infectious diseases. If they do not get these precious immunoglobulins, they can suffer from increased morbidity and mortality from infections. There are now field test kits that can detect blood levels of IgG in calves and foals to help determine if failure of passive transfer has occurred.

Sheep mostly breed during which season?

Fall. Sheep are polyestrous in the fall so they will give birth in the spring.

The term pseudocyesis means which of the following?

False pregnancy. Dogs can become pseudopregnant after estrus when the female dog is not bred, or if it is bred by an infertile male. Pseudopregnant dogs can develop mammary glands, lactate, and have nesting behaviors. Spaying is the best way to prevent future episodes.

First-intention healing of wounds, as compared with second-intention healing is:

Faster.

Which of the following is true regarding anesthesia of reptiles?

Fasting is not usually necessary. Regurgitation during anesthesia is not a concern for reptiles, and thus fasting is not usually necessary unless they are undergoing gastrointestinal surgery. The rough nature of reptile skin makes it difficult to aseptically prep for surgery. A stiff brush with antiseptic solution should be used for preparation of the skin. Reptiles are prone to hypothermia. They are ectothermic and hold their breath so heat support is extremely important for better control of anesthesia. Reptiles are susceptible to microbial infection; stress from surgery may potentiate these infections (and the skin is difficult to sterilely prep). Perioperative antibiotics are almost always warranted.

A patient who has been diagnosed with pancreatitis should avoid foods that are high in which of the following?

Fat. Pancreatitis means inflammation of the pancreas, the glandular organ that secretes enzymes needed to digest food. When something causes these enzymes to be activated prematurely, they can actually begin to digest the pancreas itself, resulting in pain and inflammation. There is evidence that feeding a low protein, high fat diet can induce pancreatitis.

Enteral feeding means:

Feeding via the gastrointestinal tract. Parenteral is via the IV route.

Which feline disease is most commonly transmitted via saliva sharing, such as through food or water bowls, grooming, etc.?

Feline Leukemia Virus. FeLV is shed in saliva and other bodily secretions (from the nose, urine, feces, and milk). Cats can transfer the virus via a bite, through grooming each other, and via sharing food and water dishes/litter boxes, etc. It is also transmitted from an infected mother cat to her kittens either in utero or via nursing. FIV is more commonly transferred via a bite wound and not from casual contact. FIP is caused by a coronavirus which is typically passed in feces, saliva or in utero. The coronavirus mutates in some cats and causes clinical FIP. The Toxoplasma parasite is typically acquired through eating raw meat/prey in cats that hunt.

Ferrets are susceptible to all of the following diseases except?

Feline panleukopenia. Ferrets can contract human influenza, rabies, and heartworm.

Blood transfusion reactions resulting from incompatibility are rarest in the:

Feline. Cats only have 3 blood types and are quite interchangeable.

Which bone articulates with the patella?

Femur. The distal femur articulates with the patella at the level of the trochlear groove. The patella attaches to the tibial tuberosity but does not articulate with this bone. The fibula is the bone directly adjacent to the tibia. The humerus is a bone of the forelimb.

The femurs in a ventrodorsal hip dysplasia view appear foreshortened. This is likely due to not having the:

Femurs parallel to the cassette. Legs always parallel to film and to each other in the ventrodorsal view.

Which of the following is an analgesic drug commonly administered via a transdermal patch?

Fentanyl.

Which of the following clinical signs is LEAST COMMONLY observed in horses with colic?

Fever.

Which of the following proteins is typically much higher in plasma than in serum?

Fibrinogen. Plasma is the fluid portion of blood. Serum is the same as plasma except that it is obtained after blood has clotted, the process where fibrinogen is converted to a fibrin clot. Other proteins should be at similar levels between plasma and serum.

Sox, a 10-year-old M/C Siamese X, was brought to the emergency hospital, crying in pain and unable to walk. He was diagnosed with an arterial thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy. The treatment for this condition is a(n):

Fibrinolytic drug. Need to break up the clot already present with a fibrinolytic; an anticoagulant may be added later for the cardiomyopathy to prevent further emboli formation.

During which of the following periods is a human embryo or fetus most sensitive to adverse effects from radiation?

First trimester. The first 3 months of pregnancy are the most important in terms of radiation safety because the embryo/fetus is most sensitive at this time. This heightened sensitivity is due to the organogenesis that occurs during the first trimester.

Which of the following correctly describes the order and function of fixer and developer solutions during radiograph processing?

First, developer converts exposed silver crystals into black metallic silver and then fixer dissolves unexposed silver crystals. Films go into developer first which reduces exposed silver halide into elemental metallic silver which is black. Crystals that were unexposed do not undergo this process. Fixer then converts the unexposed crystals into a soluble form so that they dissolve away, leaving a clear image where the film was unexposed.

Developed radiographs that appear yellow are usually due to a problem with which of the following?

Fixer solution. Yellow radiographs are usually seen when the fixer solution is low or fixative time is too short.

Flea allergy dermatitis is a very common cause of pruritus in dogs in endemic areas. This is usually an allergy to what?

Flea saliva. Many pets are allergic to flea saliva and it causes a dermatologic hypersensitivity. It may manifest with symptoms of pruritus, erythematous skin, secondary pyodermas, and hot spots.

Lufenuron, Fipronil, and Imidacloprid are all used in treatment of which of the following?

Fleas. Lufenuron (Program) controls flea populations by stopping the life cycle at the egg stage. It is an oral formulation. Fipronil acts to inhibit GABA and kills adult fleas. It is a topical and also works against some ticks. Imidacloprid is a topical flea adulticide and is a neurotransmitter blocker (Ach inhibitor). Selamectin would act against fleas and sarcoptic mites.

The term myiasis indicates a problem with which of the following?

Flies. Myiasis refers to infestation with larvae of flies (diptera). Pediculosis is the term for infestation with lice.

Which of the following is an indicator that a spinal needle has successfully been placed into the epidural space in a horse?

Fluid is immediately drawn in when placed on the hub of the needle. A horse epidural should be placed between the last sacral and first coccygeal vertebrae or between the first and second coccygeal vertebrae. When placed correctly, fluid will be drawn into the hub. Spinal fluid is a sign that the needle is not in the epidural space. The push of fluid into the spinal needle should be very smooth. Any resistance is an indication that the needle is probably not in the epidural space.

You are working in the ICU; a dog on a high rate of fluids has a very sudden drop in urine production in his urine collection bag. What do you do first?

Flush the urinary catheter with sterile saline. First, flush the catheter and make sure the line didn't get kinked, etc. If the urine production had been good and suddenly urine production slowed dramatically, it is likely a result of some mechanical issue. If the catheter flushes normally and all appears OK, call the veterinarian immediately.

Which of the technical errors in radiography will result in increased film density?

Focal-film-distance is too short. Focal-film-distance refers to the distance of the film relative to the X-ray source. As the film is moved closer to the source, density increases exponentially due to the inverse-square law.

Inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens are referred to as:

Fomites.

Flunixin meglumine is sometimes used in horses, cattle, and pigs for which purpose?

For analgesia. Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is a non-narcotic, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to provide analgesia and to reduce inflammation. It mal also be used as a fever reducer.

The number of cycles per second is the:

Frequency.

A patient presents with rodenticide toxicity and is hemorrhaging. The doctor decides the animal needs a transfusion. What blood product is most likely to help stop the patient's bleeding?

Fresh frozen plasma. Rodenticide toxicity causes hemorrhage by inhibiting vitamin K1 clotting factors. Fresh frozen plasma provides coagulation factors. Fresh whole blood could be used as well because it also contains coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells don't have any coagulation factors since the plasma has been removed. Stored plasma has plasma proteins only. Platelets or coagulation factors are no longer present at significant levels.

When looking at the bottom of a horse's hoof, what is the name of the triangular shaped structure behind the sole of the foot?

Frog. The name of the triangular structure is the frog (cuneus ungulae); this structure fills in the gap between the bulbs of the heels. The frog is a soft structure and is a normal part of the hoof anatomy.

Abdominal radiographs should be taken at which of the following times?

Full expiration. Abdominal radiographs are best taken at full expiration because this is when the diaphragm is pushed cranially, which increases the amount of space in the peritoneum and minimizes the overlap of abdominal organs on the radiograph. It is usually not possible to time a radiographic exposure based on the cardiac cycle.

A thoracic radiograph should be taken at what time?

Full inspiration. Thoracic radiographs should be taken at maximal inspiration to obtain the clearest image of the lung fields. When the lungs are filled with air, the air provides maximal contrast between the normal lung and pathologic processes such as fluid accumulation or the presence of a mass. It is not usually possible to time a radiographic exposure based on the cardiac cycle.

A thoracic radiograph should be taken at which time?

What is Mycology the study of?

Fungi. The study of muscles is myology (with no c). The study of bacteria is bacteriology. The study of parasites is parasitology.

Which of the choices below is in the correct order from least-to-most radiodense (darkest-to-whitest on the film)?

Gas, fat, soft tissue and fluid, bone, metal. Degree of absorption of x-rays depends on several factors, including specific gravity or density of tissue, the effective atomic number (Z) of the tissue, and the thickness of the tissue. There are 5 density shades seen on a radiograph: Gas - Very dark to black Fat - Dark grey Soft tissue and fluid - Mid-gray Bone - Nearly white Metal - White

A dog presents with lethargy and coughing. The doctor asks you to take a blood sample to test for Coccidioides immitis, also known as Valley Fever. This disease, most commonly seen in the southwestern United States, is caused by which of the following?

Fungus. Coccidioides is the fungus that causes Valley Fever which can have many different symptoms. Symptoms most commonly include lameness, coughing, lethargy, and loss of appetite. The treatment of choice is fluconazole. Rickettsia is a genus of gram-negative bacteria which are transmitted most commonly by a tick bite. Examples of rickettsial disease include Ehrlichia canis (Tick Fever), Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii), and Salmon Disease (Neorickettsia helminthoeca). These are treated with doxycycline.

Emesis should not be induced in dogs that have ingested which toxin?

Gasoline. Emesis, if you can initiate it soon after exposure to a toxin, is a very effective means of decontamination. The times that emesis is not appropriate is for caustic (acid or alkali) substances and substances that are volatile and may be inhaled, causing pulmonary toxicity or aspiration pneumonia. The other contraindication to inducing emesis is when the patient is not awake enough to protect their airway and prevent aspiration.

While assisting with a field necropsy on a 9-year old Thoroughbred mare, you notice a parasite in the stomach. What can this parasite be?

Gasterophilus intestinalis. Gasterophilus are not worms but rather bot fly larvae and are also known as the stomach bot. There are several species: G. nasalis, G. haemorrhoidalis, and G. intestinalis. While they may appear disgusting, they typically do not cause any clinical signs. It has been reported that bot fly infestation can lead to stomach rupture, but this is extremely rare.

Which of the following could be used for hemostasis at the site of a liver punch biopsy?

Gelfoam. Gelfoam is a sterile compressed sponge that is intended to aid in hemostasis; it allows for absorption of blood and formation of a clot at the bleeding site. It has a very useful application in liver biopsies. Bone wax controls bleeding from bone and functions as a mechanical plug that is pressed into the bleeding bone surface. Silver nitrate applicators are used to stop small superficial bleeders such as a snipped skin tag or a bleeding toenail. These are not sterile. Styptic powder is used to stop bleeding toenails and would never be used on tissues.

Which of the following is a self-retaining retractor?

Gelpi retractor.

Of the following, which drug is considered an aminoglycoside?

Gentamicin. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside and these drugs, with the exception of amikacin, can be identified with the -micin or -mycin suffix in the chemical name. Enrofloxacin (Baytril) is a fluoroquinolone. Fluoroquinolones can be identified by their -floxacin suffix in the generic name. Cephalexin (Keflex) is a cephalosporin which can be identified by the prefix -ceph or -cef in most of the drugs of this group. Itraconazole (Sporonox) is an antifungal agent. Antifungal medications have the suffix -azole. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) is in the tetracycline family of drugs recognized by the -cycline suffix.

In the name Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium is the:

Genus. The genus is always capitalized. Perfringens is the species.

If restrained in a stressful or frightening manner, which species might be prone to seizure?

Gerbil. To restrain a gerbil, it should be grasped by the tail base (not the tip, which could cause a degloving injury). The other hand then grasps the skin at the scruff of the neck. If possible, support the rear legs, as this can help to keep the gerbil calm.

Which species is not nocturnal?

Gerbils. They are diurnal or day dweller. Hamsters, hedgehogs, and sugar gliders are all nocturnal.

Which breed is most at risk for developing Degenerative Myelopathy?

German Shepherd. This is a progressive spinal cord disease that causes that myelin sheath around the nerves to degenerate. German Shepherds are over-represented for this condition. Dachshunds most commonly get intervertebral disk disease.

All of the following are classified as protozoal coccidians except:

Giardia. Isospora, cryptosporidium, and toxoplasma are all protozoal coccidians.

Dorzolamide ophthalmic drops may be used in treating what eye condition?

Glaucoma. Dorzolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is a common eye drop used in the treatment of glaucoma (increased eye pressures). This drug helps to decrease aqueous production in the eye, thus lowering intraocular pressure.

You are performing treatments on a horse and you need to apply dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) topically over a region of tenosynovitis in a horse. Which of the following personal protective equipment should be worn?

Gloves. DMSO is an anti-inflammatory drug. It may be administered topically, orally, or diluted and administered IV. Gloves should be worn when applying or handling DMSO because it can be absorbed through the skin. Nitrile gloves are preferable to latex because DMSO can be absorbed through latex gloves.

Which of the following mostly produces endotoxins?

Gram-negative bacteria. Endotoxins are found in the cell wall of the bacteria and are released when they die.

After Gram staining, any bacterium that looks reddish-pink under the microscope is:

Gram-negative.

The neutrophilic segmented cell belongs to the:

Granulocytic series.

In the United States, what is the appropriate color of an oxygen gas tank?

Green. In the United States: Green = oxygen. Gray = carbon dioxide. Yellow = medical compressed air. Blue = nitrous oxide. Black = nitrogen. Brown = helium. Other countries use different color markings. Gas mixtures are indicated by two or more designated colors on the cylinder.

Nervous tissue without myelin is known as which of the following?

Grey matter. White matter is myelinated. Myelin is a dielectic material that insulates and provides a sheath around the axon of a neuron. Dura mater and pia mater (along with arachnoid) are part of the meninges of the brain.

Many times, horses require additional muscle relaxation during anesthesia. Which of the following is commonly used for its property of being a centrally acting muscle relaxant?

Guaifenesin. Unfortunately, the exact mechanism is unknown; however, we do know that guaifenesin acts centrally by blocking nerve impulse transmission at the internuncial neuron level in the subcortical brain, brain stem, and spinal cord. Early signs of toxicity are in the form of increased rigidity. Ketamine is a dissociative agent and is known for its ability to cause hypertonia. Atracurium is non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that acts by competitively binding to cholinergic receptors at the motor endplate. Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent.

Malignant hyperthermia is a phenomenon associated with the use of which inhalant anesthetic?

Halothane. Especially in swine.

Which inhalant anesthetic drug is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs?

Halothane. Halothane sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines such as epinephrine, which may lead to arrhythmias. Isoflurane and Sevoflurane do not sensitize the myocardium to catecholamines. Nitrous has little effect on cardiac function.

Which anesthetic gas would be most likely to induce a cardiac arrhythmia?

Halothane. While any of the inhaled anesthetics may cause cardiac arrhythmias, they would be more likely to occur with the use of Halothane gas. Because of this, most veterinary practices have moved toward the use of Isoflurane or Sevoflurane for anesthetic maintenance during procedures.

Which of the following technique should NOT be performed when trying to stimulate breathing in a newborn calf?

Hang the calf off the ground by its back legs and shake or swing it to stimulate breathing. Recent data suggests that hanging calves to clear the airway is unnecessary. Placing a finger or piece of straw in the nose will elicit a gasping reflex and help aerate the lungs. Pouring cold water over the head will stimulate a hypothermal respiratory response. A pharmacological initiation of respiration can be achieved with medications like doxapram (Dopram). Acupuncture points on the muzzle are also useful for stimulation of respirations.

The gland of mice and rats that secretes porphyrin, causing red tears, is the:

Harderian gland. Red tears are produced by these glands under stressful conditions.

The owner of an 8-year old German Shepherd dog calls to report that the dog may have ingested an unknown quantity of rat bait 12 hours ago. What would be the best course of action to advise over the phone?

Have the owner bring the dog to the clinic immediately. Rat bait can cause prolonged clotting times or cerebral edema, and the dog should be seen immediately. It may not be advisable to induce vomiting without a veterinarian examination. Signs such as poor mucus membrane color only develop after a coagulopathy has developed, and by that time, intervention will be much less effective. The veterinarian won't be able to provide any treatment for rat bait ingestion over the phone. Rat bait is never pet-friendly.

When cattle are placed in lateral recumbency during general anesthesia, how should the head be positioned to decrease the risk of aspiration?

Head and oral cavity lower than the neck. During general anesthesia the esophageal sphincter relaxes, and if regurgitation occurs the fluid can be aspirated. Positioning the head and oral cavity lower than the neck paired with a properly inflated endotracheal cuff can reduce this risk.

Goats exhibiting aggressive behavior may do so most commonly in which manner?

Head butting. Head butting in goats can be play behavior, but is primarily a form of aggression with other goats and possibly humans. Always watch behind you when you are in with a herd of goats, as they will often come up behind you!

Which clinical symptom can be an indicator of vestibular disease?

Head tilt. Other signs include ataxia and nystagmus.

A 2-year old Dalmation presents after being hit by a car. Anisocoria is noted during the initial physical examination. What type of trauma would be suspected?

Head trauma. Anisocoria is defined as unequal or asymmetrical pupil size and results most often from CNS trauma. Although other symptoms may have sustained damage, the most likely cause of anisocoria in a patient that was hit by a car is head trauma.

A cat presents with a history of having difficulty walking and is dragging one of his back legs. The limb is cool to the touch. The veterinarian diagnoses a saddle thrombus. Which of the following underlying diseases is most likely present in this cat?

Heart disease. Aortic thromboembolism, or saddle thrombus, is a complication associated with heart disease in the cat. A thrombus is a blood clot. An embolism is when a clot lodges inside a blood vessel. In cats, a saddle thrombus develops due to underlying cardiomyopathy. A clot forms in the heart, then breaks free and travels in the blood vessels until it becomes lodged. The most common site for the clot to lodge is in the bifurcation of the aorta, in the area where blood supply branches off to supply the rear legs. The thrombus cuts off the circulation to the legs and is very painful.

A 4 year old male neutered domestic shorthair cat presents to your clinic with a history of straining to urinate. The owner is unsure how long it has been since the cat urinated. What is the first thing you should check while waiting for the doctor?

Heart rate. Cats with a urethral obstruction can develop hyperkalemia (high potassium) due to decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and the inability of the kidneys to excrete potassium from the body through the urine. Hyperkalemia can slow down the heart rate which can be fatal if it is severe enough, so it is very important to check the heart rate immediately. An ECG can also be of benefit to further assess the heart rhythm. Body temperature can decrease if the patient is in shock and the patient may need to be warmed until the body can maintain a normal temperature on its own. A packed cell volume and blood pressure could be useful in the overall assessment of the patient, but these would not be assessed immediately on presentation.

Which of the following parasites requires an intermediate host in order to complete the life cycle?

Heartworm.

Oxidative damage to red blood cells commonly causes formation of which of the following?

Heinz bodies. Heinz bodies are round structures seen in red blood cells that represent denatured hemoglobin caused by oxidative damage. They are seen best when cells are stained with new methylene blue. A spherocyte is a dark-staining red blood cell with no central pallor that usually occurs from partial phagocytosis of the cell, as is seen with immune-mediated destruction. A schistocyte is a red blood cell fragment that is usually formed due to shearing from intravascular trauma; it is seen in cases of DIC or vascular neoplasms such as hemangiosarcoma. Howell-Jolly bodies are basophilic nuclear remnants seen in red blood cells; increased numbers are seen after splenectomy. Basophilic stippling appears as small, dark blue bodies in a red blood cell and represents residual DNA. It may indicate lead poisoning when seen in dogs.

Which of the following is a reason why EDTA is a preferred anticoagulant over heparin when collecting a blood sample that will be used for a differential blood film?

Heparin interferes with white blood cell staining and causes white blood cell clumping. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin which prevents conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in the clotting cascade. EDTA works by chelating calcium, which is needed for blood clotting. Heparin interferes with white blood cell staining and causes white blood cell clumping, so it should not be used for blood that will be made into a smear for a differential white blood cell count. Heparin is also more expensive than EDTA. Excess EDTA can cause cells to shrink, but EDTA preserves cell morphology better than other commonly used anticoagulants.

Which of the following is an anticoagulant that DOES NOT chelate calcium?

Heparin. EDTA, citrate, fluoride, and oxalate all are anticoagulants that work by chelating calcium, which is needed for clot formation. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin which prevents conversion of the prothrombin to thrombin in the clotting cascade.

What does Eimeria stiedai cause?

Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits. The rabbits ingest sporulated oocysts, which contain four sporozoites that hatch and travel via the hepatic portal vein to the liver and penetrate the bile duct epithelium. The schizonts in the bile duct cause bile duct hyperplasia; they block the bile duct, causing hepatomegaly, icterus, and liver failure.

An obese cat that is not eating for multiple days is at an increased risk for developing which condition?

Hepatic lipidosis. Hepatic lipidosis is also known as fatty liver syndrome. Excess fats are broken down from the cat's fat stores and transported to the liver. The liver should then process this fat for utilization. In cats with hepatic lipidosis, this is impaired, resulting in accumulation of liver fat. The liver cells fill with fat and swell. This condition must be treated aggressively or can lead to death. The most important treatment for this condition is feeding. Most cats require placement of a feeding tube.

You are enrolled in a technician training session at a laboratory primate center and are observing the handling of macaque monkeys for blood sampling. You are required to wear personal protective equipment, mostly to prevent possible exposure to which disease?

Herpes B Virus. Herpes B Virus is a very serious and often deadly zoonotic disease that can be carried by macaque monkeys. It is the disease of most concern in a primate lab animal setting. It causes neurologic signs and can have a mortality rate of around 80% for humans. Bites, scratches, or exposure to mucus membranes including the eyes or mouth from infected saliva can cause transmission. Primates can carry Simian Immunodeficiency Virus (not HIV) and it can be zoonotic.

Which of the following statements about ultrasound probe transducers is true?

High frequency probes have increased image resolution and decreased penetrating ability relative to lower frequency probes.

Some x-ray machines have the option of using 2 different sized filaments at the cathode. Which of the following is an advantage of using a larger filament?

Higher exposures can be used. A larger filament produces a broader electron beam with a larger focal spot. This spreads out the area of the target where heat is generated and allows higher exposures to be used. However, the wider focal spot leads to decreased image definition and increased penumbra effect, both of which are disadvantages. The penumbra effect is the blurring of margins that occurs as a result of the geometry of the x-ray beam.

In order for oxygen to diffuse from the alveoli into the capillaries, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the alveoli in the lungs must be:

Higher in the lungs than in the capillaries. Partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is ~100 mmHg, and is ~45 mmHg in the capillaries. Gas diffuses from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

A metatarsal bone is located in the:

Hind paw.

The veterinarian is performing an orthopedic exam and says a dog has positive Ortolani sign. What corresponds with this?

Hip dysplasia. Ortolani is the palpable sensation of gliding the femoral head in and out of the acetabulum and suggests joint laxity, most often seen in hip dysplasia. A "drawer sign" would correspond with a cranial cruciate rupture.

Which is a "ball and socket" type of joint?

Hip. The hip joint (acetabulofemoral joint) is the ball of the head of the femur sitting in the socket (acetabulum) of the pelvis. The atlantoaxial joint is a pivot joint connecting the first and second cervical vertebrae. The stifle and elbow are hinge joints.

A 10-year old domestic short hair presents with a history of vomiting and inappetence and is severely dehydrated. His CBC shows a hematocrit of 22%. What can be said about this cat?

His true hematocrit is likely lower than 22%. A hematocrit of 22% tells us that the cat is anemic. Dehydration causes a falsely elevated hematocrit or PCV. This means that because this cat is dehydrated, the hematocrit is likely actually lower than 22%. The hematocrit or PCV often goes down when hydration is restored. While chronic renal failure can lead to anemia of chronic disease, this assumption cannot be made based on the information given in the question. Even though the hematocrit is low, this doesn't mean the cat is losing blood. To know whether blood loss or chronic disease is causing the anemia, a reticulocyte count would be needed to see if this cat is regenerating (making new red blood cells). In cases of blood loss or lysis, the anemia is usually regenerative (reticulocytes greater than 60,000). In cases of chronic disease, the anemia is usually non-regenerative (reticulocytes less than 60,000).

You are checking the fax machine and get a report from the local emergency clinic that a patient from the hospital where you work presented overnight for severe urticaria. What did this patient have?

Hives. Urticaria are hives. They are often itchy, red, raised welts on the skin surface. They are typically caused by an acute allergic reaction.

A male ferret is also referred to as which of the following?

Hob. A male ferret is known as a hob, while a female is called a jill. If you want to get really technical, these terms hob and jill are used for intact ferrets. A gib would be a neutered male and a sprite would be a spayed female (but often they are just called neutered hobs and spayed jills).

Which of the following methods is not recommended when picking up a snake?

Hold it by the tail. Some snakes can lose their tails as a defense so should not be picked up by the tail. This will prevent skin loss or degloving injury. The same applies to lizards.

Smooth muscle is found in what regions?

Hollow organs. Smooth muscle is under involuntary control and is found lining the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels. The extremities are surrounded by skeletal muscle which is voluntarily controlled. Muscles of the eye and mastication are also made up of skeletal muscle.

Which parasite is commonly passed from a mother to her young via the transmammary route?

Hookworms. A common mode of hookworm transmission (Ancylostoma) is transmammary (nursing) through infected milk.

Which of the following types of radiographs is helpful in confirming the presence of free air or fluid, if it is suspected based on survey films (DV, VD and lateral projections)?

Horizontal beam. Standing a patient upright and taking a horizontal beam radiograph can be helpful in confirming the presence of air or fluid in a body cavity (thorax, abdomen) because this position allows fluid to settle ventrally and air to rise dorsally. The bisecting angle technique is a radiographic technique used to prevent distortion when it is not possible to place the film parallel to the structure of interest and perpendicular to the x-ray beam (common in dental radiography). A skyline view is a technique used to decrease superimposition of structures, usually in the equine carpus.

Which of these animals does not have a gall bladder?

Horse.

The coffin bone is a layman's term for part of the anatomy of which species?

Horse. The coffin bone is the third phalanx (or distal phalanx/P3) in horses. It is also known as the "toe bone".

What is an expected finding in a patient with Hypervitaminosis D, or Vitamin D toxicity?

Hypercalcemia. Vitamin D is the building block of calcitrol, which works with parathyroid hormone. Calcitrol increases absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines and decreases their excretion in the urine. In so doing, calcium levels in the blood rise and PTH levels drop. So, when vitamin D is too high from intake, calcium is too high (there is no negative feedback mechanism with PTH).

Anesthetized patients should be periodically ventilated to control the development of:

Hypercapnia and atelectasis.

What is the most common and life-threatening metabolic abnormality in a cat with a urethral obstruction?

Hyperkalemia. A high potassium level is life-threatening. The majority of potassium is excreted in the urine. When the cat is unable to urinate, potassium builds up in the bloodstream and can cause serious metabolic consequences. Although the BUN and creatinine are often high, they are usually elevated from pre-renal (dehydration) causes and post-renal (obstruction) causes and will normalize after fluid therapy.

What clinical signs are associated with infection with Clostridium tetani in the horse?

Hypersensitivity to sound and touch characterized by signs such as muscle spasms (stiff gait) and protrusion of the third eyelid. Clostridium tetani causes muscle spasms as a result of the organism producing toxins that block normal inhibitory neurons. Classic clinical signs include hypersensitivity to sound and touch resulting in muscle rigidity (lockjaw) and protrusion of the third eyelid.

Phenylpropanolamine is used to treat urinary incontinence in dogs. It can commonly cause which side effect that should be discussed with the owner?

Hypertension.

The patient is in shock. Which symptom would not be expected?

Hypertension. Tachycardia, prolonged CRT, and pale MM are reflective of initial and crashing stages of shock.

Which of the following would not cause pale mucus membranes?

Hyperthermia. Hyperthermia would most likely cause bright red mucus membranes. Stress causing vasoconstriction, anemia, and hypotension can all cause pale mucus membranes.

Which of the following would be the least desirable fluid to administer to a patient in hypovolemic shock?

Hypertonic saline. It increases plasma volume, but at the expense of tissues; tissues are most important in shock.

Hyperthyroidism in acts can be associated with which condition?

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a thickening of the heart muscle (myocardium) and is often associated with hyperthyroidism or hypertension.

Hyperthyroidism in cats can be associated with which condition?

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a thickening of the heart muscle (myocardium) and is often associated with hyperthyroidism or hypertension.

Which of the following is not a condition of the skin?

Hyphema. This means blood in the eye. Alopecia, seborrhea, and sarcoptic mange are all conditions of the skin.

Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with what endocrine disorder?

Hypoadrenocorticism. AKA Addison's disease.

A bird that is laying eggs with thin soft shells likely has:

Hypocalcemia. Calcium is necessary to construct a rigid egg shell. If the laying bird is hypocalcemic then not enough calcium will be deposited into the shell, resulting in a soft egg. Giardia is a parasitic disease that does not result in soft eggs and usually affects the gastrointestinal tract. Anemia is a decrease in hematocrit below normal levels which may result in pallor and weakness. There are many possible causes for anemia. Psittacosis is caused by a type of chlamydia bacteria which causes a combination of weakness, ocular discharge, respiratory illness and gastrointestinal disease.

A Yorkshire Terrier who has given birth 2 weeks ago presents with a history of tremoring. She is febrile and not eating well. On her electrolyte panel which of the following would you expect to see?

Hypocalcemia. Eclampsia, also known as "milk fever" is caused by a low calcium level. It most often occurs around 3 weeks after whelping due to losing calcium in the milk and the inability of the body to keep up with demand. It is most common in small-breed dogs with larger litters. It is treated with calcium gluconate IV in an acute crisis and oral supplementation is then required. Milk fever is also seen more commonly in dairy cows that are close to calving. It typically causes a LOW temperature and often causes staggering and recumbency. It can also cause tremors and dilated pupils. It is also treated with injectable calcium. When cows are dry (not lactating), they should be kept on a LOW calcium diet so that calcium can be mobilized more rapidly from the bone when it is needed during calving and lactation.

When looking under the microscope at a blood sample of a patient with iron deficiency, which of the following terms describes what you would most likely see?

Hypochromasia. Hypochromasia means lack of color or diminished color in the red blood cell. Iron is important in the formation of hemoglobin, and hemoglobin is responsible for the majority of color in the RBC. Therefore, a lack of iron would result in a pale red blood cell (hypochromasia). Hypovolemia is lack of volume of blood in the body. Hyperchromasia is inhanced or increased color in the red blood cells. Hyponatremia is low blood sodium.

A farmer brings a one-half inch grub to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. What is the name of the parasite?

Hypoderma bovis. This is a cattle warble called Hypoderma. The 2 species are H. bovis and H. lineatum. They undergo a long migration in tissues and only emerge from the back of the animal in spring. The crucial treatment time is early fall when larvae are just beginning to migrate in tissues. Organophosphates or one of the macrocyclic lactones (ivermectin, doramectin, eprinomectin or moxidectin) are effective.

The ultrasound term that refers to few echoes detected, and the area is a low-level gray compared with the surrounding tissue is:

Hypoechoic. The statement mentions few echoes (low echoes), thus hypo-.

You are working at an emergency practice and a woman brings in her ferret "Macy" who is obtunded. The ferret is very weak and appears neurologic. The veterinarian suspects an insulinoma, which is the third most common tumor in the ferret. If this is the case, what laboratory finding would you expect?

Hypoglycemia. An insulinoma is a tumor on the pancreas. The tumor causes the pancreas to secrete excess insulin. Insulin causes the blood sugar to decrease. A low blood sugar is called hypoglycemia. This can lead to neurologic symptoms and extreme weakness seen in this patient. Ketones in the urine would be more common in a chronic diabetic (hyperglycemic) patient. Hypokalemia is a low potassium and can cause extreme weakness and ventroflexion of the neck.

Bacterial sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?

Hypoglycemia. Decreased glycogen stores, impaired gluconeogenesis, and increased utilization of peripheral glucose may all contribute to this finding.

A Boston terrier puppy presents lethargic and minimally responsive at your clinic. The owner says he hasn't been eating very well; his gums are a little pale, temperature is 99.1 F. What is the likely cause of his acute symptoms?

Hypoglycemia. When a young puppy or kitten presents lethargic and minimally responsive, or has symptoms of weakness or pale gums, hypoglycemia should be at the top of your list of suspected afflictions. You should draw a blood sample to check the glucose level, and be ready to administer dextrose when the veterinarian gives the order. Parvovirus and intestinal parasites can also cause hypoglycemia (what he is acutely presenting for), so additional diagnostics will be necessary to determine the underlying cause of this puppy's problem.

An owner called and said that her dog ate a pack of surgarless gum containing xylitol. You tell her to bring her dog in right away. Which of the following could this cause?

Hypoglycemia. Xylitol is a sugar alcohol found in many sugarless candies, sweets, and gum. Xylitol toxicity can be life-threatening. Dogs that ingest doses of >0.1 g/kg of xylitol are at risk for developing hypoglycemia, while dogs that ingest >0.5 g/kg may develop acute liver failure. Supportive care and dextrose for treatment of hypoglycemia are indicated.

What is a potential electrolyte imbalance that can occur as a result of administering a loop diuretic to a small animal?

Hypokalemia. Loop diuretics such as furosemide are potassium wasting; hyponatremia is also possible.

Which electrolyte abnormality is known to cause ventroflexion of the neck and extreme weakness?

Hypokalemia. Or low potassium can result from various metabolic and endocrine disorders. It causes muscle weakness and can cause cervical ventroflexion. Hypokalemic myopathy has been linked with chronic kidney disease and excessive potassium loss (especially in cats). Hypokalemia can also result from osmotic diuresis, correction of acidosis, or insulin-mediated cell uptake that is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis therapy. Some medications can also contribute to hypokalemia, such as furosemide, which causes excess potassium loss in the urine. Other causes include inadequate potassium intake in the diet, gastrointestinal loss, and hereditary causes; also it is often seen in cases of hepatic lipidosis.

What is the most frequently observed side effect associated with acepromazine use in geldings?

Hypotension. Acepromazine may also cause paraphimosis in male horses, but this is uncommon. However, due to the risk of paraphimosis, many veterinarians will not use acepromazine on stallions.

A 5-year-old female spayed Shih Tzu presents to your emergency hospital with a several-day history of vomiting and diarrhea. On presentation, she is dehydrated with pale and dry mucous membranes and a prolonged capillary refill time. Her heart rate is 220 bpm, and she has weak femoral pulses. What type of shock is she in?

Hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a critical reduction in intravascular volume (severe dehydration, hemorrhage, third-space loss). The decrease in intravascular volume (preload) results in a decrease in stroke volume and subsequently cardiac output, which will eventually result in decreased tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Cardiogenic shock is the result of a decrease in myocardial contractility with subsequent decrease in oxygen delivery. It is always associated with primary heart disease. Distributive or vasogenic shock is typically secondary to sepsis and anaphylactic reaction, causing vasodilatation.

During calving, the rupture of the umbilical cord before birth causes which of the following?

Hypoxia in the calf. Hypoxia is inadequate tissue oxygenation. The umbilical cord supplies oxygen from the mother's blood to the calf, therefore, if the umbilical cord ruptures, the calf will not receive oxygen and it is a life threatening emergency. Hyperemia is the increase of blood flow to different tissues in the body. Sepsis is caused by infection and does not result from a ruptured umbilical cord.

What is the causative agent of what is commonly known as "ich" in fish?

Ichthyophthirius multifilis. This is a protozoan ectoparasite.

Which of these immunoglobulins is found on mucous membranes and is stimulated by intranasal vaccines?

IgA.

What immunoglobulin is the only one to pass through the human placenta, thereby providing protection to the fetus in utero?

IgG. Antibodies come in different varieties and differ in their biological properties, functional locations, and ability to deal with different antigens. IgG is the only class of antibody to cross the placenta from mother to fetus; it is also the most abundant of all antibodies.

Which of the following is not considered part of the large intestine?

Ileum. The cecum, colon, and rectum are all part of the large intestine. The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum are all part of the small intestine.

The bisecting angle principle of dental radiography states that the plane of an X-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the:

Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane. The line is made by bisecting the angle between the tooth and the film. The purpose of this procedure is to minimize distortion caused by elongation and foreshortening.

A left shift refers to increased numbers of:

Immature neutrophils.

Spherocytes may be seen on a blood smear from a dog suffering from:

Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA). Scistocytes (RBC fragments) can be seen in DIC. Echinocytes can be seen in snake-bite toxicity. Monohydrate calcium oxalate crystals can be seen in urine sediment in antifreeze poisoning.

Colostrum provides passive immunity to the neonate because it is rich in which of the following?

Immunoglobulins. Immunoglobulins are antibodies that are essential to the neonate to protect against infections.

What causes Metabolic Bone Disease (MBD) in tortoises?

Improper calcium/phosphorus ratio. If the dietary calcium is too low, it will cause malformation and softening of bones with deformed shells (called pyramiding). Typical tortoise diets are low in calcium and high in phosphorus, hence the need for most tortoises to receive a calcium supplement. Too much calcium or over-supplementation may cause zinc, copper, and iodine deficiency, and could lead to bladder stones. If the temperature is too low, it will hinder the ability to digest food properly. UVB light or natural sunlight is needed to absorb and metabolize calcium. There are other factors that contribute to MBD, but improper care and diet are the main factors.

A New Caledonian Giant Gecko (Rhacodactylus leachianus) is suffering from dysecdysis. What is the major cause of this abnormality in captivity?

Improper humidity. Especially in climates with very low ambient humidity, reptiles kept in an improper humidity range will often have difficulties with normal ecdysis. Owners may need to provide a "humidity box" to give these animals an area with increased humidity to help with shedding. Excessive dietary phosphorus supplementation may sometimes cause excessive bone formation or renal mineralization, but rarely is a direct cause of dysecdysis. Improper UVB lighting may affect normal calcium metabolism but does not directly relate to normal shedding. Signs of hypervitaminosis A include epidermal necrosis and sloughing. Generally, there are other skin lesions present in addition to dysecdysis (if present).

A dog presents with weakness, depression, polyuria, polydipsia, and dilute urine. X-rays reveal a mediastinal mass. Where is the mediastinum located?

In the chest. The mediastinum is the central compartment of the chest. It is located between the right and left pleura and extends from the sternum to the vertebral column. It contains all the thoracic organs except the lungs.

Where is the thymus located?

In the cranial mediastinum in the chest. The thymus is an immune organ located in the mediastinum. It extends from the thoracic inlet to the pericardium upon which it is molded. The thyroid gland is located in the ventral neck region. The adrenal glands are located just above the kidneys. The hypothalamus is located in the brain.

In the typical life cycle of the flea (i.e. Ctenocephalides felis), where does the larva pupate and form into the adult flea?

In the environment (off of the host). In the flea life cycle, the adult female feeds, mates, and lays eggs on the host, but the eggs are smooth and usually fall off into the environment, often where the host typically lies down. After several days to weeks, the eggs hatch into larvae that feed on skin debris or other organic matter in the environment and then create a cocoon and pupate. The pupa then develops over 10 days or can remain in the environment considerably longer before emerging as an adult flea. This fact is important because this is why treating the host for fleas is not enough to eradicate a flea problem, as the environment is frequently contaminated and can re-infest the host after treatment.

What does the word anhidrosis mean?

Inability to sweat. The cause is unknown, but some horses lack the ability to sweat. Keep horses with anhidrosis as cool as possible during hot or humid weather. Use of mist, sponging, fans, shade or stall rest can be helpful during exposure to heat.

You pull a 6 year old film out of a folder to compare to radiographs that you took today. The old film appears to have yellow-brown staining. What is the likely cause of this?

Incomplete washing of the film. Yellow-brown staining over time is the result of incomplete removal of chemicals (usually from the fixer) during the final washing step in film development. A film that is not dried completely commonly has artifacts around the edges of the film.

Choose the answer choice with three methods to INCREASE radiographic density (blackness of film).

Increase energy of X-rays; increase the number of photons; decrease distance from source to film.

Which of the following is expected from a positive inotropic drug?

Increase in cardiac contractility. Positive inotropes mostly work by making more calcium available to the muscle and thus increase cardiac contractility. Digoxin is a positive inotrope and acts by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump of the cells. Toxicity can cause arrhythmias and a slow heart rate. It should be avoided or used with extreme caution in patients with renal disease or hypokalemia because it increases the risk of toxicosis.

Which of the following can be easily changed by a technician to increase the amount of exposure on a radiograph without affecting the amount of contrast?

Increase milliamperage. The settings that affect exposure without changing contrast are milliamperage and exposure time. Increasing either will increase the exposure of the film. Changing kilovoltage changes the amount of contrast (higher kVp gives less contrast, more latitude and lower kVp gives greater contrast but less latitude). Decreasing field size will decrease the amount of scatter and may improve image quality but it will not increase exposure to the film.

The primary reason that vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetics is to:

Increase the duration of action.

What is the advantage of using a narcotic as a premedication?

Increased analgesia.

You draw blood on a 5-year-old female spayed Schnauzer. When you spin down the blood, the serum looks milky. What causes this?

Increased blood lipids. Elevated blood lipids or fats cause a milky or white appearance to the serum. It can be seen most commonly in pets that are not fasted or pets with a predisposition for hyperlipidemia (such as Schnauzers).

Which of the following does not increase radiographic density?

Increased distance from target.

Which of the following is characteristic of an animal in shock?

Increased heart rate. Typical signs of shock in general are pale gums, increased heart rate, and low blood pressure. Frequently, body temperature is low; however in septic shock, the temperature can be high and the gums brick red in color.

What is meant by a "left shift" when describing a complete blood count?

Increased numbers of immature neutrophils in the blood. A left shift refers to an increase in the number of immature neutrophils, usually bands, in the blood. This occurs when the bone marrow is increasing neutrophil production in response to inflammatory signals.

Increased duration or intensity of intraoperative pain is often evidenced by:

Increased respiratory rate.

Which of the following delays wound healing?

Infection. Bacteria and inflammation from infection cause direct cellular damage. This can cause separation of tissues, which leads to infection and delays healing time. Granulation tissue is a normal part of healing unless it becomes exuberant. Other factors which delay healing include corticosteroid administration or immunosuppression, poor blood supply, and hypoproteinemia.

A dog has a high fever, is lethargic, and is diagnosed with peritonitis. What does this dog have?

Inflammation of the internal abdominal lining. The peritoneum is a membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. It also covers most of the abdominal organs. The peritoneum helps support the organs and helps to facilitate blood and lymph flow to these organs. Peritonitis is inflammation ("it is") of the peritoneum. The most common causes of peritonitis include infection (such as a leak in the GI tract or a ruptured gall bladder). In cats, FIP causes a viral peritonitis. Fluid in the pericardial sac is termed pericardial effusion. The pleura is the tissue that protects the lungs.

The clinical condition of "founder" in the horse refers to what?

Inflammation of the laminae of the equine hoof and subsequent rotation of the third phalanx. Founder, also known as laminitis, is a severe and debilitating disease of the equine hoof that results from inflammation of the interdigitations (laminae) between the hoof and the 3rd phalanx, causing rotation of the bone.

In cattle, an increase in fibrinogen relative to the other plasma proteins is most likely to be due to:

Inflammation.

The analgesic effects of NSAIDs occur mainly because of their ability to:

Inhibit the production of prostaglandins.

The best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is:

Inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube. This method should prevent overinflation and tracheal necrosis.

A 2-year old dachshund presents with acute urticaria and facial swelling. Which of the following would be a most likely cause for this presentation?

Insect sting. These patient should be assessed and treated for an allergic reaction, which most often includes administration of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and dexamethasone. Epinephrine may be used in cases of anaphylaxis when the patient is collapsed in a state of shock.

Which of the following is most appropriate when placing a urinary catheter in a dog or cat?

Insert the catheter until urine flows, then advance 1 cm further and secure. A sterile urinary catheter should always be used and coated in sterile lube. Sterile gloves should also be worn. Contaminants around the prepuce should be cleaned away with a gentle scrub. The catheter should be advanced until urine flows then 1 additional centimeter before securing in place. Placing the catheter until resistance is met can cause damage or irritation to the bladder wall, as well as cause bleeding, and can cause the catheter to loop back on itself.

Which of the following statements is true regarding radiography of the vertebrae?

Intervertebral disc spaces appear wider toward the center of the film and narrower towards the end of the film. Due to divergence of the x-ray beam, intervertebral disc spaces will appear wider toward the center of the film and narrower towards the end of the film. This must be taken into account when evaluating the disc space on a vertebral film. A myelogram is useful for assessing the presence of spinal cord compression but does not improve the evaluation of intervertebral disc spaces. Intervertebral discs are much less dense than the bones unless they are abnormally mineralized.

You have a small canine patient in cardiac arrest that needs emergency drugs. The animal does not have venous access, and placing a venous catheter would be too difficult and take too long. What is the best way to get the drugs to this animal quickly?

Intraosseous catheter. An intraosseous catheter or spinal needle can easily be placed in the trochanteric fossa of the femur for vascular access. The marrow has a similar rate of absorption as venous catheters allowing for quick delivery of drugs and fluids. Intracardiac injection presents high potential hazards such as inducing fibrillation and pneumothorax. Subcutaneous injections are very slowly absorbed and would not be a good option for this patient. Intramuscular injection would not be effective because of the length of time the drugs would require to reach circulation.

A very tiny kitten presents with severe dehydration and is hardly responsive to handling. You are unable to place a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following routes could be used as a fast or most efficient way of administering fluids and medications to such a small animal?

Intraosseus. This can be very beneficial and life saving in a tiny animal with poor peripheral veins when a catheter cannot be placed. Intraperitoneal, orogastric, and subcutaneous routes all have slow absorption rates.

Parenteral administration of phenylbutazone should only be via:

Intravenous injection. Very irritating to tissues; can cause swelling to necrosis and sloughing.

Which of the following routes of administration would give a drug the highest bioavailability?

Intravenous. Absorption of a drug is the movement of the drug from the site of administration into the systemic circulation. The route of administration directly affects how bioavailable the drug is. When a drug is given IV (intravenous), there is no absorption phase because it is injected directly into the systemic circulation. So drugs given IV have 100% bioavailability. Drugs given intramuscularly (IM) have a high bioavailability as well, but not as high as the IV route. Drugs given subcutaneously (SQ) and orally (PO) must pass several barriers and thus will usually have a lower bioavailability.

How is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administered?

Intravenous. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is feeding exclusively intravenously, by passing the GI tract. It is very useful in cases when animals are unable to eat or will not eat for an extended time period.

A 6-month old puppy has presented to the hospital with a history of severe straining to defecate. A fecal float identifies a sever parasitic infection. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, and the doctor identified that one of the loops of intestine was telescoping into another segment of intestine. What is this called?

Intussusception. This question is describing an envagination of intestine into an adjacent segment of intestine. The part which prolapses into the other is called the intussusceptum, and the part which receives it is called the intussuscipiens. Evisceration refers to the removal of organs from body, usually from the abdomen. A hydrometra is the word used to describe fluid in the uterus. If the uterus were filled with pus, it would be referred to as a pyometra. Strangulation of a loop of intestine results in a point of constriction which then impedes circulation.

What three parts make up the uveal tract in the eye?

Iris, choroid, ciliary body. It is the middle layer of the eye. The uvea provides most of the blood supply to the retina. Uveitis is inflammation of this part of the eye.

Which toxicity is not a common concern in cattle?

Iron toxicity. Iron toxicity is most common in newborn pigs. Aspergillus toxicosis is caused by moldy feed. Salt toxicity is caused by consumption of excessive salt and lack of adequate amounts of water. Lead toxicity is associated with seeding and harvesting activities when used oil and battery disposal from machinery is handled improperly.

Which nutrient must piglets be supplemented with?

Iron. Sow's milk does not contain iron. This must be supplemented to prevent anemia in piglets.

Your dog's histopathology results have arrived and show an adenoma. What is true about an adenoma?

Is not malignant. Benign tumors are not cancerous. There are many large benign tumors that are difficult to remove or are inoperable that can cause the patient serous morbidity. Just because a lesion is not cancerous does not mean that it will not be large or problematic for the pet.

Which gas anesthesia demands the greatest degree of patient monitoring because anesthetic depth changes occur most rapidly?

Isoflurane. Isoflurane has the lowest solubility coefficient; therefore, it has the faster speed of induction and recovery.

Which solution is contraindicated as a surgical prep if electrocautery is being used during the procedure?

Isopropyl alcohol.

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a Robert Jones bandage?

It can be used in a dog femur fracture. The Robert Jones bandage technique is not appropriate for fractures of the femur or humerus. It is most commonly used for temporary immobilization of fractures distal to the elbow or stifle. It requires tape stirrups to decrease the chance of the bandage slipping. The bandage can include the toes, however sometimes the tips of the middle digits are left unwrapped so that the limb can be monitored for swelling. This bandage requires a very large amount of cast padding.

A dog is hit by a car and presents in a Schiff-Sherrington posture. Which is true regarding this condition?

It causes paralysis of the hindlimbs. The Schiff-Sherrington response is an autonomic reflex that is seen when the animal is in lateral recumbency (lying on its side). The propriospinal tract in the T3 and L3 spinal cord is damaged in this condition, and the forelimbs exhibit extensor hypertonicity (they are stiff). The forelimbs are not paralyzed but, when left alone, will extend. Also, paralysis caudal to the lesion is often seen (hindlimbs are paralyzed). If both forelimb extensor hypertonicity and hindlimb paralysis are seen, it is generally due to a very severe spinal cord injury described as causing Schiff-Sherrington posture.

Which of the following is true of aspirin?

It decreases platelet clumping and thus reduces risk of clot formation. Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation and so reduces risk of clot formation. Because of this, it can also increase bleeding risk. Although cats are very sensitive to the effects of aspirin, it is sometimes used when treating certain types of heart disease. It should be used with caution, since cats cannot metabolize aspirin as quickly as dogs can, and owners should be advised to never give their cat aspirin.

Which is NOT true of cytology?

It evaluates tissue architecture. Tissue architecture is studied via histopathology. Cytology is only the study of a smaller number of cells, not intact tissue.

Which of the following is true of tungsten, making it an ideal material for the filament and target of an x-ray machine?

It has a very high melting point. Tungsten has a very high melting point (greater than 3,000 C). It has a high atomic number (74), making it a relatively more efficient target for producing electrons. It also has many electrons, which makes it more efficient at producing an electron cloud at the cathode (filament) via a process called thermionic emission. Despite being relatively efficient at producing x-rays, the process itself is still very inefficient, with more than 99% of the energy generated being converted to heat rather than x-rays. Therefore, the tungsten target is often embedded in copper (a good conductor of heat). Tungsten by itself is a poor heat conductor.

Why should an NSAID and a corticosteroid never be given together?

It increases risk of serious GI ulceration. Giving an NSAID and steroid together puts an animal at a very high risk for an ulcer which could perforate. This is when a hole is created in the intestine and intestinal contents leak into the abdomen, causing peritonitis. This is a very severe condition which can lead to death.

Which of the following correctly describes a "surgeon's knot" which may be used to close tissue where tension makes it difficult to apply a regular square knot?

It involves passing one strand through the loop twice on the first throw. A surgeon's knot is produced by passing one strand through the loop twice on the first throw of a square knot. It is for closure of tissues where tension on the tissues makes it difficult to apply a regular square knot. A surgeons knot can be used with many different suture patterns including interrupted sutures or the first or last knot of a continuous pattern. It can also be used with inverting or everting patterns, but the knot itself does not cause inversion or eversion. A half-hitch is a different type of knot that can be used to slide a knot down a suture line (i.e. toward a pedicle).

The doctor hands you a written prescription for spironolactone and asks you to give it to a client while they are checking out. The client asks you to remind her what this medication is for again, and you reply that:

It is a diuretic for her pet's congestive heart failure. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist and a potassium sparing diuretic used as an adjunctive treatment for heart failure. If furosemide is not enough to control the pulmonary edema, sometimes spironolactone is added on as an additional diuretic to keep fluid out of the lungs.

What is the cause of hip dysplasia?

It is a multifactorial disease. Many things such as genetics, environment, nutrition, and breed conformation play a role in the disease. Therefore, the treatment is often multi-modal. This may include an exercise plan, special diet, supplements for cartilage protection, anti-inflammatories, surgery, and/or other treatments.

Which is true of "red bag" during birth in the mare?

It is a protrusion of the chorioallantois and is an emergency. Red bag is a protrusion of the chorioallantois and indicates premature placental separation. It is an emergency situation in which the chorioallantois needs to be broken down manually to assist in delivery of the foal, or death of the foal can occur.

Which is true regarding epinephrine?

It is a sympathomimetic. A sympathomimetic mimics the sympathetic nervous system. Epinephrine is also "adrenaline", this stimulates the fight-or-flight response. When adrenaline spikes, heart rate increases, blood pressure jumps, etc. It may cause an increase in the blood sugar (hyperglycemia).

It is advisable to turn the anesthetized patient from side to side during the recovery period of anesthesia. Concerning this, which statement is least accurate?

It is advisable to turn all animals dorsally, rather then sternally, to prevent gastric torsion. Particularly in deep-chested dogs.

Which of the following is NOT true concerning a penrose drain?

It is also referred to as a closed suction drain. The penrose drain is a passive drain composed of soft, thin-walled latex. The drain is placed so that the fluid within the site will drain around the outside of the drain, not through it. A closed suction drain is an active drain that sucks fluid from the wound site into a reservoir bulb.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the presence of crystals in a dog or cat urine sample?

It is usually normal. Crystalluria is typically a normal finding. However, it is important for the technician to be able to identify the different types of crystals found in urine as some may be indicative of disease. An example of this is the finding of ammonium biurate crystals in small breed dogs. Finding this crystal is highly suggestive of a congenital portosystemic shunt.

Which of the following is true of the liver?

It makes and store glucose. Glucose comes from liver production and from the GI tract when food is absorbed. The liver helps to break down fats, converts glucose to glycogen, produces urea (the main substance of urine), makes some amino acids, filters harmful substances from the blood, stores vitamins and minerals (vitamins A, D, K, and B12) and maintains a proper level of glucose in the blood. The liver also produces cholesterol, albumin, bile, and coagulation factors. Amylase comes from the pancreas and also from saliva. The main sources of ALP are the liver and bone, but smaller amounts can be found in the intestine and kidney. Liver cells can regenerate.

Which statement concerning use of IV anesthesia in large animals is least accurate?

It requires use of a preanesthetic for sedation and a barbiturate. Intravenous anesthesia alone (sedative plus a short-acting barbiturate) may not completely immobilize large animals and should not be used for procedures that require such control of movement.

Which statement regarding first-intention wound healing is false?

It usually has some degree of suppuration. First intention wound healing occurs with no infection or suppuration (pus formation).

If a region of the film does not come into contact with developer but does run through fixer and the rest of the processing steps, what will this region look like?

It will be clear. Films go into the developer first, reducing exposed silver halide into elemental metallic silver, which is black. If a region of the film does not touch the developer, there will be no black on the film even if it was exposed. The remaining crystals would be converted into a soluble form in the fixer solution, dissolving away and leaving a clear image.

You find Otodectes cynotis in an ear swab you prepared for a kitten that has been scratching her ears and has dark coffee ground looking debris in them. What could be used to treat this?

Ivermectin. Ivermectin 0.01% can be applied topically to the ears to treat ear mites. Fluconazole is an anti-fungal that would be effective against Malassezia (yeast). Clavamox would be beneficial for a bacterial ear infection. Albon is used to treat coccidia (an intestinal parasite).

What is the name of the tick that is primary vector for transmitting the bacteria which causes Lyme Disease?

Ixodes scapularis. Lyme Disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi (a spirochete bacteria) and is transmitted by Ixodes (Deer Tick). It may cause fatigue, lameness, decreased appetite, and depression. The pet may not show symptoms until months after infection. Rhipicephalus (Brown Dog Tick) transmits Ehrlichia canis and prefers warmer climates. Dermacentor variabilis (American Dog Tick) and Dermacentor andersoni (Rocky Mountain Wood Tick) are known for transmitting Rickettsia rickettsia, which causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Amblyomma (Lone Star Tick) transmits Ehrlichia chaffeensis, which causes Human Monocytic Ehrlichiosis. It has also been implicated in other diseases.

Of the choices, which tick is correctly matched with the corresponding disease transmitted?

Ixodes, Lyme disease. Rhiphacephalus - Brown dog tick. Ehrlichia Ixodes - Deer tick. Lyme disease - Borrelia burgdorferi.

When performing orthopedic surgery, it is sometimes necessary to advance a pin into the medullary canal of a bone. Which of the following instruments should the surgeon be provided to advance a pin?

Jacobs chuck. A chuck key is used to tighten the Jacobs chuck around the pin. Once the pin is secured, a back-and-forth twisting motion at the wrist is used to drive the pin through the medullary canal of bone. An osteotome is the orthopedic version of a chisel. A mallet is the orthopedic version of a hammer. A periosteal Freer elevator is used to elevate muscle and periosteum off the bone.

You are asked to assist the doctor with an intra-articular injection. Where will the injection be given?

Joint. Articular means joint. An intra-articular injection is given into the joint space. Jugular would be intra-venous. Bone would be intra-osseous. Under the skin would be subcutaneous.

An 8-year old cat suffering from intestinal lymphoma has been prescribed TPN. Which of the following is necessary for the administration of TPN?

Jugular catheter. TPN stands for total parenteral nutrition. TPN solutions contain 10% (or greater) dextrose and must be given in a central catheter to avoid phlebitis. TPN solutions cannot be administered through peripheral catheters. Medications should never be injected into A-lines.

What is the most common location of an intravenous catheter in the horse?

Jugular vein. The jugular vein is very accessible and carries a low risk of injury to the person placing the catheter when compared to trying to place a catheter on a limb. Jugular veins are large and easy to find along the neck of the horse as well as easy to maintain.

When assisting with a forelimb declaw, it is helpful to place a tourniquet to help control hemorrhage. Where should the tourniquet be placed?

Just distal to the elbow. The optimal placement of the tourniquet is just below or distal to the elbow. Placing the tourniquet above the elbow can result in damage to the radial nerve, which will result in an inability for the patient to use the limb if the damage is permanent. Placing the tourniquet around the digit is unpractical and cumbersome.

Which of the following is an appropriate thing to do for a horse that is diagnosed with tetanus?

Kept in a dark stable with extra padding. Horses with tetanus are light sensitive and are sensitive to loud noises and handling. It is best to keep affected horses in a dark, quiet, padded stall.

Vomiting is contraindicated in patients that have ingested:

Kerosene. Kerosene is corrosive and will burn on the way back up; charcoal coating to stimulate passing would be the best answer.

Which of the following drugs can induce muscle rigidity, or a cataleptic state, during anesthesia?

Ketamine. Catalepsy can be caused by ketamine and morphine. Ketamine (a dissociative anesthetic) is usually given along with diazepam (Valium) to counteract the muscle rigidity it causes. Ketamine can also result in increased intracranial pressure. Diazepam causes muscle relaxation. Acepromazine is a phenothiazine tranquilizer. Propofol is an anesthetic induction agent that is a hypnotic and does not cause catalepsy.

Which drug of choice is a dissociative anesthetic and used for anesthetic induction and analgesia in veterinary medicine?

Ketamine. It is an NMDA receptor antagonist and also binds to opioid receptors, which provides analgesic effect. It is often given simultaneously with diazepam for anesthetic inductions.

Urine often has a sweet odor if which of the following is present?

Ketones.

Which of the following is an abnormal finding in a free catch of urine in a dog?

Ketones. The observance of ketones is always abnormal. This suggests that the patient is diabetic and is unable to take glucose out of the blood stream and into cells for metabolism. In rare cases, starvation can cause mild ketonuria in a patient that does not have diabetes. The presence of bacteria in a free catch is always a possibility, as a free catch of urine is never sterile. Bilirubin and calcium oxalate crystals are normal findings in a sample of urine.

The presence of protein in the urine may indicate:

Kidney disease. In renal disease and failure, excessive amounts of protein enter the glomerulus and are not re-absorbed, but are filtered into the urine showing increased levels on a stick.

An owner has an elderly cat that has developed significant arthritis. She previously used meloxicam (Metacam) for her dog when he had arthritis. She would like to know if the doctor may prescribe the same medication for her cat. The use of metacam in cats, especially if used beyond a few days, has been known to cause which of the following complications?

Kidney failure. Even though it is still sometimes used post-operatively for a very brief period, risks should be discussed with the owner. For a cat such as this with arthritis, meloxicam is not a good choice for treatment. Any non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication can cause GI ulceration, but renal failure is the most concerning side effect in cats.

Erythropoetin (EPO) is a glycoprotein hormone produced mainly by the:

Kidney. EPO is produced mainly by peritubular fibroblasts of the renal cortex. It is a cytokine for red blood cell precursors in the bone marrow. This is partly why animals with chronic renal failure become anemic. The kidneys are no longer able to make EPO efficiently.

Amphotericin B is often used in cases of resistant fungal infections, such as occurs with diseases like Coccidioides immitis. This medication is known for the potential to cause severe damage to which organ?

Kidneys.

Amphotericin B is often used in cases of resistant fungal infection, such as occurs with diseases like coccidiodes immitis. This medication is known for the potential to cause severe damage to which organs?

Kidneys. Renal parameters must be followed closely in animals that are receiving amphotericin B injections.

When placing an epidural in a dog or cat, the spinal needle is inserted into the space located between which two vertebrae?

L7, S1.

Hypocalcemia is commonly seen in:

Lactating animals.

The term that is used to describe the removal of the dorsal, bony roof of the spinal canal is:

Laminectomy.

A horse with extended forelimbs and arched and tense back that is painful when turning most likely has which of the following conditions?

Laminitis. AKA founder, is a very painful condition in which the lamina in the hoof becomes inflamed. The horse tries to compensate for this pain and postures with an arched back and extended forelimbs in an attempt to take weight off the toes. It is especially painful for the horse when walking or turning on hard surfaces.

Where is the most recommended area to administer a subcutaneous injection in a horse?

Lateral aspect of the neck. This is due to the ease of drainage if a problem occurs secondary to the injection. Horses are known to commonly have reactions to injections. If an abscess forms, the area on the neck is easiest to drain.

Castration is a common procedure performed in horses. How is a horse commonly positioned for the procedure?

Lateral recumbency with upper rear leg tied around the neck. The most common position for a horse castration is lateral recumbency with the upper rear leg tied around the neck. It is extremely important to confirm that both testicles are descended prior to heavily sedating the patient for the procedure.

A toggle-pin fixation for a luxating hip is going to be performed this afternoon. How will the patient be ultimately positioned for this surgery after it is surgically prepped?

Lateral recumbency. A toggle-pin fixation is performed to reduce a luxated hip. This is the most common surgical procedure performed for repair of a luxated hip. The approach is made with a curvilinear incision over the lateral aspect of the coxofemoral joint; it is therefore best to have the patient in lateral recumbency. A hanging leg technique would be performed to aseptically prep the limb prior to surgery, but the limb would not remain in that position for the duration of the surgery and is therefore not the best answer choice.

Basophilic stippling of RBCs is a characteristic finding in:

Lead poisoning in dogs.

Basophilic stippling may be seen in erythrocytes of patients with which of the following pathologic conditions?

Lead poisoning.

You are at a ranch property and are asked by the vet to tie a horse to a fence. How should the rope be tied?

Leave 3 feet of slack and tie the rope level with the top of the horse's back. Tie the rope level with the horse's back or withers (shoulder blade region) and leave approximately 3 feet of slack. Leaving more slack in the rope or tying the rope too low could increase the chances of the horse getting tangled up or injured.

A 3-year old female cow presents with a decreased appetite, decreased manure production, and decreased milk production. She calved three weeks ago and has been less active than normal. You auscultate the GI tract and elicit a pinging noise on the left side of the abdomen. Which of the following emergencies is most likely to be occurring?

Left displaced abomasum. Symptoms of the left displaced abomasum include decreased appetite, activity, manure production, and milk production. Eliciting a pinging noise while flicking the abdominal area is an indication of a displaced abomasum. Because the pinging was found on the left, it is most likely a left displaced abomasum. Even though you would not be expected to make a diagnosis, knowledge of this common condition is helpful and may show up on the VTNE.

Which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs?

Left jugular vein. The phrenic nerve is located near the left exterior jugular vein, so the left side of the neck in general should be avoided in pigs. The right anterior vena cava is a commonly used site to draw blood from pigs. The auricular vein can be used to draw up to 5 ml of blood. The tail vein and the orbital sinus near the medial canthus of the eye are other sites that can be used to draw small quantities of blood in the pig.

A cataract is an opaque protein deposit on which structure?

Lens. It is an opacification or clouding of the lens.

What structure in the eye is responsible for focus?

Lens. The lens helps to refract light to be focused on the retina. By changing its shape, it changes the focal distance. The lens is a transparent biconvex disc located in the anterior chamber of the eye. The iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye by controlling the pupil size. The iris is the colored part of the eye. The retina contains photoreceptors (rods and cones) and is the location of the optic nerve. The sclera is a fibrous tunic and is the white part of the eye. The cornea is transparent and covers the front part of the eye. It also helps to refract light.

Cattle are commonly vaccinated against which of the following zoonotic diseases, which can be spread by the urine of deer and rats?

Leptospirosis.

A dog is lying in left lateral recumbency for a pelvis radiograph, the right femur will be:

Less magnified because of increased OFD. Right femur is upper leg in left lateral recumbency and closer to the primary beam; thus farther away from the film; therefore, it would be more magnified than the left leg. FFD is focal film distance; only affected when moving tube or cassette to table top.

The buffy coat in a spun hematocrit tube consists of:

Leukocytes and platelets. The buffy coat always has a few platelets because the sample is drawn into a heparinized syringe or is placed in a microhematocrit tube with heparin.

When performing a lameness examination in a horse, perineural anesthesia is used to localize the site of lameness. The most common medication used to perform perineural anesthesia in a horse is what drug?

Lidocaine.

A dog is having continuous runs of ventricular premature contractions following splenectomy and they seem to be happening with greater frequency. Which of the following drugs can be used to treat this condition?

Lidocaine. Ventricular premature complexes (VPCs) are the most common arrhythmia after GDV or splenectomy surgeries. Treatment of VPCs occurs IF: 1. They continue to occur with increasing frequency 2. The continuous heart rate is greater then 180 bpm (in an adult animal) 3. R on T phenomenon is observed 4. There is evidence of decreased or impaired cardiac output- the dog is laterally recumbent and minimally responsive, poor arterial pulses, pulses are not synchronous with heart beats. If any of the above are seen beginning treatment with a lidocaine intravenously is strongly considered. If the VPCs persist, a lidocaine CRI may be necessary for up to 24-48 hours post-operatively.

Which bacteria are known for causing a head tilt and neurologic symptoms in ruminants?

Listeria. Encephalitis is the most readily recognized form of Listeriosis in ruminants and a droopy face or head tilt are frequently observed symptoms. If encephalitis is severe enough, death will typically occur. Encephalitis is treated with high doses of antibiotics. Listeria monocytogenes is a small motile coccobacillus (bacteria) causing neurologic symptoms due to localized lesions in the brainstem. Grazing animals ingest the organism and continue to further contaminate the soil through their feces.

An eosin-nigrosine stain mixture is used in semen analysis to evaluate the:

Live:dead sperm ratio.

Ketoconazole can cause toxicity most commonly to which of the organs or tissues listed?

Liver. Ketoconazole can be associated with hepatotoxicity. Liver values should be closely monitored when using this medication. Fluconazole and itraconazole are more widely used because they are less hepatotoxic, but the cost is higher for these medications.

Most biotransformation of drugs occurs in the:

Liver. Kidneys are involved in excretion; lungs involved in excretion of inhalants; spleen has no business with drugs.

A drug from which of the following categories will cause loss of motor function when administered during an epidural?

Local anesthetics (i.e. bupivacaine, lidocaine). Only local anesthetics cause loss of motor function when used during an epidural.

After parturition, it is normal for the bitch to have a reddish brown vaginal discharge for a few weeks. This discharge is referred to as which of the following?

Lochia. Melena is digested blood in the stool. Meconium is the dark intestinal excretion (first stool essentially) from a newborn. Pyuria is the presence of pus in the urine.

Heart murmurs are often referred to in terms of "grade". What does this refer to?

Loudness. Murmurs are graded according to the loudness/severity. They are typically graded on a scale of 1 through 6 (with 6 being the loudest). A description of the grades is: Grade 1 - Very soft murmur, only heard when carefully ausculted. Grade 2 - Soft murmur but is evident. Grade 3 - Moderate murmur but not associated with a palpable vibration/thrill. Grade 4 - Loud murmur but a palpable vibration or thrill is not present or intermittent. Grade 5 - Loud murmur that has a palpable thrill but is not heard when stethoscope is lifted away from the chest. Grade 6 - Loud murmur with palpable thrill and can be heard even when the stethoscope is lifted off the chest.

What type of diet should a cat or dog in renal failure should be fed?

Low in phosphorus and protein. A low-protein diet helps to decrease workload on the kidneys. This is because protein (when metabolized by the liver) leads to production of the waste product urea. The kidneys excrete urea. If the kidneys are not functioning properly, then urea is not excreted efficiently and begins to build up in the peripheral blood and causes the pet to feel sick clinically. Phosphorus is removed from the body via the kidneys. If filtration is impaired, then the phosphorus begins to climb higher in the peripheral blood. Therefore, a diet low in phosphorus is ideal. A low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet would be more ideal for a diabetic patient and is not good for patient in renal failure.

Which diet is the most appropriate for a cat in chronic renal failure?

Low protein. To filter and eliminate the by-products of protein digestion (like creatinine), the kidneys must work harder. A diet lower in protein will decrease the workload on the kidneys as they process and eliminate waste products produced during protein metabolism. Many higher protein diets are also higher in phosphorus, which should be restricted in pets with kidney failure. Protein restriction is more important in pets that have proteinuria as a result of renal failure.

When polishing teeth using an air-driven unit, the speed of the hand piece should be set on:

Low. A prophy angle should be set on low speed - excess speed can damage the enamel and overheat the unit.

A dog presents with scabies. You are instructed to give the dog a lime-sulfur medicated dip. Which of the following must you do?

Lubricate the dog's eyes with protective ointment. Dips can cause serious irritation and even damage eye tissue; protective ointment is mandatory.

Where would you collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from a standing sedated horse?

Lumbosacral space. There are two sites that are routinely used to collect CSF from horses: the lumbosacral space and the atlantooccipital space. In the standing horse, the lumbosacral space is the only space that can be used. CSF is collected from the atlantooccipital space only in the anesthetized horse.

A kitten presents to the emergency service for burns in the mouth after biting into an electrical cord. Aside from the oral burns, what organ system would you most be concerned about?

Lungs. In addition to causing painful burns in the mouth, most pets will develop non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema when electrocuted. The fluid in the lungs can be life threatening and most of these pets will need extended hospitalization with oxygen and careful monitoring.

A shock organ is the organ or tissue that exhibits the most marked response to an allergic reaction. What is the shock organ in the cat?

Lungs. In the dog, it is the liver. Both species often also have gastrointestinal involvement (vomiting, diarrhea).

Which hormone is the trigger for ovulation and development of the corpus luteum?

Luteinizing hormone (LH). LH is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. The LH surge is the trigger for ovulation and development of the corpus luteum. Progesterone levels increase after ovulation has already occurred.

Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of an ovarian follicle and the release of a mature egg from an ovary?

Luteinizing hormone.

What viral disease carried by mice and rodents is zoonotic?

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis. Lethal Intestinal Viral Infection in Mice (LIVIM) is not zoonotic. Salmonellosis is bacterial. Trycophyton is fungal.

Which of the following involves no ionizing radiation to create the image?

MRI. Only an MRI does not involve radiation.

What is the disease Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy also known as?

Mad Cow Disease. BSE is most commonly known as Mad Cow Disease and is a neurodegenerative prion disease in cattle. It causes a spongy degeneration in the brain and spinal cord and is fatal. Polioencephalomalacia is a central nervous system condition that is ultimately a result of thiamine deficiency. One cause may be by an enzyme that destroys thiamine. Black Leg in cattle is caused by Clostridium chauvoei and is an acute febrile disease causing emphysematous swelling in the heavy muscles. Hardware disease is a common term for bovine traumatic reticulopericarditis. It is caused when the cow swallows a sharp, heavy metallic object that falls to the floor of the rumen and is pushed forward into the reticulum, where it can penetrate into the pericardium.

Struvite urinary crystals are mostly composed of:

Magnesium phosphate.

Struvite crystals are one of the most common observed in urine. What are the chemical constituents of struvite?

Magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate.

"Grass tetany" may be seen in sheep or goats due to a deficiency in which mineral?

Magnesium. Magnesium deficiency may lead to "grass tetany" in sheep or goats, and sometimes in cows. It occurs when animals graze on pastures that are low in magnesium, or during lactation when demand for magnesium is higher. Treatment is with magnesium and calcium supplementation but can be a very serious and life-threatening condition. Symptoms can include restlessness, staggers, an over-alert appearance, being excitable, falling down, or convulsions and death.

The parathyroid gland is responsible for which of the following?

Maintaining blood calcium level. The parathyroid gland is responsible for regulating and maintaining blood calcium levels. The four parathyroid glands are located on or near the thyroid gland. When parathyroid hormone is released into the blood, it circulates to act in a number of places to increase the amount of calcium in the blood (i.e. removing calcium from bones). When the calcium level in the blood is too high, the cells of the parathyroids make less parathyroid hormone (or stop making it altogether), thereby allowing calcium levels to decrease. Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) are released by the adrenal medulla. Insulin is made by the pancreas. Milk letdown and uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin, which is released by the pituitary gland.

IgG:

Makes up approximately 80% of the antibody pool in plasma. IgA is found in body secretions.

Which of the following retractors would you hand a surgeon if he/she needs to be able to retract the liver out of the way?

Malleable retractor. Malleable retractors are bendable in multiple directions and have no sharp edges. This makes them ideal to use in areas such as the abdomen to gently push delicate organs out of the way. Senn rake retractors are small hand-held retractors that are usually used to retract small muscle bellies, tendons, or ligaments and thus would not be appropriate for the retraction of a liver lobe. Gelpis retractors are self-retaining retractors with sharp points. They should never be used to retract abdominal organs. Balfour retractors are only used to retract the body wall and would not be used inside the abdomen to retract a liver lobe.

In dogs, which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots?

Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1. While exceptions do occur, the following are generally accepted and true. In dogs, all of the permanent incisors and canine teeth have 1 root. In the mandible, premolar (PM) 1 has one root. PM 2, 3, and 4 all have two roots. M 1 and 2 have two roots. M 3 can have one or two roots. In the maxilla, PM 1 has one root. PM 2 and 3 have two roots, although PM 3 can sometimes have 3 roots. PM 4 and M 1 and 2 all have 3 roots.

Which medication may help in a case of acute glaucoma?

Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that will help to decrease intraocular pressure. Atropine raises intraocular pressure and would be contraindicated. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic, and ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and dissociative anesthetic. Neither of these are indicated in glaucoma.

What is the most common method of pregnancy diagnosis in cattle?

Manual rectal palpation. This can be done as early as 30 days. Ultrasound is becoming more popular for cows but is not the most common. Progesterone tests can detect presence of a corpus luteum, but sometimes a CL can be present wile the cow is not pregnant. This is not a reliable method. The skin fold test is the test in cattle for tuberculosis.

Which animal is seasonally polyestrous and is not an induced ovulator?

Mare. Mares are seasonally polyestrous, so they repeatedly cycle during the breeding season. This season occurs around the period when the days are longest (which is late March through September). The estrous cycle of the mare is about 21 days in length.

A rabbit has been presented to your hospital for an abdominal surgery. The rabbit is dehydrated and will need to have fluids during the procedure so you need to place an IV catheter before the procedure begins. Of the following, which location would be the best to use?

Marginal ear vein. When a desensitizing local anesthetic cream is applied to the ear over the vein, it provides an ideal and painless area to place an IV catheter. The cephalic veins can be used for placing IV catheters, but these veins are fragile and it is easy to cause hematomas even if the catheter is successfully placed.

Which type of cell is rich in histamine and heparin?

Mast cell. Mast cells contain histamine and heparin. They play a role inflammation and are thus involved in wound healing. They are mostly known for their involvement in allergies and anaphylaxis.

Which of the following is not a typical constituent of a urine sediment sample?

Mast cells. Mast cells would not be expected in a urine sediment sample. Squamous cells, transitional cells, and renal cells may be found in urine sediment. Squamous cells will likely be the largest cells visualized in a urine sample. They are usually derived from the vagina, vulva, or urethra. Red blood cells are a normal finding when in small numbers. Excessive red blood cells may be a sign of disease. White blood cells should also be present in a small number and large numbers of these cells are associated with disease.

Which of the following is a measure of red blood cell size on a complete blood count?

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV). Red blood cell size (in femtoliters) is described by the MCV. This value can be determined electronically by automated analyzers or manually by dividing the PCV by the RBC concentration and multiplying by 10.

After performing a blood smear in a patient it is determined that macrocytosis is present. Which value would be expected to be elevated based on this observation on a complete blood count?

Mean corpuscular volume. Macrocytosis is expected to result in an increase in mean corpuscular volume. Mean corpuscular volume is a measurement of the mean volume in a group of red blood cells. If there is a higher volume, then one can deduce that the cell is larger (macrocytosis). Red blood cell numbers as well as hemoglobin content should remain unaffected. Red cell distribution is a value that helps the interpreter determine if there is anisocytosis present.

You are asked to place a nasal oxygen tube in a dog. What is the measurement for placement of nasal oxygen?

Measure to the medial canthus of the eye. A topical anesthetic (such as proparacaine) is instilled into a nostril prior to catheter placement. The catheter is lubed and slid into the nostril and introduced into the ventral nasal meatus. It is advanced to the level of the carnassial tooth or the medial canthus of the eye and is sutured to the skin.

Sodium fluoride is the preferred anticoagulant for which of the following purposes?

Measurement of blood glucose. Sodium fluoride is mainly used as a glucose preservative. With other anticoagulants, glucose metabolism may continue after the blood has been drawn from the patient and injected into the collection tube. Sodium fluoride is not as good as EDTA for assessing white blood cell morphology. Citrate is usually used for assessment of the coagulation cascade because its effects are reversible. Sodium fluoride interferes with metabolism and most enzymatic tests.

Which of the following will cause a false positive fecal occult blood test?

Meat based diet. Meat but not dairy in the diet will result in a false positive fecal occult blood test. Therefore, the test should be administered after a patient has been on a meat-free diet such as cottage cheese and rice for at least 3 days.

A dog presents for his first day of heartworm treatment. He tested positive for heartworms last week, and the infection was confirmed by chest radiographs and finding microfilariae in his blood. Which drug will this dog receive for killing the heartworms?

Melarsomine. AKA Immiticide is the drug of choice for killing adult heartworms. Care must be used when giving this medication as death of a large worm burden may result in a severe anaphylactic reaction.

Cells that line the thoracic, pericardial, and abdominal cavities are known as:

Mesothelial cells.

The fetlock joint of a horse refers to what structure?

Metacarpophalangeal joint. In the horse, the proximal phalanx (pastern bone) lies immediately distal to the third metacarpal bone (also known as the cannon bone), with which it articulates to form the condylar metacarpophalangeal joint (fetlock joint). The middle phalanx or second phalanx lies distal to the proximal phalanx, forming the proximal interphalangeal joint known as the pastern joint. The distal phalanx (coffin bone), is the most distal bone of the forelimb, and lies completely within the hoof capsule. The distal phalanx articulates with both the middle phalanx and the distal sesamoid, forming the distal interphalangeal joint known as the coffin joint.

Which of the following best characterizes the physical condition of a patient who is classified as ASA Class III?

Moderate systemic disease or disturbance.

Which of the following are treatments for hyperthyroidism?

Methimazole and radioactive iodine. Hyperthyroidism (elevated thyroid level) in cats is treated with radioactive iodine or methimazole. I-131 and radioactive iodine are the same thing. Levothyroxine is used to treat hypothyroidism (thyroid level is too low).

A 10-year-old domestic short hair cat presents for facial excoriations. The cat is extremely itchy on its face. Which of the following medications may cause this side effect?

Methimazole. AKA Tapazole may cause intense facial pruritus as a side effect. This medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism.

An animal with inflammation of the uterine lining is said to have which of the following conditions?

Metritis. Inflammation of the endometrium. Pyometra is pus in the uterus.

Which antibiotic often used for diarrhea has potential to cause a neurologic side effect?

Metronidazole. Metronidazole is used frequently for treating diarrhea. It can cause neurologic symptoms in some sensitive patients or at higher dosages. The treatment for metronidazole toxicity is supportive care, including Diazepam as a main treatment. Owners with pets on higher dosages of this medication should be advised of this potential side effect. The most common use for higher doses is treatment of Giardia. Fenbendazole is often a safer option for this parasite.

Which of the following instruments is the only one appropriate for handling tissues?

Metzenbaum scissors.

Anemia due to the lack of iron and chronic blood loss are classified as:

Microcytic, hypochromic.

A decrease in RBC size observed during a CBC should be noted as:

Microcytosis.

What is a Knott's test useful for detecting?

Microfilariae and is useful for diagnosis of heartworm infection in dogs.

Which of the following is a diagnostic stage of Dirofilaria immitis, the parasite that causes heartworm in dogs?

Microfilarial stage.

Which of the following is a diagnostic stage of Dirofilaria immitis, the parasite that causes heartworm, in dogs?

Microfilarial stage. The diagnostic stage is the stage of the parasite that is used to detect it with a diagnostic test. For heartworm, microfilaria can be identified on a concentrated blood sample.

You perform a Wood's lamp examination on a cat that has had hair loss over the bridge of his nose. It causes a green fluorescence to appear. Which organism is likely the cause?

Microsporum canis. In about 50% of ringworm cases caused by Microsporum canis, a Wood's lamp test will be positive. This is the only organism to cause a positive result.

72 hours have passed since performing an exploratory laparotomy. It is important to evaluate the incision site on a daily basis to help detect any complications early. Which of the following would you not expect to find on a 3-day-old incision?

Mild serosanguinous discharge. An incision will demonstrate all the classic signs of inflammation (redness, swelling, pain, and heat). Occasionally, there may be mild serosanguinous discharge from an incision, but this usually resolves in 24-48 hours. Persistence of discharge is worrisome as this may perpetuate bacterial colonization and subsequent incisional failure.

The advantage of intraoral radiography over extraoral radiography is that it:

Minimizes the superimposition of tooth images.

Horner's syndrome can cause which of the following clinical symptoms?

Miosis. Horner's syndrome can occur as a result of damage along the sympathetic trunk, especially as the trunk goes through the middle ear. Symptoms include miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid), enophthalmos, and third eyelid protrusion. At least three of these signs must be present to confirm the diagnosis. Weakness of the thoracic limb can also be present on the affected side.

Which of the following medications would be beneficial to a patient who is being treated for an NSAID overdose?

Misoprostol. Misoprostol is a protective prostaglandin used to treat overdoses of NSAIDs, and helps to provide protection to the gastric mucosa. Overdoses of NSAIDS would cause a high incidence of gastric damage or ulceration. Other concerns would be liver or kidney damage. Potassium would not provide any protection against these effects. Cortisone (or any type of steroid) would be contraindicated in a toxicity such as this as it may exacerbate the signs. Lactulose is a stool softener and would not be beneficial to the GI tract.

What heart valve is responsible for separating blood between the left atrium and left ventricle?

Mitral valve. The mitral valve is also known as the bicuspid valve and is responsible for separating blood between the left atrium and left ventricle. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the vena cava. This blood is then pumped into the right ventricle (passing through the tricuspid valve) which then gets pumped into the lungs (passing through the pulmonary valve) via the pulmonary artery for oxygenation. The newly oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium via the pulmonary vein. Once in the left atrium, the blood is pumped into the left ventricle (passing through the mitral valve) from which it is then pumped into circulation via the aorta (passing through the aortic valve).

The correct names of the four valves of the heart are:

Mitral, pulmonic, aortic, and tricuspid.

Most distemper-parvo vaccinations are of which type?

Modified live virus. Rabies is a killed virus vaccination in general. There is a feline-only rabies vaccination that is a canarypox vaccine. The injectable form of Bordetella vaccine is a cellular antigen extract vaccine.

Which of the following would delay wound healing?

Moisture. Wounds heal better in a dry environment. Bacteria growth is increased in moist environments.

When placing a bandage on the limb, what is the main purpose for leaving the tips of the toes exposed?

Monitor for swelling. Leaving the toes exposed does not prevent soiling of the bandage, odor, or swelling. It is to monitor the toes for swelling in case the bandage is too tight. The two middle toes should be together. If swelling occurs, the toes will begin to spread apart.

Which of the following components of a digital radiography unit has the biggest influence on image quality?

Monitor. A PACS system consists of a server, a workstation, and a viewing monitor. The workstation receives the images and sends them for display on the monitor. The monitor is the most critical to image quality. The other components have a bigger influence on how quickly images may load. A high quality graphics card is more important for viewing movie loops of ultrasound or fluoroscopy images, which require more processing power but are inherently lower resolution.

Mask inductions are:

More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats. Mask inductions in aggressive patients can be so stressful that they offset the benefit of avoiding premedication and induction agents.

A grid with a ratio of 10:1 absorbs:

More scatter radiation and requires greater exposure factors than a 5:1 grid. The grid ratio is the relationship of the height of lead strips in a grid to the distance between them. A grid ratio of 10:1 means that the lead strip is ten times higher than the width of the interspace. As the grid ratio increases, the grid becomes more efficient in absorbing scatter radiation, but it will also absorb more of the primary beam. To compensate for absorption of the primary beam, exposure factors need to be increased, otherwise the image will appear lighter with the higher ratio.

A 4-year old male intact Jack Russell is recovering post-operatively after a lung lobectomy following a coyote attack. The dog is very painful. Which of the following combinations of medications may be given as a constant rate infusion and is commonly used for pain control in the critical care setting?

Morphine, lidocaine, ketamine. MLK remember the word "milk", is often given as a constant rate infusion for pain in dogs. Propofol is a short acting anesthetic without analgesic properties. Diazepam is given as a CRI to control seizures but not typically for analgesia. Acepromazine also is not an analgesic and is not typically administered as a CRI.

What is the usual vector of western equine encephalitis?

Mosquito. Culex mosquitoes as well as others are the important vectors of western, eastern, and Venezuelan equine encephalitis.

You perform a vaginal cytology of a bitch in heat. Which of the following should you normally see?

Mostly cornified cells. During heat, cytology will show 90-100% cornified epithelial cells.

Horses with laminitis should be fed which type of diet?

Mostly grass hay. The cause of laminitis is multifactorial; however, a diet high in grains or grain overload has been identified as a potential cause. Also, alfalfa is higher in energy and protein, and consumption of this hay alone may attribute to laminitis in some horses. Therefore, horses with laminitis should be fed an average or mixed hay only and no grains.

Which of the following is the most common factor that prevents a diagnostic radiograph in a horse?

Motion. Motion is a problem with any radiograph on any species. However, in horses, due to their fight or flight nature, getting them to stand still can be tricky.

The term stomatitis refers to inflammation of the:

Mouth.

The small intestine is made up of four layers. Which of the following describes these layers from inside to outside?

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa. The inner most layer of the intestine is the mucosa. It is lined with villi which help to absorb nutrients. The next layers working outward are the submucosa, muscularis, and serosa.

The standard culture medium used for bacterial sensitivity testing is:

Mueller-Hinton.

A 14-year old DSH has been prescribed total parenteral nutrition (TPN). What type of catheter would be most appropriate for TPN administration?

Multi-lumen jugular catheter. TPN must be administered via a central vein due to its hypertonicity. A short saphenous or cephalic catheter would not reach a central vein. TPN is never administered subcutaneously. While a single lumen PICC could be used, a multi-lumen catheter would be preferred as blood samples for blood glucose monitoring could be more easily obtained.

Potassium is critical for:

Muscle function.

What purpose is the administration of the drug Guaifenesin typically used for in horses?

Muscle relaxation. Guaifenesin is administered intravenously to horses to provide relaxation of skeletal muscles during induction of general anesthesia. The exact mechanism of action is unknown but believed to be related to central depression of nerve impulse transmission. Although guaifenesin is administered orally in some species as an expectorant, this is not the typical reason for its administration in horses.

You are helping the neurologist with a Tensilon test in a dog. Tensilon is the trade name for edrophonium chloride. By administering this drug, you are testing for which disease?

Myasthenia gravis. With this disease, there are not many acetylcholine receptor sites on the muscles, and acetylcholine is broken down before it can fully cause muscle stimulus. This results in muscle weakness. By blocking the action of acetylcholinesterase, Tensilon prolongs stimulation to the muscles, thus temporarily improving strength. Results are usually seen within a minute of administering the drug IV. A blood test that can also help to aid in diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis is the acetylcholine receptor antibody test.

What type of organism is typically detected with an acid-fast stain?

Mycobacteria. Mycobacteria and Nocardia species are usually detected with an acid-fast stain.

Which bacteria will not stain using the Gram staining method?

Mycobacterium. It is an acid-fast bacteria that has a waxy coat on their cell walls (lipoid capsule) and so they will not stain crystal violet.

Johne's disease is an intestinal infection that can lead to clinical signs of diarrhea and weight loss. It affects cattle, sheep, goats, and other species. What is the Genus of the causative agent of Johne's disease?

Mycobacterium. Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis is the cause of Johne's disease and is known to affect cattle, goats, and sheep, as well as many exotic hoof-stock. Infection usually occurs when the animals are young, but clinical signs do not show up until the animal becomes stressed, often around 2 to 3 years of age. Clinical signs are essentially chronic intermittent diarrhea and weight loss. Listeria monocytogenes causes a disease of the central nervous system. Fusobacterium necrophorum is a bacteria often isolated from footrot in cattle. Brucella abortus is a bacterium which causes abortion in cattle (known as "Bang's disease") and also causes a disease in humans known as undulant fever.

Which of the following terms describe a dilated pupil?

Mydriatic. Mydriasis is the term for dilated pupils. Miosis is the term for constricted pupils. Fixed pupils are not moving (not dilating or constricting). The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for pupil dilation.

What procedure requires the use of contrast (dye)?

Myelogram. A myelogram involves contrast administration into the subarachnoid space so that it may be visualized on a radiograph.

Where might you find the parasite Oestrus ovis?

Nasal cavity of the sheep. Oestrus ovis is the sheep nasal bot. Flies deposit their larvae around the nares. They enter the nasal cavity and migrate to the sinuses where they mature. They then leave the nose and pupate in the soil. The word "ovis" should have been a hint that the parasite is likely found in the sheep (ovine). Cuterebra is a bot that can be found under the skin, notably under a hole found on the skin in several different species. Hypoderma bovis is the warble fly whose larvae cause "warbles" or bumps under the skin in cattle.

You are asked to administer an intramuscular injection to a beef cow. Where should you administer it?

Neck muscles. Because this is a beef cow, the injection should be given in the neck muscles to avoid creating a scar or damaging tissues in the muscles that may be used as meat for human consumption. When injections are given in inappropriate locations, the meat could potentially be condemned.

Which part of the gas anesthetic machine allows room air into the system in the event of a pressure change?

Negative pressure relief valve.

On inspiration, the pressure in the thoracic cavity as compared with ambient air pressure is:

Negative.

Dirofilaria immitis falls under which category of parasite?

Nematode. Dirofilaria immitis is the heartworm and is a nematode (a type of roundworm). The mosquito is the intermediate host. Trematodes are flukes and require a snail as an intermediate host. Protozoans are single celled organisms (microscopic). They may take on a cyst form or may be in trophozoite form (such as Giardia). Coccidians (such as Cystoisospora) are a type of protozoan. Cestodes are tapeworms. Dipylidium, a type of tapeworm, requires a flea as an intermediate host.

Ivermectin is effective against which organisms?

Nematodes or roundworms. Ivermectin has activity against ticks, mites, and even lice.

You are riding along on an emergency call to assist the vet with a sick foal who was born two days ago. The foal appeared normal at birth, but is now lethargic and icteric. It has a fever of 102 F. The packed cell volume is down to 15%. Which of the following diseases leads to jaundice and anemia in young foals?

Neonatal isoerythrolysis. This foal is hemolyzing its own red blood cells as a result of antibody it acquired in colostrum which is directed at the red cells. This is the best answer choice to explain the low hematocrit and signs of icterus. Only vigorous and effective treatments can save foals which are severely affected.

What is the basic structural and functional unit of the kidney?

Nephron. The nephron's job is to regulate the concentration of water and salts by filtering the blood, absorbing what is needed, and excreting the rest as urine. It eliminates waste from the body, regulates blood volume and blood pressure, controls electrolyte and metabolite levels, and regulates blood pH. The glomerulus is a cluster of vessels located within Bowman's capsule and is the main filter of the nephron.

A breeder of turtles calls to inquire about giving ivermectin he bought at the feed store to one of his turtles. The veterinarian advises NOT to administer ivermectin, and despite this recommendation, the breeder does anyway. What would be expected in this turtle?

Neurologic signs. Ivermectin is highly toxic in turtles and causes paresis, and death at low doses due to an ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.

Feline toxoplasmosis most often presents with which type of symptoms?

Neurologic. Most cats infected with Toxoplasma gondii will not show any symptoms. When disease does occur, it typically occurs when the cat's immune response is suppressed. Fever, loss of appetite, and lethargy can be symptoms. Most commonly, neurologic symptoms occur including seizures or circling. Uveitis can be seen. Toxoplasmosis is treated with Clindamycin.

For horses under anesthesia in lateral recumbency, padding and positioning of the front legs and head is important to prevent:

Neuromuscular damage.

Canine parvovirus causes which of the following laboratory changes?

Neutropenia. Parvoviral enteritis causes sever vomiting and diarrhea, which leads to dehydration and often sepsis and fever. The sepsis (overwhelming infection) leads to a low neutrophil count.

The first phagocytes to respond to an infection are:

Neutrophils. Lymphocytes are not phagocytes.

A non-cuffed endotracheal tube would most likely be used in which of the following patients?

Newborn kitten. Non-cuffed tubes are used in very small patients such as newborn kittens and puppies, bird, and ferrets because they preserve a larger airway.

In the United States, what type of gas is in a blue gas tank?

Nitrous oxide. Gray = carbon dioxide. Yellow = medical compressed air. Green = oxygen. Black = nitrogen. Brown = helium. Other countries use different color markings. Gas mixtures are indicated by two or more designated colors on the cylinder.

Viruses with this characteristic are significantly more resistant to environmental degradation; in other words, they survive longer in the environment.

Non-enveloped viruses. Non-enveloped viruses are typically very resistant to environmental degradation and therefore survive longer and are harder to disinfect than enveloped viruses. For example, parvovirus, which are non-enveloped viruses, are difficult to disinfect and survive longer compared to influenza viruses which are enveloped. Whether a virus is a DNA or RNA virus has no effect on its environmental durability.

A foal presents for colic caused by a roundworm organism. What is the organism?

Parascaris equorum. In foals, a significant ascarid burden with Parascaris equorum can lean to intestinal impaction and associated colic. This is a roundworm of horses.

Which of the following statements is true regarding non-screen film in comparison to screen x-ray film in radiography?

Non-screen film is more sensitive to x-rays. The main difference between non-screen film and screen film is that non-screen film has the image produced by x-rays themselves, whereas screen film uses light produced in an intensifying screen to generate the image. Therefore, screen film is more sensitive to light, and non-screen film is more sensitive to x-rays. The advantage of using a screen system is that much less radiation is needed to create the image but the trade-off is a loss of detail from the intensifying screen. Non-screen film is not good to use with larger animals or body parts because it requires too much exposure (and therefore a longer exposure which will have greater motion) to obtain a well exposed radiograph.

What type of estrous cycle does a cow have?

Non-seasonal polyestrous. Cows have non-seasonal polyestrous cycles. This means that they have estrus cycles year round. Average estrus is 21 days and lasts for 18 to 24 hours, but heat stress can shorten this window. Estrus is the time of "standing heat" when the cow will stand to be mounted by the bull. Sheep are polyestrous in the fall. Cats are induced ovulators.

An individual believes that no kill shelters are the correct moral standard for professional behavior. This is an example of which branch of ethics?

Normal ethics. Normal ethics are defined as: An individual's attempt to discover what he or she believes to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior.

A practitioner's view of convenience euthanasia is an example of which branch of ethics?

Normative ethics. Normative ethics is defined as: An individual's attempt to discover what he or she believes to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior.

A New World monkey commonly used in research is the:

Squirrel. Baboon, chimpanzee, and rhesus are all great apes or old world.

You are doing a CBC on an anemic patient. Which of the following cells, if you see them while doing the differential, will change the final leukocyte count?

Nucleated Red Blood Cells. When cell counters count the WBC's, they are actually counting the nucleus of each cell. Since RBC's don't have a nucleus, they don't get counted. UNLESS they are an immature form called a NRBC or nucleated red blood cell. In an anemic patient you are very likely to find these young cells as the body tries to increase the number of RBC's to combat anemia. If found, you must correct the leukocyte count to take into account the number of nucleated RBC's that may have been counted as WBC's. This is called a "corrected WBC count". To do a corrected count, you must first do a differential. While identifying 100 leukocytes, you will also keep a count of the number of NRBC's you see. When finished with the differential, take the total number of NRBC's you have counted per 100 WBC's. The formula is as follows: Total WBC count x 100 / number of NRBCs seen + 100 = corrected WBC count (mm3). (Reticulocytes are also immature red blood cells but they have already lost their nucleus and thus don't affect the leukocyte count.)

Which of the following structures in the body is most sensitive to radiation?

Ocular lens. The lens of the eye is considered one of the most radiation-sensitive structures in the body. Even relatively low doses can predispose the lens to develop cataracts. The other most sensitive organs are ones with rapidly dividing cells such as the bone marrow and gonads.

You are processing a fluid sample from a cerebrospinal fluid tap. There is some blood contamination of the sample. Which of the following values can be most significantly changed by blood contamination and is frequently corrected for when analyzing the results?

Nucleated cell count. White blood cells from circulation can artificially raise the nucleated cell count of a CSF sample because there are normally very few (<25/ul) nucleated cells in normal CSF, and even relatively small volumes of blood contamination may introduce white blood cells into the sample. This can also alter the differential cell count. Protein levels and specific gravity should not be dramatically affected. Also, glucose should not be dramatically altered; it is not routinely measured in CSF and is usually only requested in special circumstances.

You are getting the weight of a patient in the exam room and are going to write it in the record. What part of a SOAP record would you put the weight in?

O. O is the objective part of the record. It requires facts. All other sections, S, A, and P are subjective parts. They require interpretation and opinion. S - Subjective. O - Objective. A - Assessment. P - Plan.

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication of epidural placement in the dog?

Obesity. Obesity is not a contraindication, but it may make finding the landmarks difficult while placing an epidural. Occasionally fractures of the sacrum or pelvis can cause abnormal anatomy and an epidural should not be attempted. If a coagulopathy exists, an epidural should not be attempted to avoid potential bleeding. Skin infections at the epidural site can lead to systemic infections if bacteria is introduced to the epidural space by the needle.

A horse with flared nostrils and a heave line from the tuber coxae towards the elbow with forced expiration likely has which of the following conditions?

Obstructive airway disease. These symptoms are typical of a horse with chronic increased respiratory effort. Coughing, weight loss, lack of energy, and exercise intolerance are also signs of this condition, termed "chronic obstructive pulmonary disease" (COPD). It is more common in older horses that are stabled during winter months. It is helpful to turn these horses out to pasture to help control the disease. COPD is similar to asthma in humans.

After parturition, a cow may become partially or totally paralyzed with which of the following types of paralysis?

Obturator.

In a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her, you are most concerned about damage to which nerve?

Obturator. Obturator nerve paralysis (ONP) is most common. This nerve is responsible for adducting the hind limbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs. During birthing, this nerve can become crushed and lead to this problem.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for replacing the bandage on a dog 24 hours after a tibial fracture repair with a bone plate?

Occasional toe-touching with the limb. Occasional toe-touching after a major fracture repair is to be expected.

Which surface of the tooth meets the opposite tooth during mastication?

Occlusal.

The National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America adopting a code of ethics is an example of which branch of ethics?

Official ethics. Official ethics is defined as: Values formally adopted by organizations composed of members of that profession.

In domestic animals, which of the following is true regarding inheritance of a trait that is coded by a recessive gene according to classical rules of inheritance?

Offspring may display a recessive trait even if neither parent displays the trait. Domestic animals have paired chromosomes and therefore inherit 2 alleles of each gene, one from the mother and one from the father. For classical rules of inheritance, a single gene can be dominant or recessive. If an individual has 2 copies of a recessive gene, it will show the recessive trait. If an individual has 2 copies of a dominant gene, it will show the dominant trait. In the event that an individual has one copy of a dominant gene and one copy of a recessive gene, it will show the dominant trait (the recessive gene is "masked" by the dominant gene). Typically, the dominant gene is indicated by a capital letter and the recessive gene is indicated by a lower-case letter. For this question, let's consider the trait of congenital deafness (h) which is recessive versus normal hearing (H) which is dominant. In order for an individual to show the phenotype of congenital deafness, it must have an hh genotype. An individual that has normal hearing could have either an Hh genotype or an HH genotype. In the correct answer to this question, it states that offspring may display a recessive trait even if neither parent displays the trait. It is possible that both parents could have normal hearing and have a Hh genotype. If both parents contribute the h gene to the offspring, it will display the recessive trait of congenital deafness.

In domestic animals, which of the following is true regarding inheritance of a trait that is coded by a dominant gene according to classical rules of inheritance?

Offspring may inherit the trait if one of the parents does not have the gene for the trait as long as the other one does have the trait. Domestic animals have paired chromosomes and therefore inherit 2 alleles of each gene, one from the mother and one from the father. For classical rules of inheritance, a single gene can be dominant or recessive. If an individual has 2 copies of a dominant gene, it will show the dominant trait. In the event that an individual has one copy of a recessive gene, it will show the dominant trait (the recessive gene is "masked" by the dominant gene). Typically a dominant gene is indicated by a capital letter and a recessive gene is indicated by a lower-case letter. For this question, let's consider an example of dwarfed limbs (D) which is dominant versus normal limbs (d), which is recessive. In order for an individual to show the phenotype of normal limbs, it must have a dd genotype. An individual that has dwarfed limbs could have either a Dd genotype or a DD genotype. In the correct answer to this question, it states that one of the parents does not have the gene for the dominant trait (has a dd genotype). It is still true that the offspring may inherit the trait because if the other parent has a gene for the trait, it may pass that gene to the offspring and because it is dominant, the trait will be expressed.

You are restraining a horse with a halter while the veterinarian is examining a sore on the lateral side of the left pelvic limb. Where should you stand while holding this horse?

On the left side, hold lead rope with little slack. When handling a horse, the holder and the person working on the horse should be standing on the same side. If the exam starts on the left, stand on the left; as the examiner moves to the right side, you should also move to the right side. There should be little slack in the lead rope to prevent the horse from moving.

A 6-year-old cat that weighs 4 kg is currently fed with a store brand product. The cat's owner is considering purchasing food from a veterinary clinic instead, but feels that the premium product suggested by a clinic technician is too expensive. A can of the store brand food has 94 kcal and costs $0.65, and a can of the clinic's food has 578 kcal and costs $1.80. The cat's maintenance energy requirement is 238 kcal/day. The technician should tell the owner that the cost of the clinic's food is:

One half of the cost of the store brand.

If a pulmonary metastatic lesion is visible on a right lateral radiograph but not on a left lateral radiograph, where is the lesion most likely to be?

One of the left lung lobes. When a patient is placed into left lateral recumbency for a left lateral radiograph, the left lung fields are compressed and do not inflate fully. This can prevent resolution of small metastatic lung lesions in the left lung lobes due to the lack of contrast with air in the left lung. The same is true of the right lung fields with a right lateral radiograph. Therefore, for evaluation of pulmonary metastasis, both a left and right lateral radiograph should be taken. In this case, a lesion that can be seen on a right lateral but not a left lateral projection is most likely in the left lung lobe because, as explained above, the lesion may be obscured on the left lateral projection due to a lack of contrast in the uninflated lung.

A 6-year-old female spayed cat weighs 8 lb. Given the following information: Resting energy requirement (RER): 30 x (weight in kg) + 70 Maintenance energy requirement guide: Adult feline = 1.2 x RER Gestation = 2 x RER Growth = 2.5 x RER If one can of cat food contains 578 kcal, how much should the cat be fed on a daily basis?

One third of a can.

A cat with type A blood is in need of a transfusion, what type of blood is it able to receive?

Only A blood. A cat with type A blood can only receive type A blood. Type B cats can only receive type B blood, while AB cats are able to receive type A or type B blood.

Selective media grow:

Only some types of bacteria. Nutrient media grows all types.

What is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis?

Opossum. The opossum is the definitive host for Sarcocystis, the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis.

Which of these is a zoonotic disease of sheep?

Orf. Shigellosis is a disease of sheep, but it is not zoonotic.

Bone is made by which type of cell?

Osteoblasts. Osteoblasts are mononucleate cells that are responsible for bone formation and come from the bone marrow. Osteocytes are actually cells inside of the bone. Osteoclasts are large cells that dissolve the bone. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells.

Short-term effects of corticosteroid therapy include all of the following except:

Osteoporosis. This is a side effect of chronic steroid administration.

Which parasite is the most important cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle and is commonly known as the brown stomach worm?

Ostertagia ostertagi. Ostertagia is the brown stomach/abomasal worm and is a major cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle. It is the most common roundworm in cattle. Strongylus vulgaris is a large intestinal worm in horses that can migrate to the anterior mesenteric artery. Ancylostoma braziliense is known as the Southern dog hookworm and is a primary cause of cutaneous larval migrans. Haemonchus is known as the barberpole worm or red stomach worm and is especially problematic in sheep.

The doctor is performing a physical exam on a horse and notices the horse has some ticks in the ears. The ticks have large spines on their bodies. He refers to them as "spinous ear ticks". What is the proper name for this parasite?

Otobius megnini. Otobius megnini is the spinous ear tick. These ticks are most commonly seen in the Southwestern states. They may infest many different warm blooded animals (including dogs), but are most commonly seen in horses and livestock. These ticks may crawl deep into the ears and feed on blood. They can spread rickettsial disease and other infectious disease such as Q-fever and tularemia. Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite of dogs and cats. Oxyuris is the equine pinworm. Dermacentor albipictus is the winter tick typically found on horses, cattle, or deer, especially in the mid-Western regions (Nebraska, Colorado, and Wyoming).

What tick is a soft tick of the family argasids?

Otobius. Amblyomma, dermacentor, and ixodes are all from the family ixodid which are hard-shelled.

Precision vaporizers, such as those used for isoflurane and sevoflurane, work best when placed:

Out of the circuit. Precision vaporizers produce indicated concentrations of anesthetic agents only when located OUTSIDE of the anesthetic circuit circle system.

Regarding sterilization in reptiles, which is true?

Ovaries should always be removed during sterilization. When sterilizing a reptile, the ovaries should always be removed. Removal of only the oviducts puts the patient at risk for egg binding. With just the oviducts removed, the ovaries are still active and yolks can be released into the coelomic cavity. In ferrets, spaying is recommended due to the risk of bone marrow toxicity from the high levels of circulating estrogen during prolonged heat cycles.

Celiotomies are performed on a routine basis in veterinary medicine. Which of the following procedures is performed through a celiotomy?

Ovariohysterectomy. A celiotomy or laparotomy is a surgical incision into the abdominal cavity. The term celiotomy is derived from the word coelom, which means body cavity.

What is of the biggest concern when shipping pigs?

Overheating. Heat prostration is of greatest concern when moving and shipping porcine. The same is true when performing medical procedures on them. It is always best to handle swine in the early morning when the temperature is cooler. This is due to their large amount of body fat and lack of sweat glands. The same is true for sheep; they easily over-heat due to their thick coat.

Orf is the cause of contagious ecthyma primarily in which species?

Ovine (sheep) and goats are the species which may contract Orf, also known as "soremouth". It is zoonotic and caused by a parapox virus. It is transmitted via direct contact with infected animals or by contact with fomites, so handlers should wear gloves when dealing with infected animals. It is a benign and self-limiting disease in most people but may be serious in immunocompromised people. Symptoms in sheep and goats include papules or pustules on the lips and muzzle that may then crust and bleed.

Several Heinz bodies have been identified on a blood smear of a sick dog. What is this an indication of?

Oxidative damage. Heinz bodies are seen whenever oxidative damage occurs to the red blood cell. They can be seen with immune mediated hemolytic anemia or ingestion of certain toxins. For example, consumption of onions results in Heinz body anemia. Another example is the administration of methylene blue, which also causes oxidative damage to red blood cells. If a large enough amount is given, this can cause anemia.

The surgeon has completed Buffy's surgical procedure and asks you to discontinue the inhalant anesthesia. What is absolutely necessary to do when terminating anesthesia in a patient that has been receiving nitrous oxide?

Oxygenate for 5-10 minutes. Nitrous oxide will bump off the oxygen molecule as it's being excreted from the lungs; oxygenation is essential or the patient will become hypoxic.

Dystocia caused by uterine inertia is commonly treated with:

Oxytocin.

Anal pruritus in the horse can be associated with an infestation of this parasite. Typically, the horse will have alopecia around the tail caused by rubbing.

Oxyuris equi. This is the equine pin worm, which will infest the perineal region and result in perineal irritation after eggs are laid. A frequent diagnostic test performed when visualizing damaged perineal regions is a scotch tape preparation.

Which vessel transports blood from the intestines to the liver?

Portal vein. The portal vein is responsible for transporting the nutrient-dense blood from the intestines to the liver.

What represents depolarization from the SA node through the atria on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

P wave. The P wave represents depolarization spreading from the SA node through the atria. The PR segment on the ECG represents the delay at the AV node and partial atrial repolarization. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and the ventricular rate can be calculated by the time interval between the QRS complexes. The ST segment comes after the QRS and is when the ventricle is depolarized. The ST segment can help to diagnose ischemia or hypoxia because it will become either depressed or elevated. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization.

The least desirable method of administering insulin to a cat is:

PO. Because insulin is not absorbed efficiently via the GI system.

A client has been giving her pet a "nutraceutical" she found that is supposed to help with her dog's arthritis. What are nutraceuticals?

Phytochemicals. Nutraceuticals are chemicals or foodstuffs derived from plants (and occasionally animals) in the form of a supplement. These are not typically regulated by the government.

Which organ is responsible for producing most of the digestive enzymes used to breakdown food?

Pancreas. The pancreas produces enzymes such as trypsin, lipase, and amylase to breakdown food. These are packaged into zymogens, which are released and activated by trypsin.

Which internal parasite is a threat to young (but typically not adult) horses?

Parascaris equorum. Ascarids (Parascaris equorum) can cause significant problems in young (<1 year) horses and can cause poor growth and a pot-bellied appearance. A more severe problem occurs when the small intestine becomes obstructed from a heavy worm burden. Adult horses develop an immunity to ascarids, so they are typically not a problem in adults.

Which of the following is a causative agent of warts?

Papilloma virus. Dermatophilus is a bacterium that invades the skin typically in wet weather and causes crusting and infection of the skin (rain rot). Dermatophytosis is a fungus, most commonly ringworm (Trichophyton) in cattle. Orbivirus causes bluetongue disease in sheep, cattle, and goats.

What parasite uses snails as intermediate hosts?

Paragonimus. This is the lung fluke of cats and dogs.

Which of the following parasites can be associated with colic and respiratory disease in the foal?

Parascaris equorum. Parascaris equorum, or the equine ascarid (roundworm), typically only infests foals and can cause ill thrift, coughing, pneumonia, and colic. If a foal has a heavy burden of roundworms and is subsequently given an anthelmintic, impaction colic can result from a mass of dead worms obstructing the intestinal tract. Foals develop immunity to this organism as they age and are typically free of infestation as adults.

A Dachshund presents for back problems and the dog is ambulatory but very unsteady in both hindlimbs. The doctor suspects an intervertebral disk protrusion that is affecting the spinal cord. Regarding the gait, this dog has:

Paresis. Paresis is partial loss or impaired movement; this is when motor is still present. A dog with paresis of both hindlimbs would have "paraparesis". Paralysis and plegia are terms used to describe lack of any voluntary motor. Hypermetria is an exaggerated gait caused by cerebellar disease. Pets with vestibular syndrome often have an abnormal gait and will veer toward one side or the other and have difficulty standing, but this is not a lack of motor.

What is the common term for Psittacosis (Ornithosis)?

Parrot fever. Psittacosis is also known as Parrot fever or Chlamydiosis. The treatment of choice is doxycycline. It is a reportable disease, and any bird suspected of having Psittacosis should be immediately isolated. In birds, C. psittaci may manifest itself as an upper respiratory infection with nasal, and/or ocular discharge, diarrhea, or a combination of all three. In some cases, birds may be infected but show no signs. It is caused by the obligate intracellular bacterium Chlamydia psittaci. It is especially found in cockatiels and parakeets. After exposure, the incubation period can vary from 3 days to several weeks and can survive in the environment for several months. It is zoonotic, especially in immunocompromised people, and protection should be worn when handling a suspected case.

Snuffles, a respiratory disease of rabbits, is caused by the bacteria:

Pasturella.

All of the following pieces of information legally must be present on a radiographic film EXCEPT for which of the following?

Patient breed. A radiograph is part of the legal medical record. As such, it is necessary to identify the patient it was taken from, the date of the exam, and the name of the practice. It is frequently helpful to use a marker to orient the radiograph or to identify which extremity is being examined. For film radiographs, frequently patient information is imprinted by the use of special graphite-impregnated tape where the information can be written and placed on the radiograph cassette or by a light flasher system that exposes printed patient information to the film. For digital radiographs, the patient information must be entered into the computer so that it is saved along with the digital radiograph. Additional patient information such as breed can be helpful but it is not required.

You are taking a lateral radiograph of the left stifle of a dog to assess for a suspected cruciate ligament injury. How should the patient and leg be oriented relative to body and film?

Patient should be in left lateral recumbency with the leg against the cassette. Having the leg against the film instead of away from the film will provide a crisper and less distorted image. Therefore, positioning the dog in left lateral recumbency with the leg against the cassette is the best position.

The non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, ketoprofen, should not be used in which patients?

Patients with renal impairment. Ketoprofen is an NSAID that is eliminated by the kidneys. It is one of the few NSAIDs that are tolerated well by cats. It can also be used in horses, and there is no contraindication of its use in patients with hypertension.

Where should an injection ideally be given to a pet bird?

Pectoral muscles. For birds, the best place to give an injection is into the large pectoral muscle mass region. If drugs are injected in the lower half of the body, such as the legs, the medication can be absorbed towards the kidneys and could cause a problem. However, in some large birds, such as ostriches and emus, injections are sometimes given in the legs.

Which of the following terms refers to an infestation with lice?

Pediculosis. Myiasis is fly larvae penetration of living tissue (maggots). Acariasis is a mite or tick infestation.

What is the primary difference between an OFA and a PennHIP evaluation?

PennHIP focuses on the degree of joint laxity using three views. Three views are taken for a PenHIP evaluation and the primary predictor of susceptibility to hip dysplasia is the degree of joint laxity. Specific parameters are published for various breeds of dogs based on a large database. Veterinary staff must receive special training.

A dog owner is considering having a scheduled cesarean section for her dog and would like some more information regarding the risks associated with the procedure. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production. It is important to be aware that performing a spay at the time of surgery does not have a detrimental effect on the female. There are no adverse effects on milk production or predictable unwanted behaviors. Similarly, there are no long-term negative effects of performing a cesarean delivery; however, there is a possibility of development of scar tissue at the site of a cesarean which may hinder the ability of a future embryo to attach at the specific location.

A purse-string suture would be placed for which of the following surgeries?

Perianal mass excision. A purse-string suture is a surgical suture passed as a running stitch in and out along the edge of a circular region (as seen with the anus), so that when the ends of the suture are drawn tight the region is closed like a purse. This is often done around the anus prior to initiating surgery to prevent fecal contamination within your surgical site.

Which of the following lymph nodes are not palpated peripherally?

Perihilar. Above the heart is a triangular depression named the hilum, near which the perihilar lymph nodes are located. They are inside the chest and therefore not palpated peripherally.

Which area must be prepped for a horse requiring a Caslick's operation?

Perineum.

Which of the following instruments would be LEAST effective at cutting or removing bone from a patient?

Periosteal elevator. Periosteal elevators are good for elevating muscle attachments from bone or periosteum. They would not be effective at actually cutting or removing bone. Curettes are great for removing small amounts of bone such as when obtaining a bone graft. Gigli wire is still used for cutting through bone. With an osteotome and mallet, precise bone cuts can be made by the experienced surgeon. Alternatively, a battery powered bone saw can be used. A Michel trephine is used to obtain core samples of bone. It is commonly used to help diagnose neoplasia involving the bone.

What layer of bone tissue would make contact with attached ligaments and tendons?

Periosteum. Periosteum is the outer layer of the bone. Endosteum is on the inside. Cortex is on the inside.

A 5-year-old female spayed domestic short hair cat presents on emergency for acute vomiting, weakness, hypersalivation, and tremoring. Her heart rate is 240 bpm and her temperature is elevated at 104.2 F. The owner applied an over-the-counter flea control product to her skin earlier in the day. What toxicity is suspected?

Permethrin. Permethrin (a synthetic pyrethroid) is very toxic to cats and can be found in some topical flea prevention medications. It can cause neurologic side effects, tremoring, and may even cause seizures. Cats are treated by washing the product off immediately, placing an intravenous catheter, administering IV fluids, and giving muscle relaxants such as valium and/or methocarbamol. Metaldehyde is most commonly found in snail bait and is not part of flea control products. Ethylene glycol is antifreeze and coumadin is Warfarin (an anticoagulant found in some rat poisons); these are not found in flea control products.

Which cat would be most prone to having a hairball problem?

Persian. Persians have long hair and are thus most likely to have hairballs. However, all cats can get hairballs. This occurs if the cat swallows hair while it is grooming itself. Laxatone can help to keep the hairballs to a minimum and daily brushing also helps to reduce the amount of shedding.

Petechia

Petechia are small (1-2 mm) "pinpoint" red bruises under the skin, often associated with thrombocytopenia. Ecchymosis (also often called purpura) are very similar but are much larger areas of bruising, usually over 3 mm. Papillomas are warts caused by a virus. Erythema is the general term for redness.

Which of the following methods is the best way to handle a tractable cat?

Petting the cat and using minimal restraint. A "tractable" cat is easily handled and well behaved. Cats that are calm and easy to examine should have minimal restraint. An "intractable" cat or a "fractious" cat may need to be scruffed for exam to prevent scratching or biting. Cats that are high risk for biting should be muzzled and wrapped in a towel if necessary.

You are about to sedate a dog, and the veterinarian would like to use a drug which is reversible. Which one of these is NOT an option?

Phenobarbital. Medetomidine is an alpha-2 agonist and can be reversed with yohimbine or atipamezole. Diazepam and midazolam are benzodiazepines can both be reversed with flumazenil. Hydromorphone is an opiate and is easily reversible with naloxone. There is no effective reversal agent for phenobarbital at this time.

All of the following drug groups produce analgesia except:

Phenothiazines.

Which of the following medications is known to cause perivascular tissue sloughing if given out of the vein?

Phenylbutazone. Or "Bute" is an NSAID used for analgesia or fever (mostly in horses). It can cause tissue sloughing and necrosis if given out of the vein (it should NEVER be given subcutaneous or intramuscular). In humans, phenylbutazone can cause aplastic anemia.

Which species other than cattle is considered cloven hoofed?

Pigs. A cloven hoof is a hoof split into two toes. This includes cattle, sheep, goats, deer, and pigs. Camels have two digits in their feet (III and IV) which are almost flat on the ground as part of a wide pad. Instead of hooves, the distal phalanges have nails on the upper surface.

Which species has ovaries that look like grape clusters?

Pigs. In the pig the follicles and corpora lutea sit almost on the surface of the ovary giving the appearance of a cluster of grapes. Pigs are also litter-bearing and thus have more follicles.

Lactose-fermenting bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella appear what color on MacConkey agar?

Pink or red. MacConkey agar contains lactose; when lactose-fermenting organisms are grown, they produce acid from lactose that causes them to turn red. Bacteria that do not ferment lactose are typically clean colonies.

An owner presents her diabetic cat and new glucometer with lancets. Where is the best place for her to collect a sample?

Pinna. Lancets are best to use on superficial smaller veins such as veins on the ear. Pads are very thick and therefore difficult to use for sample collection.

You are assisting with a bone marrow aspirate on a dog with suspected neoplasia. You are asked to make slides to send to the laboratory with the samples the veterinarian is collecting. Which describes proper technique for this?

Place a drop on one end of the slide, tilt slightly and make a pull smear. Pull smears should be made of bone marrow samples. The pull smear should be in a light fashion as to spread the fluid but not to crush the samples. The sample should be dried immediately to preserve integrity of the cells. A blow dryer can assist by quickening drying time. A stain of one of the slides should be performed to make sure the sample appears adequate before submission.

What cell produces immunoglobulins (antibodies)?

Plasma cell.

You are working in the emergency clinic and are assisting with treating a dog that has been hit by a car. You are asked to set up for a blood transfusion, and the doctor would like you to give whole blood. A whole blood transfusion would include which of the following components?

Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Everything that is found in whole blood.

A blood smear is performed and a large variation is seen in erythrocyte shape. What is this called?

Poikilocytosis. Anisocytosis is a variation in cell size (not shape). Anisokaryosis is a variation in the amount of cytoplasm present in a cell and not necessarily shape or size. Polychromasia describes a variation red blood cell color. Poikilocytosis describes a variation in cell shape. Some shapes occur with enough frequency that they have their own name, such as acanthocytes and echinocytes.

A surgeon is asking for any non-absorbable suture to close a skin defect. Which of the following sutures would NOT be appropriate for you to give the surgeon?

Polydioxanone. Polydioxanone is the real name for PDS. This suture is a monofilament absorbable suture which lasts approximately 180 days before being completely broken down. Silk, polypropylene, and nylon are all considered non-absorbable. Polypropylene and nylon are synthetic. Most people know polypropylene as Prolene and nylon as Ethilon; these are their trade names.

Which of the following is a common side effect of glucocorticoid usage?

Polyuria.

What is cholestasis?

Poor flow of bile from the liver to the GI tract. Cholestasis is a condition in which the bile has difficulty flowing from the liver into the duodenum. The prefix chole- means bile and the term stasis means to stand still. The enzymes associated with cholestasis are alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamm glutamyltransferase (GGT).

You are on a farm call with a veterinarian to investigate the cause of agalactia in the farmer's cows. These cows have:

Poor milk production. Agalactia (agalactorrhea) is either an absence of milk production or abnormally low milk production following parturition. There are many common causes including infection (especially in sheep, goats, and pigs), poor nutrition or water deprivation, hormonal imbalances, anatomical causes (inverted teats or absence of mammary tissue, scarring of tissue), or failure of neonate to suckle properly so that the milk letdown reflux is not stimulated.

In an anesthetized animal, pale-gray mucous membranes are indicative of:

Poor tissue perfusion.

One characteristic of dissociative anesthesia is:

Poor visceral analgesia.

When using a mechanical ventilator, the animal's chest is under:

Positive pressure. The pleural space is normally under negative pressure, but under ventilation, the chest cavity is under positive pressure.

Which of the following should never be given in a bolus to a patient?

Potassium chloride. Rapid infusion of potassium can cause cardiac arrest. There is never a good reason to bolus potassium chloride; however sometimes it is inadvertently bloused when administering fluids which had potassium chloride added to them. Administration of greater than 0.5 mEq/kg of potassium chloride can be deadly. All other choices as long as appropriately dosed may be bolused.

When comparing inhalation anesthetics, you should use the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) as a guide in assessing:

Potency of the agent. The MAC is the concentration in percent at 1 atmosphere that prevents gross, purposeful skeletal muscle movement in response to a noxious stimulus in 50% of patients. It is an expression of the potency of the drug.

A 3-year old male neutered Maltese presents to your clinic because the owner saw "some white rice-looking things" around his anus. They were small and flat and seemed to be moving. Some of them were dried up. Which of the following drugs is effective against this organism?

Praziquantel (Droncit). This dog likely has a tapeworm infection. Tapeworm segments are typically flat and white and small, resembling a grain of rice. The most common tapeworms in cats are Taenia taeniaeformis and Dipylidium caninum. The only medication that will treat both types is praziquantel. Praziquantel is in the products Drontal Plus and Profender, approved for the use in cats. Drontal Plus also contains pyrantel. Profender also contains emodepside. Both are also effective against roundworm and hookworm. Pyrantel is not effective against tapeworms and treats hookworm and roundworm infection. Fenbendazole (or Panacur), treats Taenia but not Dipylidium, and also treats hookworm, roundworm, and whipworm infection. Revolution treats and prevents hookworm, roundworm, heartworm, fleas, and ear mites in cats. Frontline treats and prevents fleas and ticks. A flea control should be recommended, since Dipylidium is transmitted by ingestion of an infected flea. Taenia is transmitted through eating an infected prey.

For which of the following would ultrasound-aided cystocentesis be the least dangerous?

Pregnant bitch. A dog with a bleeding disorder, a dog with advanced pyometra, and a cat with obvious bladder tumors are all dangerous for a cystocentesis.

The Bruce effect in mice is when:

Pregnant females are exposed to the urine of a strange male and abort. The Whitten effect is when anestrus females come into heat with the introduction of a male.

What is the name of the time period between the ingestion of the infective stage of a parasite and the passing of eggs from the adult parasite in the feces?

Prepatent.

Overinflation of an endotracheal tube cuff in the trachea of an anesthetized animal may result in:

Pressure necrosis.

Potassium citrate is most often given to dogs for which of the following reasons?

Prevent bladder stones. Potassium citrate is often supplemental in the diet to help prevent formation of calcium oxalate bladder stones.

A female dog has some vaginal bleeding, swollen vulva, and attracts males but will not allow them to mount. What stage of the estrus cycle is she in?

Proestrus. During this phase, there is vulvar swelling, vaginal bleeding, and attraction of males but no mounting is allowed. When the female will stand to be mounted, she is in estrus.

A bitch with a swollen vulva and bloody vulvar discharge that attracts but will not accept a male is likely in which stage of the estrous cycle?

Proestrus. In proestrus, vulvar edema is present with a bloody discharge. The bitch is attracted to males but will not stand for mating. A bitch that is in estrus will typically accept a male for mating. During estrus, the vulva is not quite as swollen and the discharge becomes more clear.

Which hormone maintains pregnancy?

Progesterone. Estrogen is made when the follicle stimulates GnRH from the hypothalamus and causes LH release from the anterior pituitary. LH causes the follicle to ovulate. The follicle then becomes the corpus luteum, and progesterone maintains the pregnancy. Prostaglandin actually causes luteal death.

Chronic exposure to which hormone leads to a pyometra?

Progesterone. Pyometra is often related to increased progesterone levels and their effect on the lining of the uterus. Prolonged exposure to estrogen can cause bone marrow suppression.

Regu-Mate and Synchro-mate-B, used for estrus synchronization in female animals, are both examples of synthetic:

Progestins.

The cause of true hyperventilation and tachypnea during anesthesia may include all of the following except:

Progression from light to moderate anesthesia. Hyperventilation and tachypnea may be observed in animals that profess from moderate to light anesthesia.

Which of the following suture materials persists in the body for the longest period?

Prolene. This is a nonabsorbable suture.

Myositis in a horse can occur as a result of which of the following?

Prolonged recumbency during anesthesia. It is extremely important for the anesthesia team to provide appropriate padding by means of rubber pads, inflatable tubes, or even an inflatable water bed to help decrease the pressure exerted on muscles as result of recumbency. Intraoperative hypotension can contribute to myositis due to lack of blood flow and subsequent ischemia at the level of the muscle. Myositis can result in extreme muscle pain and soreness. In severe cases, horses can develop myoglobinuria which can cause renal damage. The blood lactate level of 1.0 mg/dl is actually in the normal range; however, an increasing blood lactate level is a sign of anaerobic metabolism, which may be secondary to poor muscle oxygenation; the cause should be investigated and addressed.

When discharging a patient that is wearing a fentanyl patch, instructions to the owners should include:

Proper use and disposal of the patch.

The veterinarian asks you to retrieve a psittacine bird out of its cage for examination. Which of the following restraint tools would be least recommended for this type of bird?

Protective falconry gloves. Thick protective gloves should never be used to restrain psittacine birds in the clinical setting because it is too difficult to feel the patient through the gloves and can lead to trauma. Towels can be helpful, and a bird should always be approached from the front with the towel. By letting the bird view the towel, it helps to alleviate stress and more easily allows handling than grabbing from behind. The most important thing with restraint in birds is to prevent restriction of the chest so that the bird can breathe properly.

Antibodies belong to a class of:

Proteins.

Which of the following is considered a reportable swine disease?

Pseudorabies. Pseudorabies is a virus caused by porcine herpesvirus 1. Wild mammals, cattle, sheep, dogs, and racoons are also susceptible, and the disease can be fatal to these species. It is shed in oral and nasal secretions of swine and spread through oral/nasal contact or by fomites. Symptoms in pigs include abortion, nasal discharge/sneezing, seizures, depression, circling, and increased salivation. In cattle, it causes intense itching, also known as "mad itch", then seizures, and death.

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?

Psittacosis. Also known as Parrot fever, is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia psittaci. It is spread via bird droppings and nasal discharge. In humans, it causes cough, fatigue, fever, headache, and muscle aches. Some birds may be carriers of the bacteria and appear healthy. These carriers can intermittently shed the bacteria in their stool. Symptomatic birds may have droppings which look like pea soup, have decreased appetite, weight loss, ruffled feathers, conjunctivitis, or symptoms of upper respiratory infection. Pacheco's disease (known as Parrot Herpesvirus) is a fatal bird disease but is not contagious to humans. White muscle disease in livestock is caused by a selenium deficiency and is not contagious. Coccidioides immitis is a fungus which is not considered zoonotic from direct contact between animals and people, although humans may contract Coccidiodes indirectly. Any draining lesions thought to be caused by the organism should be handled as such.

Which of these is a nonburrowing mange mite?

Psoroptes cuniculi. Members of the family Psoroptidae reside on the surface of the skin or within the external ear canal. Notoedres cati, sarcoptes scabeii, and demodex follicurum are all burrowing mites.

A parrot presents because it is bleeding profusely from one of its feathers. What would likely be the best course of action to take after examination by the veterinarian?

Pull the feather out. Blood feathers are immature feathers that still have a blood supply to the shaft. The shaft usually appears dark as opposed to white or clear as would be seen in a mature feather. If one is cut or breaks from trauma, it can bleed profusely and not clot. The bird can actually die of blood loss in some cases. Typically, the best course of action is to pull the blood feather out. This is typically done using a hemostat and giving a firm pull.

Which of the following would most commonly be enlarged on chest films of a heartworm positive dog?

Pulmonary arteries. Heartworm disease causes right heart enlargement and enlargement of the pulmonary arteries, which are often seen on chest radiographs in pets with heartworm disease. Right heart enlargement gives a reverse-D appearance to the heart.

A dog with bradycardia and a low albumin on a high rate of IV fluids is at risk for developing which of the following?

Pulmonary edema. Albumin provides oncotic pressure which helps maintain fluid in the vasculature. If the oncotic pressure is decreased from low albumin and movement of blood through the body is slow due to a low heart rate (bradycardia), fluid can build up in the lungs (pulmonary edema).

A dog with bradycardia and low albumin on a high rate of IV fluids is at risk for developing which of the following?

Where are the nerve and blood vessels located in the anatomy of the tooth?

Pulp.

When performing CPCR (cerebro-cardio pulmonary resuscitation) in lateral recumbency, how far should you press down on the chest during compressions?

Push down about 1/3 of the chest width. This is because that level of compression is required to assure minimum circulation. Compressing the chest at a greater degree may result in fractured ribs or cardiac trauma.

You are assisting with a thoracocentesis and the fluid removed from the chest has a very foul odor. Which of the following types of pleural effusions is most likely?

Pyothorax. Pyothorax is purulent fluid (pus) in the pleural space and most often has a very foul odor. Chylothorax is chyle (lymphatic fluid) in the pleural space. Hemothorax is blood in the pleural space. Pneumothorax is air in the pleural space.

Coxiella burnetti is the cause of what zoonotic disease in humans?

Q fever. Coxiella is a gram-negative bacterium. Cattle, sheep, and goats are the primary reservoirs. Inhalation from infected birth tissues or urine is the main method of transmission. Undulant fever, or Bang's disease, is caused by Brucella. Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella. Plague is Yersinia pestis, a gram-negative rod. Be wary of cats presenting with enlarged or abscessed mandibular lymph nodes and fever. Contact the local and state health departments if you suspect a case of plague.

A urine protein:creatinine ratio may be requested for which purpose?

Quantify urine protein. Urine protein:creatinine ratio is helpful when quantifying the severity of proteinuria. Urine reagent test strips are not sufficiently quantitative, and the sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test merely provides a measure of the amount of protein in a single urine sample.

Babesia canis is found in:

RBCs.

The sacculus rotundus is part of the intestinal anatomy of what species?

Rabbit. The sacculus rotundus is proximal to the cecum containing a large amount of lymphoid tissue. It is only present in lagomorphs.

Which vaccine can a pregnant dog receive?

Rabies. Pregnant dogs may receive killed antigens such as the Rabies vaccine. The DHPP vaccine is modified live. The Bordetella intranasal is modified live, and the Bordetella injectable is cellular antigen extract and should not be given to pregnant animals.

A dog sustains a humeral fracture. Which nerve would most likely be damaged?

Radial nerve. The radial nerve innervates the extensor and supinator muscles located in the forelimb and provides distal sensation. This is the most commonly injured nerve in a forelimb fracture. The sciatic nerve runs along the hind limbs and can be immediately ruled out. The suprascapular nerve is higher up the forelimb and less likely to be injured. The ulnar nerve runs along the medial aspect of the humerus and is thought to be more protected than the radial nerve which courses along the lateral aspect of the humerus.

Positive contrast media are considered to be:

Radiopaque, which means it will be white on a processed film.

For a centrifuge, the relationship between revolutions per minute (RPM) and relative centrifugal force (g or RCF) can be calculated based on which of the following?

Radius of the centrifuge head. Many spin protocols indicate the RCF at which a tube needs to be spun. While some centrifuges may have an RCF setting, many can only be set in RPM. For a given centrifuge, the conversion factor is based on the radius of the centrifuge head from the center to the axis of rotation. The actual full formula for the conversion is RCF = 1.18 x 0.00001 x radius x rpm x rpm. This is probably not a formula that you need to memorize but you should be aware that it is the radius of the centrifuge that determines how much force is generated for a given RPM speed. A centrifuge with a larger radius will generate more force at a given RPM than a centrifuge with a smaller radius at the same RPM.

One of the adverse side effects of opioid administration is:

Significant respiratory depression. Opioids are potent respiratory depressants, especially at the higher dosages.

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly related to which of the following?

Rate of blood flow to the kidneys. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a test used to check how well the kidneys are working by estimating how much blood passes through the glomeruli each minute.

A chronotropic agent affects the:

Rate of contraction. Inotropic is force; chronotropic is rate (both words have an "r" in them).

A rising antibody titer in paired serum samples taken 2 weeks apart indicates a:

Recent infection.

Which of these are used in the minor cross-match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog?

Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma. In a minor crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the donor are going to react to the recipient's red blood cells.

When performing a major cross-match when a blood transfusion is necessary, which of the following samples are mixed?

Recipient serum with donor erythrocytes. In a major cross-match, the recipient's serum is combined with the donor erythrocytes, and the sample is examined for agglutination or hemolysis, indicating incompatibility. A minor cross-match combines recipient erythrocytes with donor serum.

A dog presents with severe seizures, and you are unable to hit a vein for catheter placement and need to stop the seizures immediately. Which of the following is an acceptable means of giving valium to a seizuring dog?

Rectal. Valium can be given rectally to stop seizures. NO oral medications should be given to a seizuring dog. Valium cannot be given via SQ, IO, or IP.

A patient with DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) may show abnormal red blood cells called schistocytes. What are schistocytes?

Red blood cell fragments. Patients with DIC frequently have schistocytes and decreased platelets on their blood smears.

What do spherocytes look like under the microscope?

Red blood cells that are small, very dark, and perfectly round. The spherocytes are smaller than normal red blood cells due to their loss of membrane, and there is no pale are in the center. The most specific disease showing this change in the RBCs is Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia. Other hemolytic conditions can also cause this change to occur. Echinocytes are spiculated red blood cells that are sometimes seen in snake bite cases.

You are instructed to give a medication which you are told is an antipyretic. What will this medication do?

Reduce fever. Anti-pyretics reduce fever. An example of an anti-pyretic medication is ketpofen (Ketoprofen) which is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory. The term pyrexia means fever. An example of an acid reducer (antacid) would be famotidine (Pepcid AC). A medication which would prevent vomiting would be an antiemetic. Examples of this include maropitant (Cerenia) or metoclopramide (Reglan). Reglan also has upper GI pro-kinetic properties.

In radiation safety, what is the difference between the "rad" and the "rem"?

Rem applies a quality factor to rad. Rad and rem are both old units of types of absorbed dose that can be applied to either the patient or to personnel. More commonly, rem is used in radiation safety for personnel, and rad is used in radiation therapy in dose calculations. The difference between the two is that rad is the basic unit of absorbed dose, and rem applies a quality factor depending on the type of radiation. For x-rays, rad equals rem; but for other types of radiation such as neutrons and protons, rem may be greater than rad. Rem exposure is of greater relevance in radiation protection than rad because the biologic effects of 10 rad of neutron exposure is far greater than the biologic effects of 10 rad of x-ray exposure. The units that should be used currently are the Gray (Gy) and the Sievert (Sv) for absorbed dose and effective absorbed dose respectively, but many people still use rad and rem.

In radiographic terminology, to which of the following does the term density refer?

The degree of blackness of the radiograph.

Of the following options, oral ulceration is most common in patients with which condition?

Renal failure. Severe azotemia causes generalized acidity in the body. This acidity makes animals in renal failure susceptible to development of ulcers in the gastrointestinal tract, including the mouth. This is an important reason why animals with azotemia are often on acid-blockers (such as famotidine).

Urine specific gravity is actually a measure of which of the following?

Renal tubular function. Specific gravity refers to the solids contained in the urine AFTER glomerular filtration. Such solids are from deposits throughout the downstream tubules.

Casts in the urine generally indicate damage in what part of the urinary system?

Renal tubules. Casts form in the distal and collecting tubules of the kidney because urine is the most concentrated and acidic in these areas.

A Golden retriever ingests several tablespoons of antifreeze. This will cause the most damage to what organ system?

Renal. Ethylene glycol (EG), the primary ingredient in antifreeze, causes damage to the renal system (kidneys). EG causes damage to the renal tubular epithelium, causing build up of oxalate crystals in the renal tubules and metabolic acidosis.

A veterinarian has diagnosed a horse with a fracture of the distal metatarsal. In regards to emergency management, which of the following is NOT part of triage?

Repair of the fracture. Stabilization, pain management, and development of a treatment plan are all part of triage; repair is not.

A suture pack with a cutting needle would be used on which of the following?

Skin. A cutting needle is ideal for skin. Cutting edge needles are not typically used when an airtight or watertight suture line is needed (like the bladder, intestines, etc.).

In the anesthetized, healthy patient, which of the following abnormalities is most commonly encountered?

Respiratory acidosis.

The most profound adverse effect of the opioid drugs is:

Respiratory depression.

Opioids are commonly used in veterinary medicine. What is one of the most common side effects of opioids?

Respiratory depression. Mu agonists (opioids) are known for causing respiratory depression, mostly at higher doses. They should be used with caution in animals with known breathing difficulty. Other side effects may include nausea, vomiting, sedation, or sometimes dysphoria. Diarrhea is not common. While opioids may cause elevated temperature in some cats, it is not very common. Opioids are a cornerstone of pain management in veterinary medicine.

When a patient shows clinical signs of dyspnea and cyanosis, the technician should check for:

Respiratory obstruction.

The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is:

Responsive movement. Increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, and active palpebral reflex may be indications of light planes of anesthesia, but patient movement as a result of painful stimuli is a clear indicator that the depth of anesthesia is not adequate.

Which of the following would be elevated in a pet with regenerative anemia?

Reticulocyte count. Reticulocytes are newly released red blood cells. These immature erythrocytes are indicative of a bone marrow response. An anemia is considered regenerative if the reticulocyte count is greater than 60,000. The hematocrit is low in a patient with anemia. Hemoglobin is typically low in a patient with anemia, especially if the pet has iron deficiency. Lymphocyte number can be variable but is not usually directly related to the anemia.

Where is the sinoatrial node located?

Right atrium. The sinoatrial node provides automaticity to the heart and is located on the right atrium. The impulse then travels to the atrioventricular node which then conducts the impulse down the Bundle of His to the Purkinje fibers. This pattern of depolarization results in a very coordinated contraction of the heart, allowing for smooth blood flow.

Phenylbutazone (bute) is often used for pain relief in horses. What side effect has been associated with this drug?

Right dorsal colitis. Phenylbutazone is an injectable non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug commonly used for the relief of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculoskeletal system in horses. This drug may cause right dorsal colitis associated with ulcerations in this specific region of the bowel.

A 3-year old castrated male Doberman Pinscher comes in to the emergency clinic with signs consistent with gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV). Following standard initial emergency treatment for suspected gastric dilation and volvulus, what imaging procedure would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis?

Right lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph. A typical GDV occurs with repositioning of the pylorus to the left dorsal abdomen. A right lateral radiographic image is the best perspective position for revealing a gas filled ventral fundus separated by a soft tissue band (compartmentalized stomach). Although the features of a malpositioned stomach may be observed on the other radiographic views, they are often more difficult to interpret than that represented by the right lateral recumbency view. The severe amount of gas within the GI tract that is associated with GDV would make ultrasound exam interpretation extremely difficult at best.

You are taking thoracic radiographs to evaluate for lung metastasis in a dog with splenic hemangiosarcoma. What radiographic views should be taken?

Right lateral, left lateral, and either a dorsoventral or ventrodorsal projection. When a patient is placed into left lateral recumbency for a left lateral radiograph, the left lung fields are compressed and do not inflate fully. This can prevent resolution of small metastatic lung lesions due to the lack of contrast with air in the left lung. The same is true of the right lung fields with a right lateral radiograph. Therefore, for evaluation of pulmonary metastasis, both a left and right lateral radiograph should be taken. Either a ventrodorsal (VD) or dorsoventral (DV) view is acceptable for visualizing the lung fields in this case.

You are reading a cardiologist report discussing tricuspid valve insufficiency and grade 3 murmur. The mitral valve is said to be normal. If you listened to this patient, where would you expect to hear the murmur the loudest?

Right side. The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle. Mitral murmurs are usually left-sided holosystolic murmurs.

A 6-year old collie presents after falling out of a moving vehicle. The dog has an open tibial fracture and pulmonary contusions. What would be the best way to immediately stabilize the fracture?

Robert-Jones bandage. Definitive stabilization, internal (plates or screws), or external fixation cannot be performed until the patient is stable for anesthesia; these would not be recommended immediately following the accident due to the presence of pulmonary contusions. Temporary stabilization with a Robert-Jones compression bandage would be best. Placing a Robert-Jones bandage on a broken femur is contraindicated as this could act as a fulcrum and cause further displacement of the fragments. Tourniquets for long periods of time can be dangerous.

Which of the following instruments is best suited for removing bone, such as may be done when removing the dorsal spinous process during spinal surgery?

Rongeur. The rongeur can have a single-action or double-action mechanism that allows for relatively easy removal of dense material such as bone. It comes with a sharp, scoop-shaped tip. The kern forceps is used to help hold bone fragments in reduction during a fracture repair. Rochester-Carmalt forceps are used to grasp masses of tissue or vessels. A mallet is a device similar to a hammer used in surgery.

What is the drug of choice for treating Tritrichomonas foetus in cats?

Ronidazole. It is a nitroimidazole antimicrobial that has mutagenic properties and should be handled as would a chemotherapeutic agent. Ronidazole is not licensed for use in cats and is thus used off-label for this parasite; it should only be used with caution and with informed, signed, owner consent.

A cat has a skin lesion that is not improving with antibiotic therapy, and you assist the veterinarian in performing a biopsy and culture. The result shows Sporothrix schenckii. This is a zoonotic disease also known as what in humans?

Rose gardener's disease. Sporothrix is a cigar-shaped yeast and is typically found in soil and vegetation in coastal regions or river valleys. Infection may occur from direct inoculation of the organism into a skin wound during contact with plants or soil, or secondary to a penetrating foreign body. It is known as rose gardener's disease because the organism may gain entry to the body during gardening or digging in the soil. Cat scratch fever is caused by Bartonella henselae. Tularemia is caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis and is most common in rabbits (rabbit fever). Tuberculosis in humans is caused by a mycobacterium, causing lung disease. Various mycobacteria also cause disease in animals, such as M. bovis and M. avium.

What is the causative agent of visceral larval migrans in humans?

Roundworm. The roundworm, Toxocara canis, is the most common cause of visceral larval migrans in humans. Transmission is usually fecal-oral. Puppies may acquire the disease transplacentally.

On a bone marrow smear, which of the following is the most immature red blood cell precursor?

Rubriblast. The erythrocyte lineage, from most immature to mature, proceeds as follows: Rubriblast, prorubricyte, basophilic rubricyte, polychromatophilic rubricyte, metarubricyte, reticulocyte. The metamyelocyte is part of the lineage of the segmented leukocytes.

In what order does the impulse for depolarization travel through the heart?

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers.

Gram-negative bacteria retain which component of the gram stain?

Safranin. The purple-crystal violet stain washes away from the gram-negative bacteria; they absorb the final stain, safranin, which is pink-red.

The parotid gland is responsible for making and secreting which of the following?

Saliva. The parotid is the largest of the salivary glands. Sebum is made by the sebaceous glands. Epinephrine is made by the adrenal glands. Oxytocin is made by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary gland. Tears are produced by the lacrimal gland.

You volunteered at the zoo and spent the day handling the tortoises. A day later you have gastrointestinal symptoms. Reptiles are a major source for which of the following?

Salmonella. Salmonella is a gram-negative rod of the family Enterobacteriaceae. It is transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Reptiles and sometimes birds can be chronic carriers of Salmonella. Turtles, iguanas, and snakes are especially known to harbor the bacteria.

Which type of fracture occurs at the growth plate and is seen in young animals?

Salter-Harris. Salter-Harris fractures are pediatric fractures occurring at the growth plate. A greenstick fracture is a hair-line type fracture that is not separated from the bone shaft. An oblique fracture (often called a spiral fracture) is a break in the shaft that results in two long sharp points. A transverse fracture is a break that goes directly across the bone shaft. Comminuted fractures have multiple fragments.

Use of a detergent kennel-washer is an example of:

Sanitation. Using stronger agents like bleach or trifectant is disinfection.

Which organism causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) in the horse?

Sarcocystis neurona. EPM is caused by the aberrant migration of Sarcocystis neurona through the central nervous system of the horse. This causes variable clinical signs such as ataxia and muscle atrophy in the horse.

Which of the following ectoparasites has zoonotic potential?

Sarcoptes. Especially to humans. Demodex, notoedres, and psoroptes are all not zoonotic.

The pulse oximeter measures what variable?

Saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen. Pulse oximetry detects the amount of oxygen present on hemoglobin and is expressed as a percentage (i.e. 97% saturation). This monitor measures saturation by using the different wave lengths of saturated and desaturated hemoglobin. This is different than the amount of pressure that oxygen exerts on a vessel (i.e. the partial pressure of oxygen).

Which of the following represents the source of the most radiation exposure to a veterinary technician who is restraining a cat for a radiograph, taking the exposure, and processing the film?

Scatter from the patient area. If good technique is practiced (i.e. no part of the technician is inside the primary beam), there should be no exposure to the technician from the primary beam. Most of the radiation exposure will actually come from scattered X-rays that interact with the patient's tissue and then go in another direction, potentially towards the technician. There is a much smaller amount of scatter radiation that may come off of the collimator, and no radiation should be emitted from radiograph processing equipment. The 3 important principles to minimize radiation exposure are to maximize distance from the radiation source, decrease the time of exposure to radiation whenever possible, and to use equipment to shield personnel from radiation.

Which test checks for keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

Schirmer Tear Test is the test for keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS), or most commonly known as "dry eye". Tonometry is the measurement of intraocular pressures and tests for glaucoma, which is increased pressure in the eye. Fluoroscein stain checks for corneal ulcers or abrasions; it is a yellow dye that these defects will uptake on the cornea and can be seen under a blue light. Nasolacrimal flush is used to flush/clear out the nasolacrimal duct (tear duct) if it becomes clogged.

A red blood cell fragment, as might be seen from shearing of the cell by trauma in an animal with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy, is known as what?

Schistocyte. A schistocyte is a red blood cell fragment that is usually formed due to shearing from intravascular trauma; they are seen in cases of DIC or vascular neoplasms such as hemangiosarcoma. An acanthocyte is a red blood cell with surface projections that are seen mainly in animals with altered lipid metabolism or liver disease. An echinocyte is a red blood cell with uniform blunt projections that are usually artifacts from blood drying but may also be seen with some diseases. A keratocyte is a red blood cell that appears to contain a vacuole; they are sometimes called blister cells and may occur from intravascular trauma. A spherocyte is a dark-staining red blood cell with no central pallor that usually occurs from partial phagocytosis of the cell seen with immune-mediated destruction.

What is the term commonly used to describe diarrhea in calves?

Scours. It can be a serious health problem in calves and is best prevented by good husbandry.

Which of the following arrhythmias is common in horses and can be alleviated by exercise?

Second degree AV block. Second degree AV block is a very common arrhythmia in adult horses as a result of high vagal tone. This arrhythmia is "regularly irregular" and often alleviates with exercise. It is more common in athletic horses. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular arrhythmia and a more serious condition that occurs when the SA node isn't firing properly. Electrocardiogram is the best way to determine atrial fibrillation by identifying a lack of p waves. It is treated with Quinidine, an antiarrhythmic. Ventricular fibrillation is a severely abnormal heart rhythm that is most often identified in patients that have undergone cardiac arrest. Third degree AV block, or complete heart block, is rare in horses and usually associated with degenerative or inflammatory changes in the heart. Horses with this condition usually have exercise intolerance or syncope.

Butorphanol tartrate has been prescribed for a Pomeranian with a collapsed trachea. The client should be cautioned that a common side effect of this drug is:

Sedation.

A foal has petechial hemorrhages on its pinna, injected sclera, and brick red mucous membranes. These are signs of which of the following?

Sepsis. Depression, cold limbs, aural petechiations, injected tongue and mucous membranes, hypoglycemia, increased respiration, decreased suckling of the mare, hypothermia, and recumbency are all symptoms of sepsis in the foal. Failure of passive transfer predisposes the foal to sepsis.

A 4-month-old Angus calf in a beef herd in Northern California has died. Symptoms before death included lethargy and coughing. You assist with a necropsy and find pale areas in the cardiac muscles. The veterinarian diagnoses white muscle disease. He asks you to assist with collecting blood samples from the herd to test for what deficiency?

Selenium. Nutritional myodegeneration (white muscle disease) is associated with low dietary selenium levels and compounded by low dietary vitamin E. Unsupplemented cattle grazing soils of volcanic origin are at high risk, and calves born in these herds may show skeletal or cardiac muscle syndromes. Measurement of whole blood selenium in some of the cows from the herd will indicate if the herd needs supplementation with selenium.

Oversupplementation of which of the following can be detrimental for cats and dogs?

Selenium. Selenium toxicity may cause nervousness, anorexia, and ataxia.

Clomipramine is a veterinary approved drug used most commonly to treat which condition?

Separation anxiety. Clomipramine (Clomicalm) is most often used to treat generalized anxiety or separation anxiety in small animals. It is also approved for obsessive compulsive behaviors in dogs. Chlorpheniramine sounds similar, and is an anti-histamine used in treating allergies. The most commonly prescribed medication for urinary incontinence is phenylpropanolamine. Potassium-bromide and phenobarbital are commonly used medications for epilepsy.

After performing intestinal surgery, there is a small possibility of complications. What would be the consequence of an intestinal dehiscence?

Septic abdomen. The intestines are lined with bacteria, and any contamination of intestinal contents within the abdomen may result in bacterial colonization and, subsequently, septic peritonitis (septic abdomen). The peritoneum is the lining of the abdomen, and the "it is" implies inflammation. The process is secondary to bacterial contamination and is therefore not a sterile peritonitis. Inflammatory bowel disease is an autoimmune small intestinal disease that both dogs and cats may develop. Vomiting may be a clinical sign of a septic abdomen, and a cause should be identified if vomiting occurs after surgery.

Hypoglycemia is most common in patients experiencing:

Septic shock.

Which of the following tests would be most helpful in the diagnosis of feline pancreatitis?

Serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (PLI). Amylase and lipase are not sufficiently sensitive or specific in the cat to diagnose pancreatitis, but PLI has been shown to correlate very well with the presence and severity of pancreatitis in cats.

A falsely indicated hypoglycemia may result from:

Serum remaining on the blood cells too long after centrifuging. Blood cells continue to utilize glucose when in contact.

Which of the following tests is best for evaluating a dog with possible exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

Serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI). TLI is a sensitive and specific test for exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs. The other tests (serum lipase, serum amylase, and serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (PLI))are used more commonly to diagnose pancreatitis.

Because horses must regain a standing position in recovery following the use of gas anesthesia, certain inhalants are preferred over others. In regards to gas anesthesia in the horse, choose the correct order, from most commonly used to least commonly used.

Sevoflurane, Halothane, Isoflurane. Selection of inhalant anesthesia for the equine patient is based, among other things, on recovery quality. Quality of recovery in Sevoflurane is better than in Halothane, which is better than Isoflurane. Although Isoflurane is the most commonly used inhalant in small animals, it is the least common choice in horses because other agents provide smoother recoveries.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of Humulin insulin?

Shake well before use. Most insulin types should never be shakes. Insulin should only be gently rolled prior to use. The exception to this is Vetsulin, which should be shaken prior to use. Insulin should be refrigerated, and although typically given subcutaneously, it can be given intramuscularly and is often given this way in cases of diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin causes a drop in blood glucose.

What is the most likely period of time for a scrotal hernia to occur in a stallion?

Shortly after breeding. Newborn foals and breeding stallions are most commonly affected with scrotal hernias. In foals, the hernias may spontaneously resolve as long as they are addressed every time they occur. However, there is a risk that the herniated contents can become incarcerated, resulting in a surgical emergency. In breeding stallions, the contents usually become incarcerated and emergency surgery will be needed.

Patients that have received prednisone chronically need to be tapered off slowly to avoid which of the following?

Signs of hypoadrenocorticism. Chronic prednisone administration can lead to atrophy of the adrenal gland due to the absence of signaling to produce cortisol. If prednisone is suddenly stopped, the adrenal gland will not be capable of producing enough cortisol, and the animal may show signs of hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease).

What is the metallic element present on radiograph film that turns black when exposed and run through the radiograph development process?

Silver. Films go into developer first which reduces exposed silver halide into elemental metallic silver which is black. Crystals that were unexposed do not undergo this process. Fixer then converts the unexposed crystals into a soluble form so that they dissolve away, leaving a clear image where the film was unexposed.

A dorsoproximal-dorsodistal oblique radiograph of the carpus is frequently referred to as what type of radiograph?

Skyline view. With a standing patient, a skyline view is taken with the carpus flexed and the x-ray cassette placed along the anterior aspect of the limb. The x-ray beam is aimed from proximally to distally and an oblique angle. This technique is used in equine radiography most frequently to view the distal radius, the proximal row of carpal bones, and the distal row of carpal bones where chip or slab fractures commonly occur, especially in racehorses. Sclerosis of the carpal bone can also be visualized here. This technique decreases the overlap of surrounding bones and structures in order to improve the ability to see lesions specifically in this area. A flexed lateral radiograph also involves flexing the carpus, but the beam is aimed from laterally and the cassette is placed medially. This technique allows the carpal bones to separate and makes the margins of the bone more clearly visible. A horizontal beam radiograph generally is used to confirm the presence of air or fluid in a body cavity (thorax, abdomen). A bisecting angle radiograph is a technique used to prevent distortion when it is not possible to place the film parallel to the structure of interest and perpendicular to the x-ray beam, commonly in dental radiography.

A drug that is a cholinergic agent will have which of the following effects?

Slow the heart rate. Cholinergic agents are drugs that mimic the effects of acetylcholine within the autonomic nervous system. These drugs stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system. They promote salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation (sometimes abbreviated SLUD or referred to as "rest and digest" functions). They can cause pupil constriction or decreased heart rate. A commonly used cholinergic drug is bethanechol which is structurally similar to acetylcholine but resists degradation. It is used to treat gastric atony or urinary retention in the bladder.

You are working at the specialty center and are observing an echocardiogram for the first time. The cardiologist prescribed the drug propranolol to a canine patient. What effect will this medication have on the heart?

Slows the heart rate. Propranolol is a Beta-1 and Beta-2 blocker. It blocks the sympathetic nervous system (sympatholytic) which allows for the parasympathetic effects on the heart to dominate. The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart. Remember-parasympathetic - rest and digest (slower heart rate, and sympathetic - fight or flight (increased heart rate).

The vomeronasal organ is closely associated with which sense?

Smell. The vomeronasal organ is associated with olfaction, or smell. The Flehmen response sometimes seen in horses occurs when the horse extends its upper lip, facilitating exposure of this organ to better detect smells or pheromones.

Fasciola hepatica requires which intermediate host?

Snail. Fasciola hepatica is the liver fluke. It is typically found in wet environments where snails proliferate. Snails are the intermediate host for this parasite, and the most common definitive hosts are sheep and cattle. It is a flat worm, resembling a leaf.

A rabbit presents with a history of sneezing, nasal discharge, and conjunctivitis. The veterinarian suspects the rabbit has a Pasteurella infection, most commonly known as which of the following?

Snuffles. Snuffles is caused most often by Pasteurella multocida and results in upper respiratory symptoms and sometimes conjunctivitis in rabbits. It is highly contagious and generally treated with antibiotics. Tularemia is sometimes known as Rabbit fever. Q fever is caused by Coxiella burnetti.

A 13-year old diabetic cat arrests during hospitalization during a blood glucose curve. During resuscitation efforts, an emergency blood panel is run which reveals a blood pH of 6.4. What drug may be requested by the veterinarian to help correct this abnormality but would not be used as a long-term therapy?

Sodium bicarbonate. A blood pH of 6.4 is low, or acidic. Sodium bicarbonate can increase the cat's blood pH but ultimately the underlying problem (the diabetes) must be treated. Insulin may be used in both resuscitation efforts and long-term therapy. Darbopoetin causes an increase in red blood cell production and has no effect on blood pH. Potassium gluconate is administered orally to correct hypokalemia. Methylprednisolone can cause an increase in blood glucose levels and is not a drug used to correct pH. Corticosteroids such as this should be avoided in diabetic patients when possible.

In the suspected presence of viral enteritis, which of the following would be the agent of choice to disinfect an area?

Sodium hypochlorite.

The osmotic pressure of body fluids is primarily maintained by which of the following ions?

Sodium.

An inhalant anesthetic with shorter induction and recovery periods will have a low:

Solubility coefficient. The gas anesthetic solubility coefficient and potency determine the rapidity of onset and recovery.

A double-contrast cystogram involves which of the following?

Soluble positive-contrast media and air injected directly into the bladder.

Which species is particularly aggressive when with her young, and extreme caution must be used?

Sows. In general, pigs are more aggressive species. The lactating sow is particularly dangerous; and when handling piglets, it is best to remove the sow to a separate area where she cannot hear her piglets.

Which of the following is an important safety feature that one must follow when using biomedical lasers for surgery?

Special safety glasses must be worn. Special safety glasses that are specific to the laser wavelength should be worn by anyone present in the room during biomedical laser use. There are no specific requirements regarding the gas the patient is breathing, but one must keep in mind that oxygen is flammable. If you are working near the mouth while the patient is receiving oxygen, make sure there are no leaks in the system. The incision site may be scrubbed with any commonly used pre-operative scrubbing agent. If alcohol is used, make sure the excess alcohol is removed or has evaporated prior to applying the laser. There is no need for the operator to hold his/her breath while activating the laser.

In the bacterial name Borrelia burgdorferi, what does burgdorferi represent?

Species. Borrelia is the genus name.

A red blood cell that stains darkly with no central pallor is called what?

Spherocyte. A spherocyte is a dark staining red blood cell with no central pallor that usually occurs from partial phagocytosis of the cell as is seen with immune-mediated destruction. A schistocyte is a red blood cell fragment that is usually formed due to shearing from intravascular trauma and they are seen in cases of DIC or vascular neoplasms such as hemangiosarcoma. An acanthocyte is a red blood cell with surface projections that are seen mainly in animals with altered lipid metabolism or liver disease. An echinocyte is a red blood cell that is speculated with uniform blunt projections that are usual artifacts from blood drying but may be seen in some diseases. A keratocyte is a red blood cell that appears to contain a vacuole; they are sometimes called blister cells and they may occur from intravascular trauma.

All of the following organs may facilitate the elimination of drugs except the:

Spleen. Kidneys, liver, and lungs all help with the excretion of drugs.

The function of a Robert Jones bandage is to:

Stabilize a limb fracture prior to surgery. It is used for immobilization of fractures distal to the elbow or stifle before surgery because of its several layers of padding. A Modified Robert Jones bandage is for post-surgical immobilization.

Mannitol Salt Agar, or MSA, selects for growth of which species of organism?

Staphylococcus. This media contains a high concentration of salt, making it mostly selective for Staphylococci, since this level of NaCl inhibits most other bacteria. This media contains the indicator phenol red.

Ketones in the urine may be caused by unregulated diabetes (diabetic ketoacidosis). What is another potential cause of ketonuria?

Starvation. Ketones are intermediate products of fat metabolism. Diabetes is the most common condition in which ketones are produced. Starvation can also cause ketonuria, except without the hyperglycemia.

It is a very busy day at the clinic. Multiple emergencies walk in all at the same time. Choose the order in which the following cases should be seen.

Status epilepticus, dyspnea, fracture, stranguria, cervical pain, abscess. In a perfect situation both the seizuring pet and the pet with difficulty breathing would be treated immediately. Sometimes this may not be possible and triage is necessary. Status epilepticus is a state of seizuring that is continuous. This is life-threatening, and the seizures must be stopped immediately or permanent brain and organ damage can occur. Dyspnea or difficulty breathing is always a top priority emergency. The dyspneic animal should be assessed and placed on oxygen while the seizuring dog is being treated. Fractures, while painful, are not immediately life-threatening as long as there is no bleeding vessel that needs to be controlled, which is sometimes the case with an open fracture. Straining to urinate is not usually life-threatening unless it is a "blocked cat", or urethral obstruction. If this were a blocked cat, it should be seen before the fracture. Neck pain and abscesses are not life-threatening and should be seen last if the patients are stable.

You are assisting with an exploratory surgery, and the dog has a septic peritonitis from a perforated bowel. Before closure, the veterinarian lavages the abdomen with what?

Sterile physiologic saline. Copious lavage of the abdomen with sterile physiologic saline solution is performed prior to closure of the abdomen.

After finishing a routine enterotomy, the surgeon prepares to perform a leak check of the site. What instruments should you hand the surgeon?

Sterile syringe, needle, and saline. A leak check is performed by occluding both sides of intestine several centimeters from the enterotomy and then injecting sterile intraluminal saline, with a syringe. As the intestine fills with saline the incision site is evaluated for obvious leakage. Ligatures are then placed as necessary to seal any leak sites. A sterile red rubber catheter may be used for leak checks in male dogs that have had a cystotomy. The red rubber catheter is introduced via the penis, and saline is then infused into the bladder to perform the leak check.

Once extubated, feline patients should be placed in:

Sternal recumbency with the neck extended. This helps to maintain a patent airway.

A dog is having his teeth cleaned and has a discolored upper right third premolar. The doctor would like you to take an x-ray of his tooth. Which patient position would make the radiograph easiest to take?

Sternal recumbency. This position is best for x-rays of the maxilla. Dorsal recumbency is easiest for the anterior mandible, and lateral is best for the premolars and molars of the mandible.

What is the main effect of Dopram (doxopram hydrochloride)?

Stimulates respiration. In veterinary medicine, it is used to aid in diagnosis of laryngeal paralysis.

How do oral flea control products such as Program or Sentinel work?

Stopping egg hatching. These products interfere with chitin synthesis. The flea's "egg tooth", which is made of chitin, is no longer able to help the flea hatch from the egg. Another possible correct choice, but not provided, would be that females produce sterile eggs. Female fleas may produce 150-300 eggs per week (or up to 50 eggs a day). These products do not kill adult fleas.

What is the term used to describe difficulty in urination?

Stranguria. Stranguria describes straining or difficulty to urinate. Pollakiuria refers to an increase in frequency in urination. Oliguria is a decrease in urination. Anuria is the complete absence of urine formation.

What is the causative agent of Equine strangles?

Streptococcus equi. The most common symptoms of strangles are mucopurulent nasal discharge, fever, decreased appetite, cough, and abscessed lymph nodes that often rupture and drain. Horses with strangles should be isolated for 6 to 8 weeks because the disease is highly contagious. It is caused by the bacteria Strep equi. Moraxella bovis is the cause of pinkeye in cattle. EHV-1 causes abortion in horses.

A guinea pig presents with swollen glands in the neck. What organism most often causes this problem?

Streptococcus zooepidemicus. Cervical lymphadenitis is a swelling or abscess of the cervical lymph nodes in a guinea pig's neck. It is most often caused by Streptococcus zooepidemicus. It is a bacteria most commonly transmitted through broken oral mucosa. It is treated by surgical draining and flushing of the abscess. Enrofloxacin (Baytril) is the antibiotic of choice in adult guinea pigs. It is thought that this bacterium could be zoonotic in immune-compromised humans, so you the technician should wear gloves and take extra precautions when treating a guinea pig with a swelling such as this.

Which bacterium is gram-positive?

Streptococcus. And Staphylococcus are the two most common gram-positives (cocci) to know about. The others listed (Salmonella, E. coli, Campylobacter) are all gram-negative (rods).

Which of the following conditions would cause the bowel to appear plicated?

String foreign body. A string foreing body causes a plicated or accordion type appearance to the bowel. This occurs because the string often gets anchored up further orad (usually around the base of the tongue) and as it passes, it bunches up the intestines.

Cardiac Output (CO) is determined by what variables?

Stroke volume x heart rate. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute.

In appearance, hookworm ova resemble which other parasitic ova?

Strongyle. There are many ova that look alike; to correctly identify them, you must know the origin of the fecal sample.

Infection of foals with the parasite that can be associated with diarrhea in young horses is called what?

Strongyloides westeri. Strongyloides pass from the host in the larvated form and are recognizable as an oval-shaped, thin-shelled embryonated egg. Larvae of Strongyloides westeri are transmitted to foals in the mare's milk. Adult horses rarely have patent infections except when larvae harbored in their tissues migrate into a mare's milk after parturition. The worms are found in the small intestine and may cause diarrhea in young horses. Ivermectin or oxibendazole are effective in treatment of S. westeri.

Infection of foals with this parasite can be associated with diarrhea in young horses. What is the parasite?

Strongyloides westeri. Strongyloides pass from the host in the larvated form and are recognizable as an oval-shaped, thin-shelled embryonated egg. Larvae of Strongyloides westeri are transmitted to foals in the mare's milk. Adult horses rarely have patient infections except when larvae harbored in their tissues migrate into a mare's milk after parturition. The worms are found in the small intestine and may cause diarrhea in young horses. Ivermectin or oxibendazole are effective in treatment of S. westeri.

Which of the following is NOT considered a clinically important large strongyle in the horse?

Strongylus equorum. Strongylus vulgaris, Strongylus edentates, and Strongylus equinus are the large strongyles of horses. Strongylus equorum does not exist. Although Parascaris equorum is a relevant parasite (round worm) in foals.

A 4-year old male Thoroughbred horse presents for colic due to verminous arteritis caused by an equine parasite. What is the parasite that causes verminous arteritis of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses?

Strongylus vulgaris. Colic with an associated painful mass at the root of the mesentery is seen with verminous arteritis, caused by damage to the cranial mesenteric artery and its branches by Strongylus vulgaris. A number of anthelmintics are effective including benzimidazoles, pyrantel and ivermectin.

What organism is verminous arteritis associated with in the horse?

Strongylus vulgaris. S. vulgaris is a large syrongyle that causes arteritis and thrombosis of the vessels of the GI tract in the horse and eventually can result in segmental ischemia or infarction of the bowel wall. This, in turn, results in signs of colic in the horse. Fortunately, with the advent of modern anthelmintics, this form of colic is not common.

Acidifying the diet of a dog will help prevent what type of bladder stones?

Struvite. AKA triple phosphate stones, but may lead to an increase of oxalate stones.

What type of crystal tends to form in urine that is alkaline and typically appears as a 6-8 sided prism with tapering sides?

Struvite. Struvite crystals are sometimes described as resembling a coffin lid, although they may sometimes have a slightly different appearance. They are composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate. Calcium carbonate crystals are round with radiating lines from the center; they may also have a dumbbell shape. Calcium oxalate crystals appear as small squares with an "x" across them. Ammonium biurate crystals are round with long, irregular spicules.

What is a ranula?

Sublingual mucocele. A ranula is a fluctuant swelling of connective tissue consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct. They are found under the tongue.

How are bladder stone types identified?

Submit to lab for analysis. The only way to know what a bladder stone is composed of is through lab analysis of its composition. Sometimes we can make an educated guess based on the appearance of the stones grossly, on a radiograph, crystals in urine, or based on urine pH, but none of these things are definitive can be unreliable.

Which medication is considered a gastric "band-aid"?

Sucralfate. AKA Carafate acts as a sticky paste that binds with proteins found in ulcers and adheres there like a band-aid to aid in protection and healing. Pepcid (famotidine) is an antacid that helps to decrease the gastric acid that can cause an ulcer to occur. Metoclopramide is a pro-motility agent that helps to reduce vomiting. Metronidazole is an antibiotic often used in treating diarrhea.

Which stain is used to look for lipids or fats and is helpful in looking for intestinal malabsorption?

Sudan stain. Intestinal malabsorption is detected via the Sudan Stain Test. It is performed on feces to look for fat. Sudan stain is a dye which stains for lipids specifically.

You find coccidia (Cystoisospora) on a fecal float for a puppy that presents with mucoid diarrhea with streaks of blood. What medication is used to treat coccidia?

Sulfadimethoxine (Albon). It is used to treat coccidia in dogs and cats.

All of the following are antifungal agents except:

Sulfadimethoxine. Griseofulvin, Clotrimazole, and ketoconazole are all antifungal agents. Sulfadimethoxine is a sulfa drug.

A very useful group of broad-spectrum drugs, whose popularity has declined because of side effects including keratoconjunctivitis sicca, polyarthritis, hematuria, photosensitivity, and hypothyroidism, is the:

Sulfonamides. Sulfonamides include Albon and TMS; well known for KCS.

In the horse, the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure?

Suprascapular nerve. Sweeney is the term for atrophy of the shoulder muscle in the horse. It is caused by damage to the suprascapular nerve. This nerve is responsible for innervation to the infraspinatus and supraspinatus muscles, which are found in the scapula (shoulder blade).

Which of the following suture/needle combination is most commonly used in veterinary medicine?

Swaged, curved needle. A swaged needle is one that has the suture connected to the needle. It is essentially "eye-less". Curved needles are preferentially used to suture all anatomic structures such as fascia, subcutaneous tissue, dermis, and skin. Eyed needles have a hole at the end through which suture is fed. These types of needles are more traumatic to the tissues and not as commonly used.

The mucin clot test can be used when evaluating which fluid type?

Synovial fluid. Mucin is a component of synovial fluid that will form a clot when mixed with acetic acid. The properties of the resulting clot reflect the amount of hyaluronic acid present and thus the quality of the synovial fluid. A large, ropy clot in a clear fluid is a good clot, while a cloudy solution, a friable or soft clot, or absence of a clot reflects a poor quality.

Parrots have the unique ability to mimic sound. What anatomical structure in birds is responsible for producing sound?

Syrinx. The syrinx is considered to be the voice box of parrots. They don't have a larynx, like mammals. The syrinx is located between the base of the tongue and the trachea. The choana is the slit-like opening in the roof of the bird's mouth that connects to the sinus cavity in the skull. The cloaca is the opening where the feces, urine, and reproductive activity exit the body.

A patient under general anesthesia has become hypoxic. You suspect that the endotracheal tube might be in too far. How can you be sure?

Take an endotracheal tube with a similar outside diameter, line up the measurement numbers on the proximal end of the tube, and then lay it against the outside of the patient approximately following the route of the trachea. The endotracheal tube's distal end should not extend past the point of the shoulder, and its proximal end should not extend past the incisor teeth. Proper placement insures that the animal is not endobronchially intubated which can cause hypoxemia and one-sided lung collapse. Lining up the connectors on the proximal end of the endotracheal tube may give you a false measurement because endotracheal tubes can be cut shorter to lessen the dead space on smaller patients. Pulling the endotracheal tube cranially without measuring could cause the patient to become extubated, making matters worse. If the endotracheal tube connector is past the incisors, it doesn't necessarily mean that it is in too far. The tube might have been cut shorter for a previous patient to lessen dead space and may not be long enough for another patient. The distal end might be perfectly placed.

When handling a raptor, what is the anatomic structure that can cause the most damage to a handler?

Talons. In the birds of prey, the talons are very sharp and dangerous and need to be secured. While the beak and wings are also "weapons", the mouth is soft except the point of the beak, and the jaw isn't very strong. In the raptorial species, gloves are often used and needed as part of the restraint method.

A healthy 1-year old Labradoodle presents for a wellness exam. You are asked to evaluate the dog's fecal float; you find the structures seen in the image below (shown from 40X magnification, each is about 40 um in diameter). What are they?

Tapeworm eggs. These are Taenia eggs, although it is frequently not possible to distinguish them visually from Spirometra. Adult cestodes in the intestine of dogs and cats rarely cause serious disease but potential signs include malaise, increased appetite, colic, or mild diarrhea.

A healthy 1-year old Labradoodle presents for a wellness exam. You are asked to evaluate the dog's fecal float; you find the structures seen in the image. What are they?

What does bog spavin describe?

Tarsocrural effusion. Bog spavin is a term used in the equine field. It describes the accumulation of synovial fluid in the tarsocrural joint. Rotation of the coffin joint occurs with laminitis. "Bowed tendon" and tendonitis are the descriptive terms for inflammation of a tendon. If in the correct location the abscessed hoof wall may be termed a subsolar abscess. These result in extreme pain and lameness and must be distinguished from laminitis.

The "hock joint" of a horse is more appropriately identified as what structure?

Tarsocrural joint. It is a high-motion joint composed of numerous bones.

You are examining a 4-year old Paint gelding and notice the animal has petechial and ecchymotic hemorrhages. Which of the following diagnostic tests would help determine if platelets are associated with this finding?

Template Bleeding Time (TBT). The TBT is a test that determines the functional ability of platelets to plug a minute wound. A buccal mucosal bleeding test is similar to template bleeding time. The APTT and PT determine if there are deficiencies in the coagulation factors and do not assess platelet function. Antithrombin activity is sometimes measured when disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a concern but is not used to evaluate platelet function.

The correct term for the fibrous cord of connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone is:

Tendon.

What are hoof testers used for in horses?

Test for pain. The hoof tester is used to apply pressure over parts of the hoof to see if a pain response results.

Where would you find a Sertoli cell tumor?

Testicle. Sertoli cells are striated cells in the seminiferous tubules that aid in spermatogenesis by providing nourishment for sperm cells. They are present in the testicle.

If a horse receives a cut on the leg from barbed wire and is not vaccinated, what is the protocol for preventing tetanus?

Tetanus antitoxin within 24 hours. A horse that is potentially exposed and not vaccinated should receive the tetanus antitoxin within 24 hours of injury. This will provide some temporary immunity for about 2 weeks. If the wound is still present at that time, the vaccination is given again. A horse that actually has tetanus is given both tetanus toxoid and antitoxin.

The class of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat rickettsial infections is:

Tetracyclines. Intracellular organisms transmitted by ticks.

Which of the following blades is the most commonly used when incising the skin of an animal?

The No. 10 blade is the most commonly used blade, and the technician needs to be familiar with this blade size. The No. 15 blade is also commonly used. This blade is smaller and will be used for more delicate incisions. The No. 11 blade is pointed at the tip and will be used to transect structures such as ligaments. The No. 12 blade is not commonly used but some may use it to lance abscesses.

You are taking a series of chest radiographs and notice that all of the films appear darker (more exposed) towards one side of the film. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

The X-ray beam is usually more intense on one side of the field. This phenomenon is known as the "Heel effect". X-ray distribution in diagnostic X-ray units is uneven, with the beam being most intense at the cathode side of the machine and weakest at the anode side. This effect is frequently minor but can be noticeable. It is advantageous to radiograph patients of uneven thickness (i.e. the body of a deep-chested dog) by orienting the thickest part toward the cathode side of the x-ray tube.

You take a series of chest radiographs and notice that all of the films appear darker (more exposed) towards one side of the film. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

Clipping an abdomen for a ventral midline laparotomy is one of the more common procedures done as a surgical nurse working with dogs and cats. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

The abdomen should be clipped widely with at least 2 cm margins cranial to the xiphoid and 2 cm caudal to the pubis. The manubrium is the most cranial bone of the sternum and would imply clipping the chest, which is not necessary for a laparotomy. Occasionally surgical complications necessitate the lengthening of an incision; in effect, it is important to clip widely to allow the surgeon the flexibility to extend the incision if necessary.

Many x-ray machines used in veterinary medicine have a 2-part exposure process. The first step involves depressing a button or pushing a pedal half-way to prepare the machine for the exposure and then a second button or fully depressing the pedal to take the exposure. What happens in the x-ray machine when the first step is started?

The anode rotates and the filament is heated. To generate x-rays, the filament must be heated for a process called thermionic emission to occur, wherein a cloud of electrons forms around the filament and can be accelerated from cathode to anode for the exposure. Because a great deal of heat build-up occurs during x-ray production, most x-ray machines have a rotating anode to distribute the heat. This is done in preparation for the exposure. When the exposure button is pressed, charge in the x-ray tube accelerates the electrons, which hit the target at the anode, which emits x-rays.

A film is discharged from the autoprocessor and is completely blank, nothing but a clear piece of plastic. The most likely cause would be which of the following:

The cassette was upside down in the bucky try.

What is a sarcolemma?

The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber. A sarcolemma is a thin membrane enclosing a striated muscle fiber, or simply the cell wall of a muscle cell. A sarcomere is the contractile unit of a myofibril, or muscle cell. Sarcomeres are repeating units and are located between Z lines of the muscle cells. Perimysium is connective tissue that groups individual muscle fibers into bunches or groups.

When placing lateral radiograph of the stifle joint on a viewer for a veterinarian to evaluate, how should the film be oriented?

The cranial or dorsal side of the limb should be to the left and the proximal aspect should be toward the top of the viewbox. For a caudocranial view, the lateral side of the right limb should be to the viewer's left and the lateral side of the left limb should be to the viewer's right.

Which of the following is true of a dog with polycythemia?

The dog has an increased hematocrit. Polycythemia is an increase in the absolute number of circulating red blood cells (which results in an increased hematocrit or PCV). This is not the same as an increased hematocrit due to hemoconcentration from dehydration. A low blood cell count is anemia. A low platelet count is thrombocytopenia. An increased white blood cell count is leukocytosis.

When performing an epidural using the hanging drop technique, which of the following is the indication you have correct placement of the needle in the epidural space?

The drop of saline placed in the hub of the needle is sucked in. When using the hanging drop technique while placing an epidural, the patient is placed in sternal recumbency; the spinal needle is placed through the skin, and a drop of saline is put in the hub of the needle. When the needle is in the correct place, the drop of saline should be sucked in through the needle.

Which of the following statements is LEAST correct regarding dystocias and Cesarean sections?

The fetuses are not affected by the anesthetics delivered, as they do not cross the placenta. When performing anesthesia for a cesarean delivery, it is of absolute importance to consider the anesthetic protocol since the fetuses will be affected by the anesthetics delivered to the female. It is best to keep anesthesia time to a minimum to reduce exposure to the fetuses. Any gravid female placed on her back may have additional difficulty fully expanding her lungs when anesthetized; it is therefore recommended to monitor respiration carefully to ensure adequate ventilation is achieved. She may need to be intermittently bagged or placed on a ventilator. It is very important to determine the cause of a dystocia prior to administration of medications such as oxytocin, which can bring about uterine contraction. For example, if the birth canal is obviously obstructed, giving oxytocin will only cause additional contraction and predispose the animal to uterine rupture or hypocalcemia.

A patient has sustained a burn to the skin corresponding to the area where the electrocautery ground plate had been placed. What is the most likely reason this occurred?

The ground plate had poor contact with the patient's skin. Poor contact between the ground plate and the skin can result in a burn to the patient. To reduce this risk, conductive gel is spread along the ground plate to help improve the level of contact with the patient's skin. Switching to bipolar mode by accident will result in an inability to use the monopolar hand piece but should not cause a burn. Setting the power level too high may cause excessive tissue trauma to the region where the electrocautery is being used, but this will not affect the interface between the skin and the ground plate. Keeping the cut mode activated for more than the given period of time has no impact on the ground plate-skin interface.

Sinus arrhythmia occurs when:

The heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and decrease with expiration.

Which of the following is true about the appearance of an image relative to the orientation of the slide when viewing through a compound microscope?

The image is upside-down and reversed. The left side of the image is seen on the right side of the visual field. Accordingly, movement of the stage is reversed such that as the stage is moved to the left, the image appears to move to the right.

When placing craniocaudal radiographs of the stifle joint on a viewer for a veterinarian to evaluate, how should the film be oriented?

The lateral side of the right limb should be to the viewer's left; the lateral side of the left limb should be to the viewer's right.

Antibody titer is a test that measures:

The level of antibody in serum. Titer is a measurement of the ability of body immunity. Antigen testing identifies the presence of bad guys.

What is the approximate minute volume of a 4 kg cat?

The minute volume is the volume of air inspired during one minute of respiration. In cats, the typical minute volume is 180-380 ml/kg/min. For a 4 kg cat, the choice of 1 L per minute is the only one that is close to this range.

Which of the following is true regarding Dirofilaria immitis, the parasite that causes heartworm?

The mosquito is the intermediate host. The dog is the definitive host of D. immitis, and the mosquito is the intermediate host. The definitive host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A paratenic host (AKA a transport host) indicates a type of intermediate host where a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals. For this parasite, the mosquito is the intermediate host but not a paratenic host because the first, second, and third larval stages are found within the mosquito.

A significant difference in IM injections in small animals versus large animals is:

The needle is first inserted into large animals before the syringe is attached.

If a rebreathing bag is empty during anesthesia, which of the following is not the cause?

The oxygen flow may be too high. An oxygen flow that is too high would cause the rebreathing bag to overinflate, not underinflate.

What does it mean if an animal is a paratenic host of a parasite?

The parasite does not undergo development on the animal. A paratenic host is also known as a transport host. This indicates a type of intermediate host on which a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. The definitive host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals.

The primary function of the segmented neutrophil is:

The phagocytosis of small particles.

How can you differentiate a male tortoise from a female?

The plastron is concave in males. In order for the males to be able to mount the females, their plastron is concave. This allows for a good fit over the convex shape of the female's shell.

Atrial fibrillation/atrial flutter ECG

The presence of frequent P waves with no discernible QRS complexes make this an arrhythmia that is atrial in origin.

Where would you give a sub Q injection in a snake?

The proximal 1/3 of the snake along the lateral edge of the ventral scales. Due to the portal system of reptiles, it is important to give injections towards the head. The drug will distribute much more slowly and evenly. The dorsal and ventral scales meet along the lateral sides. This is where the drug can be injected.

A client has called your hospital to schedule a castration to be performed on her rabbit. The owner says she remembers that she had to fast her dog when he got neutered and asks if she should do the same for the rabbit. What is the correct response?

The rabbit should not be fasted. Small rodents and rabbits do not vomit, therefore, there is generally no reason to withhold food or water prior to anesthesia. Withholding food from rabbits can trigger digestive disturbances that can be fatal.

When taking a radiograph of the radius and ulna, which of the following will occur if the x-ray beam is perpendicular to the cassette but not to the long axis of the radius and ulna?

The radius and ulna will appear foreshortened. To avoid distortion (elongation or foreshortening), the x-ray beam should be perpendicular to the long axis of the bone and the x-ray cassette. If the bones are not perpendicular to the beam, they will appear foreshortened. If the cassette is not perpendicular to the beam, the bones will appear elongated. In dental radiography, it is frequently not possible for the long axis of the tooth and the film to be parallel to each other. In this case, the bisecting angle technique may be used, wherein the beam is angled half-way between the angle of the long axis of the tooth and the angle of the film in order to obtain a true image that is neither elongated nor foreshortened.

Which of the following best describes the therapeutic index of a drug?

The ratio between the effective dose and the toxic dose. The therapeutic index is a measure of a drug's safety margin. It is defined as the ratio between the effective dose (ED50) and the lethal dose (LD50) to a population.

A dog with which condition should not have blood drawn from the jugular vein?

Thrombocytopenia. Thrombocytopenia is the term for decreased platelets. Dogs that have low platelets have problems clotting and could potentially have a serious bleed from the site of venipuncture.

What is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope?

The rheostat controls the intensity of the light source on a microscope. The condenser focuses light on the object and can be raised and lowered relative to the stage. The wavelength of light is not usually manipulated in a routine veterinary lab, but filters can be used to allow a certain wavelength of light through in particular applications such as immunofluorescence.

What maintains the membrane potential in excitable cells?

The sodium-potassium pump. The principal ions involved in an action potential are sodium and potassium cations. During depolarization ion channels allow sodium to enter the cell, and potassium to leave the cell. The sodium-potassium pump then helps to restore the normal resting membrane potential. The sodium-potassium pump maintains the normal ratio of ion concentrations across the membrane. Calcium cations and chloride anions are involved in a few types of action potentials, such as the cardiac action potential.

When taking a radiograph of the tibia and fibula, which of the following will occur if the x-ray beam is perpendicular to the tibia and fibula but not to the x-ray cassette and film?

The tibia and fibula will appear elongated. To avoid distortion (elongation or foreshortening), the x-ray beam should be perpendicular to the long axis of the bone and the x-ray cassette. If the bones are not perpendicular to the beam, they will appear foreshortened. If the cassette is not perpendicular to the beam, the bones will appear elongated.

You are assisting the emergency veterinarian with a dog who has a GDV. The doctor is ready to place an orogastric tube and patient is awake on the exam table. Which of the following is true regarding this procedure?

The tube should be held lower than the patient to aid in removal of gastric contents. The patient does not always have to be anesthetized for placement of the tube, however, many patients require some sedation. The tube is measured prior to placement (to just the last rib) and when inserted into the esophagus and into the stomach, the other end is held downward (lower than the patient) so that gravity will help to allow removal of stomach contents. If the tube cannot be placed, the stomach may be trocharized to relieve pressure.

You are assisting the emergency veterinarian with a dog who has a GDV. The doctor is ready to place an orogastric tube and the patient is awake on the exam table. Which of the following is true regarding this procedure?

A dog is being referred to the neurologist for a cervical disk compression that is causing forelimb paresis. What will the surgical incision likely be made?

The ventral side of the neck. This surgery is referred to as a "ventral slot".

A dog is being referred to the neurologist for a cervical disk compression that is causing forelimb paresis. Where will the surgical incision likely be made?

The ventral side of the neck. This surgery is referred to as a "ventral slot".

Which of the following statements is NOT included in NAVTA's Code of Ethics for the Profession of Veterinary Technology?

The veterinarian must assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgements of the veterinary technician. The correct statement is as follows: Assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgments. This means that you are reliable for your own actions.

You are working in a laboratory where the rats are getting "ringtail". Which of the following may be contributing to this condition?

The wire-bottom cages. Ringtail is an annular constriction of the tail found in weanling rats and rats kept in wire-bottom cages. The condition causes the tail to constrict, undergo dry gangrene, and fall off. Factors contributing to ringtail include increased environmental temperatures, low humidity, impaired blood supply to the tail, and possibly drafts. The tail stumps usually heal with no complications. Increased humidity, low temperature and too much nesting material would not typically contribute to the development of ringtail.

You are asked to take a DLPMO radiograph of a horse's fetlock with a portable x-ray unit. Where will the x-ray unit be and where should the film cassette be?

The x-ray bean should come from the more dorsal side of the limb, and the film will be on the more medial aspect of the limb. With a DLPMO or dorsolateral-palmaro/plantaromedial oblique, the beam comes from 45 degrees between dorsal and lateral sides of the limb, and the film is placed 45 degrees between the medial aspect and the palmar (or plantar) aspect.

The toxic substance responsible for chocolate poisoning is:

Theobromine.

An asthmatic cat may receive which of the following drugs for its bronchodilatory effect?

Theophylline. Digoxin is used un heart failure cases to increase contractility; prednisone is anti-inflammatory, not bronchodilatory.

Why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term (>7 days) use in horses?

They are the least thrombogenic. Polyurethane catheters (such as those made by Mila) are the least reactive and thrombogenic and, if placed correctly, can be left in place for more than a week. Polyurethane is a flexible material. All IV catheters require maintenance and monitoring.

All of the following are true regarding epithelial cells except:

They are vascular. Epithelial cells have an apical and basal surface, they are capable of manufacturing secretions, and they are capable of manufacturing excretions.

Which is true regarding umbilical hernias?

They usually consist of a small piece of fat protruding through the body wall and are not life-threatening. MOST umbilical hernias are stable and consist of a small piece of fat protruding through a body wall defect. Many small dogs with stable hernias do not require repair since they are not life-threatening. Larger dogs with hernias require repair more often since the weight of their abdominal contents on the defect can enlarge it and increase the risk that abdominal contents (such as intestine) could protrude through. The best time to repair these is when they are already under anesthesia for their spay or neuter. The course of action for repair or monitoring depends upon the risk factors (size of hernia, size of dog, etc.).

A 9-year old Greyhound presents to your clinic with an ulcerating mast cell tumor, located subcutaneously over the left scapula. You immediately schedule the dog for a wide surgical excision after no evidence of metastatic disease is identified on a complete blood count, serum chemistry, thoracic radiographs, and abdominal ultrasound. Which drug is contraindicated in this patient?

Thiopental. In this case, thiopental is contraindicated because the patient is a sighthound. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting barbiturate. Recovery depends on redistribution to tissues, including fat. Because sighthounds have very little fat, they have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs.

A dog has been hot by a car and has no palpable pulse or heartbeat. Compressions to stimulate the heart are performed at the:

Third and sixth ribs.

A multi-lumen jugular catheter must be placed in a canine with renal disease for CVP monitoring. To what anatomical landmark should the catheter be inserted to?

Third thoracic vertebrae. Central venous pressure, or CVP, monitoring must be performed according to specific guidelines to reduce the possibility of inappropriate readings. The third thoracic vertebra is the anatomical landmark that the normal values are based on.

The fetus does most of its growing during which time period?

Third trimester. During the first trimester, most of the development occurs.

Strongyloides westeri

This image shows a Strongyloides westeri egg. Strongyloides pass from the host in the larvated form and are recognizable as an oval-shaped thin-shelled embryonated egg. Larvae of Strongyloides westeri are transmitted to foals in the mare's milk. Adult horses rarely have patent infections except when larvae harbored in their tissues migrate into a mare's milk after parturition. The worms are found in the small intestine and may cause diarrhea in young horses. Ivermectin or oxibendazole are effective in treatment of S. westeri.

You are new on the ICU floor and are taking time to look through the crash cart so you will be prepared when emergency arises. You find a 60 cc syringe attached to a 3-way stopcock and extension set with a 22-gauge needle attached. What might this setup be used for?

Thoracocentesis. This commonly used for removing fluid from the pleural space (pleural effusion).

Generally, how much time do you have before cardiac arrest causes irreversible brain damage?

Three minutes. That is why it is imperative that cardiac arrest is identified quickly, CPR status is clear for each patient, and that high-risk cases should be discussed at the time of admission.

The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least:

Three times the patient's tidal volume. This is to ensure an adequate volume of gases for patient needs.

An IV bolus of 1-2 mg/lb (2.2-4.4 mg/kg) of 2% lidocaine is used as an emergency drug for:

Ventricular arrhythmia.

Otodectes eggs

This slide is from an ear cytology on a cat with ear mites. These are eggs of the ear mite Otodectes cynotis. Even if you do an ear swab and don't see any live mites, always look for these eggs to help make the diagnosis!

An animal with pleural effusion may require which procedure for stabilization?

Thoracocentesis. A large amount of fluid in the pleural space (around the outside of the lungs) will prevent the lungs from fully expanding. A chest tap (thoracocentesis) will allow the fluid to be drained from the pleural space and allow the patient to expand the lungs and breath easier. While radiographs may be needed, an unstable patient in respiratory distress should not have radiographs. The chest tap should occur first to stabilize the patient.

What is the best way to restrain an unwilling rat for an exam?

Thumb and forefinger under front legs, other hand at base of tail. Rats require restraint when they have not been handled much. The best restraint method is to place your thumb and forefinger under their front legs while applying gentle tension on the base of the tail. Rats cannot be handled by the tip of the tail because they can slough the skin, leaving the vertebrae exposed. Scruffing a rat produces an exaggerated fear response and is best not done.

Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff overinflation during lengthy anesthesia?

Tissue necrosis.

Why are oblique radiographic views of certain joints typically obtained?

To decrease superimposition of structures. Oblique radiographic views are typically requested in areas where there are multiple overlapping structures. The purpose of these views is to decrease superimposition of certain bones or structures so that a specific region is better isolated on the film. Typically, there is no change in the air or fluid when oblique views of a joint are obtained. Because oblique views are still usually taken across the entire joint, there is no change in the amount of scatter. Properly taken conventional radiographs of a joint should not have foreshortening or elongation artifacts.

What is the function of the screen of an X-ray cassette?

To decrease the exposure necessary to create an image on the film. The screen of an X-ray cassette, sometimes called intensifying screens, are the shiny white inner surfaces of the cassette. They are made of crystals that fluoresce, emitting light, when exposed to x-rays, producing the diagnostic image.

What is the purpose of the condenser of a microscope?

To focus light on the object being viewed. The condenser of a microscope consists of two lenses that focus light on the object. It is adjusted by being raised or lowered below the stage. It may have a diaphragm that can control the amount of light but this is not the main purpose of the condenser. The rheostat of the light source is the best way to adjust light intensity.

In regards to rabbit anesthesia, which of the following best explains why the use of sedative premedications should be given prior to inducing anesthesia using a mask or induction chamber to deliver gas agents such Isoflurane?

To help prevent breath holding. Because rabbits often hold their breath and struggle when exposed to gas anesthetics, premedications such as dexmedetomidine, diazepam, or midazolam will facilitate smoother inductions.

Why should pigs be fed from a bin or trough and not on the ground?

To prevent development of trichobezoars. A trichobezoar is a ball of swallowed hair that collects in the stomach and can fail to pass through the intestines. Pigs are constantly shedding hair, so it accumulates on the ground; when eating food off that ground, pigs will ingest enough over time to put them at risk for formation of a trichobezoar.

Bordetella vaccine is given to dogs to prevent:

Tracheobronchitis.

The lingual surface of the tooth is closest to the:

Tongue.

A radiograph that has been overexposed is:

Too dark.

Ocular larval migraines is a zoonotic disease caused by which parasite?

Toxocara canis (a roundworm). It is transmitted fecal-oral. Backyards, sandboxes, parks, and beaches accessible to dogs are often contaminated with Toxocara ova, which can remain infective for years. These areas can be exposure sites for people (especially children) who accidentally ingest the infective eggs. Ancylostoma and Uncinaria are hookworms and can cause Cutaneous larva migrans. Taenia taeniaformis and Dipylidium caninum are both tapeworms.

A direct life cycle is seen in which of the following parasites?

Toxocara canis (roundworm). In a direct life cycle, the immature parasite can infect the same host from which it came (i.e. this worm lives in the intestine, eggs are passed in feces, and the eggs are passed to the next host directly). The other parasites all require an intermediate host. Intermediate hosts are: Dirofilaria (mosquito), Dipylidium (flea), and Fasciola (snail).

It is recommended that all puppies be treated for which of the following parasites?

Toxocara canis. The most common method of transmission of Toxocara canis is transplacentally. Larvae in the somatic tissue of a pregnant bitch are mobilized during pregnancy and infect the fetuses transplacentally.

What is the most accurate method to estimate a horse's weight out on a farm call?

Use a weight measuring tape. Specialized measuring tapes are commonly used to approximate the weight of a horse. There are marking that show weights and the tape is wrapped around the barrel of the horse just caudal to the withers.

A 9-year old male neutered German Shepherd is diagnosed with an osteosarcoma at the distal radius. The owner has chosen palliative care and wants to keep him comfortable as long as possible. He is already on carprofen (Rimadyl) for pain. What other medication could he take for additional analgesia for his bone pain?

Tramadol. Tramadol is a synthetic drug that acts on the opiate receptor and is often effective against bone pain in dogs. It is safe to give with anti-inflammatory medications. Since this dog is already on Rimadyl, he cannot receive any other NSAIDS or any steroids. Anti-inflammatories (steroids or NSAIDS) cannot be mixed or given concurrently due to the high risk of gastrointestinal ulceration and other complications such as renal damage. Glucosamine, while it would not cause harm, would not provide any analgesia for this dog.

Acepromazine is classified as a/an:

Tranquilizer.

The process of manufacturing protein from RNA is called:

Translation. Transcription is DNA to RNA. Replication is DNA to DNA. Translation is RNA to protein.

When collecting an arterial blood sample, the best location to obtain arterial blood in the standing adult horse is where?

Transverse facial artery. The transverse facial artery is the easiest and most commonly used artery to collect arterial blood in a standing adult horse. It is typically located caudal and ventral to the eye and is easily detected. The dorsal metatarsal and carotid arteries are possible sites to collect arterial blood, but an adult horse typically will not stand still to collect blood from the extremity (hind limb). The carotid is also possible to collect arterial blood but is a deeper structure and is obviously a very large vessel; damage to this vessel during collection can be problematic.

Which of the following is another term for the type of parasite known as a fluke?

Trematode. Trematodes, or flukes, are leaf-shaped flatworms with unsegmented bodies. Adults are hermaphrodites. They primarily are found in the intestinal tract, liver, and lungs. Examples include the liver fluke of cattle (Fasciola hepatica) and the lungworm of cats (Paragonimus kellicotti). Nematodes are roundworms, ascarids are a type of nematode (roundworm), cestodes are tapeworms, and protozoans are single-celled organisms that may be parasitic.

Ivermectin would not be used when treating which parasite?

Trematodes AKA flukes. Ivermectin has activity against ticks, mites, nematodes, and even lice. Ivermectin works by stimulating GABA which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

The elbow is extended by which muscle?

Triceps brachium. The biceps supinates the forelimb and flexes the elbow.

Regarding lice parasites, the biting louse found in canines is known as which of the following?

Trichodectes. Trichodectes canis is the chewing or biting louse in dogs. Hematopinus asini is the sucking louse in cattle. Damalinia bovis is the chewing louse in cattle (also called Bovicola). Felicola subrostratus is the chewing or biting louse in cats. Lice are ectoparasites; infestation with lice is known as pediculosis. Trichodectes canis can also serve as an intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum (although more commonly, the intermediate host is a flea).

Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa?

Trichomoniasis.

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye) can result from the use of which medication?

Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS). The sulfa drugs can cause dry eye in some patients and therefore overuse should be avoided. If a patient is started on a sulfa drug, tear production should be monitored.

Torsion of an organ means that what has happened to it?

Twisted on itself. Examples of torsions are testicular torsion (twisting of the spermatic cords), gastric torsion (gastric-dilatation volvulus), mesenteric torsion (twisting of the mesentery and cutting off of blood supply to the intestines), lung-lobe torsion, etc.

When applying a bone plate to fix a fracture, which of the following instruments would be least useful?

Trocar. These are used for penetrating into a space for arthroscopy, thoracoscopy, or laparoscopy. Once the trocar has been inserted, it is replaced by a cannula, which allows for insertion of an instrument or scoping device into the desired space, such as the knee joint. A drill with the appropriately sized drill bit is used to drill holes into bone. A drill guide is used to help protect the surrounding soft tissues and assist in aiming. A tap is then used to put a thread into the hole so that the screw can be placed securely. The screw is inserted with the aid of a screwdriver. Point-to-point forceps will help keep the fracture properly reduced while the bone plate is being applied.

A dog presents with Gastric Dilatation and Volvulus (GDV), and you have tried multiple times to pass an orogastric tube to no avail. If this is not working what else can be done?

Trocharize the stomach on the right side. Decompression should be performed; the best place for the trocharization is on the right side. Trocharization involves passing a large sterile needle or the catheter through the abdominal wall into the stomach to relieve the gas within the stomach. This is necessary in order to make the patient more stable prior to surgery.

In case of respiratory arrest during inhalation anesthesia, the first thing to do is to:

Turn off the vaporizer.

What is the most common blood type in cats in the United States?

Type A. Cats most commonly have type A blood. Some cats have type B blood, many of which are exotic-type species. Type B cats have strong anti-A alloantibodies, so type A blood given to a type B cat results in life-threatening acute hemolytic transfusion reactions. A cat should always have a blood type test before a transfusion.

When a tortoise is kept in an indoor enclosure, what is the most important light in that enclosure?

UVB. A UVB light is needed to properly process and absorb calcium from the diet. Sunlight is the natural way to process calcium. Other lighting is also needed for proper digestion. A basking bulb and heat lamp help regulate temperature, and UVA light helps regulate activity.

The olecranon is a structure of which bone?

Ulna. The olecranon is found at the proximal portion of the ulna and forms the point of the elbow. The triceps attaches there.

The placenta supplies the fetus with oxygen via which structure?

Umbilical vein. The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. The foramen ovale is an opening in the septum between the atria in the heart of the fetus which allows blood to bypass the lungs. The ductus venosus shunts a large portion of blood flow in the fetus from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava such that oxygenated blood from the placenta can bypass the liver. The left portal vein connects umbilical circulation with portal (liver) circulation.

Where would you find a Cuterebra parasite?

Under the skin. Cuterebra are flies whose larvae infest the skin of rodents, squirrels, rabbits, dog, and cats. Typically a lump is seen with a small hole under the skin from where the larva breathes.

In a non-rebreathing anesthesia circuit, which of the following is NOT used?

Unidirectional valve. Non-rebreathing systems utilize high flow rates of fresh gas. They do not use unidirectional valves or soda lime since fresh gas is constantly flushing the system. The non-rebreathing circuit requires oxygen, a vaporizer, a scavenger, and typically has its own reservoir bag.

Cattle and most ruminants are missing which teeth, traditional nomenclature?

Upper incisors.

Which type of urinary stone is lucent and does not typically show up on a radiograph?

Urate. Urate and Cystine are the two types of stones that do not usually show up on radiographs and require ultrasound or contrast studies to diagnose. Calcium oxalate and struvite stones are radiodense and usually visible on a radiograph. Magnesium ammonium phosphate is another name for a struvite stone.

For which of the following disorders is an intravenous pyelogram most useful in detecting?

Ureteral stones. An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is an x-ray examination of the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder using iodinated contrast material injected intravenously and excreted via the urinary tract (particularly the upper urinary tract) including kidney and ureteral stones or tumors involving the kidney, ureters, or urinary bladder. An IVP is not as useful for urethral stones because they are further down in the urinary tract; in this case, retrograde cystography would be more helpful.

Which of the following may be a cause of post-renal azotemia?

Urethral obstruction. Post-renal azotemia is an elevation in BUN and creatinine due to pathology located after the kidney. A urethral obstruction means that the outflow from the bladder is obstructed. This could be from severe inflammation, uroliths, or neoplasia. This puts ascending pressure on the kidneys because the urine has no way of being voided. This may cause an elevation of renal values (BUN and creatinine) an dis referred to as azotemia. Treatment of post-renal azotemia depends on relieving the obstruction and subsequent IV fluid diuresis.

Gout is an accumulation of which of the following?

Uric acid. This usually occurs when uric acid accumulates due to poor nitrogen metabolism and excretion.

Micturition is a medical term for which of the following?

Urinating. Micturition is the act of voiding urine, or urinating. Emesis is another term for vomiting. Stranguria is the term for straining to urinate.

A 7-year old female spayed domestic short hair previously diagnosed with diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic dull and unresponsive. In addition to obtaining a blood glucose, what other laboratory test would be important for determining the cat's diabetic status?

Urine ketones. A patient with ketones in the urine is likely to be in a diabetic ketoacidotic state. An elevated BUN would be an indication of renal disease. A low hematocrit level would cause a patient to be dull, but this value does not relate directly to diabetes. Blood lactate levels directly correspond to shock. A total protein level would help in determining the patient's hydration and protein status.

During ultrasound of the bladder, a hyperechoic (white) linear structure is seen against the bladder wall that creates a black shadow obscuring all structures deep to it. What is this structure most likely?

Urolith. Sound is strongly reflected by mineral and gas resulting in a hyperechoic appearance. The structure most likely to be mineralized inside the bladder is a urolith. The bladder wall should be of intermediate echogenicity as are most bladder wall tumors. The round ligament of the bladder is usually not visible sonographically but also would not create such a dramatic acoustic shadow as described in the question. Free fluid appears anechoic (black). Air inside the bladder as might be seen in emphysematous cystitis could also be echogenic and cast a shadow.

Which condition occurs least commonly in the horse?

Urolithiasis. As compared to small animals, urolithiasis is uncommon in horses. If they do develop stones in their bladder, it is usually secondary to formation of calcium oxalate crystals. Enterolithiasis and intestinal incarcerations are common reasons for colic in horses and usually require surgical intervention. Laminitis is a very serious and often life-threatening condition in horses. The pathophysiology of laminitis is poorly understood but involves inflammation of the lamina of the feet. It can involve all feet or even just one foot. There are multiple conditions that can lead to laminitis, such as endotoxemia, grain overload, and pneumonia.

Which of the following is NOT a good recommendation to make to an owner after having had a declaw performed on their cat?

Use clay based litter in the litter box. Typical "gravel-type" clay litter will stick to the incisions and may perpetuate complications with healing and subsequent osteomyelitis. Therefore, it is important to confirm that owners are using approved litter such as torn paper towels or newspaper to help prevent small particles from embedding into the healing incisions.

For taking a diagnostic radiograph, which of the following techniques will reduce the amount of scatter radiation that reaches a film?

Use of a grid with a Potter-Bucky diaphragm. A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is a moving grid. A grid is a series of short strips of lead that is placed over the cassette, absorbing all radiation that does not go between the strips. The strips are geometrically arranged to allow the primary radiation through but to absorb any radiation that is scattered in other directions. This results in increasing the resolution of structures on the film. However, using a grid results in the appearance of grid lines on the film unless a Potter-Bucky diaphragm is used. Scatter can also be reduced by utilizing the "air-gap" technique which involves moving the cassette and film away from the patient. This will magnify and may decrease sharpness of the film but will decrease the amount of scatter radiation reaching the film. Exposure time and the use of high-speed film or an intensifying screen do not affect the amount of scatter radiation reaching the film.

All of the following radiation protection measures are intended to decrease the dose to the technician EXCEPT which of the following?

Use of filtration at the portal of the X-ray tube. Filtration of the X-ray beam is performed to eliminate low energy (soft) radiation that is part of the emitted spectrum. The soft radiation will be primarily absorbed by the patient with minimal scatter. This radiation would not contribute to the radiographic image and unnecessarily increases patient dose. Collimating the beam decreases radiation dose to the patient and the technician. Protective equipment such as lead gloves, aprons, thyroid shields, and lead glasses all decrease the radiation dose to the technician.

Which of the following principles will always improve radiographic image quality?

Use the highest milliampere (mA) setting and lowest time(s) setting possible to achieve the desired mAs. The product of multiplying the milliamperage (mA) and time(s) is the mAs, which determines the degree of film exposure for a given kVp. Minimizing the time of exposure decreases motion artifact that occurs from the patient moving. It is always preferable to use the highest milliamperage and lowest time setting for this reason. Depending on the type of radiographic study and the size of the animal, a certain kVp and mAs will produce a radiograph with a corresponding amount of contrast and latitude. Maximizing contrast at the expense of latitude or vice-versa may not yield the best radiograph.

Which of the following principle will always improve radiographic image quality?

Use the highest milliampere (mA) setting and the lowest time(s) setting possible to achieve the desired mAs. The product of multiplying the milliamperage (mA) and time(s) is the mAs, which determines the degree of film exposure for a given kVp. Minimizing the time of exposure decreases motion artifact that occurs from the patient moving. It is always preferable to use the highest milliamperage and lowest time setting for this reason. Depending on the type of radiographic study and the size of the animal, a certain kVp and mAs will produce a radiograph with a corresponding amount of contrast and latitude. Maximizing contrast at the expense of latitude or vice-versa may not yield the best radiograph.

Which of the following is NOT considered good surgical instrument care?

Using tap water. Tap water is not recommended since it carries a high likelihood of leaving mineral deposits on the instruments; distilled water is preferred. Cleaning agents that have a high pH (between approximately 9 and 11) are used because these do not promote corrosion. An ultrasonic cleaner is highly recommended as it is much more effective than manual cleaning alone. The use of a brush to scrub the instruments is common practice and facilitates the removal of dry blood or residue.

What is the proper way to restrain a rat for routine procedures?

Using two hands, one around the thorax and under the front legs, and one hand grasping the base of the tail. The proper restraint for a rat involves both hands. One hand grasps around the thorax under the front legs, and the other hand keeps downward pressure on the base of the tail. This handhold prevents the rat from being able to turn it's skin and bite you. It is very important that the grasp of the tail is at the base, as the tail will deglove if pulled on any more distal than the base.

A broad ligament attaches which structure to the body?

Uterus. The broad ligament attaches the uterus to the pelvis.

What is the "antidote" or treatment for Flagyl toxicity in animals?

Valium. Flagyl (metronidazole) can cause neurologic side effects. The treatment of these side effects is Valium (diazepam) and supportive care. The treatment using Valium is related to modulating GABA receptors in the cerebellar and vestibular systems.

Which of the following is an example of an analytical variable that may adversely affect the accuracy of a laboratory result?

Variation in temperature at which an assay is performed. Analytical variables are things that affect the way a test might vary between laboratories, usually depending on the type of instrumentation or the conditions under which an assay is run. Genetic variation and the condition of a patient having a sample drawn are both preanalytical variables. A mislabeled tube could be a preanalytical or a postanalytical variable.

In a horse, what is the most common surgical approach to the abdominal cavity?

Ventral midline incision. Similar to small animals, the most common approach performed is a ventral midline incision. This provides excellent exposure of abdominal organs. A flank incision may be preferred in special circumstances but is not performed as routinely. A parasaggital incision is not ideal as it results in trauma to the abdominal musculature. A transverse incision would not provide good visualization as compared to a ventral midline incision.

During which cardiac status would a defibrillator most likely be used and effective?

Ventricular fibrillation. Ventricular fibrillation usually occurs just prior to asystole, when there is uncoordinated contraction of the ventricular muscles (uncontrolled quivering of the muscle fibers). It is during the ventricular fibrillation that a defibrillator is most often used to try to induce a normal rhythm to the heart. Defibrillation delivers a dose of electrical energy to the heart. This depolarizes the heart muscle, stops the arrhythmia, and allows normal sinus rhythm to be reestablished in the sinoatrial node (the "pacemaker" of the heart). The heart will generally not respond to defibrillation in asystole because it is already depolarized. Defibrillation only works if electrical activity is occurring. If a pulse is present, defibrillation for ventricular tachycardia is not indicated. Normal sinus arrhythmia is a normal rhythm in which there is mild acceleration and slowing of the heart rate that occurs during inhalation and exhalation; many normal pets have this rhythm.

A dark, amber-colored sample of urine is likely to have what specific gravity value?

Very high specific gravity. In urine samples generally, the darker the color the higher the specific gravity. Conversely, a very clear urine sample will have a very low specific gravity value. In most species, urine color ranges from light-yellow to dark-yellow. The exception to this is if the urine contains blood or bilirubin; these can make the urine appear darker, even if the specific gravity is low.

The Veterinary Technician Code of Ethics contains which of the following statements?

Veterinary technicians shall protect confidential information provided by clients. The veterinary technician oath includes these following points: 1. Veterinary technicians shall aid society and animals through providing excellent care and services for animals. 2. Veterinary technicians shall prevent and relieve the suffering of animals. 3. Veterinary technicians shall promote public health by assisting with the control of zoonotic disease and informing the public about these diseases. 4. Veterinary technicians shall assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgments. 5. Veterinary technicians shall protect confidential information provided by clients. 6. Veterinary technicians shall safeguard the public and the professional against individuals deficient in professional competence or ethics. 7. Veterinary technicians shall assist with efforts to ensure conditions of employment consistent with the excellent care for animals. 8. Veterinary technicians shall remain competent in veterinary technology through commitment to life-long learning. 9. Veterinary technicians shall collaborate with members of the veterinary medical profession in efforts to ensure quality health care services for all animals.

You are on a house call with the veterinarian to evaluate some goats that are having "night blindness" per the owner. Upon arrival you can see that the goats have a dull haircoat, are very thin, and have nasal discharge. What deficiency can cause these symptoms?

Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency causes a rough dry haircoat, thick nasal discharge, diarrhea, and can also lead to night blindness. Vitamin E can cause white muscle disease (a nutritional muscular dystrophy). Zinc deficiency can cause hypersalivation, chronic skin problems, testicular hypoplasia, and deformed hooves. Iodine deficiency most often causes a goiter.

Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?

Vitamin B complexes.

Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by which of the following?

Vitamin E deficiency. Mulberry heart disease is a common form of Vitamin E and selenium deficiency in pigs. It typically occurs due to lack of these vitamins in the feed. It can cause sudden death and difficulty breathing due to fluid accumulation around the muscles, including the heart, in which the pericardial sac becomes grossly distended. It also causes cardiac muscle necrosis.

When NSAIDs are being dispensed, clients should be advised that potential side effects include:

Vomiting and diarrhea.

Which of the following is not a complication associated with the placement of an epidural in a dog that is under anesthesia?

Vomiting. Vomiting is generally not observed after placement of an epidural in the anesthetized patient. Dogs may however experience respiratory depression, urinary retention, and hypotension as a result of using epidural anesthetics such as opioids and alpha-2 agonists.

What should be done when administering nitroglycerin paste to a patient?

Wear gloves. Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator used in cases of heart failure. It is critical to always wear gloves when handling this medication as it is absorbed through the skin. Mostly, it is applied to the skin inside the pinna of the ear. The ear should be marked with tape so that others know not to touch the area after the medication has been applied.

NSAID administration is appropriate for which of the following patients?

Welsh corgi with hip dysplasia.

A castrated male goat is known as a:

Wether. Buck is an intact male goat. Barrow is a castrated male pig. Gelding is a castrated male horse.

Under which circumstance are pigs most likely to bite each other's tails?

When the facility is over-crowded.

Which area of the horse is generally referred to as the withers?

Where the dorsal neck joins the thorax. The withers is the ridge between the shoulder blades. It is the standard place to measure the height of a horse. It is formed by the dorsal spinal processes around the third to eleventh thoracic vertebrae.

Pyuria indicates which of the following?

White blood cells in the urine. Pyuria indicates white blood cells in the urine (Py = Pus, Uria = Urine). Pus is an accumulation of white blood cells. Hematuria is red blood cells in the urine. Proteinuria is protein in the urine. Bilirubinuria is bilirubin in the urine. Bacteriuria is bacteria in the urine.

Which of the following animals would be covered by the Animal Welfare Act?

Wild mouse used in research. Birds, mice, and rats bred specifically for research as well as sheep used for fiber or wool are all exempt from the animal welfare act.

A horse is presented for a surgical procedure. What is the best time to administer perioperative antibiotics to the patient?

Within 1 hour of cut time. The best time to administer antibiotics for a surgical patient is within 1 hour of cut time. Antibiotics are most effective and can provide therapeutic levels to the patient when they are given within 60 minutes of cut time (when the incision is made). Subsequent doses may be needed if the surgical procedure is more than 1-2 times the half-life of the chosen antibiotic.

Which of the following is the common name of the first upper premolar tooth in the horse?

Wolf.

A pet Guinea Pig is presented to your hospital for emergency treatment after sustaining a crushing injury. Which of the following is not considered part of the initial emergency assessment of the patient?

Wound stabilization. Just as in other species, assessment of ABC's, control of hemorrhage, treatment of hypothermia, diagnosis of ruptured organs, and fluid or air accumulations are part of initial triage. Stabilization of the most critical conditions are performed first and then wound and supportive care is addressed.

Which of the following choices most accurately describes the "heel effect" in diagnostic radiology?

X-ray beam intensity declines toward the anode side of the x-ray machine. The heel effect described how the intensity of the x-ray beam declines from the cathode side toward the anode side of the machine because of the angle of the anode. The statement about penumbra is true but is not related to the heel effect. Lower energy x-rays are preferentially absorbed by bone due to their mineral composition and the photoelectric effect.

You take and develop an abdominal radiograph of an animal, but the radiograph appears much too light (underexposed) throughout the area of the patient. You increase the exposure (mAs) and the radiograph is still much too light. The portion of the radiograph outside the body of the patient is completely black (exposed). Which of the following is the most likely problem?

X-ray energy (kVp) is too low. Since part of the film is exposed correctly, you can conclude that X-rays were produced by the machine; there does not seem to be a problem with the target. Also, there are no processing artifacts mentioned. The problem here appears to be that the energy of the X-rays produced is insufficient to penetrate the patient. Therefore, the patient is essentially shielding the film from exposure in the area. To fix the problem, try using a higher kVp.

X-ray energy (kVp) is too low. Since part of the film is exposed correctly, you can conclude that X-rays were produced by the machine; there does not seem to be a problem with the target. Also, there are processing artifacts mentioned. The problem here appears to be that the energy of the X-rays produced is insufficient to penetrate the patient. Therefore, the patient is essentially shielding the film from exposure in that area. To fix the problem, try using a higher kVp.

Which of the following is true regarding the properties of x-rays compared to visible light?

X-rays have higher frequency and shorter wavelength. The energy of a photon is directly proportional frequency and inversely proportional to wavelength. X-rays are higher energy rays than photons in the visible light spectrum, which gives them greater penetrating ability.

Which is responsible for the transmission of Yersinia pestis?

Xenopsylla cheops. Xenopsylla is known as the plague or rat flea. Yersinia pestis are gram-negative rod shaped bacteria that are the cause of plague. Plague transmission from infected animals generally occurs via bites from infected rodent fleas (Xenopsylla), direct contact with infected tissues or fluids, or breathing infected droplets. Dipylidium and Vampirolepis are both tapeworms. Dermacentor is the American dog tick.

The emetic choice in cats is:

Xylazine.

Which of the following drugs should be used with extreme caution in ruminants?

Xylazine. Xylazine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and is classified as a sedative/analgesic with muscle relaxant properties. It is not approved for any species to be consumed for food purposes. Ruminants are very sensitive to xylazine and it is not used much in these animals. In fact, ruminants generally require 1/10 of the dosage required for horses to exhibit the same effect. Due to the unique GI system of the ruminant, much care must be taken when administering drugs so as not to interfere with proper digestion, and xylazine increases risk of ileus.

Which breed is most likely to have a portosystemic shunt?

Yorkshire terrier. A portosystemic shunt is an abnormal vessel that allows blood to bypass the liver. The Yorkshire terrier is overrepresented for this condition, but the condition can be seen in any breed. It is most common in toy breeds and dogs that are the "runt" of the litter.

You are attempting to give an intra-jugular injection to a horse and insert the needle to the hub. Blood is forcefully pulsating and ejecting from the needle. What is the most likely explanation?

You are in the carotid artery. This is typical of insertion into an artery. If this occurs, the needle should be removed immediately and pressure placed on the site for several minutes to assure hemostasis.

A dog presents to your hospital to have surgery for a cranial cruciate ligament rupture. The veterinarian wants you to place an epidural after the patient is under anesthesia and before the procedure is performed. While performing the epidural you get blood in the hub of the spinal needle. What does this mean and what should you do?

You have entered the sinus, you should withdraw the needle and start over. If you see blood flow into the spinal needle it means that you have entered a venous sinus, the needle should be removed and the procedure can be started again.

What is the most commonly used method for fecal parasite testing for dogs and cats?

Zinc sulfate centrifugation. Technique: Zinc sulfate (ZNSO4) solution is added to 2-3 grams of feces. It is mixed and then centrifuged for a few minutes on high speed. A loop can then skim the surface and place the sample on a slide for examination, or the tube can be filled to the top with more zinc solution and a coverslip set on top for a few minutes. Then the coverslip can be placed onto a slide for examination. Sometimes a drop of iodine is added to the sample to help identify the eggs more easily. Baermann is useful for detecting lungworm and some other nematodes. Direct smears can help detect trophozoites, but they are not useful for finding tapeworm or nematode eggs, or coccidia. Cytology of feces would mostly just demonstrate the bacterial flora.

Which of the following solutions used for fecal flotation floats protozoal organisms with the least distortion?

Zinc sulfate. Zinc sulfate solutions are generally used in diagnostic laboratories because they cause the least distortion of organisms. Other solutions, particularly sodium nitrate, are commonly used in veterinary practices because of cost and/or convenience. It is particularly important with sodium nitrate solutions to avoid letting them sit too long, as they cause distortion and form crystals, particularly after sitting longer than 20 minutes. Saturated sodium chloride is rarely used because it distorts organisms, creates crystals, and corrodes laboratory equipment. Formalin solutions alone are not used for flotation.

What toxicity is caused by ingestion of pennies?

Zinc toxicity. Any penny minted after 1982 contains a large amount of zinc, leading to zinc toxicity in animals even from just a single penny.

Which of the following components or settings influence x-ray beam quality?

kVp and filtration. The "quality" of an x-ray beam refers to the energy distribution of the photons that are emitted. mAs and collimation have no effect on the energy of the emitted photons. mAs specifies the quantity of photons emitted; collimation constrains the area where the photons are emitted. The kVp is related to the peak energy of the photons emitted. Applied filtration preferentially absorbs lower-energy photons to affect beam quality.

After taking a radiograph exposure of a patient abdomen at a 40 cm focal-film distance with settings of kVp=60, mAs=2, you have to repeat the exposure using a horizontal beam technique at 80 cm focal-film distance. Assuming there is no change in the tissue penetrated and no other differences aside from the distance in radiographic technique or equipment, what settings should you use to obtain the same radiographic density?

kVp=60, mAs=8. To obtain the same radiographic density, you would not change the energy (kVp) but you would need to change the exposure to account for the difference in distance, which is based on the inverse square law. This law states that the exposure at twice the distance will be reduced 1/4. Therefore, the mAs must be increased 4X. If there had been other equipment such as a grid on one of the views, there might also be other correction factors to take into account.

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