1120 Test
In general, you should assess the blood pressure in all patients who are at least ____ years of age. A. 3 B. 1 C. 5 D. 8
A. 3
Which of the following situations would MOST likely require additional personnel or resources at the scene? A. 40-year-old male with an apparent self-inflicted gunshot wound to the head B. 27-year-old male with a large knife impaled in his leg and minor bleeding C. 38-year-old female who fell from a ladder and cannot move below the waist D. 52-year-old female with chest pressure and a history of cardiovascular disease
A. 40-year-old male with an apparent self-inflicted gunshot wound to the head
In adult females and adolescents, systolic blood pressure is considered critically low when it is less _____ mm Hg or less. A. 60 B. 70 C. 80 D. 90
A. 60
Which of the following medications would the AEMT help a patient self- administer? A. Albuterol B. Glucagon C. 50% dextrose D. Naloxone
A. Albuterol
As you are treating a patient, he tells you that he has a bleeding ulcer and took Cialis (erectile dysfunction pill) 12 hours ago. Which of the following medications are contraindicated for this patient? A. Aspirin and nitroglycerin B. Glucagon and naloxone C. Narcan and ventolin D. Albuterol and dextrose
A. Aspirin and nitroglycerin
Which of the following actions would you NOT perform during the scene size- up? A. Assess a patients breathing effort. B. Evaluate exterior damage to a car. C. Determine the number of patients. D. Request a hazardous materials team.
A. Assess a patients breathing effort.
Which of the following is a Schedule II substance? A. Demerol B. Codeine C. Marijuan a D. Diazepa m
A. Demerol
A middle-aged woman presents with crushing chest pain, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and nausea. Which of these findings is/are signs (can be seen, heard, or smelled by)? A. Diaphoresis and tachycardia B. Chest pain and diaphoresis C. Nausea and tachycardia D. Chest pain and nausea
A. Diaphoresis and tachycardia
Which of the following medication administration routes would result in uneven, unreliable absorption if given to a patient with decreased peripheral perfusion? A. Intramuscular B. Intraosseous C. Intravenous D. Inhalation
A. Intramuscular
Which of the following statements regarding clinical decision making is correct? A. Irrelevant or extraneous data can skew your interpretation of a patient's condition, potentially leading to inappropriate care B. Recalling bad experiences is dangerous and can interfere with your ability to care to manage the current situation C. The treatment plan that you formulate for a given patient is based on clinical findings in the primary assessment D. Effective clinical decision making is based solely on your ability to gather and evaluate patient information
A. Irrelevant or extraneous data can skew your interpretation of a patient's condition, potentially leading to inappropriate care
Which of the following medications could be administered via the intranasal route with a mucosal atomizer device? A. Naloxone B. Nitrostat C. Glucagon (under the tongue) D. Epinephrine (lateral thigh)
A. Naloxone
Which DEA classification is given to a drug that has no accepted medical uses and a high abuse and dependence potential? A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule IV D. Schedule III
A. Schedule I
You are assessing the quality of a trauma patient's respirations. Which of the following clinical findings would indicate labored breathing? A. Supraclavicular retractions B. Shallow chest movement C. Gurgling in the upper airway D. Reduced tidal volume
A. Supraclavicular retractions
When is it appropriate to palpate a trauma patient's pelvis? A. When he or she does not report pelvic pain B. When a spinal injury is not suspected C. If he or she presents with signs of shock D. Only if there is gross evidence of injury
A. When he or she does not report pelvic pain
The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the: A. adrenergic nervous system. B. sympatholytic nervous system. C. cholinergic nervous system. D. parasympatholytic nervous system.
A. adrenergic nervous system.
If the brain is deprived of oxygen for 4 to 6 minutes: A. anoxic brain injury will occur. B. mild tissue hypoxia occurs. C. respiratory arrest is irreversible. D. the patient will die.
A. anoxic brain injury will occur.
The condition in which the alveoli collapse is called: A. atelectasis. B. pleuritis. C. bronchitis. D. pneumothorax
A. atelectasis.
During your rapid trauma assessment (rapid body scan) of a man who sustained a gunshot wound to the chest, you note the presence of air under the skin. This clinical finding is referred to as subcutaneous: A. emphysema. B. crepitus. C. embolization . D. infiltration.
A. emphysema.
The opening to the trachea is guarded by a cartilaginous flap called the: A. epiglottis. B. thyroid cartilage. C. cricoid cartilage. D. vallecula.
A. epiglottis.
A 40-year-old female is unconscious following blunt trauma to the chest. During the rapid trauma assessment (rapid body scan), you auscultate the chest and hear rhonchi. This indicates: A. fluid in the larger airways in the lungs. B. fluid in the smaller airways in the lungs. C. decreased blood flow to the lungs. D. bronchospasm and decreased air movement.
A. fluid in the larger airways in the lungs.
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs by a process of diffusion, in which: A. gas moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. B. gases in the cells remain in equal concentration until arterial oxygen levels fall. C. carbon dioxide is not allowed to move across the pulmonary capillary membrane. D. gas moves from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration.
A. gas moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
The MOST common contraindication for any medication is: A. hypersensitivity. B. hypertension. C. seizure disorder. D. tachycardia.
A. hypersensitivity.
Nitroglycerin is especially useful in treating patients with cardiac ischemia because it: A. increases the amount of blood returned to the heart. B. constricts the smooth muscles in the coronary arteries. C. is a vasodilator and lowers preload on the heart. D. increases blood pressure and improves perfusion.
A. increases the amount of blood returned to the heart.
A parasympatholytic drug blocks the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system by: A. increasing the effects of the sympathetic nervous system. B. binding to receptors and blocking the release of acetylcholine. C. agonizing parasympathetic receptors so they may exert their effect. D. antagonizing sympathetic receptors and blocking the release of epinephrine.
A. increasing the effects of the sympathetic nervous system.
The majority of the bodys potassium is found within the: A. intracellular fluid. B. extracellular fluid. C. interstitial fluid. D. intravascular
A. intracellular fluid.
The study of the properties and effects of medications on the body is called: A. pharmacology. B. toxicology. C. pharmacokinetics. D. pharmacodynamic s.
A. pharmacology.
Ventilation is defined as the: A. physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs. B. removal of carbon dioxide during the exhalation phase. C. exchange of gases between the body and its environment. D. delivery of oxygen to the alveoli during the inhalation phase.
A. physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs.
When performing the rapid body scan on an unresponsive patient, you should follow the same approach as the: A. rapid trauma assessment. B. primary assessment. C. general impression. D. secondary assessment.
A. rapid trauma assessment.
Bioavailability is defined as the: A. rate and extent to which an active drug enters the general circulation. B. speed with which the drug is excreted from the body by the renal system. C. movement of a solute from an area of higher to lower solvent concentration. D. movement of a solvent from an area of lower to higher solute concentration.
A. rate and extent to which an active drug enters the general circulation.
Minute volume (is the amount of gas inhaled or exhaled from a person's lungs in one minute) would increase if: A. respiratory rate was increased. B. tidal volume was reduced. C. a patient's breathing was shallow. D. the amount of dead space air increased.
A. respiratory rate was increased.
Nitroglycerin relaxes vascular smooth muscle, dilates the coronary arteries, and relieves cardiac chest pain. These properties of nitroglycerin are called: A. therapeutic effects. B. idiosyncratic effects. C. side effects. D. contraindications.
A. therapeutic effects.
Drugs that attach to a receptor and counteract the effects of something else are called: A. antagonists B. mimetics C. stimulants D. agonists
A. antagonists
Adverse reactions associated with epinephrine include all of the following EXCEPT: A. bradycardia B. headache C. arrhythmias D. anginal pain
A. bradycardia
You are assessing the blood pressure of a 36-year-old male who was assaulted. A normal systolic blood pressure for a patient of this age should be approximately: A. 120 mm Hg. B. 140 mm Hg. C. 145 mm Hg. D. 150 mm Hg.
B. 140 mm Hg.
Which of the following medications is administered in gel form? A. Nitroglycerin B. Oral glucose C. Fentanyl D. Activated charcoal
B. Oral glucose
The concept of standard precautions assumes that: A. gloves, a face shield, and a gown will virtually eliminate the risk of you being exposed to an infectious disease. B. all blood, body fluids, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes may pose a substantial risk of infection. C. certain body fluids, such as blood and vaginal secretions, are infectious until proven otherwise. D. body fluids, such as sputum, urine, and sweat are potentially infectious only if they contain visible blood.
B. all blood, body fluids, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes may pose a substantial risk of infection.
Severe abdominal distention may be caused by ascites, which is: A. inflammation of the bowel due to a blockage. B. an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space. C. a collection of blood in the retroperitoneal space. D. inflammation of the liver due to a malignancy.
B. an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space - is a potential space between the parietal peritoneum (the peritoneum that surrounds the abdominal wall) and visceral peritoneum (the peritoneum that surrounds the internal organs).
An oxygen humidifier is MOST beneficial when a patient is: A. receiving oxygen via nonrebreathing mask during a short transport. B. being given oxygen during a lengthy transport to the hospital. C. not breathing and is being ventilated with a bag-mask device. D. receiving ventilations through a multilumen airway device.
B. being given oxygen during a lengthy transport to the hospital.
Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication: A. into the muscle. B. between the skin and the muscle. C. below the layer of muscle. D. deep within the dermis.
B. between the skin and the muscle.
Internally, the lower airway extends from the: A. carina to the pulmonary capillary membrane. B. glottis to the pulmonary capillary membrane. C. vocal cords to the end of the mainstem bronchi. D. posterior nasopharynx to the level of the carina.
B. glottis to the pulmonary capillary membrane.
Medications that the EMT is authorized to administer are ultimately determined by: A. his or her scope of training. B. his or her medical director. C. the EMS chief or supervisor. D. the patient's personal physician.
B. his or her medical director.
The focused assessment of a patient is based primarily on the: A. initial set of vital signs. B. patients chief complaint. C. presence of obvious injuries. D. nature of the patient illness.
B. patients chief complaint.
Proper use of personal protective equipment (PPE) will: A. negate the need for hazardous material decontamination. B. reduce your risk of an infectious exposure. C. eliminate the possibility of contracting a disease. D. prevent you from being stuck with a needle.
B. reduce your risk of an infectious exposure.
A patient who is in a tripod position is: A. kneeling and supporting himself with his hands with his head in a hyperextended position B. sitting and leaning forward on outstretched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward. C. standing and leaning against an object, such as a wall, and has noticeable accessory muscle use D. in a semisitting position, leaning slightly forward, with the chin drawn in toward the chest
B. sitting and leaning forward on outstretched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward.
Medications that fight or antagonize the effects of the sympathetic nervous system are referred to as being: A. anticholinergic. B. sympatholytic. C. parasympatholytic . D. sympathomimetic.
B. sympatholytic.
The need to perform a detailed physical exam on a patient is based on: A. whether or not a focused exam was performed. B. the nature of illness or mechanism of injury. C. your transport distance to the closest hospital. D. the patient's response to initial management.
B. the nature of illness or mechanism of injury.
The amount of force applied to the body during a motor-vehicle crash is directly related to: A. the weight and height of the patient. B. the speed of the vehicle at the time of impact. C. the gross weight of the patients vehicle. D. whether or not the patient was restrained.
B. the speed of the vehicle at the time of impact.
All of the following elements are essential to the AEMTs critical-thinking ability, EXCEPT: A. comparing a patient's complaint to past experiences with similar patients. B. using extraneous data to formulate an appropriate patient care plan. C. the ability to differentiate between relevant and irrelevant information. D. an understanding of how injuries and illnesses affect the human body.
B. using extraneous data to formulate an appropriate patient care plan.
The lungs are covered with a thin, slippery outer membrane called the: A. parietal pleura. B. visceral pleura. C. peritoneal pleura. D. parenchymal pleura.
B. visceral pleura.
Compared to the patient's chief complaint, the primary problem is: A. directly related to the patient's medical history. B. what is actually wrong with the patient. C. the reason why the patient called EMS. D. what is most significant to the patient.
B. what is actually wrong with the patient.
Epinephrine is classified as a/an: A. parasympatholytic B. sympathomimetic. C. sympatholytic. D. antiadrenergic
B. sympathomimetic - producing physiological effects characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system by promoting the stimulation of sympathetic nerves.
The rapid body scan of a seriously ill or injured patient should take no longer than: A. 30 to 60 seconds. B. 30 seconds. C. 60 to 90 seconds. D. 90 to 120 seconds.
C. 60 to 90 seconds.
Which of the following general statements about blood pressure measurement is correct? A. The appearance of Korotkoff sounds when taking a manual blood pressure indicates the diastolic blood pressure B. A blood pressure cuff that is too small will likely produce a reading that is falsely low C. A normal size cuff should take up 2/3 the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow D. A blood pressure cuff that is too large will likely produce a reading that is falsely high
C. A normal size cuff should take up 2/3 the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow
Which of the following structures is NOT a part of the upper airway? A. Nasopharynx B. Arytenoid cartilage C. Bronchioles D. Vallecular space
C. Bronchioles
A 23-year-old female called EMS because of a sudden onset of abdominal pain. During your assessment, you ask her to point to the area of her abdomen that is painful. She encircles a large area of her left lower quadrant with her finger. You would describe this patient's pain as being: A. radiating . B. referred. C. diffuse. D. focal.
C. diffuse.
Signs and symptoms of an air embolus include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. respiratory distress. B. tachycardia. C. facial flushing. D. oxygen-refractory cyanosis.
C. facial flushing.
The removal of particles from a solution by allowing the liquid portion to pass through a membrane or other partial barrier is called: A. diffusion. B. bioavailability. C. filtration. D. osmosis.
C. filtration.
Assessment of a patient's pelvis is appropriately performed by: A. pushing inward while lifting the patient. B. using a slight rocking motion. C. gently compressing it inward. D. firmly compressing to elicit crepitus.
C. gently compressing it inward.
All of the following conditions would require immediate transport after the primary assessment and treatment phase, EXCEPT: A. responsiveness but inability to follow commands. B. abdominal pain and cool, clammy skin. C. headache without mental status change. D. inability to move the extremities following trauma.
C. headache without mental status change.
When performing the primary assessment of a patient, your goal is to: A. determine if the patient's problem is traumatic or medical in origin. B. ascertain the severity of the patient's condition by visual inspection. C. identify and treat immediate life-threatening injuries or conditions. D. open the patient's airway and assess adequacy of respirations.
C. identify and treat immediate life-threatening injuries or conditions.
An electronic blood pressure cuff that measures readings using stepped deflation: A. is ineffective in taking accurate measurements if the patient's blood pressure is greater than 200/100 mm Hg or if it detects any kind of patient movement. B. is less accurate in hypotensive patients than the device that uses linear deflation because linear deflation allows a uniform decline in pressure during deflation. C. may be more accurate in patients who are moving because the pressure in the cuff is released in intervals at variable lengths, allowing the system to better detect oscillations. D. provides a more accurate measurement than auscultating a patient's blood pressure using a manual blood pressure cuff.
C. may be more accurate in patients who are moving because the pressure in the cuff is released in intervals at variable lengths, allowing the system to better detect oscillations.
A 60-year-old male complains of right upper quadrant abdominal pain and pain to his right shoulder. He denies pain in between his abdomen and shoulder. The patients description of his pain describes: A. radiating pain. B. diffuse pain. C. referred pain. D. focal pain.
C. referred pain.
While reading the package insert that accompanies a medication, you note that it has been assigned a pregnancy category D. This means that: A. studies in animals have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus; however, adequate studies have not been performed in humans. B. risk of adverse effects has clearly been demonstrated in humans; therefore, the drug should not be administered to pregnant women. C. risk to the human fetus has been demonstrated; however, administration of the drug may outweigh the risk of potential adverse effects in certain circumstances. D. studies in animals have demonstrated adverse effects; however, studies have not been conducted in humans.
C. risk to the human fetus has been demonstrated; however, administration of the drug may outweigh the risk of potential adverse effects in certain circumstances.
The amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath is called: A. minute volume. B. inspiratory reserve. C. tidal volume. D. residual volume.
C. tidal volume.
When energy impacts a body structure it: A. causes a broad area of injury. B. penetrates the skin surface. C. translates into injury. D. dissipates locally.
C. translates into injury.
The general impression of your patient will allow you to obtain all of the following information EXCEPT for the: A. degree of breathing difficulty B. patient's gross mental status C. rate and regularity of the pulse D. presence of cyanosis or pallor
C. rate and regularity of the pulse
Which of the following statements regarding the nonrebreathing mask is incorrect? A. It delivers passive oxygen to the patient. B. It is of no benefit to an apneic patient. C. It can deliver an FiO 2 of up to 90%. D. It increases a patient's tidal volume
D. It increases a patient's tidal volume
What protective function does the Hering-Breuer reflex serve? A. It protects the abdominal organs when the diaphragm descends. B. It prevents collapse of the alveoli. C. It prevents atrophy of the respiratory muscles. D. It prevents overexpansion of the lungs.
D. It prevents overexpansion of the lungs.
What is the term used to describe the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of a drug? A. Pharmacology B. Pharmacodynamic s C. Pharmaceuticals D. Pharmacokinetics
D. Pharmacokinetics
Which of the following statements regarding medication administration in pediatric patients is correct? A. Infants and children have an inherently slower metabolic rate than adults, so they require larger doses of most medications. B. Most pediatric patients take several medications, which may interact with each other and produce negative physiologic effects. C. It is important to remember that the doses of all medications are based on a child's age rather than his or her weight and body mass. D. The products of metabolism in children can vary from those seen in adults, which may sometimes result in unexpected responses.
D. The products of metabolism in children can vary from those seen in adults, which may sometimes result in unexpected responses.
Tidal volume minus dead space volume is called: A. vital capacity. B. residual volume. C. minute volume. D. alveolar ventilation.
D. alveolar ventilation.
When ventilating an apneic adult patient with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen, you should: A. provide ventilations at a rate of 20 breaths/min. B. ensure that the abdomen rises during each ventilation. C. deliver greater tidal volume to reduce gastric distention. D. deliver just enough volume to produce visible chest rise.
D. deliver just enough volume to produce visible chest rise.
The narrowest portion of the adult's trachea is the: A. thyroid cartilage. B. cricoid ring. C. cricoid cartilage. D. glottic opening.
D. glottic opening.
Following the primary assessment, the MOST appropriate order to proceed when treating a responsive medical patient is: A. focused physical exam, history of present illness, baseline vital signs, SAMPLE history. B. SAMPLE history, baseline vital signs, focused physical exam, history of present illness. C. baseline vital signs, focused physical exam, SAMPLE history, history of present illness. D. history of present illness, SAMPLE history, focused physical exam, baseline vital signs.
D. history of present illness, SAMPLE history, focused physical exam, baseline vital signs.
Trending a critically-injured patient's vital signs will allow you to determine: A. whether or not a rapid head-to-toe assessment is indicated. B. whether or not transport to a trauma center is necessary. C. the underlying injuries that are making the patient unstable. D. if the patient's condition is stabilizing or deteriorating.
D. if the patient's condition is stabilizing or deteriorating.
The turbinates, which extend into the nasal passageway, function by: A. facilitating drying of the nasal mucosa and maintaining vascular dilation. B. decreasing the surface area of the anterior nasopharynx. C. protecting the nasal septum from injury and preventing it from deviating. D. improving filtration, warming, and humidification of inhaled air.
D. improving filtration, warming, and humidification of inhaled air.
A 50-year-old male has fallen from a significant height. He is conscious and alert, but is unable to feel or move both of his lower extremities. This is MOST likely the result of: A. a response to severe pain. B. local nerve injury. C. traumatic brain injury. D. injury to the spinal cord.
D. injury to the spinal cord.
When performing a rapid trauma assessment (rapid body scan), you will usually assess all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. cervical spinal vertebrae. B. position of the trachea. C. external jugular veins. D. mastoid process.
D. mastoid process.
Unresponsive patients MOST often experience airway obstructions from: A. coagulated blood or thick mucus in the mouth. B. loose dentures that fall back into the posterior pharynx. C. foreign bodies, such as food, that block the glottic opening. D. occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue.
D. occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue.
The measurement of the level of a solution's acidity is called: A. H + . B. OH - . C. H 2 CO 3 . D. pH.
D. pH.
The enhancement or action of one drug by another drug is called: A. summation. B. synergism. C. serum sickness. D. potentiation.
D. potentiation.
The nature of a patients illness is MOST often determined by: A. your general impression of the patient. B. asking a family member. C. repeated calls to the patients home. D. the patients chief complaint.
D. the patients chief complaint.
A stoma, located superior to the suprasternal notch, is the resultant orifice following a: A. thyroidectomy. B. cricothyrotomy. C. laryngectomy. D. tracheostomy.
D. tracheostomy.
The normal tidal volume, including dead space volume, in the average adult male is approximately: A. 350 mL B. 650 mL C. 800 mL D. 500 mL
D. 500 mL
Partial pressure is the term used to describe the amount of gas that is: A. in venous blood. B. exchanged in the lungs. C. in arterial blood. D. dissolved in fluid.
D. dissolved in fluid.
An adverse condition induced in a patient as a result of the treatment given is called a/an: A. side effect B. teratogenic response C. idiosyncrasy D. iatrogenic response
D. iatrogenic response
What do snoring respirations in an unconscious patient indicate? A. blood or other secretion in the upper airway B. spasm of the larynx and closure of the vocal cords C. severe upper airway obstruction from a foreign body D. partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue
D. partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue
