18 19 20 21 22 23 24 28 29

A venule becomes a vein when its diameter is greater than ____ micrometers.

100

An adult human kidney typically contains ______ renal pyramid(s).

8 to 15

Which structure is derived from the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity? A. Tunica vaginalis B. Perineal raphe C. Spermatic cord D. Tunica albuginea E. Mediastinum testis

A. Tunica vaginalis

Throughout childhood, primary oocytes are arrested in A. prophase I. B. anaphase I. C. prophase II. D. metaphase II. E. metaphase I.

A. prophase I.

ventricular contractions

According to the Frank-Starling law, as the volume of blood entering the heart increases, ____________ ____________ become more forceful

What part of a spermatozoon contains the nuclear material? A. Acrosome cap B. Head C. Midpiece D. Flagellum E. Tail

B. Head

During development, the __________ ducts form the female duct system. A. mesonephric B. paramesonephric C. metanephric D. parametanephric E. Wolffian

B. paramesonephric

Cleavage involves a series of ________ divisions and __________ in the overall size of the conceptus. A. meiotic; an increase B. meiotic; no change C. meiotic; a decrease D. mitotic; no change E. mitotic; an increase

D. mitotic; no change

What is the correct order for the phases of the ovarian cycle, beginning with day 1? A. Luteal, follicular, ovulation B. Follicular, luteal, ovulation C. Follicular, ovulation, luteal D. Ovulation, follicular, luteal E. Ovulation, luteal, follicular

C. Follicular, ovulation, luteal

At the 16-cell stage, the conceptus is known as a(n) A. trophoblast. B. blastocyst. C. embryoblast. D. morula. E. zygote.

D. morula.

True/False: Of the three artery types, the elastic arteries have the greatest ability to vasoconstrict and vasodilate.

False

True/False: The azygos vein is located on the left side of the vertebrae.

False

True/False; The great saphenous vein is a deep vein and the popliteal vein is a superficial vein.

False

True/False: The stomach needs the celiac artery blood supply in order to receive blood.

False??

Which path of arteries would a blood cell follow on its way from the thigh to the foot?

Femoral, popliteal, anterior tibial, dorsalis pedis

destruction, plasmin

Fibrinolysis involves ________ of the fibrin framework, and it involves the protein _______.

intestinal

Fluid collected in lacteals will be carried in __________ trunks.

b

Food is normally prevented from entering the nasopharynx by the a: elevation of the epiglottis. b: elevation of the soft palate. c: depression of the hard palate. d: closure of the nasal conchae. e: constriction of the esophagus.

e

Once a helper T-lymphocyte recognizes an antigen, it begins the immune response by secreting chemical signals called a: antibodies. b: immunoglobulins. c: memory B-lymphocytes. d: memory T-lymphocytes. e: cytokines.

b

Once an SA nodal cell reaches threshold, the depolarization phase occurs during which ----? a: potassium comes in through fast voltage-gated channels. b: calcium comes in through fast voltage-gated channels. c: potassium moves out through fast voltage-gated channels. d: sodium moves out through slow voltage-gated channels. e: calcium moves out through slow voltage-gated channels.

increase, SA nodal cells

Norepinephrine is considered a positive chronotropic agent because it causes an ________________ of the firing rate of ____________.

inadequate blood supply and damage to body tissues.

Occlusion of blood vessels tends to lead to ____________.

Bronchomediastinal trunks

Of the lymphatic trunks, which ones drain lymph from deep thoracic structures?

interferon

Often a virus-infected cell will release _________ to prevent spread of the infection.

liver, spleen

Old erythrocytes are phagocytized in the_____and____.

parietal; visceral

On each side of the chest, the _________ pleura lines the internal thoracic wall and the __________ pleura tightly covers the lung.

(T/F) Estrogen levels rise during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, and estrogen assists with the development of the dominant follicle.

TRUE

(T/F) FSH facilitates the development of a primary follicle, but estrogen released by a primary follicle inhibits production of GnRH, LH, and FSH.

TRUE

(T/F) Male embryos develop both Wolffian and Mullerian ducts, but only the Wolffian ducts remain in the male fetus.

TRUE

(T/F) Meiosis I is a reduction division.

TRUE

(T/F) Movement of the oocyte along the uterine tube is due to peristalsis and ciliary action.

TRUE

(T/F) Prior to puberty, the anterior pituitary does not release FSH and LH

TRUE

(T/F) The clitoris is homologous to the penis.

TRUE

(T/F) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone and estrogen.

TRUE

(T/F) The corpus luteum secretes the hormones estrogen and progesterone.

TRUE

(T/F) The dartos muscle is composed of smooth muscle; the cremaster muscle is composed of skeletal muscle.

TRUE

(T/F) The final products of the two meiotic divisions are four haploid daughter cells from an original diploid cell.

TRUE

(T/F) The ischiocavernosus muscle is located within the urogenital triangle

TRUE

b

Terminal bronchioles of the lower respiratory system are lined with a: keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. b: simple cuboidal epithelium. c: pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. d: stratified columnar epithelium. e: nonkeratinized stratified squamous.

platelets and leukocytes

The "buffy coat" in a centrifuged blood sample is composed of?

on the surface of the erythrocytes

The agglutinogens (or antigens) that determine the ABO and Rh blood types are found where?

alveolar type II cell

The alveolar cell that secretes pulmonary surfactant is the

inspiratory reserve volume

The amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inspiration is the

functional end arteries

The left and right coronary arteries are _________ ____ ________, because the blockage of one of them leads to tissue death in the area it supplies.

120

The life span of an erythrocyte is about _________ days.

True

True/False: Erythrocytes exhibit a limited lifespan due to their inability to synthesize the proteins necessary to repair themselves.

True

True/False: Immediately prior to atrial contraction, blood continues to enter the atria from the venae cavae and pulmonary veins.

True

True/False: Iron, lactic acid, and lipids are all considered to be nutrients in blood plasma.

True

True/False: It is the contraction of the atria during atrial systole that completes the filling of the ventricles while the ventricles are in diastole.

True

True/False: Like skeletal muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells have an absolute refractory period prior to repolarization.

True

True/False: Like veins, lymphatic vessels rely on skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps to help propel fluid through them.

True

True/False: Lymph contains protein.

False

True/False: Lymph contains red blood cells.

True

True/False: Macrophages are the converted monocytes that phagocytize bacteria, cell fragments, dead cells, and debris.

True

True/False: Most colony-stimulating factors are growth factors.

True

True/False: Mucous secretions of the respiratory tract include antimicrobial substances such as lysozyme and defensins.

True

True/False: Myofibrils within cardiac muscle cells are aligned in sarcomeres.

False

True/False: Natural killer cells derive from T-lymphoblasts and monocytes derive from the granulocyte line.

True

True/False: Nodal cells contain fast voltage-gated calcium channels.

True

True/False: Normally, the left and right ventricles eject the same amount of blood.

True

True/False: One of the functions of the lymphatic system is to transport fat.

True

True/False: One of the functions of the spleen is phagocytosis of bacteria in the blood.

True

True/False: Parasympathetic and sympathetic influence on heart rate is controlled by reflexes.

True

True/False: Parasympathetic innervation influences the heart rate, but generally tends to have no direct effect on the force of contractions.

True

True/False: Platelets are formed elements.

False

True/False: Platelets are roughly the same size as erythrocytes, and like erythrocytes, they eject their nucleus just before entering circulation.

True

True/False: Preload is the stretch of the heart wall as determined by the amount of blood returned by the veins.

False

True/False: Purkinje fibers are small fibers within the atria that conduct impulses rapidly.

True

True/False: SA nodal cells are autorhythmic.

True

True/False: Simply put, antibodies are molecules on the lookout for antigens.

True

True/False: The ABO and Rh blood types are inherited independently of each other.

True

True/False: The GM-CSF growth factor accelerates the formation of all granulocytes and monocytes from their progenitor cells.

False

True/False: The antigen-antibody reaction is an example of the regulation function of blood.

True

True/False: The appendix contains lymphatic nodules.

False

True/False: The atrial reflex relies upon chemoreceptors to detect stretch in the atrial wall.

False

True/False: The blood type of a person missing the surface antigen D is Rh-positive.

False

True/False: The central nervous system contains a dense network of lymphatic capillaries.

True

True/False: The cortex of a lymph node contains multiple lymphatic nodules.

True

True/False: The extrinsic pathway is a clotting system that is initiated by chemicals that come from outside the body.

True

True/False: The germinal center of a lymphatic nodule contains proliferating B-lymphocytes and macrophages.

False

True/False: The hearts nodal cells have a more negative resting potential than neurons do, because nodal cells lack leak channels for sodium and potassium ions.

True

True/False: The left ventricle walls are typically thicker than the right ventricular wall.

True

True/False: The main functions of the cardiovascular system include the transport and exchange of respiratory gases, nutrients, and wastes throughout the body.

True

True/False: The ossa coxae contain red marrow.

True

True/False: The pericardium helps prevent overfilling of the heart and it lessens the friction of movements during heartbeats.

True

True/False: The pulsing of arteries that are adjacent to lymphatic vessels provides a pressure on the vessels that helps them propel the lymph.

True

True/False: The receiving chambers of the heart are the atria, and the forcefully pumping chambers of the heart are the ventricles.

False

True/False: The spleen is considered a primary lymphatic structure.

False

True/False: The spleen is essentially a giant lymph node, because it is encapsulated, has trabeculae, and filters lymph to remove antigens.

False

True/False: The thymus gland begins to atrophy immediately after birth.

True

True/False: The walls of lymphatic capillaries are only one cell thick.

False

True/False: The walls of the smallest lymphatic vessels contain muscle tissue that rhythmically propels lymph through the system.

True

True/False: Though the autonomic innervation by autonomic centers in the brainstem cannot initiate a heartbeat, it can increase or decrease the heart rate.

True

True/False: Tonsils are secondary lymphatic structures.

True

True/False: Vascular spasm is triggered by blood vessel injury and further triggered by the release of serotonin.

False

True/False: When viewing a centrifuged blood sample, the erythrocytes will be on the top.

false

True/false For a relatively small injury, a platelet plug is formed within 1 minute.

The end of the aorta occurs when the vessel bifurcates into the ?

common iliac arteries

Higher pressure in the left atrium, which causes interatrial septum flaps to close, causes closure of the _________ _______ at birth.

foramen ovale

The hepatic portal system allows for the processing of nutrients and toxins absorbed from the _____________ system into the blood.

gastrointestinal

As a venous pathway moves closer to the heart, the veins ?

get larger

The thick tangle of capillary loops found within a corpuscle is known as the

glomerulus.

In both males and females, primary sex organs called _________________ produce the gametes.

gonads

When a cell's genetic content is designated as 1n, the cell is said to be _________.

haploid

Blood pressure in the glomerulus is _______ than in other capillaries due to the relatively large diameter of ________ arterioles.

higher; afferent

Normal urine has a specific gravity that is ________ than the specific gravity of pure water; dehydration leads to a __________ in the specific gravity of urine.

higher; increase

The myogenic response that occurs within afferent arterioles of the kidney is an __________ control of GFR.

intrinsic

Careful measurements of GFR are made by injection of _______, but approximations of GFR can be made more simply by measuring renal plasma clearance of _________.

inulin; creatinine

The popliteal artery supplies the

knee joint

The channels that convey milk from the mammary glands to the nipples are called __________ ducts.

lactiferous

After birth, the remnant of the umbilical vein becomes the

ligamentum teres.

The units for measurement of glomerular filtration rate are

liters per minute

Substances that are both filtered and reabsorbed have a renal plasma clearance that is _________ than the GFR.

lower

The nephron loop makes a hairpin turn within the ________ and its ________ limb ends at the distal convoluted tubule.

medulla; ascending

The uterine tubes are covered and suspended by a superior portion of the broad ligament called the _________________.

mesosalpinx

The first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is the

minor calyx.

Which of the artery types contain the internal and external elastic laminae?

muscular arteries

Net filtration pressure (NFP) is equal to the ?

net hydrostatic pressure minus the net colloid osmotic pressure

The umbilical cord contains _____ umbilical vein(s) and _____ umbilical artery(ies).

one; two

In response to low blood ________, the kidneys secrete __________.

oxygen; erythropoietin

Cortical nephrons have their corpuscles near the _________ edge of the cortex and are the ______ common type of nephron.

peripheral; more

Proteins that are recaptured from tubular fluid are transported into the luminal membrane by way of

pinocytosis

The basement membrane of the glomerulus is composed of glycoproteins and proteoglycans, and it restricts the passage of _________.

plasma proteins

The final stage of spermatogenesis, during which spermatids develop into mature sperm, is known as ___________.

spermiogenesis

Aldosterone is a steroid hormone that __________ synthesis of Na+/K+ pumps and Na+ channels in principal cells of kidney tubules.

stimulates

The _______________ cells support, nourish, and protect developing sperm cells.

sustentacular

The process that occurs during prophase I, during which tetrads are formed, is known as ________.

synapsis

The largest possible amount of a substance that can be reabsorbed or secreted across a kidney tubule wall in a given duration of time is known as the

transport maximum

The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the

transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum.

Fluid contained within the lumen of a nephron loop is called

tubular fluid

The active transport of solutes out of the blood and into the tubular fluid is called

tubular secretion

The ________ is composed of an endothelium and a subendothelial layer made up of a thin layer of areolar connective tissue.

tunica intima

In arteries, the thickest layer of the wall is the ?

tunica media

The ________ is composed of circularly arranged layers of smooth muscle cells.

tunica media

The ___________ transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

ureters

Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste product produced from nucleic acid breakdown in the liver?

uric acid

During fetal development, the vagina forms from the _________ sinus.

urogenital

A network of small arteries called the ___________ provides a blood supply to the tunica externa of very large vessels.

vasa vasorum

Angiotensin II causes ___________ decrease urine formation, and increased thirst.

vasoconstriction

venous return, inotropic agents, afterload

what are the three main factors influencing stroke volume?

If someone's blood pressure were listed as 125/75 mmHg, then their pulse pressure would be

50 mmHg

If someone's blood pressure were listed as 110/65 mmHg, then their mean arterial pressure (MAP) would be

80 mmHg

True/False: A vasodilator causes a decrease in local blood flow at a capillary bed.

False

True/False: Although local blood flow to different organs varies from time to time (based on demand), the distribution of blood vessels in the various organs of the body is fairly similar.

False

True/False: Filtration and reabsorption are processes that involve water (a solvent) but not solutes.

False

True/False: Increases in angiotensin II levels cause decreases in blood pressure.

False

Which carries blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava?

Hepatic veins

Several esophageal branches emerge off of which of the following vessels?

Left gastric artery

What branches arise directly from the celiac trunk?

Left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries

Which sequence indicates the correct pathway for blood in the arterial flow of the upper appendage?

Subclavian artery - axillary artery - brachial artery - ulnar artery

True/False: Angiogenesis allows for an increase in the perfusion of a local tissue.

True

True/False: Blood hydrostatic pressure in systemic capillaries is greater than interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure.

True

True/False: Epinephrine, aldosterone, and antidiuretic hormone each cause an increase in blood pressure.

True

True/False: Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure.

True

True/False: Pulmonary veins carry blood toward the left atrium of the heart.

True

True/False: Some large molecules, such as fatty acids, are transported between capillaries and tissues by vesicular transport.

True

True/False: The contraction of skeletal muscles plays an important role in the movement of blood in the veins.

True

True/False: The higher the degree of vascularization in a tissue, the greater the potential for local blood flow.

True

If someone were to decrease their food intake and increase aerobic exercise, they might lose adipose tissue and condition their muscles. These changes would also influence their blood vessels, as there would be ? a: regression of blood vessels in adipose tissue and angiogenesis in skeletal muscle. b: angiogenesis in both adipose tissue and skeletal muscle. c: regression of blood vessels in both adipose tissue and skeletal muscle. d: angiogenesis in adipose tissue and regression of blood vessels in skeletal muscle. e: changes in the diameter of blood vessels, but no angiogenesis nor regression.

a

Sinusoids are found in a: bone marrow b: spleen c: small intestine d: kidney e: liver f: muscle g: skin

a,b,e

The brachiocephalic veins are formed by the a: Internal jugular veins b: Right sigmoid sinus c: Left sigmoid sinus d: Subclavian veins e: Traight sinus

a,d

Which are found in the capillary wall? a: Endothelium b: Subendothelial layer c: Internal elastic lamina d: Intercellular clefts e: External elastic lamina f: Basement membrane

a,d,f

If someone suffered from hypertension, such that the blood pressure in their capillaries was elevated, then net filtration pressure would be _______ normal

above

Renin converts ______________ to _______________.

angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.

The anterior communicating artery of the cerebral arterial circle connects the

anterior cerebral arteries

Atherosclerosis involves a sustained increase in resistance that leads to increases in _______ _________ to maintain adequate ________ ________.

arterial pressure, blood flow

Systolic blood pressure is recorded in _________ (arteries/veins) and is the __________ (maximal/minimal) pressure that is recorded during ventricular contraction.

arteries, maximal

Which statement accurately compares filtration and reabsorption? a: Filtration is driven by concentration gradients, whereas reabsorption depends on hydrostatic pressure. b: Filtration involves bulk flow of fluid out of the blood, whereas reabsorption is bulk flow back into the blood. c: Filtration happens at the venule end of a capillary bed and reabsorption happens in feeder arterioles. d: The direction of filtration can be either into or out of the blood, but reabsorption always involves fluids entering the blood.

b

The artery that will eventually subdivide to form the posterior cerebral arteries is the _____ artery.

basilar

The _________ run(s) adjacent to the medial surface of the upper limb and eventually helps form the axillary vein.

basilic vein

The force per unit area that blood places on the inside wall of a blood vessel is called _______ ___________.

blood pressure

The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form ________ veins; all of these veins are _______ veins.

brachial, superficial

The superior vena cava is formed by the merging of the _______ veins.

brachiocephalic

The artery that bifurcates into the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery is the

brachiocephalic artery

Gas, nutrient, and waste exchange occur between the __________ and the tissues of the body.

capillaries

Total blood flow equals ________ _________ and can vary significantly over time with activity levels.

cardiac output

The cardiac center of the brainstem includes the _______________ ________, from which __________ pathways extend.

cardioacceleratory center, sympathetic

High carbon dioxide levels and low pH in blood of the carotid arteries will stimulate _______________ to activate the vasomotor center.

chemoreceptors

Blood velocity is measured in _________ and is generally _________ related to total cross-sectional area of blood vessels.

cm/sec, inversely

Precapillary sphincters will ?

control blood flow into true capillaries

As an arterial pathway moves farther from the heart, the arteries ?

get smaller

If someone were to have abnormally low levels of protein in their blood, then net filtration pressure would be ________ than normal

higher

Imagine yourself sitting in an awkward position in an uncomfortable chair that is depriving part of your leg from normal blood flow. This deprivation of adequate perfusion will result in the local changes of buildup of carbon dioxide and _________ ______ will cause vasodilation.

hydrogen ions

In general, as an artery's diameter decreases, the artery walls show an __________ in the relative amount of smooth muscle and a __________ in the relative amount of elastic fibers.

increase, decrease

Increased cardiac output ______ the blood pressure.

increases

During exercise, blood flow to skeletal muscles increases, blood flow to coronary vessels ___________ and flow to abdominal organs ____________.

increases, decreases

The respiratory pump assists blood movement within the veins of the trunk, because as a person inspires, the intra-abdominal pressure__________ and intrathoracic pressure __________

increases, decreases

The left renal vein, right renal vein, right suprarenal vein, and right gonadal vein merge directly into the

inferior vena cava.

Imagine someone who drank too much water before running a race. Their very watery blood would have ______ viscosity and ______ resistance

low, low

Tendons and ligaments have a______ degree of vascularization, therefore _____ __________ and ______ healing.

low, low perfusion, slow

Pulmonary arteries are wider than systemic arteries. Therefore, pulmonary circuit blood pressure is ______ and blood flows very _______ through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange.

low, slowly

The branch of the external carotid that is responsible for supplying the teeth, gums, nasal cavity, and meninges is the _____ artery.

maxillary

At the bifurcation of the aorta in the pelvic region, the _______ artery arises to supply the sacrum and coccyx.

median sacral

Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide have ________ effects on blood pressure.

opposite

The femoral vein becomes the external iliac vein when it

passes above the inguinal ligament.

a blood vessel arrangement in which blood flows through two capillary beds before being sent back to the heart.

portal system

Blood flow is directly related to both ______ _______ and ___________.

pressure gradient, resistance

Blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to __________ in the blood that promote readsorption

proteins

The arteries that anastomose and form the two arterial arches in the palm are the _____ and _____ arteries.

radial, ulnar

Circulation to the spleen demonstrates a(n)__________, as one artery delivers blood and one vein drains the organ.

simple pathway

The velocity of blood flow through capillaries is______, which allows sufficient time for exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissues.

slow

Tissue damage can trigger local release of histamine, which can ___________ release of nitric oxide, a ____________.

stimulate, vasodilation

The internal thoracic artery will become the _________, which carries blood to the superior abdominal wall.

superior epigastric artery

The artery that arises from the descending aorta and is immediately inferior to the celiac trunk is the _____ artery.

superior mesenteric

Excitation of the vasomotor center results in increased ___________ activity and predominantly more ____________ than _____________.

sympathetic, vasoconstriction, vasodilation

Which part of the circulatory system holds the largest amount of blood?

systemic veins

To prevent excessive blood loss following tissue damage, local chemicals such as _____________ are released to trigger ___________________.

thromboxanes, vasoconstriction

At a capillary bed, a _____________ stimulates precapillary sphincters and __________ local blood flow.

vasoconstrictor, decreases

When physical exertion has ended and the body is at rest, veins demonstrate _________ so that they function as _______ __________.

vasodilation, blood reservoirs

Atrial natriuretic peptide stimulates ____________increased urine output, and therefore _________ decreased blood pressure.

vasodilation, decreased

Blood pressure is lowest in _______.

veins

Valves in veins cause ______ ________ ______ to go in only one direction.

venous blood flow

The vessels that supply the lower limbs are the ?

vertebral arteries??

Peripheral resistance is directly related to ________ _______ and inversely related to _______ ________.

vessel length, vessel radius

12-14 cm

How long is the average trachea?

4

How many globins (protein building blocks) are found in a single hemoglobin molecule?

3?

How many half-moon shaped, pocketlike cusps are found in each semilunar valve?

4

How many oxygen molecules may bind to a single molecule of hemoglobin?

c

"Complement" refers to a group of a: white blood cells. b: antibodies. c: plasma proteins. d: molecules on the surface of pathogenic microbes.

c

"Mad cow disease" (variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) is caused by a a: fungus. b: protozoan. c: prion. d: virus. e: bacterium.

a

A buildup of fluid in the lungs caused by pneumonia leads to an increase in the a: physiologic dead space. b: anatomic dead space. c: residual volume.

their values are very similar

A comparison of the clinical hematocrit and true hematocrit would indicate that__________________

a

A delayed response to a specific antigen is provided by a: adaptive immunity. b: innate immunity. c: inflammation.

negative inotropic agent

A drug that decreased calcium levels in a muscle cell and thereby lowered the number of crossbridges formed during the heart's contractions would be a ?

inhibits, increases

A fever __________(inhibits/increases) reproduction of bacteria and ___________ (increases/inhibits) CAMs on the endothelium of capillaries of lymph nodes.

b

A lymphatic capillary that picks up dietary lipids in the small intestine is called a(n) a: cisterna chyli. b: lacteal. c: afferent lymphatic vessel. d: trabeculum. e: efferent lymphatic vessel.

decreases; there is fluid retention in the interstitial space

A malnourished person might have abnormally low levels of plasma proteins. As a result, colloid osmotic pressure_______; there is ______ _______ in the interstitial space

b

A membrane attack complex is a protein grouping that a: triggers phagocytosis of a target cell by a nearby macrophage or neutrophil. b: forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis. c: links a pathogen to a red blood cell so that it is carried to the liver or spleen. d: stimulates basophils to attack a multicellular parasite in the body.

shorter

A secondary response to an infectious agent has a _______ latent phase than a primary response has.

c

A variety of lymphatic cells are involved in the immune response. Which is not part of the process? a: Production of antibodies b: Direct attack and destruction of foreign or abnormal agents c: Replication of antigens d: Formation of memory cells

smaller; nucleic acid within a protein capsid.

A virus is ______ than a bacterial cell, and a virus is composed of a _________________.

How many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

A. 1

The external genitalia do not become clearly differentiated until about week ____ of development. A. 6 B. 12 C. 20 D. 32 E. 38

A. 6

Which statement accurately describes the effects of oxytocin and prostaglandins on uterine contractions? A. Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction. B. Both oxytocin and prostaglandins inhibit uterine contraction. C. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions, but prostaglandins inhibit them. D. Prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions, but oxytocin inhibits them.

A. Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction.

Approximately when in development does the bilaminar germinal disc begins to form? A. Day 8 B. Day 32 C. Week 8 D. Week 24

A. Day 8

Where are spermatozoa stored until they are fully mature? A. Epididymis B. Rete testis C. Ductus deferens D. Seminiferous tubules E. Efferent ductules

A. Epididymis

What is the correct order for the phases of the uterine cycle, beginning with day 1? A. Menstrual - proliferative - secretory B. Proliferative - secretory - menstrual C. Secretory - proliferative - menstrual D. Menstrual - secretory - proliferative E. Proliferative - menstrual - secretory

A. Menstrual - proliferative - secretory

Which of the following is true? A. Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm. B. Seminal fluid is composed of semen and sperm. C. Sperm are composed of seminal fluid within a cell membrane. D. The three ingredients of ejaculate are sperm, semen, and prostate-specific antigen.

A. Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm.

Which gland secretes a fluid containing fructose? A. Seminal vesicle B. Bulbourethral gland C. Vestibular gland D. Prostate gland E. Urethral gland

A. Seminal vesicle

Cephalocaudal folding occurs because of the rapid growth of the A. amnion and embryonic disc. B. yolk sac.

A. amnion and embryonic disc.

The ejaculatory duct is formed by the A. ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle. B. ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland. C. ampulla and the distal portions of the bulbourethral glands. D. ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland and bulbourethral glands. E. ampulla and the prostatic urethra.

A. ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle.

In females, the genital tubercle forms the A. clitoris. B. vagina. C. labia majora. D. labia minora. E. uterus.

A. clitoris.

Although pregnancies are highly variable, morning sickness is most commonly experienced in the ________ trimester. A. first B. second C. third

A. first

The trimester during which an embryo becomes a fetus is the _________ trimester. A. first B. second C. third

A. first

The external os is the A. opening of the cervix into the vagina. B. inferior portion of the central cavity. C. bone that supports the uterus during pregnancy. D. uterine tube attachment site. E. primary suspensory ligament for the uterus.

A. opening of the cervix into the vagina.

The trophoblast is located at the A. periphery of the blastocyst. B. center of the blastocyst. C. periphery of the morula. D. center of the morula. E. center of the embryoblast.

A. periphery of the blastocyst.

Interphase occurs A. prior to meiosis. B. between meiosis I and meiosis II. C. between anaphase I and telophase I. D. between prophase I and prophase II. E. between telophase II and cytokinesis.

A. prior to meiosis.

The rete testis A. receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules. B. is the nerve plexus that supplies the testis. C. is a venous network that cools the arterial blood traveling to the testis. D. transports seminal fluid to the efferent ductules. E. is the site of spermiogenesis.

A. receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules.

In males, the labioscrotal swellings form the A. scrotum. B. scrotum and testes. C. scrotum and root of the penis. D. scrotum and dorsal side of the penis. E. scrotum and ventral side of the penis.

A. scrotum.

In pregnant women, the high levels of estrogen and progesterone secretion seem to lead to A. stronger nails and fuller hair. B. weaker nails and thinner hair.

A. stronger nails and fuller hair.

decreases

According to Boyle's law, the pressure of a gas _________ if the volume of its container increases.

globin

About 23% of the carbon dioxide in the blood is attached to the _______ portion of hemoglobin.

b

About 70% of the CO2 that diffuses into systemic capillaries a: directly dissolves in the plasma. b: combines with water to form carbonic acid, which then dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions. c: binds to hemoglobin. d: forms carbonic anhydrase, which combines carbonic acid and water to solubilize the CO2.

b

Activation of lymphocytes occurs in a: primary lymphatic structures. b: secondary lymphatic structures. c: tertiary lymphatic structures. d: effectors such as muscles and glands.

bronchodilation

Activation of sympathetic nerves that innervate lung tissue results in

b

Active immunity requires a: the transfer of antibodies from another individual. b: direct encounter with the antigen. c: that an active virus be used in a vaccine. d: that all immune responses to the pathogen result in symptoms of illness.

d

Agglutination of mismatched blood is a function of a: IgD, which is a dimer. b: IgD, which is a pentamer. c: IgM, which is a dimer. d: IgM, which is a pentamer.

a

Air flows out of the body during expiration because a: intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. b: intrapleural pressure is greater than intrapulmonary pressure. c: atmospheric pressure is greater than intrapulmonary pressure. d: intrapleural pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.

directly, inversely

Airflow is ________ related to the pressure gradient and __________ related to resistance.

a

Airway obstruction can lead to a: hypoventilation, which can cause a: hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. b: hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis. c: hypocapnia and hyperpnea. d: hypoxia and respiratory alkalosis. e: hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis.

Pontine respiratory center

Also known as the pneumotaxic center, this area allows for smooth transitions between inspiration and expiration.

secondary

Although they are not a site of lymphocyte formation, _________ lymphatic structures provide sites where immune responses are initiated.

polygonal

Alveoli abut each other, causing them to appear _________ in cross section.

right, more

An actively contracting muscle will cause local temperature to rise and will produce acidic molecules. Warmth and lower pH cause the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve to shift ______ reflecting that hemoglobin releases ______ oxygen.

meatus

An air passage (valley) beneath a turbinate within the nasal cavity is referred to as a

a

An autorhythmic heart cell is one in which _?_ a: action potentials fire spontaneoulsy. b: action potentials are stimulated by internal stores of acetylcholine. c: action potentials always occur at exactly the same frequency. d: all filaments contract and relax with a high degree of synchrony. e: action potentials are initiated by the autonomic nervous system.

b

An immunoglobulin is a(n) a: antibody, which is a white blood cell. b: antibody, which is a protein molecule. c: lymphocyte, which is a white blood cell. d: lymphocyte, which is a protein molecule. e: antigen, which is a cell receptor.

c

An increase in dead space results in a: increases in both alveolar and pulmonary ventilation. b: decreases in both alveolar and pulmonary ventilation. c: a decrease in alveolar ventilation but no change in pulmonary ventilation. d: an increase in alveolar ventilation but a decrease in pulmonary ventilation. e: a decrease in alveolar ventilation but an increase in pulmonary ventilation. f: an increase in alveolar ventilation but no change in pulmonary ventilation.

dilate

An increase in the partial pressure of CO2 causes bronchioles to

dilate, perfusion

An increase in the partial pressure of oxygen causes pulmonary arterioles to ________, thereby altering _______ to make gas exchange more efficient.

age, sex, altitude

An individual's hematocrit would vary with 1)_______2)_________3)___________

lymphatic nodule.

Another name for a lymphatic follicle is a

d

Antigen presentation involves the display of an antigen a: inside the cytoplasm of a B-lymphocyte. b: on the surface of a cell so that a B-lymphocyte can be exposed to it. c: inside the cytoplasm of a T-lymphocyte. d: on the surface of a cell so that a T-lymphocyte can be exposed to it.

b

Antigen-presenting cells are ________________, and they display antigens to both ________________ and ______________. a: immune cells; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes b: immune cells; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes c: any nucleated cell; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes d: any anucleate cell; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes e: any blood cell; helper B-lymphocytes; cytotoxic B-lymphocytes

b

Antigens are a: something made by a white blood cell to destroy a pathogen. b: something that an antibody or T-lymphocyte binds to. c: disorders involving overactive immune systems. d: membrane receptors on B-lymphocytes.

98%

Approximately what percent of the oxygen in blood is transported by the hemoglobin of erythrocytes?

b

As T-lymphocytes leave the thymus, they are a: naive and not yet competent. b: naive and immunocompetent. c: activated but not yet competent. d: activated and immunocompetent.

degranulates, ADP, thromboxane A2.

As a platelet plug forms at an injury site, platelets become activated and their cytosol ____________ as they release chemicals such as ______ and __________________.

a

As blood is pumped out of the heart and into the major arteries leaving the heart, it a: pushes against the semilunar valves and opens them. b: pushes against the semilunar valves and closes them. c: fills the cusps of the semilunar valves, causing them to expand and block the backflow of blood d: pushes against the atrioventricular valves and opens them. d: fills the cusps of the atrioventricular valve causing opening of the bicuspid and closure of the tricuspid.

a

As blood travels through a systemic capillary and exchanges gases with systemic cells, a: the partial pressure of oxygen in blood decreases as it goes from arterioles to venules. b: the partial pressure of oxygen in blood increases as it goes from arterioles to venules. c: the partial pressure of oxygen on blood remains the same as it goes from arterioles to venules.

b

As with action potentials in other types of cells, the repolarization of cardiac muscle cells involves the -? a: entrance of calcium through voltage-gated channels. b: exit of potassium through voltage-gated channels. c: entrance of sodium through voltage-gated channels. d: binding of ACh to ACh receptor. e: simultaneous closure of sodium channels and opening of calcium channels.

12

At rest, a normal person breathes about _____ times per minute.

delayed due to the cells being small and having few gap junctions.

At the AV node of the conduction system, the action potential is ----?

d

Atrial contraction occurs just before: a: isovolumetric relaxation. b: atrial relaxation and ventricular filling. c: ventricular ejection. d: isovolumetric contraction.

brainstem

The involuntary, rhythmic activities that deliver and remove respiratory gases are regulated in the

c

B-lymphocytes are a: antibody-producing red blood cells. b: platelets that are generated in the thymus. c: white blood cells that are generated in red bone marrow. d: immune system cells that are generated in the tonsils. e: blood cells found only in people with type B blood.

After childbirth, lochia lasts for A. 3-4 days. B. 2-3 weeks. C. 3-5 months.

B. 2-3 weeks.

A child has the same number of chromosomes as each of his parents. This is because the gametes that combined when that child was conceived each contained _____ chromosomes. A. 12 B. 23 C. 46 D. 92 E. 2

B. 23

The second trimester of a pregnancy includes months A. 2-5 B. 4-6 C. 5-7 D. 5-9

B. 4-6

Drugs that lead to birth defects in the formation of the limbs are most damaging when the conceptus is exposed to them during weeks A. 1-2 of development, before the placenta is fully formed. B. 4-8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development. C. 12-16 of development, when limbs have formed but are not fully mature. D. 24-28 of development, when plasticity of surrounding tissues has been lost.

B. 4-8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development.

corniculate, cuneiform, arytenoid

The larynx is supported by nine pieces of cartilage. Which cartilages occur in pairs?

What thin membrane, continuous with the epiblast layer, secretes fluid to bathe the embryo? A. Chorion B. Amnion C. Yolk sac D. Corona radiata

B. Amnion

myocardium

The layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle tissue is the ?

Which stage would you expect to take the longest time? A. Dilation stage of labor of a parous woman B. Dilation stage of labor of a nulliparous woman C. Expulsion stage of labor of a parous woman D. Expulsion stage of labor of a nulliparous woman

B. Dilation stage of labor of a nulliparous woman

Which structure develops directly into a bilaminar germinal disc? A. Trophoblast B. Embryoblast C. Morula D. Cytotrophoblast

B. Embryoblast

Ovulation is induced by a peak in the secretion of A. inhibin. B. LH. C. ovulin. D. estrogen. E. progesterone.

B. LH.

The expression of the ________ gene results in the production of proteins that stimulate synthesis of androgens that initiate development of a male phenotype. A. MDF B. SRY C. GRH D. YXP

B. SRY

What is expelled during the expulsion stage of labor? A. Colostrum B. The fetus C. The placenta and remaining fetal membranes D. Only amniotic fluid

B. The fetus

Which is not a uterine function? A. Protection and support of developing embryo B. Usual site of fertilization C. Site of implantation D. Muscle contraction for labor and delivery E. Passageway for sperm

B. Usual site of fertilization

What fibromuscular structure is about 10 centimeters long and serves as the birth canal? A. Fallopian tube B. Vagina C. Uterus D. Isthmus

B. Vagina

Which structure is an important site for early blood cell formation and is the first of the extraembryonic membranes to form? A. Amnion B. Yolk sac C. Chorion D. Zona pellucida

B. Yolk sac

Menarche is A. the first four days of menstruation. B. a female's first menstrual cycle. C. the stage immediately preceding menopause. D. marked by a dramatic decline in androgen secretion. E. the final phase of the uterine cycle.

B. a female's first menstrual cycle.

The uterine enlargement that occurs during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy is mostly the result of A. growth of the conceptus from a zygote to a fetus. B. amniotic fluid production as well as growth of uterine muscle and the placenta

B. amniotic fluid production as well as growth of uterine muscle and the placenta

Fertilization typically occurs in the _________, and it restores the _________ number of chromosomes. A. ampulla of the uterine tube; haploid B. ampulla of the uterine tube; diploid C. body of the uterus; polyploid D. isthmus of the uterine tube; haploid E. isthmus of the uterine tube; polyploid

B. ampulla of the uterine tube; diploid

The structures of the male reproductive tract are a: ductus deferens b: urethra c: epididymis d: ejaculatory duct e: ampulla What is the order in which sperm passes through these structures from the testes to the penis? A. a, b, c, e, d B. c, a, e, d, b C. a, c, e, b, d D. c, a, b, d, e E. d, a, c, e, b

B. c, a, e, d, b

The outermost extraembryonic membrane that eventually helps form the placenta is the A. amnion. B. chorion. C. yolk sac. D. hypoblast.

B. chorion.

The fingerlike structures of the placenta that form from its fetal portion are known as A. amniotic villi. B. chorionic villi. C. amniotic stalks. D. chorionic stalks.

B. chorionic villi.

Blood type is an example of a trait that demonstrates A. strict Mendelian inheritance. B. codominant inheritance. C. incomplete dominance. D. polygenic dominance. E. sex-linked recessiveness. B

B. codominant inheritance.

After delivering a child, the levels of CRH in the mother's blood A. increase. B. decrease. C. remain the same.

B. decrease.

Upon a newborn's first breath, pulmonary arterioles A. constrict. B. dilate.

B. dilate.

A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes is A. polyploid. B. diploid. C. haploid. D. monoid.

B. diploid.

In nonpregnant women, ____________ inhibits secretion of substantial amounts of prolactin. A. GnRH B. dopamine C. estrogen D. progesterone

B. dopamine

Braxton-Hicks contractions are those that occur A. during premature labor. B. during false labor. C. during true labor. D. in smooth muscle near the uterus. E. with the most painful intensity.

B. during false labor.

Gastrulation results in the formation of a(n) A. morula. B. embryo. C. blastocyst. D. trophoblast. E. umbilical cord.

B. embryo.

The primary germ layer that takes the place of the hypoblast is the A. mesoderm. B. endoderm. C. centroderm. D. chorion. E. trophoblast.

B. endoderm.

During the excitement phase of the female sexual response, the uterus shifts to a more _________ position. A. anteverted B. erect

B. erect

Inhibin is secreted by A. uterine lining cells, and it inhibits development of ovarian follicles. B. follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production. C. the anterior pituitary, and it inhibits GnRH production. D. the posterior pituitary, and it inhibits ovulation. E. hypothalamic cells, and it inhibits LH production.

B. follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production.

Capacitation lasts several ________ and involves removal of ___________. A. seconds; lipids from the surface of the egg B. hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm C. days; carbohydrates from the surface of the egg D. weeks; glycolipids from the surface of the sperm

B. hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm

The hormone that signals that fertilization and implantation have taken place is A. pluripotent prolactin. B. human chorionic gonadotropin. C. gonadotropin releasing hormone. D. progesterone. E. pre-embryonic pellucida factor.

B. human chorionic gonadotropin.

One reason that pregnant women's metabolic rates change is that the placenta secretes A. human chorionic gonadotropin, which stimulates metabolism of glucose and raises metabolic rate. B. human chorionic thyrotropin, which stimulates the thyroid gland and raises metabolic rate. C. human placental lactogen, which stimulates glycolysis and raises metabolic rate. D. human chorionic somatomammotropin, which inhibits fatty acid metabolism and lowers metabolic rate. E. prolactin, which lowers metabolic rate so that nutrients can be stored in milk.

B. human chorionic thyrotropin, which stimulates the thyroid gland and raises metabolic rate.

As the fetus develops, the mother's glomerular filtration rate A. increases by about 10%. B. increases by about 40%. C. decreases by about 10%. D. decreases by about 40%.

B. increases by about 40%.

Hormonal and neural changes during pregnancy function to facilitate diffusion of gases across the placenta. One way this occurs is by _________ respiration rate, thereby __________ CO2 levels in the blood. A. increasing; raising B. increasing; lowering C. decreasing; raising D. decreasing; lowering

B. increasing; lowering

During pregnancy, estrogen and progesterone from the placenta A. stimulate FSH and LH secretion and thereby stimulate ovarian follicle development. B. inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development. C. stimulate GnRH secretion and thereby inhibit overgrowth of the uterus. D. inhibit release of corticotropin-releasing hormone and thereby prevent excessive stress responses.

B. inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development.

In men, LH stimulates A. hypothalamic cells to secrete GnRH. B. interstitial cells to secrete testosterone. C. anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH. D. sustentacular cells to secrete testosterone. E. spermatogenic cells to secrete ABP.

B. interstitial cells to secrete testosterone.

When epiblast cells travel through the primitive streak and underneath the epiblast layer, that movement is described as A. capacitation. B. invagination. C. chemotaxation. D. cleavage.

B. invagination.

Pain from false labor contractions tends to be more localized to the __________ abdomen than that experienced from contractions of true labor. A. upper B. lower

B. lower

When comparing gamete production in males and females, males produce A. more gametes that are larger in size. B. more gametes that are smaller in size. C. fewer gametes that are larger in size. D. fewer gametes that are smaller in size.

B. more gametes that are smaller in size.

Typically, at the moment a full-term baby is born, the child's lungs are A. fully inflated due to practice respiratory movements in the womb. B. not fully inflated, but they will inflate within about ten seconds. C. not fully inflated, and will not inflate fully for ten days, when surfactant production begins.

B. not fully inflated, but they will inflate within about ten seconds.

Release of breast milk occurs when the hormone __________ stimulates _________ cells to contract. A. prolactin; mechanoreceptor B. oxytocin; myoepithelial C. estrogen; areolar D. prolactin; mammary acini E. oxytocin; suspensory

B. oxytocin; myoepithelial

Someone with the genotype associated with hereditary pancreatitis might not show symptoms of the disorder because the disorder does not have a _________ level of 100%. A. dominance B. penetrance C. polygenicity D. homozygous E. sex-linkage

B. penetrance

During orgasm, the ductus deferens undergoes A. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder relaxes. B. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts. C. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter contracts. D. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter becomes engorged with blood.

B. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts.

In a female infant, the ovaries contain A. primordial oocytes within primordial follicles. B. primary oocytes within primordial follicles. C. primordial oocytes within secondary follicles. D. primary oocytes within corpora lutea. E. primordial oocytes within corpora albicans.

B. primary oocytes within primordial follicles.

Growth of the functional layer and prevention of menstruation during pregnancy are brought about by secretion of A. relaxin. B. progesterone. C. cortisol. D. human chorionic thyrotropin. E. human placental lactogen.

B. progesterone.

The anterior border to the perineum is the A. anus. B. pubic symphysis. C. ischial tuberosity. D. bulbospongiosus muscle.

B. pubic symphysis.

The ridge that is visible externally along the midline of the scrotum is called the A. septum. B. raphe. C. perineum. D. tunica albuginea. E. scrotal cord.

B. raphe.

The changes that occur in a woman's body at menopause are due to A. atrophy of the thermoregulatory center of the hypothalamus. B. reduced levels of estrogen and progesterone. C. increased production of androgens by the adrenal gland. D. depletion of oocyte supply. E. fluid retention that disrupts the osmotic balance of the body.

B. reduced levels of estrogen and progesterone

The male homologue to the labia majora is the A. testis. B. scrotum. C. penis. D. bulbourethral gland. E. prostate gland.

B. scrotum.

Although pregnancy sometimes results in frequent urination, the one trimester when this tends to be not as problematic is the A. first. B. second. C. third.

B. second.

Although the length of the menstrual cycle varies between women, menstruation consistently occurs 14 days after ovulation, and thus the _________ phase is constant in length. A. follicular B. secretory C. proliferative D. menstrual

B. secretory

Sperm are produced in the A. rete testis. B. seminiferous tubules. C. epididymis. D. seminal vesicles. E. efferent ductules.

B. seminiferous tubules.

Although the lining of the uterine tubes contains cilia and the lining of the uterus does not, the epithelium within both organs is categorized as A. pseudostratified columnar epithelium. B. simple columnar epithelium. C. nonkeratinized squamous epithelium. D. stratified cuboidal epithelium. E. simple cuboidal epithelium.

B. simple columnar epithelium.

A replicated chromosome consists of two identical structures known as A. centromeres. B. sister chromatids. C. telomeres. D. haploids. E. tetrads.

B. sister chromatids.

The outer layer of the trophoblast that burrows into the lining of the uterus is the A. embryoblast. B. syncytiotrophoblast. C. cytotrophoblast. D. morula. E. zona pellucida.

B. syncytiotrophoblast.

When homologous replicated chromosomes pair up during meiosis, they form a A. sister chromatid. B. tetrad. C. single-stranded chromosome. D. centromere.

B. tetrad.

A reduction division is one in which A. the chemical reactions of oxidation and reduction take place. B. the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had. C. one daughter cell is substantially reduced in size compared to the parent cell. D. the size of chromosomes is reduced from double-stranded to single-stranded.

B. the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had.

The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with A. ovulation. B. the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle. C. menstruation. D. the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. E. proliferation.

B. the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.

Cleavage occurs during A. the fetal period. B. the pre-embryonic period. C. organogenesis. D. the embryonic period. E. fertilization.

B. the pre-embryonic period.

By the 4th month of pregnancy, the fundus of the uterus is located inches below the ________ and by the ninth month it is located at the level of the ____________. A. urinary bladder; umbilicus B. umbilicus; xiphoid process C. diaphragm; laryngeal prominence D. pubic symphysis; heart

B. umbilicus; xiphoid process

Implantation usually begins at about the end of the first ________ of development. A. day B. week C. month D. trimester

B. week

Teratogens are most damaging to organ systems if exposure to them occurs A. early in pre-embryonic development. B. when the organ systems are undergoing peak development in the embryo. C. in the fetal period, after systems have formed but have not completed maturation.

B. when the organ systems are undergoing peak development in the embryo.

Imagine a patient who loses lots of blood and therefore has less stretch of their aorta with each heartbeat. The reflex that results is that _________ decrease firing, the cardioacceleratory center _________ firing, and ______ ______ will exhibit a compensatory increase.

Baroreceptors, increases, cardiac output

(Short answer essay): Someone born with an inherited condition known as adrenal hyperplasia might have two X chromosomes but genitalia that resemble those of a male. Explain the effects on the individual's phenotypic and genotypic sex.

Because a genetic mutation led to excessive production of androgens in the fetus, the individual's genetic sex is female, but the individual's phenotypic sex could be considered ambiguous or male.

veins

Because lymphatic vessels have three tunics (intima, media, and externa) and valves, they structurally resemble - ?

c

Because oxygen has a low solubility coefficient in water, a: it is easily dissolved in water and requires only a slight partial pressure gradient to enter the water. b: it is easily dissolved in water and the partial pressure gradient is irrelevant to its solubilty. c: it is not easily dissolved in water and requires a steep partial pressure gradient to enter the water. d: it is impossible to dissolve oxygen into water unless the partial pressure gradient is very minor.

iron ions, antibodies

Beta-globulins transport ________, whereas gamma-globulins are ________.

tissue

Blood is correctly classified as a(n) _____________.

a

Blood moves into and then out of a heart chamber because: a: it moves along its pressure gradient, and that gradient depends on contraction and relaxation during the cardiac cycle. b: it is under constant pressure, but its movement is dictated by the control of valve openings and closures. c: the veins and arteries constrict and dilate to propel and attract blood. d: All of the choices are correct.

basic, proteins

Blood plasma is slightly _______; if pH drifts out of the normal range, dire consequences can result from alterations in the structure of _______ .

somatic

Breathing muscles such as the diaphragm are controlled by neurons of the _________ nervous system.

oxygenated

Bronchial arteries carry _________ blood to the tissues of the lung.

Ovulation typically occurs on day 14 of the ovarian cycle, and the luteal phase occurs on days A. 1-5. B. 6-14. C. 15-28. D. 8-18.

C. 15-28.

What is the approximate duration of the fetal period of development? A. 4 weeks B. 12 weeks C. 29 weeks D. 39 weeks

C. 29 weeks

These tubuloalveolar glands produce a clear, viscous mucin that serves as a lubricant during sexual intercourse. A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate glands C. Bulbourethral glands D. Areolar glands

C. Bulbourethral glands

What is the correct order of structures through which the sperm penetrates during fertilization? A. Corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida B. Zona pellucida, corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane C. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane D. Zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata

C. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane

The acrosome cap contains A. testosterone. B. nutrients to sustain the sperm. C. enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte. D. mitochondria to provide energy for movement. E. buffers to neutralize the acidity of the female reproductive tract.

C. enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte.

Which type of ovarian follicle contains a secondary oocyte? A. Secondary follicle B. Primary follicle C. Mature follicle D. Primordial follicle E. Polar follicle

C. Mature follicle

Which cord or sheet of connective tissue attaches to the ovary at the hilum? A. Suspensory ligament B. Ovarian ligament C. Mesovarium D. Broad ligament E. Round ligament

C. Mesovarium

Which choice best distinguishes between mitosis and meiosis? A. Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell. B. Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. C. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell. D. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.

C. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.

Which of the male accessory glands encircles the urethra? A. Seminal vesicle B. Bulbourethral gland C. Prostate gland D. Cowper's gland E. Urethral gland

C. Prostate gland

Which of these male reproductive structures is unpaired (meaning there is only one in the body)? A. Epididymis B. Bulbourethral gland C. Prostate gland D. Seminal vesicle E. Corpus cavernosum

C. Prostate gland

The stages that appear during spermatogenesis are a: spermatid b: primary spermatocyte c: spermatogonium d: spermatozoon e: secondary spermatocyte What is the correct order of appearance of these stages? A. b, e, c, d, a B. c, e, d, a, b C. c, b, e, a, d D. a, c, b, e, d E. d, b, c, e, a

C. c, b, e, a, d

What structures fuse during female development to form the uterus? A. The superior ends of the mesonephric ducts B. The anterior ends of the Wolffian ducts C. The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts D. The posterior ends of the gubernaculum

C. The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts

The secretory structures that produce milk in a lactating female are the A. lactiferous sinuses. B. lactiferous ducts. C. alveoli. D. areolar glands. E. Bartholin glands.

C. alveoli.

The primary target cells for GnRH are located in the A. hypothalamus. B. gonads. C. anterior pituitary gland. D. adrenal gland. E. genitals.

C. anterior pituitary gland.

Changes in the size of the uterus during pregnancy are due to A. hypertrophy but not hyperplasia. B. hyperplasia but not hypertrophy. C. both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

C. both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

During pregnancy, the mother's A. cardiac output and hematocrit rise. B. cardiac output and hematocrit fall. C. cardiac output rises and hematocrit falls. D. cardiac output falls and hematocrit rises.

C. cardiac output rises and hematocrit falls.

Edema and varicose veins in the lower extremities sometimes develop in the third trimester of a pregnancy due to A. decreased cardiac output. B. elevated blood pressure. C. compression of abdominal blood vessels. D. elevated hematocrit.

C. compression of abdominal blood vessels.

The process by which double-stranded, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is known as A. crossing over, and it occurs in interphase. B. crossing over, and it occurs in mitosis. C. crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis. D. interphase, and it occurs in meiosis. E. interphase, and it occurs in mitosis.

C. crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis.

Neurulation is the development of the nervous system from the A. endoderm. B. mesoderm. C. ectoderm. D. hypoderm.

C. ectoderm.

The third through eighth weeks of development are known as the ___________ period. A. fetal B. pre-embryonic C. embryonic D. cleavage

C. embryonic

Fimbriae A. are extensions of the ovarian ligament. B. line the ampulla of the uterine tube. C. enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation. D. are sloughed off during menstruation. E. assist in the movement of sperm through the female reproductive tract.

C. enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation.

The portion of the uterine wall that includes the basal layer is the A. myometrium. B. perimetrium. C. endometrium. D. serosa. E. muscularis.

C. endometrium.

Fetal alcohol syndrome involves a disorder that alters the A. sequence of base pairs in the genes of the fetus. B. structural integrity of the chromosomes of the fetus. C. expression of genes in the fetus. D. gametes of the fetus.

C. expression of genes in the fetus.

Postpartum, estrogen and progesterone levels A. rise steeply. B. rise gradually. C. fall steeply. D. fall gradually.

C. fall steeply.

The maternal portion of the placenta arises from the A. amnion. B. ectoderm. C. functional layer of the uterus. D. germinal disc. E. myometrium.

C. functional layer of the uterus.

The external urethral orifice is found at the _________ of the penis. A. bulb B. crus C. glans D. corpus cavernosum E. body

C. glans

The process by which a blastocyst embeds within the uterine endometrium is known as A. cleavage. B. morulation. C. implantation. D. capacitation. E. the acrosome reaction.

C. implantation.

Braxton-Hicks contractions tend to be A. regular and increasingly frequent as time passes. B. increasingly intense as time passes. C. irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes. D. regular in timing but relatively weak.

C. irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes.

The display of chromosome pairs arranged by size and similar features is known as the A. genotype. B. Punnet square. C. karyotype. D. heredity gel.

C. karyotype.

Increases in weight of the conceptus are largest during the _________ two months of pregnancy. A. first B. middle C. last

C. last

Compared to breast milk, colostrum contains A. more fat and more immunoglobulins. B. more fat but less immunoglobulins. C. less fat but more immunoglobulins. D. less fat and less immunoglobulins.

C. less fat but more immunoglobulins.

Ovulation occurs when an oocyte is released from a ruptured _____ follicle. A. secondary B. primary C. mature D. primordial E. oogonial

C. mature

During pregnancy, a woman's areolae and nipples become darker under the influence of A. melanin from the pineal gland. B. vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland. C. melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta. D. estrogen and progesterone from the ovary.

C. melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta.

The structure of the mesoderm that induces formation of the neural tube is the A. head mesenchyme. B. amnion. C. notochord. D. paraxial mesoderm.

C. notochord.

The posterior pituitary hormone that is crucial for milk ejection is A. LH. B. GnRH. C. oxytocin. D. prolactin. E. progesterone.

C. oxytocin.

The beginning of labor involves increased production of ________ from the fetal hypothalamus, resulting in secretion of _________ by the placenta. A. GnRH; prolactin B. prolactin; oxytocin C. oxytocin; prostaglandins D. prostaglandin; prolactin E. prolactin; GnRH

C. oxytocin; prostaglandins

The ___________ nervous system facilitates increased blood flow to the penis by facilitating local release of __________. A. sympathetic, nitric oxide B. sympathetic, norepinephrine C. parasympathetic, nitric oxide D. parasympathetic, norepinephrine E. somatic, acetylcholine

C. parasympathetic, nitric oxide

The appearance of the external genitalia determines an individual's A. gender identity. B. genetic sex. C. phenotypic sex. D. genotypic sex.

C. phenotypic sex.

The function of the dartos and cremaster muscles is to A. attach the penis to the body wall. B. produce erections. C. regulate the temperature of the testes. D. help the testes descend into the scrotum prior to birth. E. move sperm along the ductus deferens.

C. regulate the temperature of the testes.

After ovulation, the oocyte A. waits passively for a sperm to penetrate. B. releases negative ions that create an electrical gradient that all sperm swim toward. C. releases chemotaxic signals to attract sperm to its location. D. propels itself toward seminal fluid by calcium-dependent kinesis.

C. releases chemotaxic signals to attract sperm to its location.

The interstitial cells in the testes A. undergo mitosis to produce primary spermatocytes. B. support and protect the developing sperm cells. C. secrete testosterone. D. convert fructose to glucose to nourish the sperm. E. form the lining of the seminiferous tubules.

C. secrete testosterone.

At the start of gastrulation, a long, thin depression known as the primitive __________ forms on the surface of the epiblast. A. furrow B. node C. streak D. groove E. yolk

C. streak

Anti-Mullerian hormone is sectreted by A. ovarian follicular cells. B. primary spermatocytes. C. sustentacular cells. D. interstitial cells. E. paramesonephric cells.

C. sustentacular cells.

Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted from cells of the A. morula. B. embryoblast. C. syncytiotrophoblast. D. zygote.

C. syncytiotrophoblast.

The pre-embryonic period ends when A. a morula is formed. B. the zygote undergoes cleavage. C. the blastocyst implants in the uterus. D. the morula develops a trophoblast.

C. the blastocyst implants in the uterus.

A secondary oocyte arrests in A. prophase I. B. anaphase II. C. prophase II. D. metaphase II. E. metaphase I.

D. metaphase II.

During menopause, the vaginal wall becomes ________, and hormonal changes lead to ________ risk of heart disease. A. thicker; increased B. thicker; decreased C. thinner; increased D. thinner; decreased

C. thinner; increased

The process that involves the fusion of the two sides of the embryonic disc at a newly formed midline, thereby creating a cylindrical embryo is __________ folding. A. invagination B. cephalocaudal C. transverse D. amphiamniotic E. coronal

C. transverse

d

Dendritic cells of the skin are derived from a: macrophages. b: B-lymphocytes. c: T-lymphocytes. d: monocytes. e: neutrophils.

heart rate multiplied by stroke volume

Cardiac output equals the

by a single ventricle in one minute

Cardiac output is the amount of blood that is pumped

liters per minute

Cardiac output is usually expressed in

b

Cardiac reserve is a: the potential increase in stroke volume someone would show if they engaged in athletic training. b: the increase in cardiac output an individual is capable of demonstrating during vigorous exercise. c: the amount of blood left in the heart after the ventricle has contracted during cardiac cycles at rest. d: the blood that the heart uses to nourish its cardiac muscle and does not put into general circulation.

b

Chemotaxis is the process by which a: CAMs on leukocytes adhere to CAMs on endothelial cells of capillaries within injured tissues. b: cells migrate along chemical gradients. c: cells exit the blood by squeezing out between cells in the blood vessel wall. d: chemical messengers are secreted that stimulate the sensation of pain that accompanies inflammation.

a

Compared to its partial pressure at sea level, what would be the partial pressure of oxygen at an altitude with an atmospheric pressure of only 380 mm Hg (recall that sea level atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg)? a: Po2 would be half as much as it would be at sea level. b: Po2 would be twice as much as it would be at sea level. c: Po2 would be one-fourth as much as it would be at sea level. d: Po2 would be three-quarters as much as it would be at sea level.

lower

Compared to its partial pressure in the atmosphere, oxygen's partial pressure in the alveoli is

when destruction of erythrocytes is more rapid than usual.

Congenital hemolytic anemia is___________?

b

Consuming meat that has been infected with a prion can lead to the disease a: trichomoniasis. b: bovine spongiform encephalopathy. c: clostridium tetani. d: histoplasmosis.

internal intercostals

Contraction of these muscles depresses the ribs, but only during forced exhalation.

relaxed

Coronary vessels are open when the heart is ?

d

Cytokines have a _____ half-life and exert influence on ________________. a: long; immune cells only. b: long; immune and non-immune cells. c: short; immune cells only. d: short; immune and non-immune cells.

a

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by a: increasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis. b: increasing the permeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis. c: decreasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis. d: decreasing the permeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis.

c

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by releasing a: antibodies. b: bradykinin and histamine. c: perforin and granzymes. d: CD4+.

e

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes that have killed a foreign cell may transform into a: memory B-lymphocytes. b: natural killer cells. c: plasma cells. d: helper T-lymphocytes. e: None of the choices is correct.

When a woman in her fifth decade of life is not pregnant and has stopped having menstrual cycles for _________, she is said to be in menopause. A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 1 year E. 18 months

D. 1 year

How many spermatozoa ultimately develop from each primary spermatocyte? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

D. 4

Which pathogen (within the mother) is most likely to be transmitted across the placenta? A. A multicellular parasite that is present during the first week of pregnancy B. A multicellular parasite that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy C. A blood-borne virus that is present during the first week of pregnancy D. A blood-borne virus that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

D. A blood-borne virus that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

Paramesonephric ducts degenerate when the hormone ________ is present. A. inhibin B. estrogen C. testosterone D. AMH E. TSH

D. AMH

What structure forms from the remnants of the follicle following ovulation? A. Corona radiata B. Zona pellucida C. Corpus albicans D. Corpus luteum E. Antrum

D. Corpus luteum

Which of the following is a thin layer of smooth muscle just beneath the skin of the scrotum? A. Raphe B. Cremaster C. Tunica vaginalis D. Dartos muscle E. Inguinal muscle

D. Dartos muscle

Which layer of the uterine wall is sloughed off during menstruation? A. Perimetrium B. Basal layer of endometrium C. Myometrium D. Functional layer of endometrium E. Epimetrium

D. Functional layer of endometrium

The process by which the three primary germ layers are formed during the third week of development is known as __________. A. morula. B. embryo. C. blastocyst. D. Gastrulation

D. Gastrulation

What is the correct order for the segments of the uterine tube, beginning at the ovary? A. Infundibulum - isthmus - ampulla - uterine part B. Uterine part - infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus C. Ampulla - infundibulum - uterine part - isthmus D. Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part E. Uterine part - isthmus - ampulla - infundibulum

D. Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part

Which part of the embryo develops into the kidneys? A. Endoderm B. Paraxial mesoderm C. Notochord D. Intermediate mesoderm

D. Intermediate mesoderm

Which of these structures contains sebaceous glands? A. Clitoris B. Vestibular bulb C. Mons pubis D. Labia minora E. Prepuce

D. Labia minora

Which does not provide structural support for the uterus? A. Round ligament B. Transverse cervical ligament C. Uterosacral ligament D. Uterine ligament E. Urogenital diaphragm

D. Uterine ligament

In males, the _________ region on the Y chromosome initiates male phenotypic development. A. HRT B. AMH C. TDF D. SRY E. BPH

D. SRY

Which is not true about spermatogenesis? A. The process includes two meiotic divisions. B. The final stage of the process is called spermiogenesis. C. Mature spermatozoa are haploid (n=23). D. Spermatogenesis begins at birth and continues throughout a man's life. E. The process takes place in the walls of the seminiferous tubules.

D. Spermatogenesis begins at birth and continues throughout a man's life.

Which is not correct regarding the ovaries? A. Each ovary has an outer cortex and an inner medulla. B. The ovaries are located lateral to the uterus. C. The ovarian artery and vein join the ovary at its hilum. D. The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium. E. The tunica albuginea is deep to the germinal epithelium.

D. The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium.

The normal site of fertilization is the A. vagina. B. body of the uterus. C. fundus of the uterus. D. ampulla of the uterine tube. E. uterine part of the uterine tube.

D. ampulla of the uterine tube.

Prolactin is secreted from the ________ gland, and its levels ___________ during pregnancy. A. hypothalamus; double B. mammary; double C. corpus luteum; increase tenfold D. anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

D. anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

An erection of the penis is caused by A. semen pressure from the testes and ductus deferens. B. muscle flexion of the penile muscles. C. increased secretions of lymph into the spongy tissue. D. blood filling the erectile bodies and compressing the veins. E. ejaculatory muscles.

D. blood filling the erectile bodies and compressing the veins.

The hypoblast layer of the blastodisc is made of A. columnar cells and forms during the morula stage. B. columnar cells and forms during gastrulation. C. cuboidal cells and forms during the fetal period. D. cuboidal cells and forms during the pre-embryonic period

D. cuboidal cells and forms during the pre-embryonic period

After childbirth, a woman's aldosterone levels ________ which results in _________ urine volume. A. increase; increased B. increase; decreased C. decrease; decreased D. decrease; increased

D. decrease; increased

When the process of meiosis is complete, the result is A. two daughter cells that are diploid. B. two daughter cells that are haploid. C. four daughter cells that are diploid. D. four daughter cells that are haploid.

D. four daughter cells that are haploid.

Puberty is initiated when a region of the brain begins secreting A. luteinizing hormone. B. estrogen or testosterone. C. follicle-stimulating hormone. D. gonadotropin-releasing hormone. E. androgens.

D. gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

The daughter cells that result from meiosis I are A. diploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes. B. diploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes. C. haploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes. D. haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.

D. haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.

The lateral margin of the uterine tube, which bears the fimbriae, is called the A. ampulla. B. fornix. C. isthmus. D. infundibulum. E. uterine part.

D. infundibulum.

Progesterone levels are highest during the ________ phase. A. menstrual B. proliferative C. follicular D. luteal E. ovulation

D. luteal

The hymen is located A. at the cervix. B. near the fundus of the uterus. C. at the superior end of the vagina. D. near the vaginal orifice. E. at the external urethral sphincter.

D. near the vaginal orifice.

In the late stages of pregnancy, estrogen stimulates increased A. release of hCG. B. secretion of atrial natriuretic factor by the heart. C. growth of the corpus luteum. D. production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus.

D. production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus.

Human somatic cells contain only one pair of A. chromosomes. B. autosomes. C. homologous chromosomes. D. sex chromosomes.

D. sex chromosomes.

Developing sperm cells are protected by a blood-testis barrier formed by A. connective tissue septa. B. interstitial spaces. C. Leydig cells. D. sustentacular cells. E. leukocytes.

D. sustentacular cells.

The perineum consists of an anterior A. ischial tuberosity and a posterior anal ellipse. B. urethral orifice and a posterior pubic crest. C. false pelvis and a posterior true pelvis. D. urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle. E. pubic quadralateral and a posterior anal rhombus.

D. urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle.

d

Defensins and lysosomes are both part of ________ immunity and function as ___________. a: adaptive; physical barriers to pathogen entry b: adaptive; attackers of pathogenic cells c: innate; physical barriers to pathogen entry d: innate; attackers of pathogenic cells

Which fetal circulatory structure shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta?

Ductus arteriosus

2

During a cardiac cycle, how many of the four chambers contract at any one time?

b

During expiration, relaxation of the diaphragm and external intercostals a: increases the volume of the thoracic cavity. b: increases the pressure in the thoracic cavity. c: expands the rib cage. d: flattens the floor of the thoracic cavity. e: stimulates the phrenic nerve.

collagen, von Willebrand

During platelet plug formation, platelets begin to stick to ___________, with the help of the ________________ factor.

a

During quiet expiration, a: thoracic cavity volume decreases. b: the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract. c: inspiratory neurons in the VRG spontaneously depolarize. d: air moves from the atmosphere to the alveoli.

c

During the S-T segment, what is occurring within cardiac muscle cells? a: Sodium is rapidly diffusing out of atrial muscle cells. b: Sodium channels are beginning to open in ventricular cells and calcium is entering through slow channels in atrial cells. c: Calcium is entering and potassium is leaving ventricular cells. d: Potassium is entering atrial cells and sodium is leaving ventricular cells.

a

During the plateau phase of a cardiac muscle cell's action potential, the membrane stays - ? a: depolarized as potassium exits and calcium enters. b: depolarized as potassium enters and calcium exits. c: repolarized as sodium enters and calcium exits. d: hyperpolarized as sodium and calcium exit. e: hyperpolarized as potassium enters and calcium exits.

e

During ventricular contraction: a: only the AV valves open. b: only the AV valves close. c: only the semilunar valves close. d: the semilunar valves close and the AV valves open. e: the semilunar valves open and the AV valves close.

The gonads A. are the male testes and female ovaries. B. secrete sex hormones. C. produce gametes. D. are dormant until puberty. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is not a component of seminal fluid? A. Prostaglandin B. Citric acid C. Mucous D. Seminalplasmin E. Calcium

E. Calcium

Which is not considered to be a change associated with aging in males? A. Erectile dysfunction B. Impotence C. Decreased testosterone levels D. Prostate enlargement E. Termination of spermatogenesis

E. Termination of spermatogenesis

Which is not part of the vulva? A. Mons pubis B. Clitoris C. Labia majora D. Labia minora E. Vagina

E. Vagina

Which structure is not found in both males and females? A. Glans B. Corpora cavernosa C. Tunica albuginea D. Prepuce E. Vestibular gland

E. Vestibular gland

Sister chromatids are pulled apart in A. prophase I. B. anaphase I. C. interphase. D. prophase II. E. anaphase II.

E. anaphase II.

Granular cells synthesize and release the enzyme

renin.

The volume of the antrum is largest in a __________ follicle. A. primary B. secondary C. primordial D. polar E. mature

E. mature

The myometrium of the uterus is composed of A. skeletal muscle. B. mucous membrane. C. fibrous connective tissue. D. loose connective tissue. E. smooth muscle.

E. smooth muscle.

bronchopulmonary segments.

Each lung consists of a number of segments called

right auricle

Each of the receiving chambers of the heart has a wrinkled flaplike extension; the one that is more visible from an anterior view is the ?

increase

Exposure to irritants causes mucus production to

(Essay Question) : Describe how internal reproductive structures develop. What genetic factors determine whether development proceeds in a male or female manner? What ducts are formed in male and female embryos and fetuses?

Expression of SRY from the Y chromosome causes Sertoli cells to secrete AMH, which leads to degeneration of the paramesonpheric ducts and continued development of Wolffian ducts to form the epididymis and ductus deferens. In the absence of SRY proteins, mesonephric ducts degenerate and paramesonephric ducts continue to develop helping to form the uterus and uterine tubes.

proplatelets

Extensions from megakaryocytes that extend through blood vessel walls in red marrow are sliced off from the cells by the force of blood flow. These extensions are ___________________.

d

Exudate is a: blood that escapes capillaries, passes beyond the skin and leaves the body. b: increased perfusion of capillary beds within the region of an injury. c: lymph that flows away from the heart and toward the site of an injury. d: fluid that leaves capillaries to "wash" the interstitial space of an injured tissue. e: clotting proteins that wall off microbes and prevent them from spreading through the bloodstream.

(T/F) Mitosis involves crossing over and the production of haploid daughter cells.

FALSE

(T/F) Production of new primary oocytes by mitosis continues throughout a woman's life.

FALSE

(T/F) Sperm begin to exhibit motility once they exit the seminiferous tubules.

FALSE

(T/F) The X and Y chromosomes are considered homologous autosomes.

FALSE

(T/F) The corpora cavernosa extend within the glans of the penis.

FALSE

(T/F) The testes are the male gametes.

FALSE

(T/F) Primary follicles form before birth.

FALSe

d

For the repolarization phase of an SA nodal cell action potential, a: sodium and potassium channels open. b: calcium channels open and sodium channels close. c: calcium and potassium channels close. d: calcium channels close and potassium channels open. e: sodium and chloride channels open.

a

Foreign particles a: are more likely to lodge in the right primary bronchus. b: are more likely to lodge in the left primary bronchus. c: lodge equally often in each of the two primary bronchi.

c

Foreign particles that are not filtered out by the respiratory epithelium are a: dissolved by enzymes in the alveoli. b: coughed up during normal daily activities. c: collected by lymph nodes. d: carried away in blood. e: stored in nearby pulmonary alcoves.

posterior

From which view is the connection between the pulmonary veins and the heart most visible?

a

Fungi are a: eukaryotic cells with a cell wall. b: prokaryotic cells. c: multicellular parasites that reside within a host. d: protozoans lacking a cell wall. e: viruses that are fragments of infectious proteins.

polar molecule; dissolves in plasma

Glucose is a_____________(polar/nonpolar molecule) and it __________________(dissolves/does not dissolve in plasma).

c

Helper T-lymphocytes are also known as a: cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. b: CD8+ cells. c: CD4+ cells. d: T8 cells. e: memory T-lymphocytes.

low

Hemoglobin is crucial for oxygen transport in the blood because oxygen has a _______ solubility coefficient in water.

a

If T-lymphocytes that failed the negative selection test were not destroyed, the immune system would likely a: cause autoimmune disorders. b: exhibit very delayed activity. c: be unable to recognize a particular class of pathogen. d: exhibit more negative membrane potentials.

decrease

If a patient becomes dehydrated, the percentage of plasma in a centrifuged sample of his or her blood would likely__________________.

the wrong blood type was used

If agglutination occurs after a blood transfusion, it may indicate_____________.

B

If someone at sea level is given pure oxygen to breathe, it would cause the oxygen saturation of their hemoglobin A: to increase by more than double. B: to increase by only a tiny amount. C: to decrease due to uncooperative binding.

c

If someone had a cut in their skin through which a bacterium entered, but that bacterium was then destroyed by a neutrophil, this would be an example of a: failed external adaptive immunity, but successful innate immunity. b: failed innate immunity, but successful adaptive immunity. c: failed external innate immunity, but successful internal innate immunity. d: failed external immunity, but successful internal acquired immunity.

b

IgA is primarily found a: in blood. b: in external secretions such as tears, saliva, and mucus. c: in lymph. d: on the surface of B-lymphocytes. e: in the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes.

b

Immunity can be transferred from mother to child. When the child's immunity is acquired a: through the placenta, it is passive immunity, but through breastmilk it is active immunity. b: through the placenta or through breastmilk, it is passive immunity. c: through the placenta or through breastmilk, it is active immunity. d: through the placenta, it is active immunity, but through the breastmilk it is passive immunity.

c

In addition to oxygen, hemoglobin also transports a: carbonic acid and bicarbonate ions. b: calcium and carbon dioxide. c: carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions. d: iron and albumin.

repolarization of the ventricles

In an ECG, what does the T wave represent?

atria depolarize

In an EKG, the P wave is generated when the -?

10 weeks

In fetal development, hemocytoblasts begin to colonize red mone marrow at approximately ?

myeloid

In hemopoiesis, granulocytes such as neutrophils are formed from the _________ line.

decreased in number and less efficient

In many of the elderly, leukocytes appear to be ?

b

In positive selection of T-lymphocytes, those cells that a: bind self antigens are eliminated. b: can bind MHC survive. c: bind to self antigens survive. d: bind to MHC class II are eliminated.

proteins; chemical messengers

In terms of their chemical structure, cytokines are _______; their function is to serve as _________.

b

In the classical pathway of complement activation, a: complement is activated within liver cells and released into the blood. b: complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance. c: complement binds with polysaccharides on a microbial cell wall. d: complement inhibits inflammation and binds to opsonins.

left upper quadrant

In which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located?

the flat bones of the axial skeleton

In young children, hemopoiesis occurs in most of their bones, but in adulthood it primarily occurs in ?

positive chronotropic agent

Large doses of certain stimulants can lead to dangerous increases in heart rates. Such a stimulant is a ?

monocyte

The type of leukocyte that will migrate in the blood and take up residence in the tissues as a macrophage is a(n)

Define the term "independent assortment" and indicate how this leads to diversity in the genetic content of gametes.

Independent assortment is described in the text as the random alignment of homologous chromosomes (maternal and paternal) along the equator during metaphase I of meiosis. Because the cellular division distributes the maternal and paternal chromosomes randomly, a wide variety of gametes are generated.

a

Inflamed tissue feels warm due to a: increased blood flow and increased metabolic activity. b: the margination of white blood cells. c: chemotaxis and defervescence. d: activation of complement by binding of C-reactive protein to bacterial carbohydrates.

d

Inflammation is a(n) a: antigen-specific process that occurs in avascular tissue. b: antigen-specific process that occurs in vascularized tissue. c: nonspecific process that occurs in avascular tissue. d: nonspecific process that occurs in vascularized tissue.

b

Interferons are one of the classes of a: interleukins. b: cytokines. c: colony-stimulating factors. d: tumor necrosis factors.

c

Interleukin 1 and interferons act as a: defervescents and trigger an elevation of body temperature. b: defervescents and trigger a decrease of body temperature. c: pyrogens and trigger an elevation of body temperature. d: pyrogens and trigger a decrease of body temperature.

b

Into what region of the pharynx do auditory tubes open? a: Oropharynx b: Nasopharynx c: Laryngopharynx

a

Just prior to atrial contraction, a: all four chambers are at rest and AV valves are open. b: all four chambers are at rest and AV valves are closed. c: all four chambers are contracting and all valves are open. d: both ventricles are contracting and blood is being ejected into the major arteries. d: both atria are contracting and blood is being ejected into the major arteries.

largest, prominent nuclei

Leukocytes are the _______ of the formed elements, and leukocytes have ______________.

Capillaries, vessels, trunks, ducts

Lymph is transported through a network of increasingly larger lymphatic passageways. What is the correct order of these, from smallest diameter to largest diameter?

a: filter lymph

Lymph nodes a: filter lymph. b: contain a dense network of collagen fibers. c: serve as auxiliary exchange surfaces for respiratory gases. d: produce red blood cells. e: serve as the main recycling centers for red blood cells and their parts.

b: cervical lymph nodes

Lymph nodes may be found individually, or clustered in specific regions of the body. Which cluster of lymph nodes receives lymph from the head and neck? a: Inguinal lymph nodes b: Cervical lymph nodes c: Thoracic lymph nodes d: Axillary lymph nodes e: Abdominal lymph nodes

d

Lymphatic capillaries a: are open at both ends. b: are smaller in diameter than blood capillaries. c: are like continuous capillaries in that they have many tight junctions. d: lack a basement membrane. e: are abundant in epithelial tissues.

b

Lymphatic capillaries a: cannot be discerned structurally from cardiovascular system capillaries. b: originate as closed-ended tubes associated with blood capillary networks. c: filter lymph. d: concentrate lymph prior to passing it to larger lymphatic vessels. e: include layers of smooth muscle for peristalsis.

d

Lymphatic capillaries originate in the a: peripheral nervous system ganglia. b: red bone marrow. c: yellow bone marrow. d: tissue spaces between cells. e: cisterna chyli.

b: lymphatic cells, extracellular matrix, and an incomplete connective tissue capsule

Lymphatic nodules consist of: a: central arteries and monocytes. b: lymphatic cells, extracellular matrix, and an incomplete connective tissue capsule. c: crypts, trabeculae, and Reed-Sternberg cells. d: afferent vessels, efferent vessels, a cortex, and medulla. e: a hilum that is located intermediate to two lobules.

a

Lymphatic organs a: contain a complete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue. b: contain an incomplete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue. c: lack a connective tissue capsule.

b

MALT is found in which layer of the wall of a hollow organ? a: Epithelial b: Lamina propria c: Muscularis externa d: Submucosa

b

MHC class I molecules are a: glycolipid synthesized on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. b: glycoproteins synthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum. c: small peptides synthesized on free ribosomes. d: phospholipids synthesized in secretory vesicles.

b

MHC class I molecules on a cell allow it to interact with a: natural killer cells. b: cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. c: helper T-lymphocytes. d: CD8+ B-lymphocytes.

d

MHC class I molecules present peptide fragments that are either "self" or "nonself"; in either case, the fragment becomes bound to the molecule while a: in the Golgi apparatus. b: in the cytosol. c: in a secretory vesicle. d: in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

monocytes from monoblasts

Macrophage colony-stimulating factor stimulates the production of ____________________.

b

Malaria is a disease caused by a a: multicellular parasite. b: protozoan. c: fungus. d: virus. e: bacterium.

b

Nonspecific immunity is another name for a: adaptive immunity. b: innate immunity. c: cell-mediated immunity. d: acquired immunity.

a

Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) is the greatest amount of air that can be a: inspired and then expelled in 1 minute. b: expired in 1 second. c: held within the lungs for over 30 seconds. d: inspired in one breath (regardless of dead space).

aerobic, mitochondria, myoglobin

Metabolically, cardiac muscle relies on __________metabolism using many ___________ and a rich supply of _________.

c

Most activated B-lymphocytes differentiate into a: memory helper T-lymphocytes. b: macrophages. c: plasma cells. d: antigen-presenting cells.

c

Most of the calcium that triggers contraction of cardiac muscle comes -? a: into the cell through leakage channels in the sarcolemma. b: into the cell through voltage-gated channels in the sarcolemma. c: from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the cell. d: from the Golgi apparatus of the cell.

increases; trapping

Mucin _______ the viscosity of mucus, facilitating the ______ of dust and dirt particles.

decrease

One of the functions of blood is to regulate fluid levels in the body. If too much fluid escapes from the bloodstream and enters the tissues, blood pressure will___________.

increase the viscosity of the blood

One of the unhealthy effects of blood doping is to____________________________.

b

Opsonization involves a: cross-linking several antigens together so that they are no longer soluble, and it is facilitated by the Fc region of the antibody. b: marking a target for phagocytosis, and it is facilitated by interaction of the Fc region of the antibody with a phagocyte. c: activation of NK cells, and it is a function of the antigen-binding site of the antibody. d: fixation of antibodies in the IgG and IgM classes, and it involves the antigen-binding site of the antibody.

c

Organize the items listed into the proper sequence of events for gas exchange. a: O2 is transported to cells by circulatory system. b: O2 is drawn into the lungs during inhalation. c: Cells use O2 and generate CO2. d: CO2 is exhaled. e: The circulatory system transports CO2 to the lungs. a: a, b, c, d, e b: b, a, c, d, e c: b, a, c, e, d d: c, e, d, a, b e: e, d, c, b, a

dark red

Oxygen-poor blood is _________ in color.

CN X

Parasympathetic innervation of the heart occurs via ?

b

Passive immunity lasts a: from days to weeks, and involves development of memory cells. b: from days to weeks, and does not involve development of memory cells. c: from years to a lifetime, and involves the development of memory cells. d: from years to a lifetime, and does not involve development of memory cells.

internal walls of the right and left atria

Pectinate muscles are found on the ?

alveolar macrophages

Phagocytic cells of the alveolus are the

frequency, intrinsic

Pitch refers to the ________ of sound waves; pitch is determined by the tension produced by ________ laryngeal muscles.

b

Plasma cells have a life span of about _________, which is mainly spent in the _________. a: 5 days; blood b: 5 days; lymph nodes c: 130 days; blood d: 130 days; lymph nodes

55

Plasma makes up about ______ percent of a centrifuged sample of whole blood.

hemostasis, 9

Platelets play a key role in _________, but if they are not used they are broken down after about ________ days.

d

Poison ivy contains a toxin that acts as a hapten by a: raising the body's sensitivity to a wide variety of chemicals such as penicillin. b: cutting plasma protein antibodies in half. c: preventing effective immune responses by blocking release of bradykinin. d: combining with a body protein and then triggering an immune response.

Which type of distal cell within kidney tubules and collecting ducts are responsive to aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone?

Principal cells

repellent

Prostacyclin is an eicosanoid that acts as a platelet __________?

a

Pulmonary fibrosis a: decreases elasticity, thereby increasing resistance and decreasing airflow. b: increases elasticity, thereby increasing resistance and decreasing airflow. c: decreases elasticity, thereby decreasing both resistance and airflow. d: increases elasticity, thereby decreasing resistance and increasing airflow.

c

Pyrogens act on the __________ of the brain where they cause release of ________. a: hippocampus; PGE2 b: hippocampus; exudate c: hypothalamus; PGE2 d: hypothalamus; exudate

c

Red marrow is found within a: the large cavities contained within the shafts of long bone. b: compact bone canals. c: spaces within spongy bone. d: all osseous tissue of the appendicular skeleton.

small intestine

Regions of MALT called Peyer patches are found in the

Where are the renal pyramids located within the kidney?

Renal medulla

a

Several things happen to inhaled air in a process called conditioning. Select the exception. a: The air is cooled. b: The air is humidified. c: The air is cleansed. d: The air is moistened. e: The air becomes turbulent.

(T/F) During the resolution phase, the central artery of the penis decreases in diameter.

TRUE

(T/F) Efferent ductules contain cilia that propel sperm toward the epididymis.

TRUE

electrolytes

Sodium, calcium, and bicarbonate are all described as plasma_________________.

a prolonged P-R interval

Someone with a heart block would have - ?

small Q-T interval

Someone with tachyarrhythmia would be expected to show an abnormally -?

c

Subclavian trunks drain lymph from the a: deep thoracic structures. b: head and neck. c: upper limbs, breasts, and superficial thorax. d: abdominopelvic wall.

pneumothorax.

Suppose that following an automobile accident, a broken rib penetrates into the pleural cavity, causing air to accumulate in the space between the visceral and parietal pleura. This condition is known as a

a,c

Sympathetic innervation of the heart a: increases the heart rate b: decreases the heart rate c: increases the force of contractions d: decreases the force of contractions e: has no effect on contraction force

T1-T5

Sympathetic innervation of the heart arises from the ________ segments of the spinal cord.

lymphocytes

T-lymphocytes are a category of________________.

(T/F) An erection is the result of parasympathetic innervation, and ejaculation is the result of sympathetic innervation.

TRUE

(T/F) Both males and females have accessory reproductive organs, including ducts through which gametes are carried.

TRUE

(T/F) During female sexual excitement, the mammary glands, clitoris, and labia become engorged with blood.

TRUE

b

The anatomic features of the respiratory membrane that make alveolar gas exchange so efficient are a: the high degree of moisture and the large ratio of volume to surface area. b: its large surface area and minimal thickness. c: its thinness, high water content, and scarcity of capillaries. d: its hearty thickness and the presence of oxygen transport pumps.

coronary sulcus

The atria are separated from the ventricles externally by the ?

floor of the right atrium

The atrioventricular (AV) node is located in the -?

posterior and superior

The base of the heart faces in the _____________ directions.

What causes much of the blood in the fetal right atrium to be shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale?

The blood pressure in the right atrium is greater than in the left atrium.

globin

The carbon dioxide molecules that bind to the hemoglobin molecule are attached to the __________ units.

A

The carotid bodies contain _________ chemoreceptors that respond to changes in ________________. A: peripheral; blood concentrations of H+ and O2 B: central; blood concentrations of H+, but not CO2 and O2 C: peripheral; cerebrospinal fluid concentrations of H+ D: central; cerebrospinal concentrations of CO2 E: peripheral; concentrations of carbon, dust, and pollution in the lungs

erythrocytes in the blood

The clinical definition of the hematocrit refers to the percentage of_________________________________.

a

The clumping of foreign cells that occurs when antibodies cross-link their antigens is known as a: agglutination. b: neutralization. c: precipitation. d: opsonization. e: fixation.

trabeculae carneae

The internal wall surface of each ventricle displays large, smooth, irregular muscular ridges called ?

external respiration

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the alveoli and blood in the lungs is called

functional residual capacity.

The expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume equals the

vascular spasm

The first phase in hemostasis is ______________.

blood vessel constriction

The first phase of hemostasis involves ____________

d

The first signal during helper T-lymphocyte activation involves a: BCR of the helper T-cell binding with free antigen and engulfing it. b: CD8 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class III of the antigen-presenting cell. c: CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class I part of the antigen fragment. d: CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen-presenting cell.

interatrial septum

The foramen ovale of the fetal heart is an opening in the

hydrostatic pressure

The force that drives fluid into lymphatic capillaries is - ?

common

The formation of a web-like polymer of fibrin occurs late in the ________ pathway.

right atrium

The fossa ovalis appears just above the opening of the coronary sinus within the __________.

a

The function of helper T-lymphocytes is to a: initiate and oversee the immune response. b: turn off the immune response once it has been activated. c: secrete toxins to kill or disable pathogens. d:trigger cell death by disrupting metabolic activities. e: All choices are correct.

take blood from the coronary circulation to the right atrium.

The function of the coronary sinus is to ?

37

The globulins make up about ________ percent of all plasma proteins.

anterior interventricular artery

The great cardiac vein runs alongside the ?

Multi - CSF

The growth factor that increases the formation of erythrocytes, all classes of granulocytes, monocytes, and platelets from myeloid stem cells is ?

ensure that blood flow is "one-way"

The heart valves - ?

oxygen and carbon dioxide

The hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is able to chemically attach to_____________.

a

The hilum of the lung a: is an indented area through which the bronchi, pulmonary vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves pass. b: is the point of exit of exhaled air. c: is the point of entrance for inhaled air. d: is an elevated area through which the trachea, pulmonary vessels, and nerves pass. e: serves to anchor all pulmonary structures to the mediastinum.

a: concave anteromedial border

The hilum of the spleen is part of its a: concave anteromedial border. b: concave posterolateral border. c: convex anteromedial border. d: convex posterolateral border.

active

The immunity that occurs as a result of a vaccination is _________ immunity.

b

The lungs remain inflated because a: intrapulmonary pressure is less than intrapleural pressure. b: intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure. c: intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to intrapulmonary pressure. d: intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to atmospheric pressure.

a

The lymphatic system's two main functions are to assist in a: immunity and fluid balance. b: blood cell production and endocrine function. c: endocrine function and neural support. d: neural support and blood sugar control. e: removal of fats from the blood and inflammatory responses.

defend against pathogens

The main function of leukocytes is to ________.

a

The main function of serous fluid is to a: lubricate and reduce friction between pleural membranes around the lung. b: improve adhesion of the lungs to the thoracic wall. c: facilitate the diffusion of oxygen across the respiratory membrane.

c: ingested or inhaled

The main function of tonsils is to detect and protect against infections agents that are a: in the blood. b: in the lymph. c: ingested or inhaled. d: secreted by salivary glands.

e

The male voice tends to be in a lower range than a female's voice because men have a: more taut vestibular folds. b: more air to push through the rima glottidis. c: wider arytenoid cartilages. d: shorter and fatter vestibular ligaments. e: longer and thicker vocal folds.

b

The membrane of a contractile cardiac muscle cell contains - ? a: no calcium pumps. b: calcium pumps that move calcium out of the cell. c: calcium pumps that move calcium into the cell. d: calcium pumps that open and allow calcium to diffuse down its concentration gradient to reach equilibrium.

b

The membrane of a contractile cardiac muscle cell contains --? a: fast voltage-gated sodium channels and fast voltage-gated calcium channels. b: fast voltage-gated sodium channels and slow voltage-gated calcium channels. c: slow voltage-gated sodium channels and slow voltage-gated calcium channels. d: slow voltage-gated sodium channels and fast voltage-gated calcium channels.

a

The metabolic pathways of cardiac muscle make it a: somewhat susceptible to heart attack, because it relies so exclusively on aerobic metabolism. b: extremely susceptible to heart attack, because it uses such a variety of fuel sources. c: somewhat susceptible to heart attack, because it has so few mitochondria. d: relatively resistant to heart attack, because it uses exclusively anaerobic metabolism. e: relatively resistant to heart attack, because it has a great capacity to accrue oxygen debt.

alveolar type I cell

The most common cell making up the alveolar wall is the

erythrocytes

The most numerous of the formed elements are the ___________.

IgG

The most prevalent antibody in blood and lymph is

four

The nose contains a single septal cartilage. How many alar cartilages are in the nose?

b

The opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by: a: contraction and relaxation of papillary muscles that pull on heart strings. b: pressure changes of alternating contraction and relaxation during the cardiac cycle. c: contraction of the smooth muscle in the walls of the great vessels leaving the heart. d: action potentials within the cusps of the valves.

chordae tendineae

The papillary muscles attach to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves by means of the ?

d

The path that fluid takes as it enters a lymphatic capillary is through a: pores (fenestrations) in the cells of the capillary wall. b: cell membrane leakage channels that allow diffusion. c: vesicles that move the fluid across the cell (transcytosis). d: spaces between capillary endothelial cells that are arranged as one-way flaps. e: active transport protein pumps on endothelial cell membranes.

forced expiratory volume

The percentage of the vital capacity that can be exhaled during a specific time period is known as the

parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium

The pericardial cavity is between the ?

b: in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx

The pharyngeal tonsils are located a: along the posterior margins of the tongue. b: in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx. c: at the base of the palatoglossal arches. d: in the posterolateral region of the oral cavity. e: lateral to the uvula in the oropharynx.

c

The plateau phase of an action potential -? a: occurs only in skeletal muscle and makes those fibers' contractions most forceful. b: leads to tetanic contractions in smooth and skeletal muscle. c: allows cardiac muscle cells to contract and then relax without locking up. d: allows cardiac muscle cells to exhibit synchronous fibrillation.

right coronary artery

The posterior interventricular artery is a branch off of the ?

c

The posterior interventricular sulcus a: is another name for the coronary sulcus. b: contains the great cardiac vein and coronary sinus. c: is a groove between the ventricles on the back of the heart. d: is a valve in the interventricular septum that closes at birth.

a

The primary goal of the immune response is a: destruction or inactivation of pathogens and foreign material. b: maintenance of the proper ionic balance between lymph and blood. c: stimulation of mitotic activity in order to replace cells damaged by infection. d: reduction of the number of circulating memory lymphocytes. e: removal of antibodies from lymph and lymphatic organs.

hemopoiesis

The process of producing the formed elements of blood is called __________________.

artery

The pulmonary trunk receives blood from the right ventricle and conducts it toward the lung. The pulmonary trunk is a(n) _____________

lack a nucleus and organelles

The reason it is more appropriate to call an erythrocyte a "formed element" rather than a "cell" is that erythrocytes________________________.

c

The region of the nasal cavity immediately internal to the nostrils is the _________; it contains coarse guard hairs. a: choanae b: olfactory region c: vestibule d: respiratory region e: nasopharynx

right marginal artery

The right border of the heart is supplied by the ?

b

The second signal during B-lymphocyte activation involves stimulation from a: IL-2 released by cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. b: IL-4 released by helper T-lymphocytes. c: bradykinin released by antigen-presenting cells. d: antibodies released by antigens.

b

The secondary response of the immune system to an infectious agent involves a: fewer cells than the antigen challenge, as the response has become more specific. b: more cells than the antigen challenge, due to the proliferation of memory cells. c: amnesia of past exposures, so that a perfectly adapted response can be generated to the new pathogen.

mL/min/gram

The units for perfusion of blood are typically __________.

directly, indirectly

The viscosity of blood is ________ proportional to the number of erythrocytes and _______ proportional to the amount of fluid.

a

These muscles extend from a superior rib inferomedially to the adjacent inferior rib. They elevate the ribs upon contraction, thereby increasing the transverse dimensions of the thoracic cavity during inhalation. a: External intercostals b: Scalenes c: Transversus thoracis d: Internal intercostals e: Serratus posterior inferior

b

These muscles increase thoracic cavity dimensions by elevating the first and second ribs during forced inhalation. a: External intercostals b: Scalenes c: Transversus thoracis d: Internal intercostals e: Serratus posterior inferior

lubricate membranes of the pericardium

The serous fluid within the pericardial cavity works to

atrial relaxion/ventricular filling??!

The shutting of the semilunar valves occurs during which phase?

b

The site of infection is the location at which lymphocytes a: are formed. b: provide an effector response. c: are activated. d: become able to recognize one specific foreign antigen.

albumins

The smallest and most abundant plasma proteins are the ___________.

1 degree Celsius

The temperature of blood is about _________ than measured body temperature.

visceral layer of serous pericardium

The term "epicardium" is another name for the

c

The term "primary lymphatic structure" applies a: only to red bone marrow. b: to the spleen and lymph nodes. c: to the red bone marrow and thymus. d: only to lymph nodes. e: to lymph nodes and MALT.

c: lymphocytes are proliferating in germinal centers

The term "swollen glands" is usually meant to refer to lymph nodes in which a: the valves of afferent vessels are bulging. b: macrophages are clogging afferent lymphatic vessels. c: lymphocytes are proliferating in germinal centers. d: phagocytes are consuming the infected lymph nodes. e: macrophages are entering at the hilum.

structural

The terms "upper respiratory system" and "lower respiratory system" are ___________ categorizations of the respiratory system.

b

The tetralogy of Fallot is: a: a condition in which the left and right sides of the heart are completely reversed. b: a developmental disorder that is a cardiac septal defect. c: an exceptionally fast heart rate. d: an inadequate cardiac output due to poorly contracting heart chambers. e: occlusion of the left coronary artery.

b

The thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct empty lymph into the a: superior vena cava. b: subclavian veins. c: inferior vena cava. d: azygos vein. e: brachiocephalic veins.

c

The thoracic duct collects lymph from all of the following except the a: abdomen. b: left leg. c: right arm. d: right foot. e: left shoulder.

b

The thymus contains ______ lobes and is located _______. a: 2; anterior to the laryngeal prominence (Adam's apple) b: 2; in the mediastinum c: 4; anterior to the laryngeal prominence (Adam's apple) d: 4; in the mediastinum

epithelial

The thymus contains lymphatic cells as well as secretory _________ tissue.

b

The thymus is at its maximum size a: at birth. b: at puberty. c: between 30 and 50 years of age. d: in old age.

neutrophil

The type of leukocyte that is very active during a bacterial infection is a(n)_________.

vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate.

To compensate for significant blood loss, the autonomic nervous system triggers ?

troponin

To initiate a cardiac muscle cell contraction, calcium binds to ______?

crypts

Tonsils have multiple invaginated outer edges called _______ that help trap material.

rigidity, anterior

Tracheal cartilages provide for _______ on the ________ aspect of the trachea.

True/False: Among the advantages of the cerebral arterial circle is the presence of collateral channels of blood flow to the brain should a supply artery become blocked.

True

True/False: Branches of the subclavian arteries carry blood on the way to the brain, neck and shoulder muscles, and mammary glands.

True

True/False: Systolic pressure is greater than diastolic pressure due to the force generated by ventricular contraction.

True

True/False: The left suprarenal and gonadal veins differ from the right suprarenal and gonadal veins in how directly they get to the inferior vena cava.

True

True/False: The liver receives oxygenated blood from the common hepatic artery and deoxygenated blood from the hepatic portal vein.

True

True

True/False: A reticulocyte is a cell formed during erythropoiesis that has lost its nucleus and all organelles except some ribosomes.

True

True/False: About 70% of the ventricle filling is achieved passively without the contraction of the atria.

True

True/False: All of the heart's sulci house blood vessels that supply the myocardium.

False

True/False: Arteries carry blood toward the heart, while veins carry blood away from the heart.

False

True/False: Blood flow to the heart wall courses through coronary vessels in a steady stream.

True

True/False: Blood helps regulate the pH and the temperature of the body.

True

True/False: Cardiac muscle is able to use a variety of fuel types for cellular respiration.

False

True/False: Cardiac reserve is greater in a nonathletic individual than in a highly trained athlete.

True

True/False: Compared to young adults, older individuals have relatively less red bone marrow.

True

True/False: During hemopoiesis, the lymphoid line forms lymphocytes only.

False

True/False: During ventricular contraction, the semilunar valves close in order to permit the blood to enter the large arterial trunks that carry blood away from the heart.

pulmonary veins

Which carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?

a

Two individuals of the same size (same dead space) have a pulmonary ventilation rate of 6 L/min, but one is breathing 10 breaths/min and the other is breathing 15 breaths/min. How do their alveolar ventilation rates compare? a: The slower breather has a greater alveolar ventilation rate. b: The faster breather has a greater alveolar ventilation rate. c: Their alveolar ventilation rates are equivalent.

b: one efferent lymphatic vessel

Typically, a hilum of a lymph node contains a: one afferent lymphatic vessel. b: one efferent lymphatic vessel. c: numerous afferent vessels. d: numerous efferent vessels.

5 liters

Typically, an adult's body contains _______ of blood.

2

Typically, there are __________ papillary muscles that project from the wall of the left ventricle and attach to the tendinous cords that support the left AV valve.

c

Upon activation, a T-lymphocyte a: ceases dividing and becomes a plasma cell. b: ceases dividing and becomes a memory cytotoxic helper cell. c: proliferates to form clones and memory cells. d: proliferates to form B cells and plasma cells.

c

Vaccines are effective because they a: immediately stimulate cellular immunity to eliminate all of the pathogen in the body. b: inhibit antibodies from having secondary responses. c: stimulate the development of immunologic memory. d: increase the number of natural killer cells while decreasing the numbers of T and B cells.

a

Vagal tone refers to the -? a: decreasing of the heart rate below its inherent rhythm by parasympathetic stimulation. b: decreasing of the heart rate below its inherent rhythm by sympathetic stimulation. c: increasing of the heart rate above its inherent rhythm by sympathetic stimulation. d: increasing of the heart rate above its inherent rhythm by parasympathetic stimulation.

several minutes when tissue damage is extensive.

Vascular spasms last ?

c

What are considered the effectors of humoral immunity? a: Helper T-lymphocytes b: Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes c: Antibodies d: Macrophages e: Natural killer cells

intercalated discs

What are the cell-to-cell contacts of the cardiac muscle fibers called?

e

What are the five main classes of immunoglobulins found in humans? a: IgA, IgC, IgE, IgG, IgI b: IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM, IgS c: IgB, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM d: IgA, IgB, IgC, IgD, IgE e: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM

d

What changes in the blood levels of respiratory gases result from hyperventilation? a: Oxygen and carbon dioxide levels rise. b: Oxygen and carbon dioxide levels fall. c: Oxygen levels rise and carbon dioxide levels fall. d: Oxygen levels do not change but carbon dioxide levels fall.

larynx

What connects the pharynx to the trachea?

Ventral respiratory group

What is the name of the column of neurons within the medulla that initiates neural impulses for inspiration and expiration?

c, d, a, b, f, g, e

What is the sequence of events in the transmission of an impulse through the heart muscle? a: AV node b: AV bundle c: SA node d: Through the atria e: Through the ventricles f: Bundle branches g: Purkinje fibers

SA node

What part of the cardiac conduction system is located in the posterior wall of the right atrium, adjacent to the entrance of the superior vena cava?

d

What prevents the trachea from collapsing? a: The internal air pressure within the trachea b: The surrounding muscles c: The internal epithelium d: The C-shaped cartilaginous rings

trachea

What structure connects the larynx to the primary bronchi?

a

What structure is also known as the "voice box"? a: Larynx b: Pharynx c: Esophagus d: Bronchus e: Trachea

larynx

What structure prevents food and drink from entering the trachea, conducts air, and produces sound?

a

What structures are used by both the respiratory and digestive systems? a: Oropharynx and laryngopharynx b: Laryngopharynx and larynx c: Nasal cavity and nasopharynx d: Paranasal sinuses e: Laryngopharynx and esophagus

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

What type of tissue lines the trachea?

c

What would you expect a cardiologist to recommend if there was substantial occlusion to a patient's left coronary artery but not the right coronary artery? a: Because there are multiple alternate paths for blood delivery, the cardiologist would not intervene. b: Because this is a relatively small, unimportant artery, the cardiologist would not intervene. c: Because this is an important artery, and alternate vascular paths are inadequate, the cardiologist would treat the condition. d: Because occlusions require blood to be moved under greater pressure, the cardiologist would prescribe drugs to raise blood pressure.

a

When a chemical messenger has a short half-life, it means that a: it will not have an extremely prolonged effect on target cells. b: it will not be eliminated quickly from the blood.

erythrocytes

When blood is centrifuged and its components separate, the bottom of the tube holds the ___________.

a

When blood passes through systemic capillaries, the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin changes a: from about 98% to about 75% saturated. b: from about 40% to about 80% saturated. c: from about 70% saturated to about 99% saturated. d: from about 99% saturated to about 25% saturated.

A

When central chemoreceptors detect a drop in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid, A: medullary respiratory centers trigger an increase in rate and depth of breathing. B: medullary respiratory centers trigger a decrease in rate and depth of breathing. C: pontine respiratory centers trigger a decrease in rate and depth of breathing. D: the vagus and phrenic nerves stimulate decreased production of the catalyst carbonic anhydrase.

a

When compared to a primary response, the antibody levels in a secondary response a: rise more rapidly and with a greater proportion of IgG antibodies. b: rise more rapidly and with a smaller proportion of IgG antibodies. c: rise more gradually and with a greater proportion of IgG antibodies. d: rise more gradually and with a smaller proportion of IgG antibodies.

sympathetic

When over 10% of the body's blood has been lost, a survival response occurs involving activation of the ________ nervous system.

increase

When someone begins to hyperventilate, the increased movements of their respiratory muscles ________ venous return of blood to the heart.

a

When someone exercises vigorously, their breathing is described as demonstrating a: hyperpnea, involving deeper but not faster breathing. b: hyperventilation, involving both deeper and faster breathing. c: bradypnea, involving deeper and slower breathing. d: hypopnea, involving shallower but faster breathing.

c

When they leave the red marrow, pre-T-lymphocytes have a: only the CD4 protein. b: only the CD8 protein. c: both the CD4 and CD8 proteins. d: neither the CD4 nor CD8 protein. e: either the CD4 or CD8 protein.

white blood cell differential count

When trying to diagnose an infection that alters the percentages of leukocyte types found in the blood, it is useful for clinicians to perform a ?

b

When women with breast cancer undergo surgery to remove the tumor or the entire breast, the axillary lymph nodes are often removed as well. Why? a: In removing the breast, the blood supply to the nodes is removed and they will inevitably cease to function. b: The axillary lymph nodes receive lymph from the breast and may contain cancer cells. c: The nerves that supply the axillary lymph nodes are often cut during the breast surgery. d: It is impossible to remove the breast without physically damaging the lymph nodes. e: With the removal of the breast, there is no further need for lymph drainage and filtering in that part of the body.

thymus gland

Where do T-lymphocytes mature?

D

Where would you find the trachealis muscle? A: Between the esophagus and the diaphragm B: Between the trachea and the diaphragm C: Superior to the larynx D: Between the esophagus and the trachea E: Between the larynx and the pharynx

contraction of the ventricles

Which action leads to the closure of the right atrioventricular valve?

a

Which answer places the following events in proper order for pulmonary ventilation? a: Thoracic cavity volume changes. b: Brainstem nuclei stimulate skeletal muscles to contract. c: Air flows down its pressure gradient. d: Dimensional changes in the thorax lead to pressure changes within the lung. a: b, a, d, c b: d, c, b, a c: b, d, c, a d: a, c, d, b e: c, a, d, b

b,c,e

Which are characteristic of leukocytes? a: Smaller than erythrocytes b: Have a nucleus c: Have no hemoglobin d: More numerous than erythrocytes e: Depending on type, may or may not contain granules

b,c,f

Which are characteristic of type A blood? a: Has anti-A antibodies b: Has anti-B antibodies c: Has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes d: Has surface antigen B on its erythrocytes e: Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes f: Will agglutinate with blood type B

b,e

Which are characteristic of type Rh negative blood? a: Always has Rh (anti-D) antibodies b: Only under certain conditions will Rh (anti-D) antibodies be present c: Always has Rh (D) antigen d: Only under certain conditions will the Rh (D) antigen be present e: Is inherited independent of the ABO group

a,b,e

Which are characteristics of type O blood? a: Has anti-A antibodies b: Has anti-B antibodies c: Has surface antigen O on its erythrocytes d: Has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes e: Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes

a,c,d

Which are differences between cardiac muscle tissue and skeletal muscle tissue? a: The sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle is less extensive. b: The sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle is more organized. c: Cardiac muscle has intercalated discs; skeletal muscle does not. d: Cardiac muscle has 1 or 2 nuclei per cell; skeletal muscle has multiple nuclei per cell. e: Cardiac muscle has more well-defined terminal cisternae.

a,b,c,d

Which are functions performed by the fibrous skeleton of the heart? a: Separates the atria and ventricles b: Anchors the heart valves c: Provides electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles d: Provides the framework for the attachment of the myocardium e: None of these are true functions of the fibrous skeleton of the heart

e: palatoglossal tonsils

Which are not tonsils? a: Adenoids b: Palatine tonsils c: Pharyngeal tonsils d: Lingual tonsils e: Palatoglossal tonsils

basophils

Which are the least numerous of the leukocytes?

neutrophil

Which are the most numerous of the leukocytes?

e

Which area does not contain MALT? a: Urinary tract b: Respiratory tract c: Genital tract d: Gastrointestinal tract e: No exceptions; all choices contain MALT

mandible

Which bone does not contain a paranasal sinus?

a,d,e

Which can be used to characterize blood flow in the human body? a: There is a unidirectional blood flow. b: Arteries always carry oxygenated blood. c: Veins always carry deoxygenated blood. d: Arteries carry blood away from the heart. e: Veins carry blood toward the heart.

c

Which cell type is targeted by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a: Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte b: Memory B-lymphocyte c: Helper T-lymphocyte d: Natural killer cell e: Plasma cell

mast cells

Which cells resemble basophils and are found in connective tissue, close to small blood vessels?

systemic circuit

Which circuit of the cardiovascular system includes the left ventricle and aorta?

systemic circuit

Which circuit of the cardiovascular system is responsible for sending blood to the kidneys, stomach, and pelvic regions?

b

Which class of chemical messenger facilitates white blood cell formation in bone marrow? a: Interleukins b: Colony-stimulating factors c: Tumor necrosis factors d: Interferons

b

Which class of major histocompatibility molecules is specific to antigen-presenting cells? a: MHC class I b: MHC class II

intrinsic pathway

Which clotting pathway involves more steps and takes more time (approximately 5 minutes)?

extrinsic pathway

Which clotting pathway involves the combining of thromboplastin (factor III) with factor VII and calcium?

a

Which correctly describes the heart's apex? a: Projects slightly anteroinferiorly toward the left side of the body b: Projects slightly anteroinferiorly toward the right side of the body c: Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the left side of the body d: Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the right side of the body e: Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the midline of the body

c, a, e, b, d, f

Which depicts the order of cell formation in erythropoiesis? a: Proerythroblast b: Normoblast c: Myeloid stem cell d: Reticulocyte e: Erythroblast f: Mature erythrocyte

a,b,c

Which describes the endocardium? a: Has single layer of epithelium b: Has layer of areolar connective tissue c: Epithelial cells are squamous d: Epithelial cells are cuboidal e: Has layer of adipose connective tissue f: Has patches of myocardium

c

Which do not belong to the respiratory zone of the respiratory system? a: Respiratory bronchioles b: Alveolar ducts c: Terminal bronchioles d: Pulmonary alveoli e: Alveolar sacs

a,c,d,f

Which events occur during the recycling of aged or damaged erythrocytes? (Order is not important.) a: The heme group is converted into biliverdin. b: Bilirubin is placed in long-term storage in the liver. c: The iron ions in hemoglobin are removed. d: The iron ions are stored in the liver. e: The iron ions are stored in the red bone marrow. f: Membrane proteins and globin proteins are broken down and reused. g: The erythrocyte contents, excluding the globins, are excreted unchanged via the digestive tract

d

Which feature permits the compression necessary to pump large volumes of blood out of the ventricles? b: a: Negative pressure inside the ventricles c: Absence of oxygenated blood in the atria d: Arrangement of cardiac muscle in the heart wall e: Presence of skeletal muscle tissue in the heart skeleton f: Presence of papillary muscles in the ventricles

Interstitial fluid

Which fluid does lymph most closely resemble?

right atrium and right ventricle

Which heart chambers contain deoxygenated blood?

protection

Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of leukocytes and antibodies?

e

Which is going to result in significant agglutination? a: Donor is type A, recipient has antibody anti-B b: Donor is type B, recipient has antibody anti-A c: Donor is type O, recipient is Type O d: Donor is type A, recipient is type AB e: Donor is type AB, recipient is type B

a

Which is not a function of the respiratory system? a: Sound reception b: Gas exchange c: Odor detection d: Air passage

c: filters lymph

Which is not a function of the spleen? a: Serves as a platelet reservoir b: Filters blood c: Filters lymph d: Recycles aged erythrocytes e: Houses lymphocytes

c

Which is not an action of interferon? a: It stimulates macrophages and NK cells to destroy virus-infected cells. b: It triggers synthesis of enzymes that destroy viral nucleic acids. c: It signals the immune system that the secreting cell is part of the body and so should not be attacked. d: It binds to receptors of neighboring cells preventing them from being infected.

e

Which is not correct about the left lung? a: It is slightly smaller than the right lung. b: It has a cardiac impression. c: It has a cardiac notch. d: It has 2 lobes and 1 fissure. e: It has an esophageal depression.

d

Which is not correct regarding lymph nodes? a: They are covered by a connective tissue capsule. b: They contain a network of lymphatic sinuses. c: Each node has an outer cortex and inner medulla. d: Connective tissue bands called tendineae divide nodes. e: Lymphatic nodules produce lymphocytes.

e

Which is not correct regarding lymph nodes? a: They contain strands of lymphatic cells supported by medullary cords. b: They are drained by efferent lymphatic vessels. c: They contain macrophages. d: They filter lymph. e: No exceptions; all are true of lymph nodes.

a

Which is not correct regarding the spleen? a: It has an outer cortex and inner medulla. b: It is divided into sections by capsular extensions called trabeculae. c: Its white pulp contains T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes, and macrophages. d: Its blood is supplied by the splenic artery and drained by the splenic vein.

d

Which is not correct regarding the white pulp of the spleen? a: Its cells include T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes, and macrophages. b: Its cells are arranged in clusters that are circular in shape. c: It contains a central artery. d: It serves as a blood reservoir.

a

Which is not drained by the right lymphatic duct? a: Right side of abdomen b: Right side of thorax c: Right side of head and neck d: Right shoulder e: Right arm

d

Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation? a: Heat b: Redness c: Loss of function d: Numbness e: Swelling

a

Which is not part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system? a: Alveoli b: Trachea c: Larynx d: Nasal cavity e: Bronchi

d

Which is not part of the respiratory membrane? a: Capillary endothelium b: Fused basement membrane c: Plasma membrane of Type I cell d: Plasma membrane of Type II cell

fibrous pericardium

Which layer (of the pericardium) is made of dense irregular connective tissue?

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, monocytes

Which leukocytes are derived from the myeloid line?

a,b,e

Which leukocytes are granulocytes? a: Neutrophils b: Eosinophils c: Lymphocytes d: Monocytes e: Basophils f: Erythrocytes

spleen

Which lymphatic organ contains red pulp and white pulp?

92

Which most closely approximates the percentage of water in plasma by weight?

pulmonary circuit

Which of the cardiovascular system's circuits has deoxygenated blood in its arteries?

IgE

Which type of antibody is formed in response to parasitic infections and allergies, and has the effect of activating mast cells and basophils?

e

Which of the following does not contain red marrow? a: Ribs b: Sternum c: Flat bones of the skull d: Vertebrae e: Long bones of digits

c

Which of the following has the highest partial pressure of carbon dioxide? a: The alveoli of the lungs b: The blood circulating in systemic arteries c: The systemic cells

c

Which of the following is a step within the common pathway of blood clotting? a: Factor III combines with factor VII. b: Factor XII converts inactive factor XI to active factor XI. c: Prothrombin is activated to thrombin. d: Calcium combines with factor IX.

b

Which of the following lists the body's first, second, and third lines of defense in order? a: Adaptive immunity, external innate immunity, internal immunity b: External innate immunity, internal innate immunity, adaptive immunity c: External innate immunity, adaptive immunity, internal innate immunity d: External adaptive immunity, internal adaptive immunity, innate immunity e: Innate immunity, internal adaptive immunity, internal innate immunity

b

Which of the following would cause a decrease in cardiac output? a: An increase in venous return b: An increase in afterload c: Addition of positive inotropic agents d: An increase in heart rate

c

Which of the lymphatic trunks drain into the cisterna chyli? a: Intestinal trunks b: Lumbar trunks c: Intestinal trunks and lumbar trunks d: Subclavian trunks and jugular trunks e: Bronchomediastinal trunks and intestinal trunks

the right lung

Which of the two lungs is larger and wider?

right atrium, right ventricle

Which pair is located more anteriorly in a heart in normal position?

medulla

Which part of a thymic lobule contains mature lymphocytes?

d

Which part of an antibody attaches to an antigen? a: The hinge region b: The constant region c: The heavy chain d: The variable region

Truncus arteriosus

Which prenatal structure forms the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk?

a

Which reaction involving CO2 predominates within erythrocytes in the pulmonary capillaries of the lung? a: HCO-3 combines with H+ to form H2CO3, which dissociates into CO2 and H2O. b: HCO-3 dissociates into H+, CO, and O2. c: CO2 combines with H+ to form HCO2. d: CO2 combines with water to form bicarbonate ion and carbonic acid.

nasopharynx

Which region(s) of the pharynx is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium?

S-T segment

Which segment of the ECG reflects the plateau phase of ventricular muscle cells' action potentials?

c

Which statement accurately describes alveolar and systemic gas exchanges? a: In both alveolar and systemic gas exchange, oxygen diffuses out of the blood. b: In both alveolar and systemic gas exchange, oxygen diffuses toward the blood. c: In alveolar gas exchange oxygen diffuses into the blood, but in systemic gas exchange it diffuses out of the blood. d: In alveolar gas exchange oxygen diffuses out of the blood, but in systemic gas exchange it diffuses into the blood.

a

Which statement accurately describes alveolar exchange of oxygen? a: Oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen. b: Oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a lower partial pressure of oxygen. c: Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the alveolus because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen. d: Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the alveolus because the alveolus has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.

d

Which statement is false regarding the oropharynx? a: It houses the paired palatine tonsils. b: It is located posterior to the oral cavity. c: It houses the lingual tonsils. d: It houses the pharyngeal tonsil. e: It extends from the soft palate to the level of the hyoid bone.

b

Which statement is true regarding secondary bronchi? a: The right lung has two secondary bronchi and the left lung has three secondary bronchi. b: The left lung has two secondary bronchi and the right lung has three secondary bronchi. c: Each lung has two secondary bronchi. d: Each lung has three secondary bronchi. e: Each lung has four secondary bronchi.

d

Which statement is true regarding the location of the trachea? a: It lies superior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs. b: It lies posterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs. c: It lies anterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and inferior to the primary bronchi of the lungs. d: It lies anterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs. e: It lies superior to the esophagus, superior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs.

transportation

Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of carbon dioxide and endocrine hormones?

c

Which type of antigen would have the greatest immunogenicity? a: One that is small, simple, familiar, and abundant b: One that is small but complex and rare c: One that is large, complex, foreign, and abundant d: One that is large but simple and familiar

natural killer cells

Which type of cell attacks a variety of unwanted cells and causes those cells to undergo apoptosis?

b

Which type of cell is the most effective to attack multicellular parasites such as tapeworms? a: Basophils b: Eosinophils c: Macrophages d: Neutrophils

d

Which type of cell produces and secretes antibodies? a: Memory B-lymphocyte b: Memory T-lymphocyte c: Natural killer cell d: Plasma cell e: Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

c

Which type of cell responds to multiple antigens? a: Memory B-lymphocyte b: Memory T-lymphocyte c: Natural killer cell d: Plasma cell e: Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

basophil

Which type of leukocyte releases histamine?

a

Which type of lymphocyte has coreceptors that assist in the interaction of the lymphocyte with a cell presenting antigen? a: T-lymphocyte b: B-lymphocyte

cardiac muscle

Which type of muscle cell exhibits a longer refractory period?

Baroreceptors

Which type of receptor initiates the inhalation (or Hering-Breuer) reflex?

aortic semilunar valve

Which valve prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle when the ventricles relax?

middle cardiac vein

Which vein drains the posterior aspect of the ventricles of the heart?

b

Which would be the route taken by lymph traveling from lymphatic vessels in the right leg to the bloodstream? a: Right lumbar trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - right subclavian vein b: Right lumbar trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - left subclavian vein c: Right lumbar trunk - right intestinal trunk - right lymphatic duct - right subclavian vein d: Right femoral trunk - right lumbar trunk - right lymphatic duct - superior vena cava e: Right femoral trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - left subclavian vein

b

Why are functions of T-lymphocytes referred to as "cell-mediated" immunity? a: Because T-lymphocytes are cells and not just plasma proteins b: Because T-lymphocytes work against antigens associated with cells c: Because T-lymphocytes work only against single-celled infectious agents d: Because T-lymphocytes must activate other classes of cells in order to have any effect

b

With respect to the lymphatic system, what do the letters in the acronym MALT stand for? a: Membrane-adhering lymphatic T-cells b: Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue c: Multiple-antigen lymphocyte target d: Multiple-antibody lymphocyte test

splenic sinusoids

Within the red pulp of the spleen are enlarged capillaries called _________, which have a discontinuous basal lamina that allows blood cells to enter and exit easily.

d

You may have noticed that after a large meal you have had some difficulty breathing. Which explanation is most accurate with regard to this situation? a: The food presses on the bronchi, making air flow difficult. b: The large quantity of food retards pulmonary blood flow. c: Oxygen to the lungs is restricted due to fullness in the stomach. d: A full stomach impedes contraction of the diaphragm, limiting inhalation.

The average adult kidney weighs about 100 grams and measures about a: 12 cm long, 6.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick. b: 8 cm long, 4 cm wide, and 1.5 cm thick. c: 15 cm long, 10.5 cm wide, and 4.5 cm thick. d: 8 cm long, 10.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick. e: 12 cm long, 2.5 cm wide, and 8 cm thick.

a 12 cm long, 6.5 cm wide, 2.5 cm thick

The proximal convoluted tubule is lined with a a: cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area. b: simple columnar epithelium with a slick smooth surface. c: stratified squamous epithelium with a large surface area. d: stratified squamous epithelium with a tough, durable surface. e: simple squamous endothelium that makes a slick surface.

a cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area.

From innermost to outermost, the protective layers on the kidney are the a: fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. b: renal corpuscle, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. c: renal fascia, paranephric fat, renal corpuscle, perinephric fat. d: renal fascia, perinephric fat, fibrous capsule, paranephric fat. e: fibrous capsule, paranephric fat, renal fascia, perinephric fat.

a fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat.

In the process of urine formation, first a: filtrate is formed, then tubular fluid, then urine. b: tubular fluid is formed, then filtrate, then urine.

a filtrate is formed, then tubular fluid, then urine.

Dehydration results in a: increased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption. b: increased ADH secretion and decreased water reabsorption. c: decreased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption. d: decreased ADH secretion and decreased water reabsorption.

a increased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption.

The countercurrent multiplier is a system by which the a: nephron loop multiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla. b: nephron loop dilutes the concentration of solutes in the tubular fluid at its hairpin turn. c: vasa recta secretes multiple amounts of metabolic wastes against their concentration gradient. d: vasa recta becomes more concentrated with nitrogenous wastes than the urine.

a nephron loop multiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla.

Normally, the uterus is angled anterosuperiorly within the body, a position referred to as ________.

anteverted

The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from most other capillary networks in the body because they drain into an ________ instead of a ______.

arteriole, venule.

Which accurately describes the handling of urea by the kidney? a: All of the urea that reaches the kidney is excreted in the urine. b: About half of the urea that is filtered is excreted in the urine. c: None of the urea that reaches the kidney is excreted in the urine.

b About half of the urea that is filtered is excreted in the urine.

To calculate GFR, the concentration of a marker molecule is measured in both the blood and the urine, and the total volume of urine produced is also measured. Which of the following sets of results indicates the highest GFR? a: High concentration of the marker in the blood, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the urine b: High concentration of the marker in the urine, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the blood c: High concentration of the marker in the urine, low volume of urine, high concentration of the marker in the blood d: High concentration of the marker in the blood, low volume of urine, high concentration of the marker in the blood

b High concentration of the marker in the urine, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the blood

Which processes does urea undergo within the kidney? a: It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted. b: It is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted. c: It is filtered and can also be secreted but not reabsorbed. d: It is not filtered nor reabsorbed but can be secreted. e: It is not filtered but can be secreted and reabsorbed.

b It is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted.

Which class of nephron is crucially important in establishing a salt concentration gradient in the kidney so that urine concentration can be regulated? a: Intercalated nephrons b: Juxtamedullary nephrons c: Adrenal nephrons d: Cortical nephrons

b Juxtamedullary nephrons

What is the correct sequence of organs for the formation and elimination of urine? a: Bladder, urethra, kidney, ureter b: Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra c: Kidney, urethra, bladder, ureter d: Kidney, bladder, ureter, urethra e: Urethra, bladder, kidney, ureter

b Kidney,ureter,bladder,urethra

How are the processes of reabsorption and secretion related? a: They both involve movement of material from the blood into the tubular fluid. b: Materials move in opposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereas secretion removes them from the blood. c: Materials move in opposite directions: secretion moves materials into the blood, whereas reabsorption removes them from the blood. d: They both involve movement of material from the tubular fluid into the blood.

b Materials move in opposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereas secretion removes them from the blood.

For glucose to be reabsorbed from the tubule lumen, it is transported into the tubule cell by means of a a: glucose uniporter. b: Na+/glucose symporter. c: glucose protein channel. d: Na+/glucose antiporter.

b Na+/glucose symporter.

Generally, a very _______ percent of Na+ in the tubular fluid is reabsorbed, and the reabsorption takes place _________. a: high; only in the nephron loop b: high; along the entire tubule c: small; only in the nephron loop d: small; along the entire tubule

b high; along the entire tubule

How are nephrons, collecting ducts, and collecting tubules related to each other? a: One collecting duct drains into one nephron, and one nephron drains into one collecting tubule. b: One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct. c: One nephron drains into one collecting duct, and several collecting ducts empty into a collecting tubule. d: One collecting tubule drains into one nephron, and several nephrons drain into one collecting duct. e: One nephron drains into several collecting tubules, and all tubules eventually lead to one collecting duct.

b One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct.

Which is not correct regarding the urinary bladder? a: There are two ureteral openings. b: The inferior portion of the bladder is called the apex. c: The mucosa has rugae for distension. d: The peritoneum covers only the superior surface of the bladder.

b The inferior portion of the bladder is called the apex

Nutrients such as glucose and amino acids within the tubular fluid a: are completely secreted. b: are completely reabsorbed. c: have half of their plasma concentration secreted. d: have a little less than half of their tubular fluid concentration reabsorbed. e: have concentrations in the filtrate and urine that match their transport maximum.

b are completely reabsorbed.

Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney results in a: constriction of afferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. b: constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus. c: dilation of afferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. d: dilation of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus.

b constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus.

The presence of proteins in the plasma tends to a: push fluid across the filtration membrane. b: draw fluid back into the glomerulus.

b draw fluid back into the glomerulus.

Mesangial cells help keep the basement membrane clean by a: secreting emulsifying agents that dissolve trapped particles. b: engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane. c: opening larger pores in the membrane so that trapped particles move accross. d: secreting antibodies that attack the molecules caught in the endothelium.

b engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane.

Net filtration pressure is equal to the a: capsular hydrostatic pressure plus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and the glomerular hydrostatic pressure. b: glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure. c: capsular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and glomerular hydrostatic pressure. d: blood colloid osmotic pressure minus the capsular hydrostatic pressure. e: glomerular hydrostatic pressure plus blood colloid osmotic pressure minus capsular hydrostatic pressure.

b glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure.

The main parts of the juxtaglomerular apparatus are the a: principal cells and macula densa. b: granular cells and macula densa. c: granular cells and intercalated cells. d: intercalated cells and principal cells. e: principal cells and granular cells.

b granular cells and macula densa.

Pregnancy tests often involve checking the urine for the presence of a: bilirubin from the fetus. b: human chorionic gonadotropin. c: sulfonamides. d: epinephrine and prostaglandin.

b human chorionic gonadotropin.

If someone is bleeding severely, the body's adaptive response is to a: increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore increase GFR. b: increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR. c: decrease sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR. d: decrease sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore increase GFR.

b increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR.

The hormone ANP is released from the heart and causes the urinary system to a: increase urine volume and blood volume. b: increase urine volume and decrease blood volume. c: decrease urine volume and blood volume. d: decrease urine volume and increase blood volume.

b increase urine volume and decrease blood volume.

Urine passes from the renal papilla into a a: major calyx, then to a minor calyx, then to a ureter. b: minor calyx, then to a major calyx, then to the renal pelvis. c: ureter, then to a minor calyx, then to a major calyx. d: renal pelvis, then to a major calyx, then to a ureter. e: collecting duct, then to a minor calyx, then to a major calyx.

b minor calyx, then to a major calyx, then to the renal pelvis.

The primary mechanism of water reabsorption in the kidney is a: primary active transport by means of a protein pump. b: osmosis through aquaporins. c: secondary active transport by means of a sodium-water symporter. d: bulk transport by means of endocytosis.

b osmosis through aquaporins.

Most tubular reabsorption occurs in the a: proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many flagella. b: proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli. c: distal convoluted tubule, where cells have many flagella. d: distal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli.

b proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli.

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) a: stimulates reabsorption of both calcium and phosphate. b: stimulates reabsorption of calcium but inhibits phosphate reabsorption. c: inhibits reabsorption of calcium but stimulates phosphate reabsorption. d: inhibits reabsorption of both calcium and phosphate.

b stimulates reabsorption of calcium but inhibits phosphate reabsorption.

Pain from the kidneys is usually referred by way of the: a: autonomic pathways to the inferior pelvic organs. b: sympathetic pathways to the T10-T12 dermatomes. c: somatic pathways to the left shoulder. d: parasympathetic pathways to the T1-T2 region.

b sympathetic pathways to the T10-T12 dermatomes.

The renal threshold of a substance refers to a: the number of protein transporters for the substance per tubule. b: the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine. c: the concentration of the substance found in the kidney before the substance becomes toxic. d: the concentration of the substance in the urine that results in an overall increase in urine volume.

b the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine.

In order to accommodate the large liver, a: the left kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the right kidney. b: the right kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney.

b the right kidney is about 2 cm inferior to the left kidney

The word "countercurrent" within "countercurrent multiplier" refers to the opposite direction of flow of a: sodium and potassium across the wall of the nephron. b: tubular fluid within the ascending and descending limb of the nephron loop. c: salts and water across the wall of the renal tubule. d: tubular fluid in the proximal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule.

b tubular fluid within the ascending and descending limb of the nephron loop.

If there is an increase in systemic blood pressure, the resulting stretch of afferent arterioles results in reflexive a: vasoconstriction of efferent arterioles to raise GFR. b: vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal. c: vasodilation of efferent arterioles to lower GFR. d: vasodilation of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

b vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

Podocytes are cells with foot-like processes called pedicels. Podocytes are found in the a: basement membrane of the glomerulus. b: visceral layer of the glomerular capsule. c: periphery of the distal convoluted tubule. d: endothelium of the glomerulus.

b visceral layer of the glomerular capsule

Concerning the exchange between blood and interstitial fluid at systemic capillaries, more ________ is filtered than reabsorbed.

fluid

The germ layer between the ectoderm and the endoderm is the __________. a. endoderm b. mesoderm c. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

During fertilization, the nuclei of the sperm and the ovum are referred to as _________, before they come together and fuse to form a single nucleus. a. postparatum b. pronuclei c. postnuclei

b. pronuclei

Blood vessel growth within the uterus is promoted by the hormone __________. a. dialation b. relaxin

b. relaxin

Immediately before blood enters arterioles of the kidney, it travels through small arteries that project peripherally into the renal cortex. These arteries are the a: arcuate arteries. b: interlobular arteries. c: segmental arteries. d: lobar arteries. e: peritubular arteries.

b: interlobar arteries

What is the value of transitional epithelium in the urinary system? a: Its cilia help propel the urine. b: It can contract to produce peristalsis. c: It allows distension. d: It protects against trauma. e: It provides cushioning.

c It allows distension.

To measure GFR, an individual's urine is examined for the concentration of a test substance that they received by injection. How is that test substance treated by the kidney? a: It is filtered, reabsorbed, and excreted, but it is not secreted. b: It is neither filtered nor reabsorbed, but it is secreted. c: It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted. d: It is filtered and secreted, but not reabsorbed. e: It is not filtered, but it is secreted and reabsorbed.

c It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted.

Which of the following choices lists structures in the order in which urine flows through them? a: Major calyx, minor calyx, renal pelvis b: Renal pelvis, major calyx, minor pelvis c: Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis d: Major pelvis, minor calyx, renal pelvis e: Major calyx, renal pelvis, minor calyx

c Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis

The tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism responds to an increase in a: systemic blood pressure by signaling for a decrease in heart rate through blood-borne hormones. b: urine production by signaling for a decrease in urine production through the hormone ADH. c: NaCl concentration in tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with local chemical messengers. d: glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure by signaling for afferent arterioles to constrict and increase filtration rate.

c NaCl concentration in tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with local chemical messengers.

Where in the urinary tract is transitional epithelium found? a: Urinary bladder b: Urethra c: Ureters, urinary bladder, and prostatic urethra d: Ureters e: Ureters and urinary bladder

c Ureters, urinary bladder, and prostatic urethra

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of a: blood in the nephron capsule. b: tubular fluid in the glomerular capsule. c: blood in the glomerular capillaries. d: filtrate in the glomerular capillaries. e: solutes in the tubular fluid.

c blood in the glomerular capillaries.

An obstruction in the glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the a: renal artery. b: proximal convoluted tubule. c: efferent arteriole. d: distal convoluted tubule. e: afferent arteriole.

c efferent arteriole.

Sympathetic stimulation causes a: mesangial cells to release angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell contraction. b: mesangial cells to release angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell relaxation. c: granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction. d: granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell relaxation. e: inhibited release of erythropoietin and contraction of granular and mesangial cells.

c granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction.

Urine flow from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder is produced by a: ciliary action in the renal pelvis. b: suction from the urinary bladder. c: peristalsis of the ureters. d: hydrostatic pressure from the small intestine. e: contraction of the detrusor muscle.

c peristalsis of the ureters.

The normal pH for urine a: is anything below 7.0. b: is anything above 7.0 c: ranges between 4.5 and 8.0. d: ranges between 3.0 and 6.0. e: ranges between 8.0 and 9.0 for someone with a diet high in protein.

c ranges between 4.5 and 8.0.

Within the urinary system, the storage reflex involves a: contraction of both the detrusor muscle and the internal urethral sphincter. b: contraction of the detrusor muscle and relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter. c: relaxation of the detrusor muscle and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter. d: relaxation of both the detrusor muscle and the internal urethral sphincter.

c relaxation of the detrusor muscle and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter.

Generally, negatively charged plasma proteins are a: moved across the filtration membrane by active transport pumps. b: attracted by the positive charge of the filtration membrane. c: repelled by the negative charge of the filtration membrane. d: engulfed by endocytosis and reabsorbed at the filtration membrane.

c repelled by the negative charge of the filtration membrane.

Macula densa cells monitor the concentration of a: glucose in the blood. b: antidiuretic hormone in the urine. c: sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. d: calcium in the fluid of the proximal convoluted tubule. e: aldosterone in the afferent arteriole.

c sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

Someone with a diet that is high in vegetables but low in animal protein is likely to have very active a: type A cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. b: type A cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+. c: type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. d: type B cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+.

c type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+.

Substances that can cause birth defects or the death of the embryo are referred to as __________. a. monotogens b. antigens c. teratogens

c. teratogens

Generally, most water reabsorption in a nephron occurs at the a: nephron loop and is called obligatory water reabsorption. b: nephron loop and is called facultative water reabsorption. c: proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption. d: proximal convoluted tubule and is called facultative water reabsorption.

c: proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption.

Sperm undergo a process of conditioning known as __________ after they arrive in the female reproductive tract. a. fertilazation b. capacitation c. implantation

capacitation

Decreased testosterone levels in males in their 50s signal a change called the male _________________.

climacteric

Which is the most common type of capillary?

continuous

Stimulation of granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system causes them to

contract.

Autonomic innervation of the kidney includes a: Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T1-T2. b: Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12. c: Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T1-T2. d: Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12.

d Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12.

Which is the correct sequence of arteries that a drop of blood would flow through as it entered the kidney and moved toward a glomerulus? a: Segmental artery - interlobar artery - interlobular artery - renal artery - arcuate artery b: Interlobar artery - segmental artery - interlobular artery - renal artery - arcuate artery c: Renal artery - interlobar artery - segmental artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery d: Renal artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery e: Arcuate artery - interlobular artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - renal artery

d Renal artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery

Which layer is not found in the wall of the ureter? a: Adventitia b: Muscularis c: Mucosa d: Submucosa

d Submucosa

Put the portions of the male urethra in the correct order, from the urinary bladder to the exterior. a: Spongy part b: Urethral orifice c: Prostatic part d: Membranous part a: b, c, a, d b: c, a, d, b c: b, c, d, a d: c, d, a, b e: b, a, c, d

d c, d, a, b

ANP is a hormone that causes a: constriction of the afferent arterioles and release of renin. b: constriction of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release. c: dilation of the afferent arterioles and release of renin. d: dilation of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release.

d dilation of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release.

As it is leaving the kidney, blood passes directly from the arcuate vein to the a: renal vein. b: vasa recta. c: segmental vein. d: interlobar vein. e: interlobular vein.

d interlobar vein.

Renal plasma clearance a: is lower than GFR for substances that are both filtered and secreted. b: is the same as GFR for substances that are both filtered and secreted. c: is the amount of water loss from the plasma to the urine over the course of one hour. d: is the volume of plasma that can be entirely cleared of a substance in one minute.

d is the volume of plasma that can be entirely cleared of a substance in one minute.

Peritubular capillaries tend to exhibit a: high hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure. b: high hydrostatic pressure and low colloid pressure. c: low hydrostatic pressure and low colloid pressure. d: low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure.

d low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure.

Which is not a function of the kidneys? a: Regulation of blood pressure b: Removal of wastes from the blood c: Regulation of erythrocyte production d: Regulation of lymphocyte production e: Regulation of acid-base balance

d regulation of lymphocyte production

Considering the bulk flow that occurs at capillary beds, the lymphatic system is needed to reabsorb excess _______ from the ________ _________.

fluid, interstitial fluid

The function of the postcapillary venule is to ?

drain the capillary bed

As blood moves from the arterial end to the venous end of a capillary, net filtration pressure _________, as ______ __________ __________ decreases.

decreases, blood hydrostatic pressure

As blood flows through the vasa recta alongside the ascending limb of the nephron loop, the blood is flowing ______ into the _______.

deep, medulla

The fibrous capsule of the kidney is composed of

dense irregular connective tissue.

Umbilical arteries carry _______ blood.

deoxygenated

The pulmonary trunk carries ______________ blood from the right ventricle to the ________.

deoxygenated, lungs

The muscularis layer of the urinary bladder is commonly called the _____ muscle.

detrusor

Superior phrenic arteries supply the ______ and emerge from the _____.

diaphragm; descending thoracic aorta

Oxygen and carbon dioxiode are transported between the blood and interstitial fluid by way of __________ from areas of ______ _________ to ___________ ____________.

diffusion, higher concentration, lower concentration

Micturition a: is another name for urination. b: is a reflex triggered by stretch receptors in the urinary bladder. c: requires the opening of two sphincters. d: requires contraction of the muscularis layer of the urinary bladder. e: All of the choices are correct.

e All of the choices are correct.

Which layer is not found in the wall of the urinary bladder? a: Adventitia b: Muscularis c: Mucosa d: Submucosa e: No exceptions; all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder

e No exceptions; all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder

Which is not correct regarding the innervation of the kidney? a: Parasympathetic innervation is from the vagus nerve. b: The kidney is served by the renal plexus. c: Sympathetic innervation is from segments T10-T12 of the spinal cord. d: Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the renal blood vessels. e: Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

e Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

Which step(s) in the process of urine formation occur in the renal tubule? a: Filtration only b: Secretion only c: Reabsorption only d: Filtration, secretion, and reabsorption e: Secretion and reabsorption only

e Secretion and reabsorption only

Which is not correct regarding nephrons? a: The renal corpuscle includes the glomerulus and the glomerular capsule. b: The renal tubule is composed of the proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, and distal convoluted tubule. c: The nephron is the functional filtration unit in the kidney. d: Eighty-five percent of nephrons are cortical nephrons. e: The renal corpuscle may be located in the renal cortex or renal medulla

e The renal corpuscle may be located in the renal cortex or renal medulla

Place the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation. a: Capsular space of glomerulus b: Nephron loop c: Collecting duct d: Distal convoluted tubule e: Proximal convoluted tubule a: a, c, b, e, d b: e, d, b, a, c c: b, e, c, d, a d: b, d, c, e, a e: a, e, b, d, c

e a, e, b, d, c

The largest arteries of the body are classified as ?

elastic arteries

The ______________ is a comma-shaped structure that lies on the surface of the testis, and includes a head, body, and tail.

epididymis

Sympathetic nervous system influences on glomerular filtration rate are considered ________ controls.

extrinsic

True/False: An increase in blood vessel diameter would lead to a decrease in blood flow.

false

The endothelium of the glomerulus is made up of _________ capillaries.

fenestrated

If the filtration membrane were made more porous, how would you expect the glomerular filtration rate to change?

increase

The kidneys are located ___________ to the peritoneum.

posterior

The fold of the labia minora that forms a hood over the clitoris is the ________.

prepuce

The most primitive type of ovarian follicle is a _____________ follicle.

primordial

The anterior pituitary hormone that facilitates milk production is _________.

prolactin

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located near the vascular pole of the ______ ________.

renal corpuscle.

The renal corpuscle is located within the

renal cortex.

The capsular hydrostatic pressure is generally ______ than the glomerular hydrostatic pressure; increases in capsular hydrostatic pressure _________ the formation of additional filtrate.

smaller; impede