Week 3 Maternity by Lowdermilk & Perry Chapters 16, 17, 18, 19

11. To provide the necessary assessment of parent education, the nurse must know which bone is not a bone in the fetal skull? a. Parietal b. Temporal c. Fontanel d. Occipital

ANS: C The fetal skull has two parietal bones, two temporal bones, an occipital bone, and a frontal bone. The fontanels are membrane-filled spaces. The fetal skull has two parietal bones. The fetal skull has two temporal bones. The fetal skull has an occipital bone and a frontal bone.

Nurses should be aware that accelerations in the fetal heart rate: A. Are indications of fetal well-being when they are periodic B. Are greater and longer in preterm gestations C. Are usually seen with breech presentations when they are episodic D. May visibly resemble the shape of the uterine contraction

D. May visibly resemble the shape of the uterine contraction They may resemble the shape of the uterine contraction or may be spikelike.

Perinatal nurses are legally responsible for: A. Correctly interpreting FHR patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions, and documenting the outcomes B. Greeting the client on arrival, assessing her, and starting an IV line C. Applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the care provider D. Making sure the woman is comfortable

A. Correctly interpreting FHR patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions, and documenting the outcomes Nurses who care for women during childbirth are legally responsible for correctly interpreting FHR patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions based on those patterns, and documenting the outcomes of those interventions.

Which deceleration of the FHR would NOT require the nurse to change the maternal position? A. Early decelerations B. Late decelerations C. Variable decelerations D. It is always a good idea to change the woman's position.

A. Early decelerations Early decelerations (and accelerations) generally do not need any nursing intervention.

Fetal tachycardia is most common during: A. Maternal fever B. Umbilical cord prolapse C. Regional anesthesia D. MgSO4 administration

A. Maternal fever Fetal tachycardia can be considered an early sign of fetal hypoxemia and can also result from maternal or fetal infection. Hypoxemia: an abnormally low concentration of oxygen in the blood.

Which FHR finding would concern the nurse during labor? A. Accelerations with fetal movement B. Early decelerations C. An average FHR of 126 beats/min D. Late decelerations

D. Late decelerations Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are associated with fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent and uncorrected.

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that decreased variability of the fetal heart rate would be considered benign if caused by: A. A periodic fetal sleep state B. Uterine palpation C. Uterine contractions D. Maternal activity

A. A periodic fetal sleep state Periodic fetal sleep states usually last 20 to 30 minutes.

The nurse caring for a laboring woman is aware that maternal cardiac output can be increased by: A. Change in position B. Oxytocin administration C. Regional anesthesia D. Intravenous analgesic

A. Change in position Maternal supine hypotension syndrome is caused by the weight and pressure of the gravid uterus on the ascending vena cava when the woman is in a supine position. This reduces venous return to the woman's heart, as well as cardiac output, and subsequently reduces her blood pressure. The nurse can encourage the woman to change positions and to avoid the supine position.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. The nurse's first priority is to: A. Change the woman's position B. Notify the care provider C. Assist with amnioinfusion D. Insert a scalp electrode

A. Change the woman's position. Late decelerations may be caused by maternal supine hypotension syndrome. They usually are corrected when the woman turns on her side to displace the weight of the gravid uterus from the vena cava.

A normal uterine activity (UA) pattern in labor is characterized by: A. Contractions every 2 to 5 minutes B. Contractions lasting about 2 minutes C. Contractions about 1 minute apart D. A contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg

A. Contractions every 2 to 5 minutes Contractions normally occur every 2 to 5 minutes and last less than 90 seconds (intensity 800 mm Hg) with about 30 seconds in between (20 mm Hg or less).

The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by: A. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow B. Umbilical cord compression C. Uteroplacental insufficiency D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes

A A. Correct: Early decelerations are the fetus's response to fetal head compression. B. Incorrect: Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression. C. Incorrect: Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. D. Incorrect: Spontaneous rupture of membranes has no bearing on the FHR unless the umbilical cord prolapses, which would result in variable or prolonged bradycardia.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that accelerations with fetal movement: A. Are reassuring B. Are caused by umbilical cord compression C. Warrant close observation D. Are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency

A A. Correct: Episodic accelerations in the FHR occur during fetal movement and are indications of fetal well-being. B. Incorrect: Umbilical cord compression results in variable decelerations in the FHR. C. Incorrect: Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being and do not warrant close observation. D. Incorrect: Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR.

12. The slight overlapping of cranial bones or shaping of the fetal head during labor is called: a. Lightening b. Molding c. Ferguson reflex d. Valsalva maneuver

ANS: B Molding also permits adaptation to various diameters of the maternal pelvis. Lightening is the mother's sensation of decreased abdominal distention, which usually occurs the week before labor. The Ferguson reflex is the contraction urge of the uterus after stimulation of the cervix. The Valsalva maneuver describes conscious pushing during the second stage of labor.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that amnioinfusion is used to treat: A. Variable decelerations B. Late decelerations C. Fetal bradycardia D. Fetal tachycardia

A A. Correct: Amnioinfusion is used during labor either to dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid or to supplement the amount of amniotic fluid to reduce the severity of variable decelerations caused by cord compression. B. Incorrect: Amnioinfusion has no bearing on this alteration in FHR tracings. C. Incorrect: Amnioinfusion has no bearing on this alteration in FHR tracings. D. Incorrect: Amnioinfusion has no bearing on this alteration in FHR tracings.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that variable FHR decelerations are caused by: A. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow B. Umbilical cord compression C. Uteroplacental insufficiency D. Fetal hypoxemia

B A. Incorrect: Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. B. Correct: Variable decelerations can occur any time during the uterine contracting phase and are caused by compression of the umbilical cord. C. Incorrect: Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. D. Incorrect: Fetal hypoxemia would result in tachycardia initially, then bradycardia if hypoxia continues.

A new client and her partner arrive on the labor, delivery, recovery, and postpartum (LDRP) unit for the birth of their first child. You apply the EFM to the woman. Her partner asks you to explain what is printing on the graph, referring to the EFM strip. He wants to know what the baby's heart rate should be. Your best response is: A. "Don't worry about that machine; that's my job." B. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate. Generally, the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor." C. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are." D. "Your doctor will explain all of that later. EFM - Electronic Fetal Heart Monitoring

B. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate. Generally, the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor." This statement educates the partner about fetal monitoring and provides support and information to alleviate his fears.

What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the best response that indicates the priority of actions that should be taken, starting with the most important. A. Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal exam B. Reposition the mother, increase IV fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask C. Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluid, and notify the care provider D. Perform a vaginal exam, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask

B. Reposition the mother, increase IV fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask

With regard to breathing techniques during labor, maternity nurses should be aware that: a.Breathing techniques in the first stage of labor are designed to increase the size of the abdominal cavity to reduce friction. b. By the time labor has begun, it is too late for instruction in breathing and relaxation. c. Controlled breathing techniques are most difficult near the end of the second stage of labor. d.The patterned-paced breathing technique can help prevent hyperventilation.

Breathing techniques in the first stage of labor are designed to increase the size of the abdominal cavity to reduce friction. First-stage techniques promote relaxation of abdominal muscles, thereby increasing the size of the abdominal cavity. Instruction in simple breathing and relaxation techniques early in labor is possible and effective. Controlled breathing techniques are most difficult in the transition phase at the end of the first stage of labor, when the cervix is dilated 8 to 10 cm. Patterned-paced breathing can sometimes lead to hyperventilation

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that maternal hypotension can result in: A. Early decelerations B. Fetal dysrhythmias C. Uteroplacental insufficiency D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes

C A. Incorrect: Maternal hypotension is not associated with this condition. B. Incorrect: Maternal hypotension is not associated with this condition. C. Correct: Low maternal blood pressure reduces placental blood flow during uterine contractions, resulting in fetal hypoxemia. D. Incorrect: Maternal hypotension is not associated with this condition.

You are evaluating the fetal monitor tracing of your client, who is in active labor. Suddenly, you see the FHR drop from its baseline of 125 down to 80. You reposition the mother, provide oxygen, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and perform a vaginal exam. The cervix has not changed. Five minutes have passed, and the fetal heart rates remain in the 80s. What additional nursing measures should you take? A. Scream for help B. Insert a Foley catheter C. Start pitocin D. Notify the care provider immediately

D. Notify the care provider immediately To relieve an FHR deceleration, the nurse can reposition the mother, increase IV fluid, and provide oxygen. Also, if oxytocin is infusing, it should be discontinued. If the FHR does not resolve, the primary care provider should be notified immediately.

When using Intermediate auscultation (IA) for FHR, nurses should be aware that: A. They can be expected to cover only two or three clients when IA is the primary method of fetal assessment. B. The best course is to use the descriptive terms associated with EFM when documenting results. C. If the heartbeat cannot be found immediately, a shift must be made to electronic monitoring. D. Ultrasound can be used to find the fetal heartbeat and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor.

D. Ultrasound can be used to find the fetal heartbeat and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor. Locating fetal heartbeats often takes time. Mothers can be reassured verbally and by the ultrasound pictures if that device is used to help locate the heartbeat.

Chapter 18. Fetal Assessment During Labor 1. A nurse caring for a laboring woman is cognizant that early decelerations are caused by: Altered fetal cerebral blood flow

Early decelerations are the fetus's response to fetal head compression. These are considered benign and interventions are not necessary.

In the current practice of childbirth preparation, emphasis is placed on: a. The Dick-Read (natural) childbirth method. b. The Lamaze (psychoprophylactic) method. c. The Bradley (husband-coached) method. d. Encouraging expectant parents to attend childbirth preparation in any or no specific method.

Encouraging expectant parents to attend childbirth preparation in any or no specific method. Encouraging expectant parents to attend class is most important, because preparation increases a woman's confidence and thus her ability to cope with labor and birth. The goal is to encourage new parents to attend any one of the acceptable childbirth education programs. Gaining in popularity are Birthing from Within and Hypnobirthing. The Dick-Read method is historically popular and is still in use. The Lamaze method is less focused on a method approach and more concerned with psychologic preparation for labor. Attendance at any available class should be encouraged, however. Bradley as well as other methods encourage women to choose the techniques that work best for them. Women are helped to develop their own birth philosophy and then choose from a variety of skills to help cope with the labor process.

A woman in active labor receives an opioid agonist analgesic. Which medication relieves severe, persistent, or recurrent pain, creates a sense of well-being, overcomes inhibitory factors, and may even relax the cervix but should be used cautiously in women with cardiac disease? a. Meperidine (Demerol) b. Promethazine (Phenergan) c. Butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) d. Nalbuphine (Nubain)

Meperidine (Demerol) Meperidine is the most commonly used opioid agonist analgesic for women in labor throughout the world. It overcomes inhibitory factors in labor and may even relax the cervix. Because tachycardia is a possible adverse reaction, meperidine is used cautiously in women with cardiac disease. Phenergan is an ataractic (tranquilizer) that may be used to augment the desirable effects of the opioid analgesics but has few of those drugs' undesirable effects. Stadol and Nubain are opioid agonist-antagonist analgesics.

With regard to what might be called the tactile approaches to comfort management, nurses should be aware that: a. Either hot or cold applications may provide relief, but they should never be used together in the same treatment. b. Acupuncture can be performed by a skilled nurse with just a little training. c. Hand and foot massage may be especially relaxing in advanced labor, when a woman's tolerance for touch is limited. d. Therapeutic touch (TT) uses handheld electronic stimulators that produce sympathetic vibrations.

c. Hand and foot massage may be especially relaxing in advanced labor, when a woman's tolerance for touch is limited The woman and her partner should experiment with massage before labor to see what might work best. Heat and cold may be applied in an alternating fashion for greater effect. Unlike acupressure, acupuncture, which involves the insertion of thin needles, should be done only by a certified therapist. Therapeutic touch is a laying-on of hands technique that claims to redirect energy fields in the body.

7. A pregnant woman is at 38 weeks of gestation. She wants to know if any signs indicate "labor is getting closer to starting." The nurse informs the woman that which of the following is a sign that labor may begin soon? a. Weight gain of 1.5 to 2 kg (3 to 4 lb) b. Increase in fundal height c. Urinary retention d. Surge of energy

d. Surge of energy Women speak of having a burst of energy before labor. The woman may lose 0.5 to 1.5 kg, the result of water loss caused by electrolyte shifts, which in turn are caused by changes in the estrogen and progesterone levels. When the fetus descends into the true pelvis (called lightening), the fundal height may decrease. Urinary frequency may return before labor.

After change of shift report, the nurse assumes care of a multiparous client in labor. The woman is complaining of pain that radiates to her abdominal wall, lower back, and buttocks, and down her thighs. Before implementing a plan of care, the nurse should understand that this type of pain is: a. Visceral b. Referred c. Somatic d. Afterpain

Referred As labor progresses the woman often experiences referred pain. It occurs when pain that originates in the uterus radiates to the abdominal wall, the lumbosacral area of the back, the gluteal area, and the thighs. The woman usually has pain only during a contraction and is free from pain between contractions. Visceral pain predominates the first stage of labor. This pain originates from cervical changes, distention of the lower uterine segment, and uterine ischemia. Visceral pain is located over the lower portion of the abdomen. Somatic pain is described as intense, sharp, burning, and well localized. It results from stretching of the perineal tissues and the pelvic floor and occurs during the second stage of labor. Pain experienced during the third stage of labor or afterward during the early postpartum period is uterine. This pain is very similar to that experienced in the first stage of labor.

With regard to spinal and epidural (block) anesthesia, nurses should know that: a. This type of anesthesia is commonly used for cesarean births but is not suitable for vaginal births. b. A high incidence of postbirth headache is seen with spinal blocks. c. Epidural blocks allow the woman to move freely. d. Spinal and epidural blocks are never used together.

A high incidence of postbirth headache is seen with spinal blocks. The headaches may be prevented or mitigated to some degree by a number of methods. An autologous epidural blood patch is the most rapid, reliable, and beneficial relief measure for a spinal headache. Spinal blocks may be used for vaginal births, but the woman must be assisted through labor. Epidural blocks limit the woman's ability to move freely. Combined use of spinal and epidural blocks is becoming increasingly popular.

When using Intermediate auscultation (IA) to assess uterine activity, nurses should be aware that: A. The examiner's hand should be placed over the fundus before, during, and after contractions. B. The frequency and duration of contractions is measured in seconds for consistency. C. Contraction intensity is given a judgment number of 1 to 7 by the nurse and client together. D. The resting tone between contractions is described as either placid or turbulent.

A. The examiner's hand should be placed over the fundus before, during, and after contractions. The assessment is done by palpation; duration, frequency, intensity, and resting tone must be assessed.

Fetal well-being during labor is assessed by: A. The response of the FHR to uterine contractions (UCs) B. Maternal pain control C. Accelerations in the FHR D. An FHR above 110 beats/min

A. The response of the FHR to uterine contractions (UCs) Fetal well-being during labor can be measured by the response of the FHR to UCs. In general, reassuring FHR patterns are characterized by an FHR baseline in the range of 110 to 160 beats/min with no periodic changes and a moderate baseline variability, and accelerations with fetal movement.

COMPLETION 1. Today's pregnant woman has a number of nonpharmacologic measures available to assist with pain relief in labor. One such measure involves the application of heat, cold, or pressure to specific areas of the body and is known as ________________.

ANS: Acupressure The effectiveness of acupressure has been attributed to the gate-control theory of pain and an increase in endorphin levels. Pressure is applied to acupuncture points called tsubos. These points have an increased density of neuroreceptors and increased electrical conductivity. Pressure is initially applied with contractions and then continually as labor progresses.

COMPLETION 1. Which pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth? __________________

ANS: Gynecoid The gynecoid pelvis is the most common; major gynecoid pelvic features are present in 50% of all women. Anthropoid and android features are less common, and platypelloid pelvic features are the least common.

9. The nurse expects which maternal cardiovascular finding during labor? a. Increased cardiac output b. Decreased pulse rate c. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count d. Decreased blood pressure

ANS: A During each contraction, 400 ml of blood is emptied from the uterus into the maternal vascular system. This increases cardiac output by about 10% to 15% in the first stage of labor and by about 30% to 50% in the second stage. The heart rate increases slightly during labor. The WBC count can increase during labor. During the first stage of labor, uterine contractions cause systolic readings to increase by about 10 mm Hg. During the second stage, contractions may cause systolic pressures to increase by 30 mm Hg and diastolic readings to increase by 25 mm Hg

17. Which description of the four stages of labor is correct for both definition and duration? a. First stage: onset of regular uterine contractions to full dilation; less than 1 hour to 20 hours b. Second stage: full effacement to 4 to 5 cm; visible presenting part; 1 to 2 hours c. Third stage: active pushing to birth; 20 minutes (multiparous women), 50 minutes (first-timer) d. Fourth stage: delivery of the placenta to recovery; 30 minutes to 1 hour

ANS: A Full dilation may occur in less than 1 hour, but in first-time pregnancies it can take up to 20 hours. The second stage extends from full dilation to birth and takes an average of 20 to 50 minutes, although 2 hours is still considered normal. The third stage extends from birth to expulsion of the placenta and usually takes a few minutes. The fourth stage begins after expulsion of the placenta and lasts until homeostasis is reestablished (about 2 hours).

13. Which presentation is described accurately in terms of both presenting part and frequency of occurrence? a. Cephalic: occiput; at least 96% b. Breech: sacrum; 10% to 15% c. Shoulder: scapula; 10% to 15% d. Cephalic: cranial; 80% to 85%

ANS: A In cephalic presentations (head first) the presenting part is the occiput; this occurs in 96% of births. In a breech birth the sacrum emerges first; this occurs in about 3% of births. In shoulder presentations the scapula emerges first; this occurs in only 1% of births. In a cephalic presentation the part of the head or cranium that emerges first is the occiput; cephalic presentations occur in 96% of births.

4. What position is least effective when gravity is desired to assist in fetal descent? a. Lithotomy b. Kneeling c. Sitting d. Walking

ANS: A The predominant position in the United States for physician-attended births is the lithotomy position, which requires a woman to be in a reclined position with her legs in stirrups. Gravity has little effect in this position. Kneeling helps align the fetus within the pelvic outlet and allows gravity to assist in fetal descent. Sitting helps align the fetus within the pelvic outlet and allows gravity to assist in fetal descent. Walking helps align the fetus within the pelvic outlet and allows gravity to assist in fetal descent.

3. Nursing care measures are commonly offered to women in labor. Which nursing measure reflects the application of the gate-control theory? a. Massage the woman's back. b. Change the woman's position. c. Give the prescribed medication. d. Encourage the woman to rest between contractions.

ANS: A According to the gate-control theory, pain sensations travel along sensory nerve pathways to the brain, but only a limited number of sensations, or messages, can travel through these nerve pathways at one time. Distraction techniques, such as massage or stroking, music, focal points, and imagery, reduce or completely block the capacity of the nerve pathways to transmit pain. These distractions are thought to work by closing down a hypothetic gate in the spinal cord, thus preventing pain signals from reaching the brain. The perception of pain is thereby diminished. Changing the woman's position, administering pain medication, and resting between contractions do not reduce or block the capacity of the nerve pathways to transmit pain using the gate-control theory.

16. The nurse should be cognizant of which important information regarding nerve block analgesia and anesthesia? a. Most local agents are chemically related to cocaine and end in the suffix -caine. b. Local perineal infiltration anesthesia is effective when epinephrine is added, but it can be injected only once. c. Pudendal nerve block is designed to relieve the pain from uterine contractions. d. Pudendal nerve block, if performed correctly, does not significantly lessen the bearing-down reflex.

ANS: A Common agents include lidocaine and chloroprocaine. Injections can be repeated to prolong the anesthesia. A pudendal nerve block relieves pain in the vagina, vulva, and perineum but not the pain from uterine contractions. A pudendal nerve block lessens or shuts down the bearing-down reflex.

22. A client is experiencing back labor and complains of intense pain in her lower back. Which measure would best support this woman in labor? a. Counterpressure against the sacrum b. Pant-blow (breaths and puffs) breathing techniques c. Effleurage d. Conscious relaxation or guided imagery

ANS: A Counterpressure is steady pressure applied by a support person to the sacral area with the fist or heel of the hand. This technique helps the woman cope with the sensations of internal pressure and pain in the lower back. The pain management techniques of pant-blow, effleurage, and conscious relaxation or guided imagery are usually helpful for contractions per the gate-control theory.

10. The nurse should be cognizant of which physiologic effect of pain? a. Predominant pain of the first stage of labor is visceral pain that is located in the lower portion of the abdomen. b. Referred pain is the extreme discomfort experienced between contractions. c. Somatic pain of the second stage of labor is more generalized and related to fatigue. d. Pain during the third stage is a somewhat milder version of the pain experienced during the second stage.

ANS: A Predominant pain comes from cervical changes, the distention of the lower uterine segment, and uterine ischemia. Referred pain occurs when the pain that originates in the uterus radiates to the abdominal wall, lumbosacral area of the back, iliac crests, and gluteal area. Second-stage labor pain is intense, sharp, burning, and localized. Third-stage labor pain is similar to that of the first stage.

24. Which alterations in the perception of pain by a laboring client should the nurse understand? a. Sensory pain for nulliparous women is often greater than for multiparous women during early labor. b. Affective pain for nulliparous women is usually less than for multiparous women throughout the first stage of labor. c. Women with a history of substance abuse experience more pain during labor. d. Multiparous women have more fatigue from labor and therefore experience more pain.

ANS: A Sensory pain is greater for nulliparous women because their reproductive tract structures are less supple. Affective pain is greater for nulliparous women during the first stage but decreases for both nulliparous and multiparous during the second stage. Women with a history of substance abuse experience the same amount of pain as those without such a history. Nulliparous women have longer labors and therefore experience more fatigue.

4. Breathing patterns during the latent phase of the first stage of labor is? a. Slow-paced breathing b. Deep abdominal breathing c. Modified-paced breathing d. Patterned-paced breathing

ANS: A Slow-paced breathing is approximately one half the woman's normal breathing rate and is used during the early stages of labor when a woman can no longer walk or talk through her contractions. No such pattern called deep abdominal breathing exists in childbirth preparation. Modified-paced breathing is shallow breathing that is twice the woman's normal breathing rate. It is used when labor progresses and the woman can no longer maintain relaxation through paced breathing. Patterned-pace breathing is a fast, 4:1 breathe, breathe, breathe, blow pattern that is used during the transitional phase of labor just before pushing and delivery.

8. To adequately care for a laboring woman, the nurse should know which stage of labor varies the most in length? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth

ANS: A The first stage of labor is considered to last from the onset of regular uterine contractions to full dilation of the cervix. The first stage is much longer than the second and third stages combined. In a first-time pregnancy the first stage of labor can take up to 20 hours. The second stage of labor lasts from the time the cervix is fully dilated to the birth of the fetus. The average length is 20 minutes for a multiparous woman and 50 minutes for a nulliparous woman. The third stage of labor lasts from the birth of the fetus until the placenta is delivered. This stage may be as short as 3 minutes or as long as 1 hour. The fourth stage of labor, recovery, lasts about 2 hours after delivery of the placenta.

19. Conscious relaxation is associated with which method of childbirth preparation? a. Grantly Dick-Read childbirth method b. Lamaze method c. Bradley method d. Psychoprophylactic method

ANS: A With the Grantly Dick-Read method, women are taught to consciously and progressively relax different muscle groups throughout the body until a high degree of skill at relaxation is achieved. The Lamaze method combines controlled muscular relaxation with breathing techniques. The Bradley method advocates natural labor, without any form of anesthesia or analgesia, assisted by a husband-coach and using breathing techniques for labor. The psychoprophylactic method is another name for the Lamaze method.

SATA The nurse understands that approaches to relaxation in labor include a. Aromatherapy b. Massage c. Hypnosis d. Cesarean birth e. Biofeedback

ANS: A, B, C, E Approaches to relaxation can include neuromuscular relaxation, aromatherapy, music, massage, imagery, hypnosis, or touch relaxation. Cesarean birth is a method of delivery, not a method of relaxation.

5. While developing an intrapartum care plan for the client in early labor, which psychosocial factors would the nurse recognize upon the client's pain experience? a. Culture b. Anxiety and fear c. Previous experiences with pain d. Intervention of caregivers e. Support systems

ANS: A, B, C, E Culture: A woman's sociocultural roots influence how she perceives, interprets, and responds to pain during childbirth. Some cultures encourage loud and vigorous expressions of pain, whereas others value self-control. The nurse should avoid praising some behaviors (stoicism) while belittling others (noisy expression). Anxiety and fear: Extreme anxiety and fear magnify the sensitivity to pain and impair a woman's ability to tolerate it. Anxiety and fear increase muscle tension in the pelvic area, which counters the expulsive forces of uterine contractions and pushing efforts. Previous experiences with pain: Fear and withdrawal are a natural response to pain during labor. Learning about these normal sensations ahead of time helps a woman suppress her natural reactions of fear regarding the impending birth. If a woman previously had a long and difficult labor, she is likely to be anxious. She may also have learned ways to cope and may use these skills to adapt to the present labor experience. Support systems: An anxious partner is less able to provide help and support to a woman during labor. A woman's family and friends can be an important source of support if they convey realistic and positive information about labor and delivery. Although the intervention of caregivers may be necessary for the well-being of the woman and her fetus, some interventions add discomfort to the natural pain of labor (i.e., fetal monitor straps, IV lines).

26. Developing a realistic birth plan with the pregnant woman regarding her care is important for the nurse. How would the nurse explain the major advantage of nonpharmacologic pain management? a. Greater and more complete pain relief is possible. b. No side effects or risks to the fetus are involved. c. The woman will remain fully alert at all times. d. Labor will likely be more rapid.

ANS: B Because nonpharmacologic pain management does not include analgesics, adjunct drugs, or anesthesia, it is harmless to the mother and the fetus. However, pain relief is lessened with nonpharmacologic pain management during childbirth. Although the woman's alertness is not altered by medication, the increase in pain may decrease alertness. Pain management may or may not alter the length of labor. At times when pain is decreased, the mother relaxes and labor progresses at a quicker pace.

3. Before the initiation of the epidural, the woman should be informed regarding the disadvantages of an epidural block. Which concerns should the nurse share with this client? a. Ability to move freely is limited. b. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness may occur. c. Gastric emptying is not delayed. d. Higher body temperature may occur. e. Blood loss is not excessive.

ANS: A, B, D The woman's ability to move freely and to maintain control of her labor is limited, related to the use of numerous medical interventions (IV lines and electronic fetal monitoring [EFM]). Significant disadvantages of an epidural block include the occurrence of orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, sedation, and leg weakness. Women who receive an epidural block have a higher body temperature (38° C or higher), especially when labor lasts longer than 12 hours, and may result in an unnecessary neonatal workup for sepsis. An advantage of an epidural block is that blood loss is not excessive. Other advantages include the following: the woman remains alert and able to participate, good relaxation is achieved, airway reflexes remain intact, and only partial motor paralysis develops.

2. Which factors influence cervical dilation? a. Strong uterine contractions b. The force of the presenting fetal part against the cervix c. The size of the female d. The pressure applied by the amniotic sac e. Scarring of the cervix

ANS: A, B, D, E Dilation of the cervix occurs by the drawing upward of the musculofibrous components of the cervix, which is caused by strong uterine contractions. Pressure exerted by the amniotic fluid while the membranes are intact or by the force applied by the presenting part also can promote cervical dilation. Scarring of the cervix as a result of a previous infection or surgery may slow cervical dilation. Pelvic size does not affect cervical dilation.

SATA 1. Signs that precede labor include a. Lightening b. Exhaustion c. Bloody show d. Rupture of membranes e. Decreased fetal movement

ANS: A, C, D Signs that precede labor may include lightening, urinary frequency, backache, weight loss, surge of energy, bloody show, and rupture of membranes. Many women experience a burst of energy before labor. A decrease in fetal movement is an ominous sign that does not always correlate with labor.

4. The class of drugs known as opioid analgesics (butorphanol, nalbuphine) is not suitable for administration to women with known opioid dependence. The antagonistic activity could precipitate withdrawal symptoms (abstinence syndrome) in both mothers and newborns. Which signs would indicate opioid or narcotic withdrawal in the mother? a. Yawning, runny nose b. Increase in appetite c. Chills or hot flashes d. Constipation e. Irritability, restlessness

ANS: A, C, E The woman experiencing maternal opioid withdrawal syndrome will exhibit yawning, runny nose, sneezing, anorexia, chills or hot flashes, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, irritability, restlessness, muscle spasms, weakness, and drowsiness. Assessing both the mother and the newborn and planning the care accordingly are important steps for the nurse to take.

6. The nurse has received a report about a woman in labor. The woman's last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and -2. The nurse's interpretation of this assessment is that: a. The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines b. The cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines c. The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines d. The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines

ANS: B

A nurse should be aware that an effective plan to achieve adequate pain relief without maternal risk is most effective if: a. The mother gives birth without any analgesic or anesthetic b. The mother's priorities and preferences are incorporated into the plan c. The primary health care provider decides the best pain relief for the mother and family d. The nurse informs the family of all alternative methods of pain relief available in the hospital setting

ANS: B Current evidence indicates that a woman's satisfaction with her labor and birth experience is determined by how well her personal expectations of childbirth are met and the quality of support and interaction she receives from her caregivers. The assessment of the woman, her fetus, and her labor is a joint effort of the nurse and the primary health care providers, who consult the woman about their findings and recommendations. The needs of each woman are different, and many factors must be considered before a decision is made whether pharmacologic methods, nonpharmacologic methods, or a combination of the two will be used to manage labor pain. Although the predominant medical approach to labor is that it is painful, and the pain must be removed, an alternative view is that labor is a natural process, and women can experience comfort and transcend the discomfort or pain to reach the joyful outcome of birth. The provider should collaborate with the mother and her support persons as to the ideal plan to achieve adequate pain relief. The most helpful interventions in enhancing comfort are a caring nursing approach and a supportive presence. Discussing options for nonpharmacologic methods of pain relief is also helpful. Ideally this is done prior to the onset of labor.

27. What is the correct terminology for the nerve block that provides anesthesia to the lower vagina and perineum? a. Epidural b. Pudendal c. Local d. Spinal block

ANS: B A pudendal block anesthetizes the lower vagina and perineum to provide anesthesia for an episiotomy and the use of low forceps, if needed. An epidural provides anesthesia for the uterus, perineum, and legs. A local provides anesthesia for the perineum at the site of the episiotomy. A spinal block provides anesthesia for the uterus, perineum, and down the legs.

13. Anxiety is commonly associated with pain during labor. Which statement regarding anxiety is correct? a. Even mild anxiety must be treated. b. Severe anxiety increases tension, increases pain, and then, in turn, increases fear and anxiety, and so on. c. Anxiety may increase the perception of pain, but it does not affect the mechanism of labor. d. Women who have had a painful labor will have learned from the experience and have less anxiety the second time because of increased familiarity. Alternative: With regard to a pregnant woman's anxiety and pain experience, nurses should be aware that:

ANS: B Anxiety and pain reinforce each other in a negative cycle that will slow the progress of labor. Mild anxiety is normal for a woman in labor and likely needs no special treatment other than the standard reassurances. Anxiety increases muscle tension and ultimately can sufficiently build to slow the progress of labor. Unfortunately, an anxious, painful first labor is likely to carry over, through expectations and memories, into an anxious and painful experience in the second pregnancy.

8. What is the role of the nurse as it applies to informed consent? a. Inform the client about the procedure, and ask her to sign the consent form. b. Act as a client advocate, and help clarify the procedure and the options. c. Call the physician to see the client. d. Witness the signing of the consent form.

ANS: B Nurses play a part in the informed consent process by clarifying and describing procedures or by acting as the woman's advocate and asking the primary health care provider for further explanations. The physician is responsible for informing the woman of her options, explaining the procedure, and advising the client about potential risk factors. The physician must be present to explain the procedure to the client. However, the nurse's responsibilities go further than simply asking the physician to see the client. The nurse may witness the signing of the consent form. However, depending on the state's guidelines, the woman's husband or another hospital health care employee may sign as a witness.

18. According to professional standards (the Association of Women's Health, Obstetric and Neonatal Nurses [AWHONN], 2007), which action cannot be performed by the nonanesthetist registered nurse who is caring for a woman with epidural anesthesia? a. Monitoring the status of the woman and fetus b. Initiating epidural anesthesia c. Replacing empty infusion bags with the same medication and concentrate d. Stopping the infusion, and initiating emergency measures

ANS: B Only qualified, licensed anesthesia care providers are permitted to insert a catheter, initiate epidural anesthesia, verify catheter placement, inject medication through the catheter, or alter the medication or medications including type, amount, or rate of infusion. The nonanesthetist nurse is permitted to monitor the status of the woman, the fetus, and the progress of labor. Replacement of the empty infusion bags or syringes with the same medication and concentration is permitted. If the need arises, the nurse may stop the infusion, initiate emergency measures, and remove the catheter if properly educated to do so. Complications can require immediate interventions. Nurses must be prepared to provide safe and effective care during an emergency situation.

6. What should the laboring client who receives an opioid antagonist be told to expect? a. Her pain will decrease. b. Her pain will return. c. She will feel less anxious. d. She will no longer feel the urge to push. Alternative: If an opioid antagonist is administered to a laboring woman, she should be told:

ANS: B Opioid antagonists such as naloxone (Narcan) promptly reverse the CNS-depressant effects of opioids. In addition, the antagonist counters the effect of the stress-induced levels of endorphins. An opioid antagonist is especially valuable if the labor is more rapid than expected and the birth is anticipated when the opioid is at its peak effect. The woman should be told that the pain that was relieved by the opioid analgesic will return with the administration of the opioid antagonist. Her pain level will increase rather than decrease. Opioid antagonists have no effect on anxiety levels. They are primarily administered to reverse the excessive CNS depression in the mother, newborn, or both. An opioid antagonist (e.g., naloxone) has no effect on the mother's urge or ability to push. The practice of giving lower doses of IV opioids has reduced the incidence and severity of opioid-induced CNS depression; therefore, opioid antagonists are used less frequently.

9. A first-time mother is concerned about the type of medications she will receive during labor. The client is in a fair amount of pain and is nauseated. In addition, she appears to be very anxious. The nurse explains that opioid analgesics are often used along with sedatives. How should the nurse phrase the rationale for this medication combination? a. "The two medications, together, reduce complications." b. "Sedatives enhance the effect of the pain medication." c. "The two medications work better together, enabling you to sleep until you have the baby." d. "This is what your physician has ordered for you."

ANS: B Sedatives may be used to reduce the nausea and vomiting that often accompany opioid use. In addition, some ataractic drugs reduce anxiety and apprehension and potentiate the opioid analgesic affects. A potentiator may cause two drugs to work together more effectively, but it does not ensure zero maternal or fetal complications. Sedation may be a related effect of some ataractic drugs; however, sedation is not the goal. Furthermore, a woman is unlikely to be able to sleep through transitional labor and birth. Although the physician may have ordered the medication, "This is what your physician has ordered for you" is not an acceptable comment for the nurse to make.

25. The nurse should be aware of what important information regarding systemic analgesics administered during labor? a. Systemic analgesics cross the maternal blood-brain barrier as easily as they do the fetal blood-brain barrier. b. Effects on the fetus and newborn can include decreased alertness and delayed sucking. c. Intramuscular (IM) administration is preferred over IV administration. d. IV patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) results in increased use of an analgesic.

ANS: B The effects of analgesics depend on the specific drug administered, the dosage, and the timing. Systemic analgesics cross the fetal blood-brain barrier more readily than the maternal blood-brain barrier. IV administration is preferred over IM administration because the drug acts faster and more predictably. PCA results in a decrease in the use of an analgesic.

29. What is the rationale for the use of a blood patch after spinal anesthesia? a. Hypotension b. Headache c. Neonatal respiratory depression d. Loss of movement

ANS: B The subarachnoid block may cause a postspinal headache resulting from the loss of cerebrospinal fluid from the puncture in the dura. When blood is injected into the epidural space in the area of the dural puncture, it forms a seal over the hole to stop the leaking of cerebrospinal fluid. Hypotension is prevented by increasing fluid volume before the procedure. Neonatal respiratory depression is not an expected outcome with spinal anesthesia. Loss of movement is an expected outcome of spinal anesthesia.

20. A woman in labor has just received an epidural block. What is the most important nursing intervention at this time? a. Limit parenteral fluids. b. Monitor the fetus for possible tachycardia. c. Monitor the maternal blood pressure for possible hypotension. d. Monitor the maternal pulse for possible bradycardia.

ANS: C The most important nursing intervention for a woman who has received an epidural block is for the nurse to monitor the maternal blood pressure frequently for signs of hypotension. IV fluids are increased for a woman receiving an epidural to prevent hypotension. The nurse also observes for signs of fetal bradycardia and monitors for signs of maternal tachycardia, secondary to hypotension.

1. Maternal hypotension is a potential side effect of regional anesthesia and analgesia. What nursing interventions could the nurse use to increase the client's blood pressure? a. Place the woman in a supine position. b. Place the woman in a lateral position. c. Increase IV fluids. d. Administer oxygen. e. Perform a vaginal examination.

ANS: B, C, D Nursing interventions for maternal hypotension arising from analgesia or anesthesia include turning the woman to a lateral position, increasing IV fluids, administering oxygen via face mask, elevating the woman's legs, notifying the physician, administering an IV vasopressor, and monitoring the maternal and fetal status at least every 5 minutes until the woman is stable. Placing the client in a supine position causes venous compression, thereby limiting blood flow to and oxygenation of the placenta and fetus. A sterile vaginal examination has no bearing on maternal blood pressure.

Nurses should be aware that all reputable childbirth methods attempt to meet all these goals except: a. Increase the woman's sense of control b. Prepare a support person to help in labor c. Guarantee a pain-free childbirth d. Learn distraction techniques

ANS: C All methods try to increase a woman's sense of control, prepare a support person, and train the woman in physical conditioning, which includes breathing techniques. They cannot, and reputable ones do not, promise a pain-free childbirth. Increasing a woman's sense of control is the goal of all childbirth preparation methods. Preparing a support person to help in labor is a vitally important component of any childbirth education program. The coach may learn how to touch a woman's body to detect tense and contracted muscles. The woman then learns how to relax in response to the gentle stroking by the coach. Distraction techniques are a form of care that are effective to some degree in relieving labor pain and are taught in many childbirth programs. This includes imagery, feedback relaxation, and attention-focusing behaviors.

15. A woman's position is very important in the progress of labor. While discussing optimal positioning, maternity nurses should be able to tell the client that: a. The supine position commonly used in the United States increases blood flow b. The "all fours" position, on her hands and knees, is hard on her back c. Frequent changes in position help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort d. In a sitting or squatting position her abdominal muscles will have to work harder

ANS: C Frequent position changes relieve fatigue, increase comfort, and improve circulation. Blood flow can be compromised in the supine position; any upright position benefits cardiac output. The "all fours" position is used to relieve backache in certain situations. In a sitting or squatting position, the abdominal muscles work in greater harmony with uterine contractions.

When assessing the fetus using Leopold maneuvers, the nurse feels a round, firm, movable fetal part in the fundal portion of the uterus and a long, smooth surface in the mother's right side close to midline. What is the likely position of the fetus? a. ROA b. LSP c. RSA d. LOA

ANS: C The fetus is positioned anteriorly in the right side of the maternal pelvis with the sacrum as the presenting part. RSA is the correct three-letter abbreviation to indicate this fetal position. The first letter indicates the presenting part in either the right or left side of the maternal pelvis. The second letter indicates the anatomic presenting part of the fetus. The third letter stands for the location of the presenting part in relation to the anterior, posterior, or transverse portion of the maternal pelvis. Palpation of a round, firm fetal part in the fundal portion of the uterus would be the fetal head, indicating that the fetus is in a breech position with the sacrum as the presenting part in the maternal pelvis. Palpation of the fetal spine along the mother's right side denotes the location of the presenting part in the mother's pelvis. The ability to palpate the fetal spine indicates that the fetus is anteriorly positioned in the maternal pelvis.

14. Regarding how the fetus moves through the birth canal, nurses should be aware that: a. The fetal attitude describes the angle at which the fetus exits the uterus b. Of the two primary fetal lies, the horizontal lie is that in which the long axis of the fetus is parallel to the long axis of the mother c. The normal attitude of the fetus is called general flexion d. The transverse lie is preferred for vaginal birth

ANS: C The normal attitude of the fetus is general flexion. The fetal attitude is the relation of fetal body parts to each other. The normal attitude is called general flexion. The horizontal lie is perpendicular to the mother; in the longitudinal (or vertical) lie, the long axes of the fetus and the mother are parallel. Vaginal birth cannot occur if the fetus stays in a transverse lie

18. With regard to the turns and other adjustments of the fetus during the birth process, known as the mechanism of labor, nurses should be aware that: a. The seven critical movements must progress in a more or less orderly sequence b. Asynclitism sometimes is achieved by means of the Leopold maneuver c. The effects of the forces determining descent are modified by the shape of the woman's pelvis and the size of the fetal head d. At birth the baby is said to achieve "restitution"; that is, a return to the C-shape of the womb

ANS: C The size of the maternal pelvis and the ability of the fetal head to mold also affect the process. The seven identifiable movements of the mechanism of labor occur in combinations simultaneously, not in precise sequences. Asynclitism is the deflection of the baby's head; the Leopold maneuver is a means of judging descent by palpating the mother's abdomen. Restitution is the rotation of the baby's head after the infant is born.

A woman has requested an epidural for her pain. She is 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The baby is in a vertex position and is engaged. The nurse increases the woman's IV fluid for a preprocedural bolus. Prior to initiation of the epidural the woman should be informed regarding the disadvantages of an epidural block. They include all except: a. Ability to move freely is limited b. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness c. Gastric emptying is not delayed d. Higher rate of fever

ANS: C This is an advantage of an epidural block. Other advantages include the woman remains alert and able to participate, good relaxation is achieved, airway reflexes remain intact, only partial motor paralysis develops and blood loss is not excessive. The woman's ability to move freely and to maintain control of her labor is limited, related to the use of numerous medical interventions (IV and electronic fetal monitoring [EFM]). Significant disadvantages of an epidural block include the occurrence of orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, sedation, and leg weakness. Women who receive an epidural have a higher rate of fever (38° C or greater) especially when labor lasts longer than 12 hours. This may result in an unnecessary neonatal workup for sepsis.

During anesthetic management of the morbidly obese woman in labor, the nurse must remain alert for complications specific to this type of client. Which is not a concern for the L&D nurse? a. Failed epidural placement b. Accidental dural puncture c. Inadequate pain relief d. Difficult intubation

ANS: C Use of regional anesthetic can provide adequate pain management for the obese client during labor and delivery. Problems may be encountered when positioning the woman and identifying correct landmarks to ensure proper insertion of the epidural. Due to the difficulty with epidural placement in the obese client, an accidental dural puncture is more likely to occur. During an emergent delivery, anesthesia providers encounter more complications and difficult intubation in the obese parturient.

17. A woman in labor is breathing into a mouthpiece just before the start of her regular contractions. As she inhales, a valve opens and gas is released. She continues to inhale the gas slowly and deeply until the contraction starts to subside. When the inhalation stops, the valve closes. Which statement regarding this procedure is correct? a. The application of nitrous oxide gas is not often used anymore. b. An inhalation of gas is likely to be used in the second stage of labor, not during the first stage. c. An application of nitrous oxide gas is administered for pain relief. d. The application of gas is a prelude to a cesarean birth.

ANS: C A mixture of nitrous oxide with oxygen in a low concentration can be used in combination with other nonpharmacologic and pharmacologic measures for pain relief. This procedure is still commonly used in Canada and in the United Kingdom. Nitrous oxide inhaled in a low concentration will reduce but not eliminate pain during the first and second stages of labor. Nitrous oxide inhalation is not generally used before a caesarean birth. Nitrous oxide does not appear to depress uterine contractions or cause adverse reactions in the newborn.

14. Which statement is not an expected outcome for the client who attends a reputable childbirth preparation program? a. Childbirth preparation programs increase the woman's sense of control. b. Childbirth preparation programs prepare a support person to help during labor. c. Childbirth preparation programs guarantee a pain-free childbirth. d. Childbirth preparation programs teach distraction techniques.

ANS: C All methods try to increase a woman's sense of control, prepare a support person, and train the woman in physical conditioning, which includes breathing techniques. These programs cannot, and reputable ones do not, promise a pain-free childbirth. Increasing a woman's sense of control is the goal of all childbirth preparation methods. Preparing a support person to help in labor is a vitally important component of any childbirth education program. The coach may learn how to touch a woman's body to detect tense and contracted muscles. The woman then learns how to relax in response to the gentle stroking by the coach. Distraction techniques are a form of care that are effective to some degree in relieving labor pain and are taught in many childbirth programs. These distractions include imagery, feedback relaxation, and attention-focusing behaviors.

5. A laboring woman has received meperidine (Demerol) intravenously (IV), 90 minutes before giving birth. Which medication should be available to reduce the postnatal effects of meperidine on the neonate? a. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) b. Promethazine (Phenergan) c. Naloxone (Narcan) d. Nalbuphine (Nubain)

ANS: C An opioid antagonist can be given to the newborn as one part of the treatment for neonatal narcosis, which is a state of central nervous system (CNS) depression in the newborn produced by an opioid. Opioid antagonists, such as naloxone (Narcan), can promptly reverse the CNS depressant effects, especially respiratory depression. Fentanyl (Sublimaze), promethazine (Phenergan), and nalbuphine (Nubain) do not act as opioid antagonists to reduce the postnatal effects of meperidine on the neonate.

2. When assessing a woman in labor, the nurse is aware that the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another is called fetal: a. Lie b. Presentation c. Attitude d. Position

ANS: C Attitude is the relation of the fetal body parts to each other. Lie is the relation of the long axis (spine) of the fetus to the long axis (spine) of the mother. Presentation refers to the part of the fetus that enters the pelvic inlet first and leads through the birth canal during labor at term. Position is the relation of the presenting part to the four quadrants of the mother's pelvis.

12. Nurses with an understanding of cultural differences regarding likely reactions to pain may be better able to help their clients. Which clients may initially appear very stoic but then become quite vocal as labor progresses until late in labor, when they become more vocal and request pain relief? a. Chinese b. Arab or Middle Eastern c. Hispanic d. African-American

ANS: C Hispanic women may be stoic early in labor but more vocal and ready for medications later. Chinese women may not show reactions to pain. Medical interventions must be offered more than once. Arab or Middle Eastern women may be vocal in response to labor pain from the start; they may prefer pain medications. African-American women may openly express pain; the use of medications for pain is more likely to vary with the individual.

5. The nurse recognizes that a woman is in true labor when she states: a. "I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning." b. "My bag of waters just broke." c. "The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together." d. "My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now."

ANS: C Regular, strong contractions with the presence of cervical change indicate that the woman is experiencing true labor. Loss of the mucous plug (operculum) often occurs during the first stage of labor or before the onset of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. Spontaneous rupture of membranes often occurs during the first stage of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. The presenting part of the fetus typically becomes engaged in the pelvis at the onset of labor, but this is not the indicator of true labor.

10. The factors that affect the process of labor and birth, known commonly as the five Ps, include all except: a. Passenger b. Passageway c. Powers d. Pressure

ANS: D The five Ps are passenger (fetus and placenta), passageway (birth canal), powers (contractions), position of the mother, and psychologic response. Pressure is not one of the five Ps. The passenger (fetus and placenta) is one of the five Ps. The passageway (birth canal) is also one of the five Ps. Powers (contractions) are a necessary component of the five Ps.

23. A woman has requested an epidural for her pain. She is 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The baby is in a vertex position and is engaged. The nurse increases the woman's IV fluid for a preprocedural bolus. The nurse reviews her laboratory values and notes that the woman's hemoglobin is 12 g/dl, hematocrit is 38%, platelets are 67,000, and white blood cells (WBCs) are 12,000/mm3. Which factor would contraindicate an epidural for this woman? a. She is too far dilated. b. She is anemic. c. She has thrombocytopenia. d. She is septic.

ANS: C The platelet count indicates a coagulopathy, specifically, thrombocytopenia (low platelets), which is a contraindication to epidural analgesia and anesthesia. Typically, epidural analgesia and anesthesia are used in the laboring woman when a regular labor pattern has been achieved, as evidenced by progressive cervical change. The laboratory values show that the woman's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are in the normal range and show a slight increase in the WBC count that is not uncommon in laboring women.

16. Certain changes stimulate chemoreceptors in the aorta and carotid bodies to prepare the fetus for initiating respirations immediately after birth. These changes occur naturally during labor and include all except: a. Fetal lung fluid is cleared from the air passages during labor and vaginal birth b. Fetal oxygen pressure decreases (PO2) c. Fetal arterial carbon dioxide increases (PCO2) d. Fetal respiratory movements increase during labor

ANS: D Fetal respiratory movements actually decrease during labor. Fetal lung fluid is cleared from the air passages during labor and vaginal birth. Fetal oxygen pressure decreases (PO2). Fetal arterial carbon dioxide increases (PCO2).

28. The obstetric nurse is preparing the client for an emergency cesarean birth, with no time to administer spinal anesthesia. The nurse is aware of and prepared for the greatest risk of administering general anesthesia to the client. What is this risk? a. Respiratory depression b. Uterine relaxation c. Inadequate muscle relaxation d. Aspiration of stomach contents

ANS: D Aspiration of acidic gastric contents with possible airway obstruction is a potentially fatal complication of general anesthesia. Respirations can be altered during general anesthesia, and the anesthesiologist will take precautions to maintain proper oxygenation. Uterine relaxation can occur with some anesthesia but can be monitored and prevented. Inadequate muscle relaxation can be improved with medication.

2. A woman who is pregnant for the first time is dilated 3 cm and having contractions every 5 minutes. She is groaning and perspiring excessively; she states that she did not attend childbirth classes. What is the optimal intervention for the nurse to provide at this time? a. Notify the woman's health care provider. b. Administer the prescribed narcotic analgesic. c. Assure her that her labor will be over soon. d. Assist her with simple breathing and relaxation instructions.

ANS: D By reducing tension and stress, both focusing and relaxation techniques will allow the woman in labor to rest and conserve energy for the task of giving birth. For those who have had no preparation, instruction in simple breathing and relaxation can be given in early labor and is often successful. The nurse can independently perform many functions in labor and birth, such as teaching and support. Pain medication may be an option for this client. However, the initial response of the nurse should include teaching the client about her options. The length of labor varies among individuals, but the first stage of labor is the longest. At 3 cm of dilation with contractions every 5 minutes, this woman has a significant amount of labor yet to experience.

Chapter 17. Pain Management 1. An 18-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 1, para 0, is admitted to the labor and birth unit with moderate contractions every 5 minutes that last 40 seconds. The client states, "My contractions are so strong, I don't know what to do." Before making a plan of care, what should the nurse's first action be? a. Assess for fetal well-being. b. Encourage the woman to lie on her side. c. Disturb the woman as little as possible. d. Recognize that pain is personalized for each individual.

ANS: D Each woman's pain during childbirth is unique and is influenced by a variety of physiologic, psychosocial, and environmental factors. A critical issue for the nurse is how support can make a difference in the pain of the woman during labor and birth. This scenario includes no information that would indicate fetal distress or a logical reason to be overly concerned about the well-being of the fetus. The left lateral position is used to alleviate fetal distress, not maternal stress. The nurse has an obligation to provide physical, emotional, and psychosocial care and support to the laboring woman. This client clearly needs support.

11. Which statement correctly describes the effects of various pain factors? a. Higher prostaglandin levels arising from dysmenorrhea can blunt the pain of childbirth. b. Upright positions in labor increase the pain factor because they cause greater fatigue. c. Women who move around trying different positions experience more pain. d. Levels of pain-mitigating beta-endorphins are higher during a spontaneous, natural childbirth.

ANS: D Higher endorphin levels help women tolerate pain and reduce anxiety and irritability. Higher prostaglandin levels correspond to more severe labor pains. Upright positions in labor usually result in improved comfort and less pain. Moving freely to find more comfortable positions is important for reducing pain and muscle tension.

Chapter 16. Labor and Birth Processes 1. A new mother asks the nurse when the "soft spot" on her son's head will go away. The nurse's answer is based on the knowledge that the anterior fontanel closes after birth by: a. 2 months b. 8 months c. 12 months d. 18 months

ANS: D The larger of the two fontanels, the anterior fontanel closes by 18 months after birth. The posterior fontanel closes at 6 to 8 weeks. Eight months is much too early for the anterior fontanel to close. It closes by 18 months after birth. Twelve months is too soon. The anterior fontanel closes by 18 months.

21. A woman in the active phase of the first stage of labor is using a shallow pattern of breathing, which is approximately twice the normal adult breathing rate. She starts to complain about feeling lightheaded and dizzy and states that her fingers are tingling. Which intervention should the nurse immediately initiate? a. Contact the woman's physician. b. Tell the woman to slow her pace of her breathing. c. Administer oxygen via a mask or nasal cannula. d. Help her breathe into a paper bag.

ANS: D This woman is experiencing the side effects of hyperventilation, which include the symptoms of lightheadedness, dizziness, tingling of the fingers, or circumoral numbness. Having the woman breathe into a paper bag held tightly around her mouth and nose may eliminate respiratory alkalosis and enable her to rebreathe carbon dioxide and replace the bicarbonate ion.

7. A client is in early labor, and her nurse is discussing the pain relief options she is considering. The client states that she wants an epidural "no matter what!" What is the nurse's best response? a. "I'll make sure you get your epidural." b. "You may only have an epidural if your physician allows it." c. "You may only have an epidural if you are going to deliver vaginally." d. "The type of analgesia or anesthesia used is determined, in part, by the stage of your labor and the method of birth."

ANS: D To avoid suppressing the progress of labor, pharmacologic measures for pain relief are generally not implemented until labor has advanced to the active phase of the first stage and the cervix is dilated approximately 4 to 5 cm. A plan of care is developed for each woman that addresses her particular clinical and nursing problems. The nurse collaborates with the primary health care provider and the laboring woman in selecting features of care relevant to the woman and her family. The decision whether to use an epidural to relieve labor pain is multifactorial. The nurse should not make a blanket statement guaranteeing the client one pharmacologic option over another until a complete history and physical examination has been obtained. A physician's order is required for pharmacologic options for pain management. However, expressing this requirement is not the nurse's best response. An epidural is an effective pharmacologic pain management option for many laboring women. It can also be used for anesthesia control if the woman undergoes an operative delivery.

15. Maternity nurses often have to answer questions about the many, sometimes unusual, ways people have tried to make the birthing experience more comfortable. Which information regarding nonpharmacologic pain relief is accurate? a. Music supplied by the support person has to be discouraged because it could disturb others or upset the hospital routine. b. Women in labor can benefit from sitting in a bathtub, but they must limit immersion to no longer than 15 minutes at a time. c. Effleurage is permissible, but counterpressure is almost always counterproductive. d. Electrodes attached to either side of the spine to provide high-intensity electrical impulses facilitate the release of endorphins.

ANS: D Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) may help and is most useful for lower back pain that occurs during the first stage of labor. Music may be very helpful for reducing tension and certainly can be accommodated by the hospital. Women can stay in a bath as long as they want, although repeated baths with breaks might be more effective than one long bath. Counterpressure can help the woman cope with lower back pain.

TRUE/FALSE 1. Benzodiazepines (Valium, Ativan), when given in conjunction with opioid analgesia, appear to enhance pain relief and reduce nausea and vomiting. Because of the positive effects of this combination, benzodiazepines are frequently used during labor. Is this statement true or false?

ANS: F Because all benzodiazepines cause significant maternal amnesia, their use should be avoided during labor. Another major disadvantage is the subsequent disruption of thermoregulation in the newborn.

TRUE/FALSE 1. The woman in labor should be encouraged to use the Valsalva maneuver (holding one's breath and tightening abdominal muscles) for pushing during the second stage. Is this statement true or false?

ANS: F The woman should actually be discouraged from using the Valsalva maneuver. This activity increases intrathoracic pressure, reduces venous return, and increases venous pressure. During the Valsalva maneuver fetal hypoxia may occur. The process is reversed when the woman takes a breath.

2. Opioids such as hydromorphone, fentanyl, and meperidine can cause excessive central nervous system (CNS) depression in both the mother and newborn. Opioid antagonists such as naloxone (Narcan) can promptly reverse the CNS depressant effects, especially respiratory depression. The RN should use caution in administering naloxone to opioid-dependent women in labor. Is this statement true or false?

ANS: T An opioid antagonist is contraindicated for any opioid-dependent woman because it may precipitate abstinence syndrome (withdrawal symptoms).

During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have: A. Bradycardia B. A normal baseline heart rate C. Tachycardia D. Hypoxia

B. normal baseline heart rate The baseline heart rate is measured over 10 minutes; a normal range is 110 to 160 beats/min.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late FHR decelerations are caused by: A. Altered cerebral blood flow B. Umbilical cord compression C. Uteroplacental insufficiency D. Meconium fluid

C A. Incorrect: Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. B. Incorrect: Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR. C. Correct: Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. D. Incorrect: Meconium-stained fluid may or may not produce changes in the fetal heart rate, depending on the gestational age of the fetus and whether other causative factors associated with fetal distress are present.

According to standard professional thinking, nurses should auscultate the FHR: A. Every 15 minutes in the active phase of the first stage of labor in the absence of risk factors B. Every 20 minutes in the second stage regardless of whether risk factors are present C. Before and after ambulation and rupture of membranes D. More often in a woman's first pregnancy

C. Before and after ambulation and rupture of membranes The FHR should be auscultated before and after administration of medications and induction of anesthesia.

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that increased variability of the fetal heart rate might be caused by: A. Narcotics B. Barbiturates C. Methamphetamines D. Tranquilizers

C. Methamphetamines Narcotics, barbiturates, and tranquilizers might be causes of decreased variability; methamphetamines might cause increased variability.

Fetal bradycardia is most common during: A. Intraamniotic infection B. Fetal anemia C. Prolonged umbilical cord compression D. Tocolytic treatment using ritodrine

C. Prolonged umbilical cord compression Fetal bradycardia can be considered a later sign of fetal hypoxia and is known to occur before fetal death. Bradycardia can result from placental transfer of drugs, prolonged compression of the umbilical cord, maternal hypothermia, and maternal hypotension. Hypoxia: deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues.

What is an advantage of external electronic fetal monitoring? A. The ultrasound transducer can accurately measure short-term variability and beat-to-beat changes in the FHR. B. The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency, regularity, intensity, and approximate duration of UCs. C. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring UA (Uterine Activity) during the first stage of labor. D. Once correctly applied by the nurse, the transducer need not be repositioned even when the woman changes positions.

C. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring UA during the first stage of labor. This is especially true when the membranes are intact.

When assessing the relative advantages and disadvantages of internal and external electronic fetal monitoring, nurses should be aware that both: A. Can be used when membranes are intact B. Measure the frequency, duration, and intensity of UCs C. May need to rely on the woman to indicate when UA is occurring D. Can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods

D. Can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods External monitoring can be used in both periods; internal monitoring can be used only in the intrapartum period.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor whose labor is being induced, the nurse notes that the FHR begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends. The nurse should: A. Change the woman's position B. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion C. Insert an internal monitor D. Document the finding in the client's record

D. Document the finding in the client's record. The FHR indicates early decelerations, which are not an ominous sign and do not require any intervention. The nurse should simply document these findings.

The most common cause of decreased variability in the FHR that lasts 30 minutes or less is: A. Altered cerebral blood flow B. Fetal hypoxemia C. Umbilical cord compression D. Fetal sleep cycles

D. Fetal sleep cycles A temporary decrease in variability can occur when the fetus is in a sleep state. These sleep states do not usually last longer than 30 minutes.

As a perinatal nurse, you realize that an FHR that is tachycardic, bradycardic, has late decelerations, or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Cord compression C. Maternal drug use D. Hypoxemia

D. Hypoxemia Nonreassuring heart rate patterns are associated with fetal hypoxemia.