100 Security Plus Questions (414-513)
Q429: Which of the following components of printers and MFDs are MOST likely to be used as vectors of compromise if they are improperly configured? A. Embedded web server B. Spooler C. Network interface D. LCD control panel
A. Embedded web server
Q506: Which of the following types of penetration test will allow the tester to have access only to password hashes prior to the penetration test? A. Black box B. Gray box C. Credentialed D. White box
B. Gray box
Q507: Which of the following threats has sufficient knowledge to cause the MOST danger to an organization? A. Competitors B. Insiders C. Hacktivists D. Script kiddies
B. Insiders
Q427: Which of the following describes the key difference between vishing and phishing attacks? A. Phishing is used by attackers to steal a person's identity. B. Vishing attacks require some knowledge of the target of attack. C. Vishing attacks are accomplished using telephony services. D. Phishing is a category of social engineering attack.
C. Vishing attacks are accomplished using telephony services.
Q450: To help prevent one job role from having sufficient access to create, modify, and approve payroll data, which of the following practices should be employed? A. Least privilege B. Job rotation C. Background checks D. Separation of duties
D. Separation of duties
Q475: A Chief Information Officer (CIO) asks the company's security specialist if the company should spend any funds on malware protection for a specific server. Based on a risk assessment, the ARO value of a malware infection for a server is 5 and the annual cost for the malware protection is $2500. Which of the following SLE values warrants a recommendation against purchasing the malware protection? A. $500 B. $1000 C. $2000 D. $2500
A. $500
Q435: A CSIRT has completed restoration procedures related to a breach of sensitive data is creating documentation used to improve the organization's security posture. The team has been specifically tasked to address logical controls in their suggestions. Which of the following would be MOST beneficial to include in lessons learned documentation? (Choose two.) A. A list of policies, which should be revised to provide better clarity to employees regarding acceptable use B. Recommendations relating to improved log correlation and alerting tools C. Data from the organization's IDS/IPS tools, which show the timeline of the breach and the activities executed by the attacker D. A list of potential improvements to the organization's NAC capabilities, which would improve AAA within the environment E. A summary of the activities performed during each phase of the incident response activity F. A list of topics that should be added to the organization's security awareness training program based on weaknesses exploited during the attack
A. A list of policies, which should be revised to provide better clarity to employees regarding acceptable use F. A list of topics that should be added to the organization's security awareness training program based on weaknesses exploited during the attack
Q486: A security technician is configuring an access management system to track and record user actions. Which of the following functions should the technician configure? A. Accounting B. Authorization C. Authentication D. Identification
A. Accounting
Q485: A remote intruder wants to take inventory of a network so exploits can be researched. The intruder is looking for information about software versions on the network. Which of the following techniques is the intruder using? A. Banner grabbing B. Port scanning C. Packet sniffing D. Virus scanning
A. Banner grabbing
Q449: A network administrator needs to allocate a new network for the R&D group. The network must not be accessible from the Internet regardless of the network firewall or other external misconfigurations. Which of the following settings should the network administrator implement to accomplish this? A. Configure the OS default TTL to 1 B. Use NAT on the R&D network C. Implement a router ACL D. Enable protected ports on the switch
A. Configure the OS default TTL to 1
Q463: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has tasked a security analyst with assessing the security posture of an organization and which internal factors would contribute to a security compromise. The analyst performs a walk-through of the organization and discovers there are multiple instances of unlabeled optical media on office desks. Employees in the vicinity either do not claim ownership or disavow any knowledge concerning who owns the media. Which of the following is the MOST immediate action to be taken? A. Confiscate the media and dispose of it in a secure manner as per company policy. B. Confiscate the media, insert it into a computer, find out what is on the disc, and then label it and return it to where it was found. C. Confiscate the media and wait for the owner to claim it. If it is not claimed within one month, shred it. D. Confiscate the media, insert it into a computer, make a copy of the disc, and then return the original to where it was found.
A. Confiscate the media and dispose of it in a secure manner as per company policy.
Q509: A business sector is highly competitive, and safeguarding trade secrets and critical information is paramount. On a seasonal basis, an organization employs temporary hires and contractor personnel to accomplish its mission objectives. The temporary and contract personnel require access to network resources only when on the clock. Which of the following account management practices are the BEST ways to manage these accounts? A. Employ time-of-day restrictions. B. Employ password complexity. C. Employ a random key generator strategy. D. Employ an account expiration strategy. E. Employ a password lockout policy
A. Employ time-of-day restrictions.
Q484: A computer emergency response team is called at midnight to investigate a case in which a mail server was restarted. After an initial investigation, it was discovered that email is being exfiltrated through an active connection. Which of the following is the NEXT step the team should take? A. Identify the source of the active connection B. Perform eradication of active connection and recover C. Performance containment procedure by disconnecting the server D. Format the server and restore its initial configuration
A. Identify the source of the active connection
Q433: A security analyst is securing smartphones and laptops for a highly mobile workforce. Priorities include: Remote wipe capabilities Geolocation services Patch management and reporting Mandatory screen locks Ability to require passcodes and pins Ability to require encryption Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements? A. Implementing MDM software B. Deploying relevant group policies to the devices C. Installing full device encryption D. Removing administrative rights to the devices
A. Implementing MDM software
Q443: When it comes to cloud computing, if one of the requirements for a project is to have the most control over the systems in the cloud, which of the following is a service model that would be BEST suited for this goal? A. Infrastructure B. Platform C. Software D. Virtualization
A. Infrastructure
Q481: An application was recently compromised after some malformed data came in via web form. Which of the following would MOST likely have prevented this? A. Input validation B. Proxy server C. Stress testing D. Encoding
A. Input validation
Q483: A systems administrator found a suspicious file in the root of the file system. The file contains URLs, usernames, passwords, and text from other documents being edited on the system. Which of the following types of malware would generate such a file? A. Keylogger B. Rootkit C. Bot D. RAT
A. Keylogger
Q414: Following the successful response to a data-leakage incident, the incident team lead facilitates an exercise that focuses on continuous improvement of the organization's incident response capabilities. Which of the following activities has the incident team lead executed? A. Lessons learned review B. Root cause analysis C. Incident audit D. Corrective action exercise
A. Lessons learned review
Q467: A company is performing an analysis of the corporate enterprise network with the intent of identifying what will cause losses in revenue, referrals, and/or reputation when out of commission. Which of the following is an element of a BIA that is being addressed? A. Mission-essential function B. Single point of failure C. backup and restoration plans D. Identification of critical systems
A. Mission-essential function
Q417: After a recent internal breach, a company decided to regenerate and reissue all certificates used in the transmission of confidential information. The company places the greatest importance on confidentiality and non-repudiation, and decided to generate dual key pairs for each client. Which of the following BEST describes how the company will use these certificates? A. One key pair will be used for encryption and decryption. The other will be used to digitally sign the data. B. One key pair will be used for encryption. The other key pair will provide extended validation. C. Data will be encrypted once by each key, doubling the confidentiality and non-repudiation strength. D. One key pair will be used for internal communication, and the other will be used for external communication.
A. One key pair will be used for encryption and decryption. The other will be used to digitally sign the data.
Q428: Which of the following should a security analyst perform FIRST to determine the vulnerabilities of a legacy system? A. Passive scan B. Aggressive scan C. Credentialed scan D. Intrusive scan
A. Passive scan
Q430: A hacker has a packet capture that contains: (PIC) Which of the following tools will the hacker use against this type of capture? A. Password cracker B. Vulnerability scanner C. DLP scanner D. Fuzzer
A. Password cracker
Q457: A Chief Information Officer (CIO) recently saw on the news that a significant security flaws exists with a specific version of a technology the company uses to support many critical application. The CIO wants to know if this reported vulnerability exists in the organization and, if so, to what extent the company could be harmed. Which of the following would BEST provide the needed information? A. Penetration test B. Vulnerability scan C. Active reconnaissance D. Patching assessment report
A. Penetration test
Q466: Joe, a salesman, was assigned to a new project that requires him to travel to a client site. While waiting for a flight, Joe, decides to connect to the airport wireless network without connecting to a VPN, and the sends confidential emails to fellow colleagues. A few days later, the company experiences a data breach. Upon investigation, the company learns Joe's emails were intercepted. Which of the following MOST likely caused the data breach? A. Policy violation B. Social engineering C. Insider threat D. Zero-day attack
A. Policy violation
Q436: An organization plans to implement multifactor authentication techniques within the enterprise network architecture. Each authentication factor is expected to be a unique control. Which of the following BEST describes the proper employment of multifactor authentication? A. Proximity card, fingerprint scanner, PIN B. Fingerprint scanner, voice recognition, proximity card C. Smart card, user PKI certificate, privileged user certificate D. Voice recognition, smart card, proximity card
A. Proximity card, fingerprint scanner, PIN
Q431: A user downloads and installs an MP3 converter, and runs the application. Upon running the application, the antivirus detects a new port in a listening state. Which of the following has the user MOST likely executed? A. RAT B. Worm C. Ransomware D. Bot
A. RAT
Q511: Ann, a customer, is reporting that several important files are missing from her workstation. She recently received communication from an unknown party who is requesting funds to restore the files. Which of the following attacks has occurred? A. Ransomware B. Keylogger C. Buffer overflow D. Rootkit
A. Ransomware
Q482: While working on an incident, Joe, a technician, finished restoring the OS and applications on a workstation from the original media. Joe is about to begin copying the user's files back onto the hard drive. Which of the following incident response steps is Joe working on now? A. Recovery B. Eradication C. Containment D. Identification
A. Recovery
Q499: A systems administrator has isolated an infected system from the network and terminated the malicious process from executing. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT according to the incident response process? A. Restore lost data from a backup. B. Wipe the system. C. Document the lessons learned. D. Determine the scope of impact
A. Restore lost data from a backup.
Q448: Which of the following solutions should an administrator use to reduce the risk from an unknown vulnerability in a third-party software application? A. Sandboxing B. Encryption C. Code signing D. Fuzzing
A. Sandboxing
Q468: A company wants to ensure confidential data from storage media is sanitized in such a way that the drive cannot be reused. Which of the following method should the technician use? A. Shredding B. Wiping C. Low-level formatting D. Repartitioning E. Overwriting
A. Shredding
Q478: Two users must encrypt and transmit large amounts of data between them. Which of the following should they use to encrypt and transmit the data? A. Symmetric algorithm B. Hash function C. Digital signature D. Obfuscation
A. Symmetric algorithm
Q458: An organization is expanding its network team. Currently, it has local accounts on all network devices, but with growth, it wants to move to centrally managed authentication. Which of the following are the BEST solutions for the organization? (Select TWO) A. TACACS+ B. CHAP C. LDAP D. RADIUS E. MSCHAPv2
A. TACACS+ D. RADIUS
Q442: A user typically works remotely over the holidays using a web-based VPN to access corporate resources. The user reports getting untrusted host errors and being unable to connect. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. The certificate has expired B. The browser does not support SSL C. The user's account is locked out D. The VPN software has reached the seat license maximum
A. The certificate has expired
Q472: User from two organizations, each with its own PKI, need to begin working together on a joint project. Which of the following would allow the users of the separate PKIs to work together without connection errors? A. Trust model B. Stapling C. Intermediate CA D. Key escrow
A. Trust model
Q474: A security analyst is reviewing an assessment report that includes software versions, running services, supported encryption algorithms, and permission settings. Which of the following produced the report? A. Vulnerability scanner B. Protocol analyzer C. Network mapper D. Web inspector
A. Vulnerability scanner
Q480: A software developer is concerned about DLL hijacking in an application being written. Which of the following is the MOST viable mitigation measure of this type of attack? A. The DLL of each application should be set individually B. All calls to different DLLs should be hard-coded in the application C. Access to DLLs from the Windows registry should be disabled D. The affected DLLs should be renamed to avoid future hijacking
B. All calls to different DLLs should be hard-coded in the application
Q513: Joe, a user, has been trying to send Ann, a different user, an encrypted document via email. Ann has not received the attachment but is able to receive the header information. Which of the following is MOST likely preventing Ann from receiving the encrypted file? A. Unencrypted credentials B. Authentication issues C. Weak cipher suite D. Permission issues
B. Authentication issues
Q508: While troubleshooting a client application connecting to the network, the security administrator notices the following error: Certificate is not valid. Which of the following is the BEST way to check if the digital certificate is valid? A. PKI B. CRL C. CSR D. IPSec
B. CRL
Q473: A security analyst is mitigating a pass-the-hash vulnerability on a Windows infrastructure. Given the requirement, which of the following should the security analyst do to MINIMIZE the risk? A. Enable CHAP B. Disable NTLM C. Enable Kerebos D. Disable PAP
B. Disable NTLM
Q440: A security administrator is diagnosing a server where the CPU utilization is at 100% for 24 hours. The main culprit of CPU utilization is the antivirus program. Which of the following issue could occur if left unresolved? (Select TWO) A. MITM attack B. DoS attack C. DLL injection D. Buffer overflow E. Resource exhaustion
B. DoS attack E. Resource exhaustion
Q437: Upon entering an incorrect password, the logon screen displays a message informing the user that the password does not match the username provided and is not the required length of 12 characters. Which of the following secure coding techniques should a security analyst address with the application developers to follow security best practices? A. Input validation B. Error handling C. Obfuscation D. Data exposure
B. Error handling
Q495: Company A has acquired Company B. Company A has different domains spread globally, and typically migrates its acquisitions infrastructure under its own domain infrastructure. Company B, however, cannot be merged into Company A's domain infrastructure. Which of the following methods would allow the two companies to access one another's resources? A. Attestation B. Federation C. Single sign-on D. Kerberos
B. Federation
Q425: After attempting to harden a web server, a security analyst needs to determine if an application remains vulnerable to SQL injection attacks. Which of the following would BEST assist the analyst in making this determination? A. tracert B. Fuzzer C. nslookup D. Nmap E. netcat
B. Fuzzer
Q512: Every morning, a systems administrator monitors failed login attempts on the company's log management server. The administrator notices the DBAdmin account has five failed username and/or password alerts during a ten-minute window. The systems administrator determines the user account is a dummy account used to attract attackers. Which of the following techniques should the systems administrator implement? A. Role-based access control B. Honeypot C. Rule-based access control D. Password cracker
B. Honeypot
Q419: A security administrator learns that PII, which was gathered by the organization, has been found in an open forum. As a result, several C-level executives found their identities were compromised, and they were victims of a recent whaling attack. Which of the following would prevent these problems in the future? (Select TWO). A. Implement a reverse proxy. B. Implement an email DLP. C. Implement a spam filter. D. Implement a host-based firewall. E. Implement a HIDS.
B. Implement an email DLP. C. Implement a spam filter.
Q456: Which of the following refers to the term used to restore a system to its operational state? A. MTBF B. MTTR C. RTO D. RPO
B. MTTR
Q447: A security analyst conducts a manual scan on a known hardened host that identifies many non- compliant items. Which of the following BEST describe why this has occurred? (Select TWO) A. Privileged-user certificated were used to scan the host B. Non-applicable plugins were selected in the scan policy C. The incorrect audit file was used D. The output of the report contains false positives E. The target host has been compromised
B. Non-applicable plugins were selected in the scan policy D. The output of the report contains false positives
Q424: Attackers have been using revoked certificates for MITM attacks to steal credentials from employees of Company.com. Which of the following options should Company.com implement to mitigate these attacks? A. Captive portal B. OCSP stapling C. Object identifiers D. Key escrow E. Extended validation certificate
B. OCSP stapling
Q477: A security analyst is attempting to identify vulnerabilities in a customer's web application without impacting the system or its data. Which of the following BEST describes the vulnerability scanning concept performed? A. Aggressive scan B. Passive scan C. Non-credentialed scan D. Compliance scan
B. Passive scan
Q418: A security manager is creating an account management policy for a global organization with sales personnel who must access corporate network resources while traveling all over the world. Which of the following practices is the security manager MOST likely to enforce with the policy? (Select TWO) A. Time-of-day restrictions B. Password complexity C. Location-based authentication D. Group-based access control E. Standard naming convention
B. Password complexity D. Group-based access control
Q492: When attempting to secure a mobile workstation, which of the following authentication technologies rely on the user's physical characteristics? (Select TWO) A. MAC address table B. Retina scan C. Fingerprint scan D. Two-factor authentication E. CAPTCHA F. Password string
B. Retina scan C. Fingerprint scan
Q453: An analyst receives an alert from the SIEM showing an IP address that does not belong to the assigned network can be seen sending packets to the wrong gateway. Which of the following network devices is misconfigured and which of the following should be done to remediate the issue? A. Firewall; implement an ACL on the interface B. Router; place the correct subnet on the interface C. Switch; modify the access port to trunk port D. Proxy; add the correct transparent interface
B. Router; place the correct subnet on the interface
Q503: Which of the following is a deployment concept that can be used to ensure only the required OS access is exposed to software applications? A. Staging environment B. Sandboxing C. Secure baseline D. Trusted OS
B. Sandboxing
Q497: An organization's employees currently use three different sets of credentials to access multiple internal resources. Management wants to make this process less complex. Which of the following would be the BEST option to meet this goal? A. Transitive trust B. Single sign-on C. Federation D. Secure token
B. Single sign-on
Q498: An external attacker can modify the ARP cache of an internal computer. Which of the following types of attacks is described? A. Replay B. Spoofing C. DNS poisoning D. Client-side attack
B. Spoofing
Q434: A technician receives a device with the following anomalies: Frequent pop-up ads Show response-time switching between active programs Unresponsive peripherals The technician reviews the following log file entries: File Name Source MD5 Target MD5 Status antivirus.exe F794F21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF267ED2 F794F21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF267ED2 Automatic iexplore.exe 7FAAF21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF29CCEA AA87F21CD33E4F57890DDEAEE2197333 Automatic service.exe 77FF390CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF28881F 77FF390CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF28881F Manual USB.exe E289F21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF28EDC0 E289F21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF28EDC0 Stopped Based on the above output, which of the following should be reviewed? A. The web application firewall B. The file integrity check C. The data execution prevention D. The removable media control
B. The file integrity check
Q444: A security analyst is acquiring data from a potential network incident. Which of the following evidence is the analyst MOST likely to obtain to determine the incident? A. Volatile memory capture B. Traffic and logs C. Screenshots D. System image capture
B. Traffic and logs
Q494: A company has two wireless networks utilizing captive portals. Some employees report getting a trust error in their browsers when connecting to one of the networks. Both captive portals are using the same server certificate for authentication, but the analyst notices the following differences between the two certificate details: Certificate 1 Certificate Path: Geotrust Global CA *company.com Certificate 2 Certificate Path: *company.com Which of the following would resolve the problem? A. Use a wildcard certificate. B. Use certificate chaining. C. Use a trust model. D. Use an extended validation certificate.
B. Use certificate chaining.
Q464: A company has noticed multiple instances of proprietary information on public websites. It has also observed an increase in the number of email messages sent to random employees containing malicious links and PDFs. Which of the following changes should the company make to reduce the risks associated with phishing attacks? (Select TWO) A. Install an additional firewall B. Implement a redundant email server C. Block access to personal email on corporate systems D. Update the X.509 certificates on the corporate email server E. Update corporate policy to prohibit access to social media websites F. Review access violation on the file server
C. Block access to personal email on corporate systems E. Update corporate policy to prohibit access to social media websites
Q423: Which of the following controls allows a security guard to perform a post-incident review? A. Detective B. Preventive C. Corrective D. Deterrent
C. Corrective
Q446: A security administrator has written a script that will automatically upload binary and text-based configuration files onto a remote server using a scheduled task. The configuration files contain sensitive information. Which of the following should the administrator use? (Select TWO) A. TOPT B. SCP C. FTP over a non-standard pot D. SRTP E. Certificate-based authentication F. SNMPv3
C. FTP over a non-standard pot E. Certificate-based authentication
Q505: Ann, a user, reports she is unable to access an application from her desktop. A security analyst verifies Ann's access and checks the SIEM for any errors. The security analyst reviews the log file from Ann's system and notices the following output: Which of the following is MOST likely preventing Ann from accessing the application from the desktop? A. Web application firewall B. DLP C. Host-based firewall D. UTM E. Network-based firewall
C. Host-based firewall
Q441: Which of the following is used to validate the integrity of data? A. CBC B. Blowfish C. MD5 D. RSA
C. MD5
Q491: An audit reported has identifies a weakness that could allow unauthorized personnel access to the facility at its main entrance and from there gain access to the network. Which of the following would BEST resolve the vulnerability? A. Faraday cage B. Air gap C. Mantrap D. Bollards
C. Mantrap
Q502: A security administrator is trying to eradicate a worm, which is spreading throughout the organization, using an old remote vulnerability in the SMB protocol. The worm uses Nmap to identify target hosts within the company. The administrator wants to implement a solution that will eradicate the current worm and any future attacks that may be using zero-day vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST meet the requirements when implemented? A. Host-based firewall B. Enterprise patch management system C. Network-based intrusion prevention system D. Application blacklisting E. File integrity checking
C. Network-based intrusion prevention system
Q462: Which of the following uses precomputed hashes to guess passwords? A. Iptables B. NAT tables C. Rainbow tables D. ARP tables
C. Rainbow tables
Q487: A security administrator installed a new network scanner that identifies new host systems on the network. Which of the following did the security administrator install? A. Vulnerability scanner B. Network-based IDS C. Rogue system detection D. Configuration compliance scanner
C. Rogue system detection
Q476: A recent internal audit is forcing a company to review each internal business unit's VMs because the cluster they are installed on is in danger of running out of computer resources. Which of the following vulnerabilities exist? A. Buffer overflow B. End-of-life systems C. System sprawl D. Weak configuration
C. System sprawl
Q493: Systems administrator and key support staff come together to simulate a hypothetical interruption of service. The team updates the disaster recovery processes and documentation after meeting. Which of the following describes the team's efforts? A. Business impact analysis B. Continuity of operation C. Tabletop exercise D. Order of restoration
C. Tabletop exercise
Q432: An attacker exploited a vulnerability on a mail server using the code below. (PIC) Which of the following BEST explains what the attacker is doing? A. The attacker is replacing a cookie. B. The attacker is stealing a document. C. The attacker is replacing a document. D. The attacker is deleting a cookie.
C. The attacker is replacing a document.
Q452: The help desk received a call after hours from an employee who was attempting to log into the payroll server remotely. When the help desk returned the call the next morning, the employee was able to log into the server remotely without incident. However, the incident occurred again the next evening. Which of the following BEST describes the cause of the issue? A. The password expired on the account and needed to be reset B. The employee does not have the rights needed to access the database remotely C. Time-of-day restrictions prevented the account from logging in D. The employee's account was locked out and needed to be unlocked
C. Time-of-day restrictions prevented the account from logging in
Q438: Which of the following is the BEST reason to run an untested application is a sandbox? A. To allow the application to take full advantage of the host system's resources and storage B. To utilize the host systems antivirus and firewall applications instead of running it own protection C. To prevent the application from acquiring escalated privileges and accessing its host system D. To increase application processing speed so the host system can perform real-time logging
C. To prevent the application from acquiring escalated privileges and accessing its host system
Q415: A security analyst is attempting to break into a client's secure network. The analyst was not given prior information about the client, except for a block of public IP addresses that are currently in use. After network enumeration, the analyst's NEXT step is to perform: A. a risk analysis. B. a vulnerability assessment. C. a gray-box penetration test. D. an external security audit. E. a red team exercise.
C. a gray-box penetration test.
Q459: An active/passive configuration has an impact on: A. confidentiality B. integrity C. availability D. non-repudiation
C. availability
Q445: A cybersecurity analyst is looking into the payload of a random packet capture file that was selected for analysis. The analyst notices that an internal host had a socket established with another internal host over a non-standard port. Upon investigation, the origin host that initiated the socket shows this output:(PIC) Given the above output, which of the following commands would have established the questionable socket? A. traceroute 8.8.8.8 B. ping -1 30 8.8.8.8 -a 600 C. nc -1 192.168.5.1 -p 9856 D. pskill pid 9487
C. nc -1 192.168.5.1 -p 9856
Q504: A procedure differs from a policy in that it: A. is a high-level statement regarding the company's position on a topic. B. sets a minimum expected baseline of behavior. C. provides step-by-step instructions for performing a task. D. describes adverse actions when violations occur.
C. provides step-by-step instructions for performing a task.
A416: A security architect has convened a meeting to discuss an organization's key management policy. The organization has a reliable internal key management system, and some argue that it would be best to manage the cryptographic keys internally as opposed to using a solution from a third party. The company should use: A. the current internal key management system. B. a third-party key management system that will reduce operating costs. C. risk benefits analysis results to make a determination. D. a software solution including secure key escrow capabilities.
C. risk benefits analysis results to make a determination.
Q488: A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has decided it is not cost effective to implement safeguards against a known vulnerability. Which of the following risk responses does this BEST describe? A. Transference B. Avoidance C. Mitigation D. Acceptance
D. Acceptance
Q479: A new Chief Information Officer (CIO) has been reviewing the badging and decides to write a policy that all employees must have their badges rekeyed at least annually. Which of the following controls BEST describes this policy? A. Physical B. Corrective C. Technical D. Administrative
D. Administrative
Q489: A technician is investigating a potentially compromised device with the following symptoms: Browser slowness Frequent browser crashes Hourglass stuck New search toolbar Increased memory consumption Which of the following types of malware has infected the system? A. Man-in-the-browser B. Spoofer C. Spyware D. Adware
D. Adware
Q510: Which of the following locations contain the MOST volatile data? A. SSD B. Paging file C. RAM D. Cache memory
D. Cache memory
Q455: A security engineer must install the same x.509 certificate on three different servers. The client application that connects to the server performs a check to ensure the certificate matches the host name. Which of the following should the security engineer use? A. Wildcard certificate B. Extended validation certificate C. Certificate chaining D. Certificate utilizing the SAN file
D. Certificate utilizing the SAN file
Q471: A stock trading company had the budget for enhancing its secondary datacenter approved. Since the main site is a hurricane-affected area and the disaster recovery site is 100 mi (161 km) away, the company wants to ensure its business is always operational with the least amount of man hours needed. Which of the following types of disaster recovery sites should the company implement? A. Hot site B. Warm site C. Cold site D. Cloud-based site
D. Cloud-based site
Q501: A security analyst is hardening a WiFi infrastructure. The primary requirements are the following: The infrastructure must allow staff to authenticate using the most secure method. The infrastructure must allow guests to use an "open" WiFi network that logs valid email addresses before granting access to the Internet. Given these requirements, which of the following statements BEST represents what the analyst should recommend and configure? A. Configure a captive portal for guests and WPS for staff. B. Configure a captive portal for staff and WPA for guests. C. Configure a captive portal for staff and WEP for guests. D. Configure a captive portal for guest and WPA2 Enterprise for staff
D. Configure a captive portal for guest and WPA2 Enterprise for staff
Q454: A home invasion occurred recently in which an intruder compromised a home network and accessed a WiFI- enabled baby monitor while the baby's parents were sleeping. Which of the following BEST describes how the intruder accessed the monitor? A. Outdated antivirus B. WiFi signal strength C. Social engineering D. Default configuration
D. Default configuration
Q420: A security engineer is configuring a wireless network with EAP-TLS. Which of the following activities is a requirement for this configuration? A. Setting up a TACACS+ server B. Configuring federation between authentication servers C. Enabling TOTP D. Deploying certificates to endpoint devices
D. Deploying certificates to endpoint devices
Q470: An incident response manager has started to gather all the facts related to a SIEM alert showing multiple systems may have been compromised. The manager has gathered these facts: The breach is currently indicated on six user PCs One service account is potentially compromised Executive management has been notified In which of the following phases of the IRP is the manager currently working? A. Recovery B. Eradication C. Containment D. Identification
D. Identification
Q500: A new security administrator ran a vulnerability scanner for the first time and caused a system outage. Which of the following types of scans MOST likely caused the outage? A. Non-intrusive credentialed scan B. Non-intrusive non-credentialed scan C. Intrusive credentialed scan D. Intrusive non-credentialed scan
D. Intrusive non-credentialed scan
Q496: A technician is configuring a load balancer for the application team to accelerate the network performance of their applications. The applications are hosted on multiple servers and must be redundant. Given this scenario, which of the following would be the BEST method of configuring the load balancer? A. Round-robin B. Weighted C. Least connection D. Locality-based
D. Locality-based
Q490: A penetration tester has written an application that performs a bit-by-bit XOR 0xFF operation on binaries prior to transmission over untrusted media. Which of the following BEST describes the action performed by this type of application? A. Hashing B. Key exchange C. Encryption D. Obfusication
D. Obfusication
Q421: Ann is the IS manager for several new systems in which the classification of the systems' data are being decided. She is trying to determine the sensitivity level of the data being processed. Which of the following people should she consult to determine the data classification? A. Steward B. Custodian C. User D. Owner
D. Owner
Q460: Which of the following would provide additional security by adding another factor to a smart card? A. Token B. Proximity badge C. Physical key D. PIN
D. PIN
Q422: A systems administrator wants to generate a self-signed certificate for an internal website. Which of the following steps should the systems administrator complete prior to installing the certificate on the server? A. Provide the private key to a public CA. B. Provide the public key to the internal CA. C. Provide the public key to a public CA. D. Provide the private key to the internal CA. E. Provide the public/private key pair to the internal CA F. Provide the public/private key pair to a public CA.
D. Provide the private key to the internal CA.
Q461: A systems administrator wants to implement a wireless protocol that will allow the organization to authenticate mobile devices prior to providing the user with a captive portal login. Which of the following should the systems administrator configure? A. L2TP with MAC filtering B. EAP-TTLS C. WPA2-CCMP with PSK D. RADIUS federation
D. RADIUS federation
Q465: A security analyst is investigating a potential breach. Upon gathering, documenting, and securing the evidence, which of the following actions is the NEXT step to minimize the business impact? A. Launch an investigation to identify the attacking host B. Initiate the incident response plan C. Review lessons learned captured in the process D. Remove malware and restore the system to normal operation
D. Remove malware and restore the system to normal operation
Q426: A company is allowing a BYOD policy for its staff. Which of the following is a best practice that can decrease the risk of users jailbreaking mobile devices? A. Install a corporately monitored mobile antivirus on the devices. B. Prevent the installation of applications from a third-party application store. C. Build a custom ROM that can prevent jailbreaking. D. Require applications to be digitally signed.
D. Require applications to be digitally signed.
Q439: A security technician has been receiving alerts from several servers that indicate load balancers have had a significant increase in traffic. The technician initiates a system scan. The scan results illustrate that the disk space on several servers has reached capacity. The scan also indicates that incoming internet traffic to the servers has increased. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the decreased disk space? A. Misconfigured devices B. Logs and events anomalies C. Authentication issues D. Unauthorized software
D. Unauthorized software
Q469: A forensic expert is given a hard drive from a crime scene and is asked to perform an investigation. Which of the following is the FIRST step the forensic expert needs to take the chain of custody? A. Make a forensic copy B. Create a hash of the hard drive C. Recover the hard drive data D. Update the evidence log
D. Update the evidence log
Q451: When attackers use a compromised host as a platform for launching attacks deeper into a company's network, it is said that they are: A. escalating privilege B. becoming persistent C. fingerprinting D. pivoting
D. pivoting