Week 2: Maternity by Lowdermilk & Perry: Chapters 12, 13, 14, 15, 26

COMPLETION 1. ____________________ twins is another term for fraternal twins. These twins may be the same or different sexes and genetically are no more alike than siblings born at different times.

ANS: Dizygotic Monozygotic twins are those that develop from one fertilized ovum which then divides. These are also known as identical twins.

3. Very fine hairs, called ____________________, appear first at 12 weeks of gestational age on the fetus's eyebrows and upper lip. By 20 weeks they cover the entire body. By 28 weeks, the scalp hair is longer than these fine hairs, which thin and may disappear by term gestation.

ANS: Lanugo By 20 weeks of gestation the eyelashes, eyebrows, and scalp hair also begin to grow.

COMPLETION 1. ____________________ is when the fetus begins to descend and drop into the pelvis.

ANS: Lightening Between weeks 38 and 40, fundal height drops as the fetus begins to descend and engage in the pelvis. Generally, lightening occurs in the nullipara about 2 weeks before the onset of labor and at the start of labor in the multipara.

2. The ability of the fetus to survive outside the uterus is called ____________________.

ANS: Viability In the past the earliest age at which fetal survival could be expected was 28 weeks after conception. With modern technology and advancements in maternal and neonatal care, viability is now possible at 20 weeks after conception (22 weeks after last menstrual period [LMP], fetal weight of 500 g or more).

A woman is 6 weeks pregnant. She has had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system? ___________________ G = # of pregnancy T = after 37 to 42 weeks P = between 20 to before 37 weeks A = before 20 weeks L = # of living children

ANS: 3-1-0-1-0 G: Total number of times the woman has been pregnant (she is pregnant for the third time) T: Number of pregnancies carried to term (she has had only one pregnancy that resulted in a fetus at term) P: Number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth (none) A: Abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability (she has had one) L: Number of children born who are currently living (she has no living children)

Which information regarding amniotic fluid is important for the nurse to understand? a.Amniotic fluid serves as a source of oral fluid and a repository for waste from the fetus. b.Volume of the amniotic fluid remains approximately the same throughout the term of a healthy pregnancy. c.The study of fetal cells in amniotic fluid yields little information. d.A volume of more than 2 L of amniotic fluid is associated with fetal renal abnormalities.

ANS: A Amniotic fluid serves as a source of oral fluid, serves as a repository for waste from the fetus, cushions the fetus, and helps maintain a constant body temperature. The volume of amniotic fluid constantly changes. The study of amniotic fluid yields information regarding the sex of the fetus and the number of chromosomes. Too much amniotic fluid (hydramnios) is associated with gastrointestinal and other abnormalities.

What kind of fetal anomalies are most often associated with oligohydramnios? a.Renal b.Cardiac c.Gastrointestinal d.Neurologic

ANS: A An amniotic fluid volume of less than 300 ml (oligohydramnios) is often associated with fetal renal anomalies. The amniotic fluid volume has no bearing on the fetal cardiovascular system. Gastrointestinal anomalies are associated with hydramnios or an amniotic fluid volume greater than 2 L. The amniotic fluid volume has no bearing on the fetal neurologic system.

A woman in labor passes some thick meconium as her amniotic fluid ruptures. The client asks the nurse where the baby makes the meconium. What is the correct response by the nurse? a.Fetal intestines b.Fetal kidneys c.Amniotic fluid d.Placenta

ANS: A As the fetus nears term, fetal waste products accumulate in the intestines as dark green-to-black, tarry meconium. Meconium is not produced by the fetal kidneys nor should it be present in the amniotic fluid, which may be an indication of fetal compromise. The placenta does not produce meconium.

A pregnant woman tells her nurse that she is worried about the blotchy, brownish coloring over her cheeks, nose, and forehead. The nurse can reassure her that this is a normal condition related to hormonal change, commonly called the mask of pregnancy or, scientifically: a. Chloasma b. Linea nigra c. Striae gravidarum d. Palmar erythema

ANS: A Chloasma, the mask of pregnancy, usually fades after birth. Linea nigra is a pigmented line that runs vertically up the abdomen. Striae gravidarum are also known as stretch marks. Palmar erythema is signified by pinkish red blotches on the hands.

A woman is in her seventh month of pregnancy. She has been complaining of nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis. The nurse suspects that: a. This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen b. This is an abnormal cardiovascular change and the nosebleeds are an ominous sign c. The woman is a victim of domestic violence and is being hit in the face by her partner d. The woman has been using cocaine intranasally

ANS: A Elevated levels of estrogen cause capillaries to become engorged in the respiratory tract, which may result in edema in the nose, larynx, trachea, and bronchi. This congestion may cause nasal stuffiness and epistaxis. Cardiovascular changes in pregnancy may cause edema in lower extremities. Domestic violence cannot be determined based on the sparse facts provided. If the woman had been hit in the face, she most likely would have additional physical findings. Cocaine use cannot be determined based on the sparse facts provided.

A woman asks the nurse, "What protects my baby's umbilical cord from being squashed while the baby's inside of me?" What is the nurse's best response? a."Your baby's umbilical cord is surrounded by connective tissue called Wharton's jelly, which prevents compression of the blood vessels." b."Your baby's umbilical cord floats around in blood and amniotic fluid." c."You don't need to be worrying about things like that." d."The umbilical cord is a group of blood vessels that are very well protected by the placenta."

ANS: A Explaining the structure and function of the umbilical cord is the most appropriate response. Connective tissue called Wharton's jelly surrounds the umbilical cord, prevents compression of the blood vessels, and ensures continued nourishment of the embryo or fetus. The umbilical cord does not float around in blood or fluid. Telling the client not to worry negates her need for information and discounts her feelings. The placenta does not protect the umbilical cord.

An expectant couple attending childbirth classes have questions regarding multiple births since twins "run in the family." What information regarding multiple births is important for the nurse to share? a.Twinning and other multiple births are increasing because of the use of fertility drugs and delayed childbearing. b.Dizygotic twins (two fertilized ova) have the potential to be conjoined twins. c.Identical twins are more common in Caucasian families. d.Fraternal twins are the same gender, usually male.

ANS: A If the parents-to-be are older and have taken fertility drugs, then they would be very interested to know about twinning and other multiple births. Conjoined twins are monozygotic; that is, they are from a single fertilized ovum in which division occurred very late. Identical twins show no racial or ethnic preference, and fraternal twins are more common among African-American women. Fraternal twins can be different genders or the same gender, and identical twins are the same gender.

The nurse caring for a pregnant client is evaluating his or her health teaching regarding fetal circulation. Which statement from the client reassures the nurse that his or her teaching has been effective? a."Optimal fetal circulation is achieved when I am in the side-lying position." b."Optimal fetal circulation is achieved when I am on my back with a pillow under my knees." c."Optimal fetal circulation is achieved when the head of the bed is elevated." d."Optimal fetal circulation is achieved when I am on my abdomen."

ANS: A Optimal circulation is achieved when the woman is lying at rest on her side. Decreased uterine circulation may lead to intrauterine growth restriction. Previously, it was believed that the left lateral position promoted maternal cardiac output, enhancing blood flow to the fetus. However, it is now known that the side-lying position enhances uteroplacental blood flow. If a woman lies on her back with the pressure of the uterus compressing the vena cava, then blood return to the right atrium is diminished. Although having the head of the bed elevated is recommended and ideal for later in pregnancy, the woman still must maintain a lateral tilt to the pelvis to avoid compressing the vena cava. Many women find lying on their abdomen uncomfortable as pregnancy advances. Side-lying is the ideal position to promote blood flow to the fetus.

A new mother asks the nurse about the "white substance" covering her infant. How should the nurse explain the purpose of vernix caseosa? a.Vernix caseosa protects the fetal skin from the amniotic fluid. b.Vernix caseosa promotes the normal development of the peripheral nervous system. c.Vernix caseosa allows the transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion. d.Vernix caseosa regulates fetal temperature

ANS: A Prolonged exposure to the amniotic fluid during the fetal period could result in the breakdown of the skin without the protection of the vernix caseosa. Normal development of the peripheral nervous system was dependent on nutritional intake of the mother. The amnion was the inner membrane that surrounded the fetus and was not involved in the oxygen and nutrient exchange. The amniotic fluid helped maintain fetal temperature.

Appendicitis may be difficult to diagnose in pregnancy because the appendix is: a. Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right. b. Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the left. c. Deep at McBurney point. d. Displaced downward and laterally, low and to the right.

ANS: A The appendix is displaced laterally, high to the right, and beyond McBurney point.

The various systems and organs of the fetus develop at different stages. Which statement is most accurate? a.Cardiovascular system is the first organ system to function in the developing human. b.Hematopoiesis originating in the yolk sac begins in the liver at 10 weeks of gestation. c.Body changes from straight to C-shape occurs at 8 weeks of gestation. d.Gastrointestinal system is mature at 32 weeks of gestation.

ANS: A The heart is developmentally complete by the end of the embryonic stage. Hematopoiesis begins in the liver during the sixth week. The body becomes C-shaped at 21 weeks of gestation. The gastrointestinal system is complete at 36 weeks of gestation.

The mucous plug that forms in the endocervical canal is called the: a. Operculum b. Leukorrhea c. Funic souffle d. Ballottement

ANS: A The operculum protects against bacterial invasion. Leukorrhea is the mucus that forms the endocervical plug (the operculum). The funic souffle is the sound of blood flowing through the umbilical vessels. Ballottement is a technique for palpating the fetus.

Which development related to the integumentary system is correct? a.Very fine hairs called lanugo appear at 12 weeks of gestation. b.Eyelashes, eyebrows, and scalp hair appear at 28 weeks of gestation. c.Fingernails and toenails develop at 28 weeks of gestation. d.By 32 weeks, scalp hair becomes apparent.

ANS: A Very fine hairs, called lanugo appear first at 12 weeks of gestational age on the fetus' eyebrows and upper lip. By 20 weeks of gestation, lanugo covers the entire body. By 20 weeks of gestation the eyelashes, eyebrows, and scalp hair also begin to grow. By 28 weeks of gestation, the scalp hair is longer than these fine hairs, which is thin and may disappear by term. Fingernails and toenails develop from thickened epidermis, beginning during the 10th week. Fingernails reach the fingertips at 32 weeks of gestation, and the toenails reach the toe tips at 36 weeks of gestation.

21. As relates to the father's acceptance of the pregnancy and preparation for childbirth, the maternity nurse should know that: a. The father goes through three phases of acceptance of his own. b. The father's attachment to the fetus cannot be as strong as that of the mother because it does not start until after birth. c. In the last 2 months of pregnancy, most expectant fathers suddenly get very protective of their established lifestyle and resist making changes to the home. d. Typically men remain ambivalent about fatherhood right up to the birth of their child.

ANS: A A father typically goes through three phases of development to reach acceptance of fatherhood: the announcement phase, the moratorium phase, and the focusing phase. The father-child attachment can be as strong as the mother-child relationship and can also begin during pregnancy. In the last 2 months of pregnancy, many expectant fathers work hard to improve the environment of the home for the child. Typically the expectant father's ambivalence ends by the first trimester, and he progresses to adjusting to the reality of the situation and then to focusing on his role.

17. Which statement about pregnancy is accurate? a. A normal pregnancy lasts about 10 lunar months. b. A trimester is one third of a year. c. The prenatal period extends from fertilization to conception. d. The estimated date of confinement (EDC) is how long the mother will have to be bedridden after birth.

ANS: A A lunar month lasts 28 days, or 4 weeks. Pregnancy spans 9 calendar months but 10 lunar months. A trimester is one third of a normal pregnancy, or about 13 to 14 weeks. The prenatal period covers the full course of pregnancy (prenatal means before birth). The EDC is now called the EDB, or estimated date of birth. It has nothing to do with the duration of bed rest.

A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses) reaching the stage of fetal viability is called a: a. Primipara. c. Multipara. b. Primigravida. d. Nulligravida.

ANS: A A primipara is a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a viable fetus. To remember terms, keep in mind: gravida is a pregnant woman; para comes from parity, meaning a viable fetus; primi means first; multi means many; and null means none. A primigravida is a woman pregnant for the first time. A multipara is a woman who has completed two or more pregnancies with a viable fetus. A nulligravida is a woman who has never been pregnant.

2. A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have: a. Amenorrhea. b. Positive pregnancy test. c. Chadwick's sign. d. Hegar's sign.

ANS: A Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Presumptive signs of pregnancy are felt by the woman. A positive pregnancy test, the presence of Chadwick's sign, and the presence of Hegar's sign all are probable signs of pregnancy.

During a client's physical examination the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as: a. Hegar's sign b. McDonald's sign c. Chadwick's sign d. Goodell's sign

ANS: A At approximately 6 weeks of gestation, softening and compressibility of the lower uterine segment occur; this is called Hegar's sign. McDonald's sign indicates a fast food restaurant. Chadwick's sign is the blue-violet coloring of the cervix caused by increased vascularity; this occurs around the fourth week of gestation. Softening of the cervical tip is called Goodell's sign, which may be observed around the sixth week of pregnancy.

2. Prenatal testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is recommended for: a. All women, regardless of risk factors. b. A woman who has had more than one sexual partner. c. A woman who has had a sexually transmitted infection. d. A woman who is monogamous with her partner.

ANS: A Testing for the antibody to HIV is strongly recommended for all pregnant women. A HIV test is recommended for all women, regardless of risk factors. Women who test positive for HIV can be treated, reducing the risk of transmission to the fetus.

13. Which behavior indicates that a woman is "seeking safe passage" for herself and her infant? a. She keeps all prenatal appointments. b. She "eats for two." c. She drives her car slowly. d. She wears only low-heeled shoes.

ANS: A The goal of prenatal care is to foster a safe birth for the infant and mother. Although eating properly, driving carefully, and using proper body mechanics all are healthy measures that a mother can take, obtaining prenatal care is the optimal method for providing safety for both herself and her baby

25. While teaching the expectant mother about personal hygiene during pregnancy, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. Tub bathing is permitted even in late pregnancy unless membranes have ruptured. b. The perineum should be wiped from back to front. c. Bubble bath and bath oils are permissible because they add an extra soothing and cleansing action to the bath. d. Expectant mothers should use specially treated soap to cleanse the nipples.

ANS: A The main danger from taking baths is falling in the tub. The perineum should be wiped from front to back. Bubble baths and bath oils should be avoided because they may irritate the urethra. Soap, alcohol, ointments, and tinctures should not be used to cleanse the nipples because they remove protective oils. Warm water is sufficient.

5. The multiple marker test is used to assess the fetus for which condition? a. Down syndrome b. Diaphragmatic hernia c. Congenital cardiac abnormality d. Anencephaly

ANS: A The maternal serum level of alpha-fetoprotein is used to screen for Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and other chromosome anomalies. The multiple marker test would not detect diaphragmatic hernia, congenital cardiac abnormality, or anencephaly. Additional testing, such as ultrasonography and amniocentesis, would be required to diagnose these conditions

A first-time mother at 18 weeks of gestation comes for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit. The client tells the nurse that she is afraid that she is going into premature labor because she is beginning to have regular contractions. The nurse explains that this is the Braxton Hicks sign and teaches the client that this type of contraction: a.Is painless. b. Increases with walking. c. Causes cervical dilation. d. Impedes oxygen flow to the fetus.

ANS: A Uterine contractions can be felt through the abdominal wall soon after the fourth month of gestation. Braxton Hicks contractions are regular and painless and continue throughout the pregnancy. Although they are not painful, some women complain that they are annoying. Braxton Hicks contractions usually cease with walking or exercise. They can be mistaken for true labor; however, they do not increase in intensity or frequency or cause cervical dilation. In addition, they facilitate uterine blood flow through the intervillous spaces of the placenta and promote oxygen delivery to the fetus.

A woman is in for a routine prenatal checkup. You are assessing her urine for proteinuria. Which findings are considered normal? a. Dipstick assessment of trace to +1 b. <300 mg/24 hours c. Dipstick assessment of +2 d. >300 mg/24 hours

ANS: A, B Small amounts of protein in the urine are acceptable during pregnancy. The presence of protein in greater amounts may indicate renal problems. A dipstick assessment of +2 and >300 mg/24 hours are excessive amounts of protein in the urine and should be evaluated further.

Congenital disorders refer to those conditions that are present at birth. These disorders may be inherited and caused by environmental factors or maternal malnutrition. Toxic exposures have the greatest effect on development between 15 and 60 days of gestation. For the nurse to be able to conduct a complete assessment of the newly pregnant client, he or she should be knowledgeable regarding known human teratogens, which include: a. Infections b. Radiation c. Maternal conditions d. Drugs e. Chemicals

ANS: A, B, C, D, E Exposure to radiation and a number of infections may result in profound congenital deformities. These include but are not limited to varicella, rubella, syphilis, parvovirus, cytomegalovirus (CMV), and toxoplasmosis. Certain maternal conditions such as diabetes and phenylketonuria (PKU) may also affect organs and other parts of the embryo during this developmental period. Drugs such as antiseizure medication and some antibiotics as well as chemicals including lead, mercury, tobacco, and alcohol also may result in structural and functional abnormalities.

SATA Which substances might be considered a teratogen? a.Cytomegalovirus (CMV) b.Ionizing radiation c.Hypothermia d.Carbamazepine e.Lead

ANS: A, B, D, E Exposure to radiation and a number of infections may result in profound congenital deformities. These include but are not limited to varicella, rubella, syphilis, parvovirus, CMV, and toxoplasmosis. Certain maternal conditions such as diabetes and phenylketonuria (PKU) may also affect organs and other parts of the embryo during this developmental period. Drugs such as antiseizure medications (e.g., carbamazepine) and some antibiotics, as well as chemicals including lead, mercury, tobacco, and alcohol, may also result in structural and functional abnormalities. Congenital disorders refer to those conditions that are present at birth. These disorders may be inherited and caused by environmental factors or maternal malnutrition. Toxic exposures have the greatest effect on development between 15 and 60 days of gestation. For the nurse to be able to conduct a complete assessment of the newly pregnant client, he or she should be knowledgeable regarding known human teratogens.

Relating to the fetal circulatory system, which special characteristics allow the fetus to obtain sufficient oxygen from the maternal blood? a.Fetal hemoglobin (Hb) carries 20% to 30% more oxygen than maternal Hb. b.Fetal Hb carries 40% to 50% more oxygen than maternal Hb. c.Hb concentration is 50% higher than that of the mother. d.Fetal heart rate is 110 to 160 beats per minute. e.Fetal heart rate is 160 to 200 beats per minute.

ANS: A, C, D The following three special characteristics enable the fetus to obtain sufficient oxygen from maternal blood: (1) the fetal Hb carries 20% to 30% more oxygen; (2) the concentration is 50% higher than that of the mother; and (3) the fetal heart rate is 110 to 160 beats per minute, a cardiac output that is higher than that of an adult.

SATA The diagnosis of pregnancy is based on which positive signs of pregnancy? a. Identification of fetal heartbeat b. Palpation of fetal outline c. Visualization of the fetus d. Verification of fetal movement e. Positive hCG test

ANS: A, C, D Identification of fetal heartbeat, visualization of the fetus, and verification of fetal movement all are positive, objective signs of pregnancy. Palpation of fetal outline and a positive hCG test are probable signs of pregnancy. A tumor also can be palpated. Medication and tumors may lead to false-positive results on pregnancy tests.

A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant asks the nurse, "Is it possible to tell by ultrasound if the baby is a boy or girl yet?" What is the best answer? a."A baby's sex is determined as soon as conception occurs." b."The baby has developed enough to enable us to determine the sex by examining the genitals through an ultrasound scan." c."Boys and girls look alike until approximately 20 weeks after conception, and then they begin to look different." d."It might be possible to determine your baby's sex, but the external organs look very similar right now."

ANS: B Although gender is determined at conception, the external genitalia of males and females look similar through the ninth week. By the twelfth week, the external genitalia are distinguishable as male or female.

The musculoskeletal system adapts to the changes that occur during pregnancy. A woman can expect to experience what change? a. Her center of gravity will shift backward. b. She will have increased lordosis. c. She will have increased abdominal muscle tone. d. She will notice decreased mobility of her pelvic joints.

ANS: B An increase in the normal lumbosacral curve (lordosis) develops, and a compensatory curvature in the cervicodorsal region develops to help her maintain her balance. The center of gravity shifts forward. She will have decreased muscle tone. She will notice increased mobility of her pelvic joints.

A 31-year-old woman believes that she may be pregnant. She took an over-the-counter (OTC) pregnancy test 1 week ago after missing her period; the test was positive. During her assessment interview, the nurse inquires about the woman's last menstrual period (LMP) and asks whether she is taking any medications. The woman states that she takes medicine for epilepsy. She has been under considerable stress lately at work and has not been sleeping well. She also has a history of irregular periods. Her physical examination does not indicate that she is pregnant. She has an ultrasound scan, which reveals that she is not pregnant. What is the most likely cause of the false-positive pregnancy test result? a. She took the pregnancy test too early. b. She takes anticonvulsants. c. She has a fibroid tumor. d. She has been under considerable stress and has a hormone imbalance.

ANS: B Anticonvulsants may cause false-positive pregnancy test results. OTC pregnancy tests use enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technology, which can yield positive results as soon as 4 days after implantation. Implantation occurs 6 to 10 days after conception. If the woman were pregnant, she would be into her third week at this point (having missed her period 1 week ago). Fibroid tumors do not produce hormones and have no bearing on human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) pregnancy tests. Although stress may interrupt normal hormone cycles (menstrual cycles), it does not affect hCG levels or produce positive pregnancy test results.

Which statement regarding the structure and function of the placenta is correct? a.Produces nutrients for fetal nutrition b.Secretes both estrogen and progesterone c.Forms a protective, impenetrable barrier to microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses d.Excretes prolactin and insulin

ANS: B As one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland, producing four hormones necessary to maintain the pregnancy and to support the embryo or fetus: human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogen, and progesterone. The placenta does not produce nutrients. It functions as a means of metabolic exchange between the maternal and fetal blood supplies. Many bacteria and viruses can cross the placental membrane.

In order to reassure and educate pregnant clients about the functioning of their kidneys in eliminating waste products, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. Increased urinary output makes pregnant women less susceptible to urinary infection b. Increased bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the enlarging uterus result in the urge to urinate even if the bladder is almost empty c. Renal (kidney) function is more efficient when the woman assumes a supine position d. Using diuretics during pregnancy can help keep kidney function regular

ANS: B First bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the uterus result in the urge to urinate more often. A number of anatomic changes make a pregnant woman more susceptible to urinary tract infection. Renal function is more efficient when the woman lies in the lateral recumbent position and less efficient when she is supine. Diuretic use during pregnancy can overstress the system and cause problems.

Which statement concerning neurologic and sensory development in the fetus is correct? a.Brain waves have been recorded on an electroencephalogram as early as the end of the first trimester (12 weeks of gestation). b.Fetuses respond to sound by 24 weeks of gestation and can be soothed by the sound of the mother's voice. c.Eyes are first receptive to light at 34 to 36 weeks of gestation. d.At term, the fetal brain is at least one third the size of an adult brain.

ANS: B Hearing develops early and is fully developed at birth. Brain waves have been recorded at week 8. Eyes are receptive to light at 28 weeks of gestation. The fetal brain is approximately one fourth the size of an adult brain.

A woman is at 14 weeks of gestation. The nurse would expect to palpate the fundus at which level? a. Not palpable above the symphysis at this time b. Slightly above the symphysis pubis c. At the level of the umbilicus d. Slightly above the umbilicus

ANS: B In normal pregnancies the uterus grows at a predictable rate. It may be palpated above the symphysis pubis sometime between the twelfth and fourteenth weeks of pregnancy. As the uterus grows it may be palpated above the symphysis pubis sometime between the twelfth and fourteenth weeks of pregnancy. At 14 weeks the uterus is not yet at the level of the umbilicus. The fundus is not palpable above the umbilicus until 22 to 24 weeks of gestation.

The pancreas forms in the foregut during the 5th to 8th week of gestation. A client with poorly controlled gestational diabetes asks the nurse what the effects of her condition will be on the fetus. What is the best response by the nurse? Poorly controlled maternal gestational diabetes will: a.produce fetal hypoglycemia. b.result in a macrocosmic fetus. c.result in a microcosmic fetus. d.enhance lung maturation.

ANS: B Insulin is produced by week 20 of gestation. In the fetus of a mother with uncontrolled diabetes, maternal hypoglycemia produces fetal hypoglycemia and macrocosmia results. Hyperinsulinemia blocks lung maturation, placing the neonate at risk for respiratory distress.

A woman is 15 weeks pregnant with her first baby. She asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move. What is the nurse's best answer? a."You should have felt the baby move by now." b."Within the next month, you should start to feel fluttering sensations." c."The baby is moving; however, you can't feel it yet." d."Some babies are quiet, and you don't feel them move."

ANS: B Maternal perception of fetal movement usually begins 16 to 20 weeks after conception. Because this is her first pregnancy, movement is felt toward the later part of the 16- to 20-week time period. Stating, "you should have felt the baby move by now" is incorrect and may be an alarming statement to the client. Fetal movement should be felt by 16 to 20 weeks. If movement is not felt by the end of that time, then further assessment is necessary.

Chapters 12. Conception and Fetal Development A newly married couple plans to use the natural family planning method of contraception. Understanding how long an ovum can live after ovulation is important to them. The nurse knows that his or her teaching was effective when the couple responds that an ovum is considered fertile for which period of time? a.6 to 8 hours b.24 hours c.2 to 3 days d.1 week

ANS: B Most ova remain fertile for approximately 24 hours after ovulation, much longer than 6 to 8 hours. However, ova do not remain fertile for 2 to 3 days or are viable for 1 week. If unfertilized by a sperm after 24 hours, the ovum degenerates and is reabsorbed.

Probable signs of pregnancy are: a. Determined by ultrasound b. Observed by the health care provider c. Reported by the client d. Diagnostic tests

ANS: B Probable signs are those detected through trained examination. Fetal visualization is a positive sign of pregnancy. Presumptive signs are those reported by the client. The term diagnostic tests is open for interpretation. To actually diagnose pregnancy, one would have to see positive signs of pregnancy.

The maternity nurse is cognizant of what important structure and function of the placenta? a.As the placenta widens, it gradually thins to allow easier passage of air and nutrients. b.As one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland. c.The placenta is able to keep out most potentially toxic substances, such as cigarette smoke, to which the mother is exposed. d.Optimal blood circulation is achieved through the placenta when the woman is lying on her back or standing. Alternative: With regard to the structure and function of the placenta, the maternity nurse should be aware that:

ANS: B The placenta produces four hormones necessary to maintain the pregnancy: hCG, hPL, estrogen, and progesterone. The placenta widens until 20 weeks of gestation and continues to grow thicker. Toxic substances such as nicotine and carbon monoxide readily cross the placenta into the fetus. Optimal circulation occurs when the woman is lying on her side.

In order to reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their cardiovascular system, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. A pregnant woman experiencing disturbed cardiac rhythm, such as sinus arrhythmia, requires close medical and obstetric observation no matter how healthy she otherwise may appear b. Changes in heart size and position and increases in blood volume create auditory changes from 20 weeks to term c. Palpitations are twice as likely to occur in twin gestations d. All of the above changes likely will occur

ANS: B These auscultatory changes should be discernible after 20 weeks of gestation. A healthy woman with no underlying heart disease does not need any therapy. The maternal heart rate increases in the third trimester, but palpitations may not necessarily occur, let alone double. Auditory changes are discernible at 20 weeks.

16. What type of cultural concern is the most likely deterrent to many women seeking prenatal care? a. Religion b. Modesty c. Ignorance d. Belief that physicians are evil Deterrent means discourage

ANS: B A concern for modesty is a deterrent to many women seeking prenatal care. For some women, exposing body parts, especially to a man, is considered a major violation of their modesty. Many cultural variations are found in prenatal care. Even if the prenatal care described is familiar to a woman, some practices may conflict with the beliefs and practices of a subculture group to which she belongs.

6. A woman who is 32 weeks' pregnant is informed by the nurse that a danger sign of pregnancy could be: a. Constipation. b. Alteration in the pattern of fetal movement. c. Heart palpitations. d. Edema in the ankles and feet at the end of the day.

ANS: B An alteration in the pattern or amount of fetal movement may indicate fetal jeopardy. Constipation, heart palpitations, and ankle and foot edema are normal discomforts of pregnancy that occur in the second and third trimesters.

23. With regard to the initial physical examination of a woman beginning prenatal care, maternity nurses should be cognizant of: a. Only women who show physical signs or meet the sociologic profile should be assessed for physical abuse. b. The woman should empty her bladder before the pelvic examination is performed. c. The distribution, amount, and quality of body hair are of no particular importance. d. The size of the uterus is discounted in the initial examination.

ANS: B An empty bladder facilitates the examination; this is also an opportunity to get a urine sample easily for a number of tests. All women should be assessed for a history of physical abuse, particularly because the likelihood of abuse increases during pregnancy. Noting body hair is important because body hair reflects nutritional status, endocrine function, and hygiene. Particular attention is paid to the size of the uterus because it is an indication of the duration of gestation.

Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester? a. Less audible heart sounds (S1, S2) b. Increased pulse rate c. Increased blood pressure d. Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production

ANS: B Between 14 and 20 weeks of gestation, the pulse increases about 10 to 15 beats/min, which persists to term. Splitting of S1 and S2 is more audible. In the first trimester, blood pressure usually remains the same as at the prepregnancy level, but it gradually decreases up to about 20 weeks of gestation. During the second trimester, both the systolic and the diastolic pressures decrease by about 5 to 10 mm Hg. Production of RBCs accelerates during pregnancy.

14. A 3-year-old girl's mother is 6 months pregnant. What concern is this child likely to verbalize? a. How the baby will "get out" b. What the baby will eat c. Whether her mother will die d. What color eyes the baby has

ANS: B By age 3 or 4, children like to be told the story of their own beginning and accept its comparison with the present pregnancy. They like to listen to the fetal heartbeat and feel the baby move. Sometimes they worry about how the baby is being fed and what it wears. School-age children take a more clinical interest in their mother's pregnancy and may want to know, "How did the baby get in there?" and "How will it get out?" Whether her mother will die does not tend to be the focus of a child's questions about the impending birth of a sibling. The baby's eye color does not tend to be the focus of children's questions about the impending birth of a sibling.

12. During the first trimester, a woman can expect which of the following changes in her sexual desire? a. An increase, because of enlarging breasts b. A decrease, because of nausea and fatigue c. No change d. An increase, because of increased levels of female hormones

ANS: B Maternal physiologic changes such as breast enlargement, nausea, fatigue, abdominal changes, perineal enlargement, leukorrhea, pelvic vasocongestion, and orgasmic responses may affect sexuality and sexual expression. Libido may be depressed in the first trimester but often increases during the second and third trimesters. During pregnancy, the breasts may become enlarged and tender; this tends to interfere with coitus, decreasing the desire to engage in sexual activity.

18. In understanding and guiding a woman through her acceptance of pregnancy, a maternity nurse should be aware that: a. Nonacceptance of the pregnancy very often equates to rejection of the child. b. Mood swings most likely are the result of worries about finances and a changed lifestyle as well as profound hormonal changes. c. Ambivalent feelings during pregnancy usually are seen only in emotionally immature or very young mothers. d. Conflicts such as not wanting to be pregnant or childrearing and career-related decisions need not be addressed during pregnancy because they will resolve themselves naturally after birth.

ANS: B Mood swings are natural and are likely to affect every woman to some degree. A woman may dislike being pregnant, refuse to accept it, and still love and accept the child. Ambivalent feelings about pregnancy are normal for mature or immature women, younger or older women. Conflicts such as not wanting to be pregnant or childrearing and career-related decisions need to be resolved. The baby ends the pregnancy but not all the issues.

A patient in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. She asks, "Why does this happen?" The nurse's best response is: a. "It is due to an increase in gastric motility." b. "It may be due to changes in hormones." c. "It is related to an increase in glucose levels." d. "It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions."

ANS: B Nausea and vomiting are believed to be caused by increased levels of hormones, decreased gastric motility, and hypoglycemia. Gastric motility decreases during pregnancy. Glucose levels decrease in the first trimester. Although gastric secretions decrease, this is not the main cause of nausea and vomiting.

8. A pregnant woman at 18 weeks of gestation calls the clinic to report that she has been experiencing occasional backaches of mild-to-moderate intensity. The nurse would recommend that she: a. Do Kegel exercises. b. Do pelvic rock exercises. c. Use a softer mattress. d. Stay in bed for 24 hours.

ANS: B Pelvic rock exercises may help stretch and strengthen the abdominal and lower back muscles and relieve low back pain. Kegel exercises increase the tone of the pelvic area, not the back. A softer mattress may not provide the support needed to maintain proper alignment of the spine and may contribute to back pain. Stretching and other exercises to relieve back pain should be performed several times a day.

3. The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is: a. A positive pregnancy test. b. Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife. c. Braxton Hicks contractions. d. Quickening.

ANS: B Positive signs of pregnancy are attributed to the presence of a fetus, such as hearing the fetal heartbeat or palpating fetal movement. A positive pregnancy test and Braxton Hicks contractions are probable signs of pregnancy. Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.

Chapter 14. Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy 1. The nurse caring for a newly pregnant woman would advise her that ideally prenatal care should begin: a. Before the first missed menstrual period. b. After the first missed menstrual period. c. After the second missed menstrual period. d. After the third missed menstrual period.

ANS: B Prenatal care ideally should begin soon after the first missed menstrual period. Regular prenatal visits offer opportunities to ensure the health of the expectant mother and her infant.

Which finding in the urine analysis of a pregnant woman is considered a variation of normal? a. Proteinuria b. Glycosuria c. Bacteria in the urine. d. Ketones in the urine.

ANS: B Small amounts of glucose may indicate "physiologic spilling." The presence of protein could indicate kidney disease or preeclampsia. Urinary tract infections are associated with bacteria in the urine. An increase in ketones indicates that the patient is exercising too strenuously or has an inadequate fluid and food intake

Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate? a. Viability—22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight >500 g) b. Term—pregnancy from the beginning of week 38 of gestation to the end of week 42 c. Preterm—pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks d. Postdate—pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks

ANS: B Term is 38 to 42 weeks of gestation. Viability is the ability of the fetus to live outside the uterus before coming to term, or 22 to 24 weeks since LMP. Preterm is 20 to 37 weeks of gestation. Postdate or postterm is a pregnancy that extends beyond 42 weeks or what is considered the limit of full term.

Chapter: 13. Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy 1. obstetric hx: pregnant for the fourth time and all of her children from previous pregnancies are living. One was born at 39 weeks of gestation Twins were born at 34 weeks of gestation Another child was born at 35 weeks of gestation. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system? a. 3-1-1-1-3 b. 4-1-2-0-4 c. 3-0-3-0-3 d. 4-2-1-0-3

ANS: B The correct calculation of this woman's gravidity and parity is 4-1-2-0-4. G: total number of times the woman has been pregnant; she is pregnant for the fourth time. T: number of pregnancies carried to term (surpassing 37 week); One was born at 39 weeks of gestation P: This is the number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth (between 20 weeks and before 37 weeks); the woman has had two pregnancies in which she delivered preterm (34 weeks for her twins and 35 weeks of gestation for another child) A: number of spontaneous miscarriages or elective terminations occurring before 20 weeks (prior to viability) L: This number signifies the number of children born that currently are living; the woman has four children -> her children from previous pregnancies are living

26. The nurse should have knowledge of the purpose of the pinch test. It is used to: a. Check the sensitivity of the nipples. b. Determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted. c. Calculate the adipose buildup in the abdomen. d. See whether the fetus has become inactive.

ANS: B The pinch test is used to determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted. Nipples must be everted to allow breastfeeding.

The maternity nurse understands that vascular volume increases 40% to 60% during pregnancy to: a. Compensate for decreased renal plasma flow. b. Provide adequate perfusion of the placenta. c. Eliminate metabolic wastes of the mother. d. Prevent maternal and fetal dehydration.

ANS: B The primary function of increased vascular volume is to transport oxygen and nutrients to the fetus via the placenta. Renal plasma flow increases during pregnancy. Assisting with pulling metabolic wastes from the fetus for maternal excretion is one purpose of the increased vascular volume.

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the uterus, nurses should be aware that: a. Lightening occurs near the end of the second trimester as the uterus rises into a different position. b. The woman's increased urinary frequency in the first trimester is the result of exaggerated uterine antireflexion caused by softening. c. Braxton Hicks contractions become more painful in the third trimester, particularly if the woman tries to exercise. d. The uterine souffle is the movement of the fetus.

ANS: B The softening of the lower uterine segment is called Hegar's sign. Lightening occurs in the last 2 weeks of pregnancy, when the fetus descends. Braxton Hicks contractions become more defined in the final trimester but are not painful. Walking or exercise usually causes them to stop. The uterine souffle is the sound made by blood in the uterine arteries; it can be heard with a fetal stethoscope.

Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy as a result of: a. Inadequate intake of iron. b. Dilution of hemoglobin concentration. c. The fetus establishing iron stores. d. Decreased production of erythrocytes.

ANS: B When blood volume expansion is more pronounced and occurs earlier than the increase in red blood cells, the woman has physiologic anemia, which is the result of dilution of hemoglobin concentration rather than inadequate hemoglobin. Inadequate intake of iron may lead to true anemia. There is an increased production of erythrocytes during pregnancy.

Which statement regarding the development of the respiratory system is a high priority for the nurse to understand? a.The respiratory system does not begin developing until after the embryonic stage. b.The infant's lungs are considered mature when the L/S ratio is 1:1, at approximately 32 weeks of gestation. c.Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow, accelerating lung maturity. d.Fetal respiratory movements are not visible on ultrasound scans until at least 16 weeks of gestation. Alternative: With regard to the development of the respiratory system, maternity nurses should be aware that:

ANS: C A reduction in placental blood flow stresses the fetus, increases blood levels of corticosteroids, and thus accelerates lung maturity. The development of the respiratory system begins during the embryonic phase and continues into childhood. The infant's lungs are considered mature when the L/S ratio is 2:1, at approximately 35 weeks of gestation. Lung movements have been visualized on ultrasound scans at 11 weeks of gestation.

A pregnant woman at 25 weeks of gestation tells the nurse that she dropped a pan last week and her baby jumped at the noise. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a."That must have been a coincidence; babies can't respond like that." b."The fetus is demonstrating the aural reflex." c."Babies respond to sound starting at approximately 24 weeks of gestation." d."Let me know if it happens again; we need to report that to your midwife."

ANS: C Babies respond to external sound starting at approximately 24 weeks of gestation. Acoustic stimulations can evoke a fetal heart rate response. There is no such thing as an aural reflex. The last statement is inappropriate and may cause undue psychologic alarm to the client.

Some pregnant clients may complain of changes in their voice and impaired hearing. The nurse can tell these clients that these are common reactions to: a. A decreased estrogen level b. Displacement of the diaphragm, resulting in thoracic breathing c. Congestion and swelling, which occur because the upper respiratory tract has become more vascular d. Increased blood volume

ANS: C Estrogen levels increase, causing the upper respiratory tract to become more vascular; this produces swelling and congestion in the nose and ears and therefore voice changes and impaired hearing. Estrogen levels increase, not decrease. The diaphragm is displaced. However, the key is that estrogen levels increase, causing the upper respiratory tract to become more vascular; this produces swelling and congestion in the nose and ears and therefore voice changes and impaired hearing. The volume of blood is increased. However, the key here is that estrogen levels increase, causing the upper respiratory tract to become more vascular; this produces swelling and congestion in the nose and ears and therefore voice changes and impaired hearing.

In order to reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their breasts, nurses should be aware that: a. The visibility of blood vessels that form an intertwining blue network indicates full function of Montgomery's tubercles and possibly infection of the tubercles b. The mammary glands do not develop until 2 weeks before labor c. Lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth d. Colostrum is the yellowish oily substance used to lubricate the nipples for breastfeeding

ANS: C Lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth. The visible blue network of blood vessels is a normal outgrowth of a richer blood supply. The mammary glands are functionally complete by midpregnancy. Colostrum is a creamy white-to-yellow premilk fluid that can be expressed from the nipples before birth.

A nurse providing care to a pregnant woman should know that all are normal gastrointestinal changes in pregnancy except: a. Ptyalism b. Pyrosis c. Pica d. Decreased peristalsis

ANS: C Pica (a desire to eat nonfood substances) is an indication of iron deficiency and should be evaluated. Ptyalism (excessive salivation) is a normal finding. Pyrosis (heartburn) is a normal finding. Decreased peristalsis is a normal finding.

The measurement of lecithin in relation to sphingomyelin (lecithin/sphingomyelin [L/S] ratio) is used to determine fetal lung maturity. Which ratio reflects fetal maturity of the lungs? a.1.4:1 b.1.8:1 c.2:1 d.1:1

ANS: C The L/S ratio indicates a 2:1 ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin, which is an indicator of fetal lung maturity and occurs at approximately the middle of the third trimester. L/S ratios of 1.4:1, 1.8:1, and 1:1 each indicate immaturity of the fetal lungs.

A woman's cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly. The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a."We don't really know when such defects occur." b."It depends on what caused the defect." c."Defects occur between the third and fifth weeks of development." d."They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development."

ANS: C The cardiovascular system is the first organ system to function in the developing human. Blood vessel and blood formation begins in the third week, and the heart is developmentally complete in the fifth week. "We don't really know when such defects occur" is an inaccurate statement. Regardless of the cause, the heart is vulnerable during its period of development—in the third to fifth weeks; therefore, the statement, "They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development" is inaccurate.

A client arrives for her initial prenatal examination. This is her first child. She asks the nurse, "How does my baby get air inside my uterus?" What is the correct response by the nurse? a."The baby's lungs work in utero to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." b."The baby absorbs oxygen from your blood system." c."The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream." d."The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical artery to the baby's abdomen." Alternative: Sally comes in for her first prenatal examination. This is her first child. She asks you (the nurse), "How does my baby get air inside my uterus?" The correct response is:

ANS: C The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical vein, not the artery, to the fetus and excretes carbon dioxide into the maternal bloodstream. The fetal lungs do not function as respiratory gas exchange in utero. The baby does not simply absorb oxygen from a woman's blood system; rather, blood and gas transport occur through the placenta.

27. To provide the patient with accurate information about dental care during pregnancy, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. Dental care can be dropped from the priority list because the woman has enough to worry about and is getting a lot of calcium anyway. b. Dental surgery, in particular, is contraindicated because of the psychologic stress it engenders. c. If dental treatment is necessary, the woman will be most comfortable with it in the second trimester. d. Dental care interferes with the expectant mother's need to practice conscious relaxation.

ANS: C The second trimester is best for dental treatment because that is when the woman will be able to sit most comfortably in the dental chair. Dental care such as brushing with fluoride toothpaste is especially important during pregnancy because nausea during pregnancy may lead to poor oral hygiene. Emergency dental surgery is permissible, but the mother must clearly understand the risks and benefits. Conscious relaxation is useful, and it may even help the woman get through any dental appointments; it is not a reason to avoid them

At a routine prenatal visit, the nurse explains the development of the fetus to her client. At approximately ____ weeks of gestation, lecithin is forming on the alveolar surfaces, the eyelids open, and the fetus measures approximately 27 cm crown to rump and weighs approximately 1110 g. The client is how many weeks of gestation at today's visit? a.20 b.24 c.28 d.30

ANS: C These milestones in human development occur at 28 weeks of gestation. These milestones have not occurred by 20 or 24 weeks of gestation but have been reached before 30 weeks of gestation.

22. With regard to the initial visit with a client who is beginning prenatal care, nurses should be aware that: a. The first interview is a relaxed, get-acquainted affair in which nurses gather some general impressions. b. If nurses observe handicapping conditions, they should be sensitive and not inquire about them because the client will do that in her own time. c. Nurses should be alert to the appearance of potential parenting problems, such as depression or lack of family support. d. Because of legal complications, nurses should not ask about illegal drug use; that is left to physicians

ANS: C Besides these potential problems, nurses need to be alert to the woman's attitude toward health care. The initial interview needs to be planned, purposeful, and focused on specific content. A lot of ground must be covered. Nurses must be sensitive to special problems, but they do need to inquire because discovering individual needs is important. People with chronic or handicapping conditions forget to mention them because they have adapted to them. Getting information on drug use is important and can be done confidentially. Actual testing for drug use requires the client's consent.

19. With regard to a woman's reordering of personal relationships during pregnancy, the maternity nurse should understand that: a. Because of the special motherhood bond, a woman's relationship with her mother is even more important than with the father of the child. b. Nurses need not get involved in any sexual issues the couple has during pregnancy, particularly if they have trouble communicating them to each other. c. Women usually express two major relationship needs during pregnancy: feeling loved and valued and having the child accepted by the father. d. The woman's sexual desire is likely to be highest in the first trimester because of the excitement and because intercourse is physically easier.

ANS: C Love and support help a woman feel better about her pregnancy. The most important person to the pregnant woman is usually the father. Nurses can facilitate communication between partners about sexual matters if, as is common, they are nervous about expressing their worries and feelings. The second trimester is the time when a woman's sense of well-being, along with certain physical changes, increases her desire for sex. Desire is decreased in the first and third trimesters.

A patient at 24 weeks of gestation contacts the nurse at her obstetric provider's office to complain that she has cravings for dirt and gravel. The nurse is aware that this condition is known as ________ and may indicate anemia. a. Ptyalism b. Pyrosis c. Pica d. Decreased peristalsis

ANS: C Pica (a desire to eat nonfood substances) is an indication of iron deficiency and should be evaluated. Ptyalism (excessive salivation), pyrosis (heartburn), and decreased peristalsis are normal findings of gastrointestinal change during pregnancy. Food cravings during pregnancy are normal

11. The nurse should be aware that the partner's main role in pregnancy is to: a. Provide financial support. b. Protect the pregnant woman from "old wives' tales." c. Support and nurture the pregnant woman. d. Make sure the pregnant woman keeps prenatal appointments.

ANS: C The partner's main role in pregnancy is to nurture the pregnant woman and respond to her feelings of vulnerability. In older societies, the man enacted the ritual couvade. Changing cultural and professional attitudes have encouraged fathers' participation in the birth experience over the past 30 years.

24. With regard to follow-up visits for women receiving prenatal care, nurses should be aware that: a. The interview portions become more intensive as the visits become more frequent over the course of the pregnancy. b. Monthly visits are scheduled for the first trimester, every 2 weeks for the second trimester, and weekly for the third trimester. c. During the abdominal examination, the nurse should be alert for supine hypotension. d. For pregnant women, a systolic blood pressure (BP) of 130 and a diastolic BP of 80 is sufficient to be considered hypertensive.

ANS: C The woman lies on her back during the abdominal examination, possibly compressing the vena cava and aorta, which can cause a decrease in blood pressure and a feeling of faintness. The interview portion of follow-up examinations is less extensive than in the initial prenatal visits, during which so much new information must be gathered. Monthly visits are routinely scheduled for the first and second trimesters; visits increase to every 2 weeks at week 28 and to once a week at week 36. For pregnant women hypertension is defined as a systolic BP of 140 or greater and a diastolic BP of 90 or greater.

4. A pregnant woman at 10 weeks of gestation jogs three or four times per week. She is concerned about the effect of exercise on the fetus. The nurse should inform her: a. You don't need to modify your exercising any time during your pregnancy." b. "Stop exercising because it will harm the fetus." c. "You may find that you need to modify your exercise to walking later in your pregnancy, around the seventh month." d. Jogging is too hard on your joints; switch to walking now."

ANS: C Typically running should be replaced with walking around the seventh month of pregnancy. The nurse should inform the woman that she may need to reduce her exercise level as the pregnancy progresses. Physical activity promotes a feeling of well-being in pregnant women. It improves circulation, promotes relaxation and rest, and counteracts boredom. Simple measures should be initiated to prevent injuries, such as warm-up and stretching exercises to prepare the joints for more strenuous exercise.

During pregnancy, many changes occur as a direct result of the presence of the fetus. Which of these adaptations meet this criteria? a. Leukorrhea b. Development of the operculum c. Quickening d. Ballottement e. Lightening

ANS: C, D, E c. Quickening d. Ballottement e. Lightening Quickening is the first recognition of fetal movements or "feeling life." Passive movement of the unengaged fetus is referred to as ballottement. Lightening occurs when the fetus begins to descend into the pelvis. This occurs 2 weeks before labor in the nullipara and at the start of labor in the multipara.

What is the most basic information that a nurse should be able to share with a client who asks about the process of conception? a.Ova are considered fertile 48 to 72 hours after ovulation. b.Sperm remain viable in the woman's reproductive system for an average of 12 to 24 hours. c.Conception is achieved when a sperm successfully penetrates the membrane surrounding the ovum. d.Implantation in the endometrium occurs 6 to 10 days after conception. Alternative: The most basic information a maternity nurse should have concerning conception is:

ANS: D After implantation, the endometrium is called the decidua. Ova are considered fertile for approximately 24 hours after ovulation. Sperm remain viable in the woman's reproductive system for an average of 2 to 3 days. Penetration of the ovum by the sperm is called fertilization. Conception occurs when the zygote, the first cell of the new individual, is formed.

Which structure is responsible for oxygen and carbon dioxide transport to and from the maternal bloodstream? a.Decidua basalis b.Blastocyst c.Germ layer d.Chorionic villi

ANS: D Chorionic villi are fingerlike projections that develop out of the trophoblast and extend into the blood-filled spaces of the endometrium. The villi obtain oxygen and nutrients from the maternal bloodstream and dispose carbon dioxide and waste products into the maternal blood. The decidua basalis is the portion of the decidua (endometrium) under the blastocyst where the villi attach. The blastocyst is the embryonic development stage after the morula; implantation occurs at this stage. The germ layer is a layer of the blastocyst.

A woman who is 8 months pregnant asks the nurse, "Does my baby have any antibodies to fight infection?" What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a."Your baby has all the immunoglobulins necessary: immunoglobulin G (IgG), immunoglobulin M (IgM), and immunoglobulin A (IgA)." b."Your baby won't receive any antibodies until he is born and you breastfeed him." c."Your baby does not have any antibodies to fight infection." d."Your baby has IgG and IgM."

ANS: D During the third trimester, IgG is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta; it provides passive acquired immunity to specific bacterial toxins. However, the fetus produces IgM by the end of the first trimester. IgA immunoglobulins are not produced by the baby. Therefore, by the third trimester, the fetus has both IgG and IgM. Breastfeeding supplies the newborn infant with IgA.

Some of the embryo's intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period. What is the rationale for this development of the gastrointestinal system? a.Umbilical cord is much larger at this time than it will be at the end of pregnancy. b.Intestines begin their development within the umbilical cord. c.Nutrient content of the blood is higher in this location. d.Abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing.

ANS: D The abdominal contents grow more rapidly than the abdominal cavity; therefore, part of their development takes place in the umbilical cord. By 10 weeks of gestation, the abdomen is large enough to contain them. Intestines begin their development within the umbilical cord but only because the liver and kidneys occupy most of the abdominal cavity. Blood supply is adequate in all areas.

To reassure and educate their pregnant clients about changes in their blood pressure, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. A blood pressure cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too low; a cuff that is too large produces a reading that is too high. b. Shifting the client's position and changing from arm to arm for different measurements produces the most accurate composite blood pressure reading at each visit. c. The systolic blood pressure increases slightly as pregnancy advances; the diastolic pressure remains constant. d. Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the later stage of term pregnancy.

ANS: D Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava also leads to varicose veins in the legs and vulva. The tightness of a cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too high; similarly the looseness of a cuff that is too large results in a reading that is too low. Because maternal positioning affects readings, blood pressure measurements should be obtained in the same arm and with the woman in the same position. The systolic blood pressure generally remains constant but may decline slightly as pregnancy advances. The diastolic blood pressure first decreases and then gradually increases.

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is an important biochemical marker for pregnancy and the basis for many tests. A maternity nurse should be aware that: a. hCG can be detected 2.5 weeks after conception. b. The hCG level increases gradually and uniformly throughout pregnancy. c. Much lower than normal increases in the level of hCG may indicate a postdate pregnancy. d. A higher than normal level of hCG may indicate an ectopic pregnancy or Down syndrome.

ANS: D Higher levels also could be a sign of multiple gestation. hCG can be detected 7 to 8 days after conception. The hCG level fluctuates during pregnancy: peaking, declining, stabilizing, and increasing again. Abnormally slow increases may indicate impending miscarriage.

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the cervix, vagina, and position of the fetus, nurses should be aware that: a. Because of a number of changes in the cervix, abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) tests are much easier to evaluate. b. Quickening is a technique of palpating the fetus to engage it in passive movement. c. The deepening color of the vaginal mucosa and cervix (Chadwick's sign) usually appears in the second trimester or later as the vagina prepares to stretch during labor. d. Increased vascularity of the vagina increases sensitivity and may lead to a high degree of arousal, especially in the second trimester.

ANS: D Increased sensitivity and an increased interest in sex sometimes go together. This frequently occurs during the second trimester. Cervical changes make evaluation of abnormal Pap tests more difficult. Quickening is the first recognition of fetal movements by the mother. Ballottement is a technique used to palpate the fetus. Chadwick's sign appears from the sixth to eighth weeks.

Which statement about a condition of pregnancy is accurate? a. Insufficient salivation (ptyalism) is caused by increases in estrogen. b. Acid indigestion (pyrosis) begins early but declines throughout pregnancy. c. Hyperthyroidism often develops (temporarily) because hormone production increases. d. Nausea and vomiting rarely have harmful effects on the fetus and may be beneficial.

ANS: D Normal nausea and vomiting rarely produce harmful effects, and nausea and vomiting periods may be less likely to result in miscarriage or preterm labor. Ptyalism is excessive salivation, which may be caused by a decrease in unconscious swallowing or stimulation of the salivary glands. Pyrosis begins in the first trimester and intensifies through the third trimester. Increased hormone production does not lead to hyperthyroidism in pregnant women.

28. When discussing work and travel during pregnancy with a pregnant patient, nurses should instruct them that: a. Women should sit for as long as possible and cross their legs at the knees from time to time for exercise. b. Women should avoid seat belts and shoulder restraints in the car because they press on the fetus. c. Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints can harm the fetus if the woman passes through them a number of times. d. While working or traveling in a car or on a plane, women should arrange to walk around at least every hour or so Alternative: Many pregnant women have questions regarding work and travel during pregnancy. Nurse should instruct clients that:

ANS: D Periodic walking helps prevent thrombophlebitis. Pregnant women should avoid sitting or standing for long periods and crossing the legs at the knees. Pregnant women must wear lap belts and shoulder restraints. The most common injury to the fetus comes from injury to the mother. Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints do not harm fetuses.

The nurse caring for the pregnant client must understand that the hormone essential for maintaining pregnancy is: a. Estrogen. b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). c. Oxytocin. d. Progesterone.

ANS: D Progesterone is essential for maintaining pregnancy; it does so by relaxing smooth muscles. This reduces uterine activity and prevents miscarriage. Estrogen plays a vital role in pregnancy, but it is not the primary hormone for maintaining pregnancy. hCG levels increase at implantation but decline after 60 to 70 days. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.

3. Which symptom is considered a first-trimester warning sign and should be reported immediately by the pregnant woman to her health care provider? a. Nausea with occasional vomiting b. Fatigue c. Urinary frequency d. Vaginal bleeding

ANS: D Signs and symptoms that must be reported include severe vomiting, fever and chills, burning on urination, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and vaginal bleeding. These symptoms may be signs of potential complications of the pregnancy. Nausea with occasional vomiting, fatigue, and urinary frequency are normal first-trimester complaints. Although they may be worrisome or annoying to the mother, they usually are not indications of pregnancy problems.

Numerous changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy. Which change persists after birth? a. Epulis b. Chloasma c. Telangiectasia d. Striae gravidarum

ANS: D Striae gravidarum, or stretch marks, reflect separation within the underlying connective tissue of the skin. They usually fade after birth, although they never disappear completely. An epulis is a red, raised nodule on the gums that bleeds easily. Chloasma, or mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead, especially in dark-complexioned pregnant women. Chloasma usually fades after the birth. Telangiectasia, or vascular spiders, are tiny, star-shaped or branchlike, slightly raised, pulsating end-arterioles usually found on the neck, thorax, face, and arms. They occur as a result of elevated levels of circulating estrogen. These usually disappear after birth.

15. In her work with pregnant women of various cultures, a nurse practitioner has observed various practices that seemed strange or unusual. She has learned that cultural rituals and practices during pregnancy seem to have one purpose in common. Which statement best describes that purpose? a. To promote family unity b. To ward off the "evil eye" c. To appease the gods of fertility d. To protect the mother and fetus during pregnancy

ANS: D The purpose of all cultural practices is to protect the mother and fetus during pregnancy. Although many cultures consider pregnancy normal, certain practices are expected of women of all cultures to ensure a good outcome. Cultural prescriptions tell women what to do, and cultural proscriptions establish taboos. The purposes of these practices are to prevent maternal illness resulting from a pregnancy-induced imbalanced state and to protect the vulnerable fetus.

7. A woman who is 14 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that she always had a glass of wine with dinner before she became pregnant. She has abstained during her first trimester and would like to know if it is safe for her to have a drink with dinner now. The nurse would tell her: a. "Since you're in your second trimester, there's no problem with having one drink with dinner." b. "One drink every night is too much. One drink three times a week should be fine." c. "Since you're in your second trimester, you can drink as much as you like." d. "Because no one knows how much or how little alcohol it takes to cause fetal problems, the best course is to abstain throughout your pregnancy."

ANS: D The statement "Because no one knows how much or how little alcohol it takes to cause fetal problems, the best course is to abstain throughout your pregnancy" is accurate. A safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy has not yet been established. Although the consumption of occasional alcoholic beverages may not be harmful to the mother or her developing fetus, complete abstinence is strongly advised.

10. A woman is 3 months pregnant. At her prenatal visit, she tells the nurse that she doesn't know what is happening; one minute she's happy that she is pregnant, and the next minute she cries for no reason. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Don't worry about it; you'll feel better in a month or so." b. "Have you talked to your husband about how you feel?" c. "Perhaps you really don't want to be pregnant." d. "Hormonal changes during pregnancy commonly result in mood swings."

ANS: D The statement "Hormonal changes during pregnancy commonly result in mood swings" is accurate and the most appropriate response by the nurse. The statement "Don't worry about it; you'll feel better in a month or so" dismisses the client's concerns and is not the most appropriate response. Although women should be encouraged to share their feelings, "Have you talked to your husband about how you feel" is not the most appropriate response and does not provide the client with a rationale for the psychosocial dynamics of her pregnancy. "Perhaps you really don't want to be pregnant" is completely inappropriate and deleterious to the psychologic well-being of the woman. Hormonal and metabolic adaptations often cause mood swings in pregnancy. The woman's responses are normal. She should be reassured about her feelings.

20. What represents a typical progression through the phases of a woman's establishing a relationship with the fetus? a. Accepts the fetus as distinct from herself—accepts the biologic fact of pregnancy—has a feeling of caring and responsibility b. Fantasizes about the child's gender and personality—views the child as part of herself—becomes introspective c. Views the child as part of herself—has feelings of well-being—accepts the biologic fact of pregnancy d. "I am pregnant."—"I am going to have a baby."—"I am going to be a mother.

ANS: D The woman first centers on herself as pregnant, then on the baby as an entity separate from herself, and then on her responsibilities as a mother. The expressions, "I am pregnant," "I am going to have a baby," and "I am going to be a mother" sum up the progression through the three phases.

9. For what reason would breastfeeding be contraindicated? a. Hepatitis B b. Everted nipples c. History of breast cancer 3 years ago d. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive

ANS: D Women who are HIV positive are discouraged from breastfeeding. Although hepatitis B antigen has not been shown to be transmitted through breast milk, as an added precaution infants born to HBsAg-positive women should receive the hepatitis B vaccine and immune globulin immediately after birth. Everted nipples are functional for breastfeeding. Newly diagnosed breast cancer would be a contraindication to breastfeeding

TRUE/FALSE 1. The fetal concentration of glucose is lower than the glucose level in the maternal blood because of its rapid metabolism by the fetus. Is this statement true or false?

ANS: T This fetal requirement demands larger concentrations of glucose than simple diffusion can provide. Therefore, maternal glucose moves into the fetal circulation by active transport.

TRUE/FALSE 1. In nonpregnant women, blood glucose levels must be 160 to 180 mg/dl before glucose is "spilled" into the urine. During pregnancy glucosuria occurs when maternal glucose levels are lower than 160 mg/dl. Is this statement true or false?

ANS: T This statement is true. Why glucose, as well as other nutrients such as amino acids, is wasted during pregnancy is not understood, nor has the exact mechanism been discovered. Although glucosuria may be found in normal pregnancies, the possibility of gestational diabetes must be kept in mind.