0. SY0-601

B. Gait D. Facial

QUESTION 1 An organization is developing an authentication service for use at the entry and exit ports of country borders. The service will use data feeds obtained from passport systems, passenger manifests, and high-definition video feeds from CCTV systems that are located at the ports. The service will incorporate machine-learning techniques to eliminate biometric enrollment processes while still allowing authorities to identify passengers with increasing accuracy over time. The more frequently passengers travel, the more accurately the service will identify them. Which of the following biometrics will MOST likely be used, without the need for enrollment? (Choose two.) A. Voice B. Gait C Vein D. Facial E. Retina F. Fingerprint

C. Containerization Explanation: Containerization is defined as a form of operating system virtualization, through which applications are run in isolated user spaces called containers, all using the same shared operating system (OS).

QUESTION 10 A root cause analysis reveals that a web application outage was caused by one of the company's developers uploading a newer version of the third-party libraries that were shared among several applications. Which of the following implementations would be BEST to prevent the issue from reoccurring? A. CASB B. SWG C. Containerization D. Automated failover

C. Faraday cage

QUESTION 100 Which of the following should a technician use to protect a cellular phone that is needed for an investigation, to ensure the data will not be removed remotely? A. Air gap B. Secure cabinet C. Faraday cage D. Safe

A. Nmap Explanation: Nmap, or Network Mapper, is a network scanning and security auditing tool that is commonly used to discover and map network resources, such as servers and devices, and to identify the services running on those resources. It can be used to scan a single host or a range of hosts to determine which ports are open and which services are running on those ports. This information can be used to identify services that may be unnecessary or potentially insecure, and to take appropriate action to mitigate any security risks. In this case, the administrator can use Nmap to scan the server and confirm whether there are any unnecessary services running on it.

QUESTION 11 A security administrator suspects there may be unnecessary services running on a server. Which of the following tools will the administrator MOST likely use to confirm the suspicions? A. Nmap B. Wireshark C. Autopsy D. DNSEnum

A. dd

QUESTION 49 A security administrator suspects an employee has been emailing proprietary information to a competitor. Company policy requires the administrator to capture an exact copy of the employee's hard disk. Which of the following should the administrator use? A. dd B. chmod C. dnsenum D. logger

D. Blocking removable-media devices and write capabilities using a host-based security tool

QUESTION 12 A company has drafted an insider-threat policy that prohibits the use of external storage devices. Which of the following would BEST protect the company from data exfiltration via removable media? A. Monitoring large data transfer transactions in the firewall logs B. Developing mandatory training to educate employees about the removable media policy C. Implementing a group policy to block user access to system files D. Blocking removable-media devices and write capabilities using a host-based security tool

A. Obfuscation

QUESTION 13 In which of the following common use cases would steganography be employed? A. Obfuscation B. Integrity C. Non-repudiation D. Blockchain

C. Encrypted credentials in transit

QUESTION 14 To secure an application after a large data breach, an e-commerce site will be resetting all users' credentials. Which of the following will BEST ensure the site's users are not compromised after the reset? A. A password reuse policy B. Account lockout after three failed attempts C. Encrypted credentials in transit D. A geofencing policy based on login history

A. Transference

QUESTION 15 In which of the following risk management strategies would cybersecurity insurance be used? A. Transference B. Avoidance C. Acceptance D. Mitigation

D. Data exfiltration over a mobile hotspot

QUESTION 16 An organization has implemented a policy requiring the use of conductive metal lockboxes for personal electronic devices outside of a secure research lab. Which of the following did the organization determine to be the GREATEST risk to intellectual property when creating this policy? A. The theft of portable electronic devices B. Geotagging in the metadata of images C. Bluesnarfing of mobile devices D. Data exfiltration over a mobile hotspot

C. Threat hunting

QUESTION 17 A security analyst is using a recently released security advisory to review historical logs, looking for the specific activity that was outlined in the advisory. Which of the following is the analyst doing? A. A packet capture B. A user behavior analysis C. Threat hunting D. Credentialed vulnerability scanning

D. Perfect forward secrecy

QUESTION 18 Which of the following would MOST likely support the integrity of a voting machine? A. Asymmetric encryption B. Blockchain C. Transport Layer Security D. Perfect forward secrecy

B. GDPR

QUESTION 19 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) needs to create a policy set that meets international standards for data privacy and sharing. Which of the following should the CISO read and understand before writing the policies? A. PCI DSS B. GDPR C. NIST D. ISO 31000

A. MSSP Explanation: The company doesn't have IT Staff. So if they want security, they need a MSSP (Managed Security Service Provider). Managed Security Services Provider (MSSP) - a means of fully outsourcing responsibility for information assurance to a third party. This type of solution is expensive but can be a good fit for an SME that has experienced rapid growth and has no in-house security capability. Of course, this type of outsourcing places a huge amount of trust in the MSSP. Maintaining effective oversight of the MSSP requires a good degree of internal security awareness and expertise. There could also be significant challenges in industries exposed to high degrees of regulation in terms of information processing. A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) would improve your security, but it's more oriented to the automation of an existing Incident Response plan. If you're thinking of implement a SOAR you're to likely already have a SOC (Security Operations Center), which it is, in a way, IT Staff.

QUESTION 2 A small company that does not have security staff wants to improve its security posture. Which of the following would BEST assist the company? A. MSSP B. SOAR C. IaaS D. PaaS

B. Shadow IT Explanation: Shadow IT is the use of information technology systems, devices, software, applications, and services without explicit IT department approval.

QUESTION 20 The IT department at a university is concerned about professors placing servers on the university network in an attempt to bypass security controls. Which of the following BEST represents this type of threat? A. A script kiddie B. Shadow IT C. Hacktivism D. White-hat

B. anonymize any PII that is observed within the IoC data.

QUESTION 21 A commercial cyber-threat intelligence organization observes IoCs across a variety of unrelated customers. Prior to releasing specific threat intelligence to other paid subscribers, the organization is MOST likely obligated by contracts to: A. perform attribution to specific APTs and nation-state actors. B. anonymize any PII that is observed within the IoC data. C. add metadata to track the utilization of threat intelligence reports. D. assist companies with impact assessments based on the observed data.

A. A RAT was installed and is transferring additional exploit tools. Explanation: RATs are typically downloaded together with a seemingly legitimate program, like a game, or are sent to the target as an email attachment. Once the attacker compromises the host's system, they can use it to distribute RATs to additional vulnerable computers, establishing a botnet.

QUESTION 22 While checking logs, a security engineer notices a number of end users suddenly downloading files with the .tar.gz extension. Closer examination of the files reveals they are PE32 files. The end users state they did not initiate any of the downloads. Further investigation reveals the end users all clicked on an external email containing an infected MHT file with an href link a week prior. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring? A. A RAT was installed and is transferring additional exploit tools. B. The workstations are beaconing to a command-and-control server. C. A logic bomb was executed and is responsible for the data transfers. D. A fireless virus is spreading in the local network environment.

C. Disaster recovery

QUESTION 23 An organization is developing a plan in the event of a complete loss of critical systems and data. Which of the following plans is the organization MOST likely developing? A. Incident response B. Communications C. Disaster recovery D. Data retention

C. Enforce application whitelisting.

QUESTION 5 A RAT that was used to compromise an organization's banking credentials was found on a user's computer. The RAT evaded antivirus detection. It was installed by a user who has local administrator rights to the system as part of a remote management tool set. Which of the following recommendations would BEST prevent this from reoccurring? A. Create a new acceptable use policy. B. Segment the network into trusted and untrusted zones. C. Enforce application whitelisting. D. Implement DLP at the network boundary.

C. To identify the risk, the risk owner, and the risk measures Explanation: The Risk Register displays a list of all risks recorded and displays various risk details, including the residual risk level, risk source, risk owner, risk stage, and the treatment status of the risk. The question ask for purpose. So C is the purpose, while A is only part of the risk register work.

QUESTION 24 Which of the following is the purpose of a risk register? A. To define the level or risk using probability and likelihood B. To register the risk with the required regulatory agencies C. To identify the risk, the risk owner, and the risk measures D. To formally log the type of risk mitigation strategy the organization is using

A. DoS D. Race condition

QUESTION 25 A university with remote campuses, which all use different service providers, loses Internet connectivity across all locations. After a few minutes, Internet and VoIP services are restored, only to go offline again at random intervals, typically within four minutes of services being restored. Outages continue throughout the day, impacting all inbound and outbound connections and services. Services that are limited to the local LAN or WiFi network are not impacted, but all WAN and VoIP services are affected. Later that day, the edge-router manufacturer releases a CVE outlining the ability of an attacker to exploit the SIP protocol handling on devices, leading to resource exhaustion and system reloads. Which of the following BEST describe this type of attack? (Choose two.) A. DoS B. SSL stripping C. Memory leak D. Race condition E. Shimming F. Refactoring

A. PCI DSS Explanation: Additionally, many organizations should abide by certain standards. For example, organizations handling credit card information need to comply with the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS). PCI DSS includes six control objectives and 12 specific requirements that help prevent fraud.

QUESTION 26 A company recently set up an e-commerce portal to sell its product online. The company wants to start accepting credit cards for payment, which requires compliance with a security standard. Which of the following standards must the company comply with before accepting credit cards on its e-commerce platform? A. PCI DSS B. ISO 22301 C. ISO 27001 D. NIST CSF

B. Zero-day

QUESTION 27 Which of the following BEST describes a security exploit for which a vendor patch is not readily available? A. Integer overflow B. Zero-day C. End of life D. Race condition

B. Whaling

QUESTION 28 The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of an insurance company received an email from Ann, the company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO), requesting a transfer of $10,000 to an account. The email states Ann is on vacation and has lost her purse, containing cash and credit cards. Which of the following social- engineering techniques is the attacker using? A. Phishing B. Whaling C. Typo squatting D. Pharming

B. Fingerprints

QUESTION 29 An organization wants to implement a third factor to an existing multifactor authentication. The organization already uses a smart card and password. Which of the following would meet the organization's needs for a third factor? A. Date of birth B. Fingerprints C. PIN D. TPM

B. Domain hijacking

QUESTION 3 An organization's help desk is flooded with phone calls from users stating they can no longer access certain websites. The help desk escalates the issue to the security team, as these websites were accessible the previous day. The security analysts run the following command: ipconfig /flushdns, but the issue persists. Finally, an analyst changes the DNS server for an impacted machine, and the issue goes away. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred on the original DNS server? A. DNS cache poisoning B. Domain hijacking C. Distributed denial-of-service D. DNS tunneling

C. Chain of custody

QUESTION 30 An employee has been charged with fraud and is suspected of using corporate assets. As authorities collect evidence, and to preserve the admissibility of the evidence, which of the following forensic techniques should be used? A. Order of volatility B. Data recovery C. Chain of custody D. Non-repudiation

B. Wildcard

QUESTION 31 A company wants to deploy PKI on its Internet-facing website. The applications that are currently deployed are: - www.company.com (main website) - contactus.company.com (for locating a nearby location) - quotes.company.com (for requesting a price quote) The company wants to purchase one SSL certificate that will work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store.company.com. Which of the following certificate types would BEST meet the requirements? A. SAN B. Wildcard C. Extended validation D. Self-signed

B. Implement managed FDE.

QUESTION 32 A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned about the amount of PII that is stored locally on each salesperson's laptop. The sales department has a higher-than-average rate of lost equipment. Which of the following recommendations would BEST address the CSO's concern? A. Deploy an MDM solution. B. Implement managed FDE. C. Replace all hard drives with SEDs. D. Install DLP agents on each laptop.

B. Evil twin

QUESTION 33 A user contacts the help desk to report the following: - Two days ago, a pop-up browser window prompted the user for a name and password after connecting to the corporate wireless SSID. This had never happened before, but the user entered the information as requested. - The user was able to access the Internet but had trouble accessing the department share until the next day. - The user is now getting notifications from the bank about unauthorized transactions. Which of the following attack vectors was MOST likely used in this scenario? A. Rogue access point B. Evil twin C. DNS poisoning D. ARP poisoning

A. The DNS logs Explanation: Why is DNS Monitoring Important? An effective system of DNS monitoring is critical to the reliability of your website, as well as the security and trust of your users. Because the DNS is a popular target for hackers, it's important to keep a close eye for any malicious attacks on your domains and services.

QUESTION 34 A host was infected with malware. During the incident response, Joe, a user, reported that he did not receive any emails with links, but he had been browsing the Internet all day. Which of the following would MOST likely show where the malware originated? A. The DNS logs B. The web server logs C. The SIP traffic logs D. The SNMP logs

A. SSAE SOC 2 Explanation: Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements. This AICPA-developed auditing report assesses how well organizations handle data security, system privacy, data confidentiality and data processing processes.

QUESTION 50 Which of the following is MOST likely to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors? A. SSAE SOC 2 B. PCI DSS C. GDPR D. ISO 31000

A. Configure the perimeter firewall to deny inbound external connections to SMB ports.

QUESTION 35 A recently discovered zero-day exploit utilizes an unknown vulnerability in the SMB network protocol to rapidly infect computers. Once infected, computers are encrypted and held for ransom. Which of the following would BEST prevent this attack from reoccurring? A. Configure the perimeter firewall to deny inbound external connections to SMB ports. B. Ensure endpoint detection and response systems are alerting on suspicious SMB connections. C. Deny unauthenticated users access to shared network folders. D. Verify computers are set to install monthly operating system, updates automatically.

C. Phishing Explanation: "The email includes a link that requests a name, mobile phone number, address, and date of birth" its way to vague for it to be spear phishing. If it was a spear phishing, then the attacker should already know his name and Joe just need to fill out mobile phone number, address, and date of birth.

QUESTION 36 Joe, an employee, receives an email stating he won the lottery. The email includes a link that requests a name, mobile phone number, address, and date of birth be provided to confirm Joe's identity before sending him the prize. Which of the following BEST describes this type of email? A. Spear phishing B. Whaling C. Phishing D. Vishing

A. Shadow IT

QUESTION 37 Which of the following refers to applications and systems that are used within an organization without consent or approval? A. Shadow IT B. OSINT C. Dark web D. Insider threats

A. An air gap

QUESTION 38 A manufacturer creates designs for very high security products that are required to be protected and controlled by the government regulations. These designs are not accessible by corporate networks or the Internet. Which of the following is the BEST solution to protect these designs? A. An air gap B. A Faraday cage C. A shielded cable D. A demilitarized zone

D. Mandatory

QUESTION 39 A company processes highly sensitive data and senior management wants to protect the sensitive data by utilizing classification labels. Which of the following access control schemes would be BEST for the company to implement? A. Discretionary B. Rule-based C. Role-based D. Mandatory

C. Conducting a tabletop exercise

QUESTION 4 A cybersecurity manager has scheduled biannual meetings with the IT team and department leaders to discuss how they would respond to hypothetical cyberattacks. During these meetings, the manager presents a scenario and injects additional information throughout the session to replicate what might occur in a dynamic cybersecurity event involving the company, its facilities, its data, and its staff. Which of the following describes what the manager is doing? A. Developing an incident response plan B. Building a disaster recovery plan C. Conducting a tabletop exercise D. Running a simulation exercise

C. Separation of duties

QUESTION 40 Which of the following policies would help an organization identify and mitigate potential single points of failure in the company's IT/security operations? A. Least privilege B. Awareness training C. Separation of duties D. Mandatory vacation

A. Footprinting

QUESTION 41 Which of the following would be the BEST method for creating a detailed diagram of wireless access points and hotspots? A. Footprinting B. White-box testing C. A drone/UAV D. Pivoting

1. ssh-keygen -t rsa (creating the key-pair) 2. ssh-copy-id -i /.ssh/id_rsa.pub user@server (copy the public-key to user@server) 3. ssh -i ~/.ssh/id_rsa user@server (login to remote host with private-key)

QUESTION 43 A security engineer is setting up passwordless authentication for the first time. INSTRUCTIONS Use the minimum set of commands to set this up and verify that it works. Commands cannot be reused.

Botnet - Enable DDoS protection RAT - Implemented a host-based IPS Worm - Change the Default application password Keylogger - Implement 2FA using push notification Backdoor - Conduct a code review

QUESTION 44 Hotspot Question Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation. INSTRUCTIONS Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.

D. Weak encryption F. Server-side request forgery

QUESTION 45 Which of the following will MOST likely adversely impact the operations of unpatched traditional programmable-logic controllers, running a back-end LAMP server and OT systems with human- management interfaces that are accessible over the Internet via a web interface? (Choose two.) A. Cross-site scripting B. Data exfiltration C. Poor system logging D. Weak encryption E. SQL injection F. Server-side request forgery

A. Containerization Explanation: You cannot run a Full Disk Encryption on a Staff's Device. Rather you place the official application in a container.

QUESTION 46 A company recently transitioned to a strictly BYOD culture due to the cost of replacing lost or damaged corporate-owned mobile devices. Which of the following technologies would be BEST to balance the BYOD culture while also protecting the company's data? A. Containerization B. Geofencing C. Full-disk encryption D. Remote wipe

D. Implement application whitelisting and centralized event-log management, and perform regular testing and validation of full backups.

QUESTION 47 A Chief Security Office's (CSO's) key priorities are to improve preparation, response, and recovery practices to minimize system downtime and enhance organizational resilience to ransomware attacks. Which of the following would BEST meet the CSO's objectives? A. Use email-filtering software and centralized account management, patch high-risk systems, and restrict administration privileges on fileshares. B. Purchase cyber insurance from a reputable provider to reduce expenses during an incident. C. Invest in end-user awareness training to change the long-term culture and behavior of staff and executives, reducing the organization's susceptibility to phishing attacks. D. Implement application whitelisting and centralized event-log management, and perform regular testing and validation of full backups.

A. Perform a site survey C. Create a heat map

QUESTION 48 A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless computers in a warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and computers are all on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the following should the engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose two.) A. Perform a site survey B. Deploy an FTK Imager C. Create a heat map D. Scan for rogue access points E. Upgrade the security protocols F. Install a captive portal

C. Exact mail exchanger records in the DNS

QUESTION 51 Phishing and spear-phishing attacks have been occurring more frequently against a company's staff. Which of the following would MOST likely help mitigate this issue? A. DNSSEC and DMARC B. DNS query logging C. Exact mail exchanger records in the DNS D. The addition of DNS conditional forwarders

E. Value and volatility of data F. Right-to-audit clauses

QUESTION 52 On which of the following is the live acquisition of data for forensic analysis MOST dependent? (Choose two.) A. Data accessibility B. Legal hold C. Cryptographic or hash algorithm D. Data retention legislation E. Value and volatility of data F. Right-to-audit clauses

B. Containment

QUESTION 53 Which of the following incident response steps involves actions to protect critical systems while maintaining business operations? A. Investigation B. Containment C. Recovery D. Lessons learned

B. The scan enumerated software versions of installed programs

QUESTION 54 A security auditor is reviewing vulnerability scan data provided by an internal security team. Which of the following BEST indicates that valid credentials were used? A. The scan results show open ports, protocols, and services exposed on the target host B. The scan enumerated software versions of installed programs C. The scan produced a list of vulnerabilities on the target host D. The scan identified expired SSL certificates

B. The data owner is responsible for determining how the data may be used, while the data custodian is responsible for implementing the protection to the data

QUESTION 55 Which of the following BEST explains the difference between a data owner and a data custodian? A. The data owner is responsible for adhering to the rules for using the data, while the data custodian is responsible for determining the corporate governance regarding the data B. The data owner is responsible for determining how the data may be used, while the data custodian is responsible for implementing the protection to the data C. The data owner is responsible for controlling the data, while the data custodian is responsible for maintaining the chain of custody when handling the data D. The data owner grants the technical permissions for data access, while the data custodian maintains the database access controls to the data

D. Install a captive portal

QUESTION 56 A network engineer needs to build a solution that will allow guests at the company's headquarters to access the Internet via WiFi. This solution should not allow access to the internal corporate network, but it should require guests to sign off on the acceptable use policy before accessing the Internet. Which of the following should the engineer employ to meet these requirements? A. Implement open PSK on the APs B. Deploy a WAF C. Configure WIPS on the APs D. Install a captive portal

A. SED Explanation: SED (self-encrypting drive) would be the most acceptable option for an organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience that wants to protect laptop hard drives against loss or data theft. SEDs are hardware-based encryption devices that automatically encrypt data on a hard drive without requiring any additional input or configuration from the user. This means that the user does not have to perform any additional steps to encrypt their data, which can help to prevent data loss or theft. By contrast, other options like HSM (hardware security module), DLP (data loss prevention), and TPM (trusted platform module) may require more user involvement and may not be as convenient for users.

QUESTION 57 An organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience wants to protect laptop hard drives against loss or data theft. Which of the following would be the MOST acceptable? A. SED B. HSM C. DLP D. TPM

D. A company purchased an IPS system, but after reviewing the requirements, the appliance was supposed to monitor, not block, any traffic.

QUESTION 59 In which of the following situations would it be BEST to use a detective control type for mitigation? A. A company implemented a network load balancer to ensure 99.999% availability of its web application. B. A company designed a backup solution to increase the chances of restoring services in case of a natural disaster. C. A company purchased an application-level firewall to isolate traffic between the accounting department and the information technology department. D. A company purchased an IPS system, but after reviewing the requirements, the appliance was supposed to monitor, not block, any traffic. E. A company purchased liability insurance for flood protection on all capital assets.

D. Cross-site request forgery

QUESTION 6 A security analyst is reviewing a new website that will soon be made publicly available. The analyst sees the following in the URL: http://dev-site.comptia.org/home/show.php?sessionID=77276554&loc=us The analyst then sends an internal user a link to the new website for testing purposes, and when the user clicks the link, the analyst is able to browse the website with the following URL: http://dev-site.comptia.org/home/show.php?sessionID=98988475&loc=us Which of the following application attacks is being tested? A. Pass-the-hash B. Session replay C. Object deference D. Cross-site request forgery

D. Submit the application to QA before releasing it.

QUESTION 60 The IT department's on-site developer has been with the team for many years. Each time an application is released, the security team is able to identify multiple vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST help the team ensure the application is ready to be released to production? A. Limit the use of third-party libraries. B. Prevent data exposure queries. C. Obfuscate the source code. D. Submit the application to QA before releasing it.

C. SAML

QUESTION 61 A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users' passwords. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective? A. OAuth B. SSO C. SAML D. PAP

B. Pagefile Explanation: In Digital Forensics, sometimes an investigator will literally pull the plug out of the wall to cause a hard shutdown and then access the drive for the pagefile because if you shut the PC down normally, the pagefile is cleared. https://www.iosrjournals.org/iosr-jce/papers/Vol16-issue2/Version-5/C016251116.pdf

QUESTION 62 An analyst needs to identify the applications a user was running and the files that were open before the user's computer was shut off by holding down the power button. Which of the following would MOST likely contain that information? A. NGFW B. Pagefile C. NetFlow D. RAM

A. Due to foreign travel, the user's laptop was isolated from the network.

QUESTION 63 A remote user recently took a two-week vacation abroad and brought along a corporate-owned laptop. Upon returning to work, the user has been unable to connect the laptop to the VPN. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the user's inability to connect the laptop to the VPN? A. Due to foreign travel, the user's laptop was isolated from the network. B. The user's laptop was quarantined because it missed the latest path update. C. The VPN client was blacklisted. D. The user's account was put on a legal hold.

C. A privileged access management system

QUESTION 64 An organization needs to implement more stringent controls over administrator/root credentials and service accounts. Requirements for the project include: - Check-in/checkout of credentials - The ability to use but not know the password - Automated password changes - Logging of access to credentials Which of the following solutions would meet the requirements? A. OAuth 2.0 B. Secure Enclave C. A privileged access management system D. An OpenID Connect authentication system

A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media

QUESTION 65 Several employees return to work the day after attending an industry trade show. That same day, the security manager notices several malware alerts coming from each of the employee's workstations. The security manager investigates but finds no signs of an attack on the perimeter firewall or the NIDS. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the malware alerts? A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media B. A fileless virus that is contained on a vCard that is attempting to execute an attack C. A Trojan that has passed through and executed malicious code on the hosts D. A USB flash drive that is trying to run malicious code but is being blocked by the host firewall

A. The vulnerability scan output

QUESTION 66 After reading a security bulletin, a network security manager is concerned that a malicious actor may have breached the network using the same software flaw. The exploit code is publicly available and has been reported as being used against other industries in the same vertical. Which of the following should the network security manager consult FIRST to determine a priority list for forensic review? A. The vulnerability scan output B. The IDS logs C. The full packet capture data D. The SIEM alerts

D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII

QUESTION 67 A financial organization has adopted a new secure, encrypted document-sharing application to help with its customer loan process. Some important PII needs to be shared across this new platform, but it is getting blocked by the DLP systems. Which of the following actions will BEST allow the PII to be shared with the secure application without compromising the organization's security posture? A. Configure the DLP policies to allow all PII B. Configure the firewall to allow all ports that are used by this application C. Configure the antivirus software to allow the application D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII E. Configure the application to encrypt the PII

C. The vendor has not supplied a patch for the appliance.

QUESTION 68 An auditor is performing an assessment of a security appliance with an embedded OS that was vulnerable during the last two assessments. Which of the following BEST explains the appliance's vulnerable state? A. The system was configured with weak default security settings. B. The device uses weak encryption ciphers. C. The vendor has not supplied a patch for the appliance. D. The appliance requires administrative credentials for the assessment.

B. The SSL inspection proxy is feeding events to a compromised SIEM

QUESTION 69 A company's bank has reported that multiple corporate credit cards have been stolen over the past several weeks. The bank has provided the names of the affected cardholders to the company's forensics team to assist in the cyber-incident investigation. An incident responder learns the following information: - The timeline of stolen card numbers corresponds closely with affected users making Internet-based purchases from diverse websites via enterprise desktop PCs. - All purchase connections were encrypted, and the company uses an SSL inspection proxy for the inspection of encrypted traffic of the hardwired network. - Purchases made with corporate cards over the corporate guest WiFi network, where no SSL inspection occurs, were unaffected. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause? A. HTTPS sessions are being downgraded to insecure cipher suites B. The SSL inspection proxy is feeding events to a compromised SIEM C. The payment providers are insecurely processing credit card charges D. The adversary has not yet established a presence on the guest WiFi network

C. Detective

QUESTION 7 A network administrator has been asked to install an IDS to improve the security posture of an organization. Which of the following control types is an IDS? A. Corrective B. Physical C. Detective D. Administrative

C. IaaS

QUESTION 71 Which of the following cloud models provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else? A. SaaS B. PaaS C. IaaS D. DaaS

A. Dual power supply B. Off-site backups

QUESTION 72 A network administrator needs to build out a new datacenter, with a focus on resiliency and uptime. Which of the following would BEST meet this objective? (Choose two.) A. Dual power supply B. Off-site backups C. Automatic OS upgrades D. NIC teaming E. Scheduled penetration testing F. Network-attached storage

C. Certain devices are inherently less secure than others, so compensatory controls will be needed to address the delta between device vendors.

QUESTION 75 A company provides mobile devices to its users to permit access to email and enterprise applications. The company recently started allowing users to select from several different vendors and device models. When configuring the MDM, which of the following is a key security implication of this heterogeneous device approach? A. The most common set of MDM configurations will become the effective set of enterprise mobile security controls. B. All devices will need to support SCEP-based enrollment; therefore, the heterogeneity of the chosen architecture may unnecessarily expose private keys to adversaries. C. Certain devices are inherently less secure than others, so compensatory controls will be needed to address the delta between device vendors. D. MDMs typically will not support heterogeneous deployment environments, so multiple MDMs will need to be installed and configured.

B. A host-based firewall E. A VPN

QUESTION 76 A pharmaceutical sales representative logs on to a laptop and connects to the public WiFi to check emails and update reports. Which of the following would be BEST to prevent other devices on the network from directly accessing the laptop? (Choose two.) A. Trusted Platform Module B. A host-based firewall C. A DLP solution D. Full disk encryption E. A VPN F. Antivirus software

C. Push notifications

QUESTION 77 A company is implementing MFA for all applications that store sensitive data. The IT manager wants MFA to be non-disruptive and user friendly. Which of the following technologies should the IT manager use when implementing MFA? A. One-time passwords B. Email tokens C. Push notifications D. Hardware authentication

B. Segment the network with firewalls.

QUESTION 78 The CSIRT is reviewing the lessons learned from a recent incident. A worm was able to spread unhindered throughout the network and infect a large number of computers and servers. Which of the following recommendations would be BEST to mitigate the impacts of a similar incident in the future? A. Install a NIDS device at the boundary. B. Segment the network with firewalls. C. Update all antivirus signatures daily. D. Implement application blacklisting.

A. Mobile device management

QUESTION 79 A company is adopting a BYOD policy and is looking for a comprehensive solution to protect company information on user devices. Which of the following solutions would BEST support the policy? A. Mobile device management B. Full-device encryption C. Remote wipe D. Biometrics

C. SLA

QUESTION 8 Which of the following should be put in place when negotiating with a new vendor about the timeliness of the response to a significant outage or incident? A. MOU B. MTTR C. SLA D. NDA

B. Continuous integration

QUESTION 80 A development team employs a practice of bringing all the code changes from multiple team members into the same development project through automation. A tool is utilized to validate the code and track source code through version control. Which of the following BEST describes this process? A. Continuous delivery B. Continuous integration C. Continuous validation D. Continuous monitoring

D. 6 Explanation: RAID 6: Because of parity, RAID 6 can withstand two disk failures at one time. This can be simultaneous failures or during a rebuild another drive can fail and the system will still be operational. Source: https://www.promax.com/blog/how-many-drives-can-fail-in-a-raid-configuration

QUESTION 81 A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a two-drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator select? A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 6

A. The document is a honeyfile and is meant to attract the attention of a cyberintruder.

QUESTION 82 Which of the following BEST explains the reason why a server administrator would place a document named password.txt on the desktop of an administrator account on a server? A. The document is a honeyfile and is meant to attract the attention of a cyberintruder. B. The document is a backup file if the system needs to be recovered. C. The document is a standard file that the OS needs to verify the login credentials. D. The document is a keylogger that stores all keystrokes should the account be compromised.

B. Install the private key on the server. C. Encrypt the public key.

QUESTION 83 A security administrator has generated an SSH key pair to authenticate to a new server. Which of the following should the security administrator do NEXT to use the keys securely for authentication? Choose 2 A. Install the public key on the server. B. Install the private key on the server. C. Encrypt the public key. D. Encrypt the private key. E. Install both keys on the server. F. Securely wipe the certificate signing request.

A. Trojan

QUESTION 84 A company has just experienced a malware attack affecting a large number of desktop users. The antivirus solution was not able to block the malware, but the HIDS alerted to C2 calls as 'Troj.Generic'. Once the security team found a solution to remove the malware, they were able to remove the malware files successfully, and the HIDS stopped alerting. The next morning, however, the HIDS once again started alerting on the same desktops, and the security team discovered the files were back. Which of the following BEST describes the type of malware infecting this company's network? A. Trojan B. Spyware C. Rootkit D. Botnet

A. Host the web server in a DMZ and the file servers behind a firewall

QUESTION 85 An organization wants to host an externally accessible web server that will not contain sensitive user information. Any sensitive information will be hosted on file servers. Which of the following is the BEST architecture configuration for this organization? A. Host the web server in a DMZ and the file servers behind a firewall B. Host the web server and the file servers in a DMZ C. Host the web server behind a firewall and the file servers in a DMZ D. Host both the web server and file servers behind a firewall

B. VM escape Explanation: Virtual machine escape is an exploit in which the attacker runs code on a VM that allows an operating system running within it to break out and interact directly with the hypervisor.

QUESTION 86 Which of the following describes the ability of code to target a hypervisor from inside a guest OS? A. Fog computing B. VM escape C. Software-defined networking D. Image forgery E. Container breakout

D. Deterrent

QUESTION 87 A company posts a sign indicating its server room is under video surveillance. Which of the following control types is represented? A. Administrative B. Detective C. Technical D. Deterrent

A. DDoS

QUESTION 88 A security administrator has received multiple calls from the help desk about customers who are unable to access the organization's web server. Upon reviewing the log files. the security administrator determines multiple open requests have been made from multiple IP addresses, which is consuming system resources. Which of the following attack types does this BEST describe? A. DDoS B. DoS C. Zero day D. Logic bomb

C. CASB Explanation: A cloud access security broker is on-premises or cloud based software that sits between cloud service users and cloud applications, and monitors all activity and enforces security policies A CASB has a separate, and more distinctive role. Differing from the use case for SWG, which focuses on the broader filtering and protection against inbound threats and filtering illegitimate web traffic, a CASB is more deeply integrated and has control over your cloud application usage. It can be tied into an applications API to scan data at rest or can be used with a proxy based deployment to enforce inline policies for more real time protection.

QUESTION 9 A startup company is using multiple SaaS and IaaS platforms to stand up a corporate infrastructure and build out a customer-facing web application. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to provide security, manageability, and visibility into the platforms? A. SIEM B. DLP C. CASB D. SWG

B. RAID 1

QUESTION 90 A junior systems administrator noticed that one of two hard drives in a server room had a red error notification. The administrator removed the hard drive to replace it but was unaware that the server was configured in an array. Which of the following configurations would ensure no data is lost? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 2 D. RAID 3

B. Air gap Explanation: An air gap, air wall or air gapping is a network security measure employed on one or more computers to ensure that a secure computer network is physically isolated from unsecured networks, such as the public Internet or an unsecured local area network. It means a computer or network has no network interfaces connected to other networks, with a physical or conceptual air gap, analogous to the air gap used in plumbing to maintain water quality.

QUESTION 91 A system in the network is used to store proprietary secrets and needs the highest level of security possible. Which of the following should a security administrator implement to ensure the system cannot be reached from the Internet? A. VLAN B. Air gap C. NAT D. Firewall

A. To protect sites on web servers that are publicly accessible

QUESTION 92 Which of the following is the BEST use of a WAF? A. To protect sites on web servers that are publicly accessible B. To allow access to web services of internal users of the organization. C. To maintain connection status of all HTTP requests D. To deny access to all websites with certain contents

A. is automatically established between a parent and a child.

QUESTION 93 A transitive trust: A. is automatically established between a parent and a child. B. is used to update DNS records. C. allows access to untrusted domains. D. can be used in place of a hardware token for logins.

D. Change the default SSH port. enable TCP tunneling. and provide a pre-configured SSH client.

QUESTION 94 A systems administrator wants to disable the use of usernames and passwords for SSH authentication and enforce key-based authentication. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT to enforce this new configuration? A. Issue a public/private key pair for each user and securely distribute a private key to each employee. B. Instruct users on how to create a public/private key pair and install users' public keys on the server. C. Disable the username and password authentication and enable TOTP in the sshd.conf file. D. Change the default SSH port. enable TCP tunneling. and provide a pre-configured SSH client.

D. Privilege escalation

QUESTION 95 Which of the following would MOST likely be a result of improperly configured user accounts? A. Resource exhaustion B. Buffer overflow C. Session hijacking D. Privilege escalation

A. Screen filters

QUESTION 96 An organization is concerned about video emissions from users' desktops. Which of the following is the BEST solution to implement? A. Screen filters B. Shielded cables C. Spectrum analyzers D. Infrared detection

B. 3DES D. RC4

QUESTION 98 Which of the following encryption algorithms require one encryption key? (Choose two.) A. MD5 B. 3DES C. BCRYPT D. RC4 E. DSA

A. Foundational

QUESTION 99 A company moved into a new building next to a sugar mill. Cracks have been discovered in the walls of the server room, which is located on the same side as the sugar mill loading docks. The cracks are believed to have been caused by heavy trucks. Moisture has begun to seep into the server room, causing extreme humidification problems and equipment failure. Which of the following BEST describes the type of threat the organization faces? A. Foundational B. Man-made C. Environmental D. Natural