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The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving several cardiac medications designed to stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, vitamin B12, and an H2 blocker. The nurse should do which of the following? a. Assess for signs of peptic ulcer. b. Be watchful for increased saliva production. c. Evaluate for a decrease in potassium level. d. Give the patient medications to prevent anemia.

A

The patient is admitted with upper GI bleeding following an episode of forceful retching following excessive alcohol intake. The nurse suspects a Mallory-Weiss tear and is aware that: a. a Mallory-Weiss tear is a longitudinal tear in the gastroesophageal mucosa. b. this type of bleeding is treated by giving chewable aspirin. c. the bleeding, although impressive, is self-limiting with little actual blood loss. d. is not usually associated with alcohol intake or retching.

ANS: A A Mallory-Weiss tear is an arterial hemorrhage from an acute longitudinal tear in the gastroesophageal mucosa and accounts for 10% to 15% of upper GI bleeding episodes. It is associated with long-term nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug or aspirin ingestion and with excessive alcohol intake. The upper GI bleeding usually occurs after episodes of forceful retching. Bleeding usually resolves spontaneously; however, lacerations of the esophagogastric junction may cause massive GI bleeding, requiring surgical repair.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is passing bright red blood rectally. The nurse should expect to insert a nasogastric tube to: a. rule out massive upper GI bleeding. b. detect the presence of melena in the stomach. c. visually determine the presence of occult bleeding. d. obtain samples for guaiac to confirm current bleeding.

ANS: A Bright red or maroon blood (hematochezia) is usually a sign of a lower GI source of bleeding but can be seen when upper GI bleeding is massive (more than 1000 mL). Melena is shiny, black, foul-smelling stool; it is not present in the stomach. Occult bleeding means that blood is not visible and is detected only by testing the stool with a chemical reagent (guaiac).

Which of the following would be seen in a patient with myxedema coma? a. Decreased reflexes b. Hyperthermia c. Hyperventilation d. Tachycardia

ANS: A Myxedema coma is characterized by a hypometabolic state, and all body functions are slowed including cardiovascular function, decreased gastrointestinal mobility, cold intolerance, and diminished reflexes

The patient is getting neomycin for treatment of hepatic encephalopathy. While the patient is receiving this medication, it is especially important that the nurse: a. evaluate renal function studies daily. b. give the medication every 12 hours. c. evaluate liver studies for signs of neomycin-induced damage. d. obtain stool guaiac tests to ensure that pathogens are being destroyed.

ANS: A Neomycin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that destroys normal bacteria found in the bowel, thereby decreasing protein breakdown and ammonia production. Neomycin is given orally every 4 to 6 hours. This drug is toxic to the kidneys (not liver) and therefore cannot be given to patients with renal failure. Daily renal function studies are monitored when neomycin is administered. Guaiac tests are used to detect occult bleeding.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a peptic ulcer. To treat the ulcer and prevent more ulcers from forming, the nurse should be prepared to administer: a. H2-histamine receptor blockers. b. gastrin. c. vagal stimulation. d. vitamin B12.

ANS: A Stimulants of hydrochloric acid secretion include vagal stimulation, gastrin, and the chemical properties of chyme. Histamine, which stimulates the release of gastrin, also stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid. Current drug therapies for ulcer disease use H2-histamine receptor blockers that block the effects of histamine and therefore hydrochloric acid stimulation. Vitamin B12 is critical for the formation of red blood cells (RBCs), and a deficiency in this vitamin causes anemia but has no effect on ulcer formation. Gastrin is a hormone that stimulates acid. The vagus nerve helps digestion; however, vagal stimulation is not a treatment for peptic ulcer disease.

The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is: a. sepsis. b. fluid overload. c. medications. d. hemodynamic instability.

ANS: A The etiology of AKI in critically ill patients is often multifactorial and develops from a combination of hypovolemia, sepsis, medications, and hemodynamic instability. Sepsis is the most common cause of AKI.

After gastric bypass surgery, the patient is getting vitamin B12 via injection. The patient asks why he cant get the vitamin by mouth. The nurse explains that: a. the patient may not have enough intrinsic factor for normal absorption. b. the patient would have to drink water, and the small intestine cant handle water. c. the vitamin is absorbed in the upper part of the small bowel and would travel too fast. d. all vitamins are absorbed in the terminal ileum and it would take too long for B12.

ANS: A Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum in the presence of intrinsic factor produced in the stomach. Gastric bypass may lead to reduced levels of intrinsic factor. The small intestine also handles water, electrolyte, and vitamin absorption. Vitamins, with the exception of B12, and iron are absorbed in the upper part of the small bowel.

Which of the following patients would require greater amounts of fluid resuscitation to prevent acute kidney injury associated with rhabdomyolysis? (Select all that apply.) a. Crush injury to right arm b. Gunshot wound to the abdomen c. Lightning strike of the left arm and chest d. Pulmonary contusion and rib fracture

ANS: A, C Causes of rhabdomyolysis include crush injuries, compartment syndrome, burns, and injuries from being struck by lightning. Acute kidney injury may result from a gunshot wound related to prolonged hypotension. Acute kidney injury would not have a direct cause associated with a pulmonary contusion.

Acute adrenal crisis is caused by: a. acute renal failure. b. deficiency of corticosteroids. c. high doses of corticosteroids. d. overdose of testosterone

ANS: B An adrenal crisis occurs because of a lack of corticosteroids. This may be due to lack of endogenous cortisol production, lack of ACTH production, or inhibition of natural cortisol production by exogenous cortisol administration.

The nurse is assessing a patient being admitted with complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath as well as abdominal tenderness. The nurse notes that the patient is jaundiced; the physical examination reports an enlarged liver The nurse suspects that the patient has a. aplastic anemia. b. hemolytic anemia. c. sickle cell anemia. d. anemia due to acute blood loss.

ANS: B Assessment of the patient with hemolytic anemia may reveal jaundice, abdominal pain, and enlargement of the spleen or liver. These findings result from the increased destruction of RBCs, their sequestration (abnormal distribution in the spleen and liver), and the accumulation of breakdown products. The patient with aplastic anemia may have bruising, nosebleeds, petechiae, and a decreased ability to fight infections. These effects result from thrombocytopenia and decreased WBC counts, which occur when the bone marrow fails to produce blood cells. Patients with sickle cell anemia may have joint swelling or pain, and delayed physical and sexual development.

The nurse is caring for a patient with liver disease. When assessing the patients laboratory values, the nurse should: a. disregard the level of conjugated bilirubin. b. assess the indirect serum bilirubin. c. call the provider immediately if the direct bilirubin is elevated. d. be aware that unconjugated bilirubin is harmless.

ANS: B Bilirubin enters the circulation bound to albumin and is unconjugated. This portion of the bilirubin is reflected in the indirect serum bilirubin level. Accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin is toxic to cells. In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid. Conjugated bilirubin is soluble and excreted in bile. Some conjugated bilirubin returns to the blood and is reflected in the direct serum bilirubin level.

Lactulose is considered the first-line treatment for hepatic encephalopathy and works by: a. causing ammonia to enter the bloodstream via the colon. b. trapping ammonia in the bowel for excretion. c. causing constipation and inhibiting the excretion of ammonia. d. creating an alkaline environment in the bowel.

ANS: B Lactulose is considered the first-line treatment for hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose creates an acidic environment in the bowel that causes the ammonia to leave the bloodstream and enter the colon. Ammonia is trapped in the bowel. Lactulose also has a laxative effect that allows for elimination of the ammonia. Lactulose is given orally or via a rectal enema

A reduction in the number of circulating RBCs or hemoglobin, which leads to inadequate oxygenation of tissues, is known as: a. polycythemia. b. anemia. c. iron deficiency. d. an increase in hemoglobin.

ANS: B The term anemia refers to a reduction in the number of circulating RBCs or hemoglobin, which leads to inadequate oxygenation of tissues. Polycythemia, a disorder in which the number of circulating RBCs is increased, is seen less often but can affect hypoxic patients (e.g., those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). Iron deficiency anemia is the most common type of anemia.

Fluid resuscitation is an important component of managing the trauma patient. Which of the following statements are true regarding the care of a trauma patient? (Select all that apply.) a. 5% Dextrose is recommended for rapid crystalloid infusion. b. IV fluids may need to be warmed to prevent hypothermia. c. Massive transfusions should be avoided to improve patient outcomes. d. Only fully cross-matched blood products are administered.

ANS: B, C Lactated Ringers and normal saline are the crystalloids of choice in trauma resuscitation. Because hypothermia is a concern, fluids should be warmed. Massive blood transfusions are associated with poor outcomes. Crossmatched blood is preferred, but blood type O, universal donor blood, can be administered in an emergency.

The most significant clinical finding of acute adrenal crisis associated with fluid and electrolyte balance is: a. fluid volume excess. b. hyperglycemia. c. hyperkalemia d. hypernatremia

ANS: C Adrenal insufficiency may be characterized by inadequate amounts of cortisol and aldosterone. Aldosterone acts to retain sodium, resulting is water retention and potassium loss. Inadequate levels of aldosterone therefore result in hyponatremia, fluid loss, and hyperkalemia. Inadequate cortisol levels may cause weight loss, weakness, and hypoglycemia. Fluid volume deficit may accompany adrenal crisis as a result of sodium loss from decreases in cortisol and aldosterone. Hypoglycemia may accompany adrenal crisis as a consequence of inadequate amounts of cortisol, which limits gluconeogenesis. Hyponatremia may accompany adrenal crisis because of sodium losses secondary to aldosterone insufficiency that often accompanies the condition.

The nurse is caring for a patient with active GI bleeding. Estimated blood loss is 1,000 mL. Which of the following assessments would the nurse expect to find with this amount of blood loss? a. all vital signs would expect to be normal with this amount of blood loss. b. oral temperature of 103. c. heart rate 125 beats per minute. d. systolic blood pressure of 120 mm Hg.

ANS: C As blood loss exceeds 1000 mL, the shock syndrome progresses, causing decreased blood flow to the skin, lungs, liver, and kidneys. Hypotension is an advanced sign of shock. As a rule, a systolic pressure of less than 100 mm Hg, a postural decrease in blood pressure of greater than 10 mm Hg, or a heart rate of greater than 120 beats/min reflects a blood loss of at least 1000 mL25% of the total blood volume.

The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of: a. dialyzer membrane incompatibility. b. a shift in potassium levels. c. dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. d. hypothermia.

ANS: C Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome often occurs after the first or second dialysis treatment or in patients who have had sudden, large decreases in BUN and creatinine levels as a result of the hemodialysis. Because of the blood-brain barrier, dialysis does not deplete the concentrations of BUN, creatinine, and other uremic toxins in the brain as rapidly as it does those substances in the extracellular fluid. An osmotic concentration gradient established in the brain allows fluid to enter until the concentration levels equal those of the extracellular fluid. The extra fluid in the brain tissue creates a state of cerebral edema for the patient, which results in severe headaches, nausea and vomiting, twitching, mental confusion, and occasionally seizures.

Metronidazole is being given to treat hepatic encephalopathy. When administering this medication, the nurse: a. watches the patient for diarrhea. b. evaluates renal function daily. c. assesses the patient for epigastric discomfort. d. instructs the patient that this medication must be taken for 2 weeks.

ANS: C Neomycin and metronidazole are considered second-line treatments for hepatic encephalopathy. Metronidazole is given 500 mg to 1.5 g/day for 1 week. Metronidazole does not cause diarrhea, and it is not nephrotoxic. Metronidazole may cause epigastric discomfort, which may in turn result in poor compliance with long-term treatment.

A patient with a history of pulmonary embolism is being worked up for a potential coagulopathy that increases the risk for clotting. The nurse understands that the provider may order a test for a. factor VII deficiency. b. factor X deficiency. c. protein C deficiency. d. factor IX deficiency.

ANS: C The coagulation factors are plasma proteins that circulate as inactive enzymes, and most are synthesized in the liver. Vitamin K is necessary for synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X, necessary for clotting to occur and for anticoagulation factors protein C and protein S. A deficiency of anticoagulation factors could lead to increased clot formation and problems such as stroke and pulmonary emboli.

Conditions that produce acute kidney injury by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue are classified as intrarenal. The most common intrarenal condition is: a. prolonged ischemia. b. exposure to nephrotoxic substances. c. acute tubular necrosis (ATN). d. hypotension for several hours.

ANS: C The most common intrarenal condition is ATN. This condition may occur after prolonged ischemia (prerenal),exposure to nephrotoxic substances, or a combination of these. Some patients have ATN after only several minutes of hypotension or hypovolemia

The patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain due to pancreatitis. The patient asks the nurse, What causes this? Why does it hurt so much? The nurse should answer: a. Pancreatitis is extremely rare and no one knows why it causes pain. b. Pancreatitis is caused by diabetes; you should be checked. c. Injury to certain cells in the pancreas causes it to digest (eat) itself, causing pain. d. The pain is localized to the pancreas. Fortunately, it will not affect anything else.

ANS: C The most common theory regarding the development of pancreatitis is that an injury or disruption of pancreatic acinar cells allows leakage of the pancreatic enzymes into pancreatic tissue. The leaked enzymes (trypsin, chymotrypsin, and elastase) become activated in the tissue and start the process of autodigestion. Pancreatitis is one of the most common pancreatic diseases; it is not caused by diabetes. The activated enzymes break down tissue and cell membranes, causing edema, vascular damage, hemorrhage, necrosis, and fibrosis. These now toxic enzymes and inflammatory mediators are released into the bloodstream and cause injury to vessel and organ systems, such as the hepatic and renal systems.

Treatment and/or prevention of rhabdomyolysis in at-risk patients includes aggressive fluid resuscitation to achieve urine output of: a. 30 mL/hr. b. 50 mL/hr. c. 100 mL/hr. d. 300 mL/hr.

ANS: C Treatment of rhabdomyolysis consists of aggressive fluid resuscitation to flush the myoglobin from the renal tubules. A common protocol includes the titration of IV fluids to achieve a urine output of 100 to 200 mL/hr. Urine volumes less than 100 mL/hr are insufficient and a urine volume greater than 200mL/hr will not harm the patient but may create too aggressive a diuresis.

With minor vessel injury, primary hemostasis is achieved: a. after several minutes. b. with fibrin to solidify the platelet plug. c. usually within seconds. d. as a permanent solution.

ANS: C With minor vessel injury, primary hemostasis is temporarily achieved with platelet plugs, usually within seconds. During secondary hemostasis, the platelet plug is solidified with fibrin, an end product of the coagulation pathway, and requires several minutes to reach completion.

Which of the following laboratory values would be more common in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Blood glucose >1000 mg/dL b. Negative ketones in the urine c. Normal anion gap d. pH 7.24

ANS: D A pH of 7.24 is indicative of an acidotic state that may accompany diabetic ketoacidosis. Glucose values of more than 1000 mg/dL are more commonly associated with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with positive urine ketones and an increased anion gap.

A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 104.8 F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder? a. Adrenal crisis b. Myxedema coma c. Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) d. Thyroid storm

ANS: D Clinical manifestations of the hypermetabolic state of thyroid storm: Tachycardia Vascular collapse Rapid cardiac rhythms Congestive heart failure Severe hyperthermia

The patient is ordered to have large volume gastric lavage. The nurse will most likely need to: a. insert a small-bore nasogastric tube. b. use 2 to 4 liters of room temperature normal saline. c. remove the nasogastric tube before lavage is started. d. insert a large-bore nasogastric tube.

ANS: D Large-volume gastric lavage before endoscopy for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is safe and provides better visualization of the gastric fundus. A large-bore nasogastric tube is inserted and is connected to suction. If lavage is ordered, 1 to 2 liters of room temperature normal saline is instilled via nasogastric tube and is then gently removed by intermittent suction or gravity until the secretions are clear. After lavage, the nasogastric tube may be left in or removed

In assessing the patient complaining of abdominal pain, it is important for the nurse to understand that: a. pain receptors in the abdomen are more likely to be localized. b. pain of a peptic ulcer is easily distinguished from that of heart attack. c. visceral pain often leads to tachycardia and hypertension. d. increasing intensity of pain is always significant.

ANS: D Pain assessment is challenging. Pain receptors in the abdomen are less likely to be localized and are mediated by common sensory structures projected to the skin. Therefore, distinguishing the pain of a peptic ulcer or cholecystitis from that of a myocardial infarction is often difficult. Abdominal pain often is caused by engorged mucosa, pressure in the mucosa, distention, or spasm. Visceral pain is likely to cause pallor, perspiration, bradycardia, nausea and vomiting, weakness, and hypotension. Increasing intensity of pain, especially after surgery or other intervention, is always significant and usually signifies complicating factors, such as inflammation, gastric distention, hemorrhage into tissue or the peritoneal space, or peritonitis.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patients urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when? a. creatinine levels in the urine are similar to blood levels of creatinine. b. sodium and chloride are found in the urine. c. urine uric acid levels have the same values as serum levels. d. red blood cells and albumin are found in the urine.

ANS: D Red blood cells, albumin, and globulin are too large to pass through the healthy glomerular membrane. Their presence in urine may indicate glomerular damage.

The patient is being admitted to the hospital. At home, the patient take an over-the-counter supplement of Vitamin D and is concerned because the doctor did not order that vitamin D to be given in the hospital. The nurse explains that a. the body does not store vitamins so the doctor will have to be called. b. the kidneys will produce enough vitamin D and that supplements are not needed. c. over-the-counter supplements are never given in the hospital. d. vitamins D is stored in the liver with a 10-month supply to prevent deficiency.

ANS: D The liver plays a central role in the storage, synthesis, and transport of various vitamins and minerals. It functions as a storage depot principally for vitamins A, D, and B12, where up to 3-, 10-, and 12-month supplies, respectively, of these nutrients are stored to prevent deficiency states. The kidneys do not produce vitamin D. Over-the-counter supplements are ordered depending on the patients status.

An elderly female patient has presented to the emergency department with altered mental status, hypothermia, and clinical signs of heart failure. Myxedema is suspected. Which of the following laboratory findings support this diagnosis? a. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone b. Elevated cortisol levels c. Elevated T3 and T4 d. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone

ANS: D Thyroid hormones are low in myxedema. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is usually high in relation to the feedback mechanisms for hormone regulation if myxedema is caused by primary hypothyroidism

The nurse understands that when clots breakdown in a patient with a hematological disorder, that which value will increase? a. hemoglobin. b. white blood cell count. c. vitamin K. d. fibrin split products.

ANS: D When plasmin digests fibrinogen, fragments known as fibrin split products, or fibrin degradation products, are produced and function as potent anticoagulants. Fibrin split products are not normally present in the circulation but are seen in some hematological disorders as well as with thrombolytic therapy.

The nurse is assessing a patient being admitted for anemia. The nurse sees no overt signs of bleeding. The nurse understands that: a. all patients with bleeding disorders demonstrate active bleeding. b. many patients have bleeding that is not obvious. c. mucous membranes have a high threshold for bleeding. d. capillaries in mucous membranes lie deep in the membrane.

B

Of the four major blood components, plasma: a. is made up of circulating ions. b. comprises about 55% of blood volume. c. is transported to the cells by serum proteins. d. comprises about 45% of blood volume.

B Blood has four major components: (1) a fluid component called plasma, (2) circulating solutes such as ions, (3) serum proteins, and (4) cells. Plasma comprises about 55% of blood volume and is the transportation medium for important serum proteins such as albumin, globulin, fibrinogen, prothrombin, and plasminogen. The hematopoietic cells comprise the remaining 45% of blood volume.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving chemotherapeutic agents, and notices that the patients neutrophils count is low. The nurse realizes that: a. the patient has a bacterial infection. b. a shift to the left is occurring. c. chemotherapeutic agents alter the ability to fight infection. d. neutrophils have a long life span and multiply slowly.

C

Acute kidney injury from post renal etiology is caused by: a. obstruction of the flow of urine. b. conditions that interfere with renal perfusion. c. hypovolemia or decreased cardiac output. d. conditions that act directly on functioning kidney tissue.

ANS: A Acute kidney injury resulting from obstruction of the flow of urine is classified as postrenal or obstructive renal injury.

The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old patient with a diagnosis of head trauma. The nurse notes that the patient's urine output has increased tremendously over the past 18 hours. The nurse suspects that the patient may be developing: a. diabetes insipidus. b. diabetic ketoacidosis. c. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. d. syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone.

ANS: A Diabetes insipidus results in large volumes of urine; dehydration and hypovolemia can result. Head trauma and resulting increased intracranial pressure are potential causes of diabetes insipidus. High urine output following head trauma is associated with diabetes insipidus. Even though hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome results in osmotic diuresis, the cause is a deficiency in insulin in type 2 diabetes, not head trauma. SIADH may occur with head trauma but results in reduced urine output and, potentially, hypervolemia.

The patient is admitted with generalized fatigue and a low hemoglobin and hematocrit (anemia). The patient denies vomiting and states that his last bowel movement earlier that day was normal in color and consistency. However, because GI blood loss can be a cause of anemia, the nurse should expect to: a. obtain a stool sample for guaiac testing. b. chart that the patient reports the presence of melena in his stool. c. inspect the patients next stool for the presence of coffee-ground contents. d. obtain guaiac positive stools only if bleeding is current.

ANS: A GI blood loss is often occult or detected only by testing the stool with a chemical reagent (guaiac). Stool and nasogastric drainage can test guaiac positive for up to 10 days after a bleeding episode. Melena is shiny, black, foul-smelling stool and results from the degradation of blood by stomach acids or intestinal bacteria. Vomiting or drainage from a nasogastric tube that yields blood or coffee-groundlike material is associated with upper GI bleeding. However, blood or coffee-groundlike contents may not be present if bleeding has ceased or if it arises beyond a closed pylorus.

The patient is admitted with pancreatitis and has severe ascites. In caring for this patient, the nurse should: a. monitor the patients blood pressure and evaluate for signs of dehydration. b. restrict intravenous and oral fluid intake because of fluid shifts. c. avoid the use of colloid IV solutions in managing the patients fluid status. d. only use crystalloid fluids to prevent IV lines from clotting.

ANS: A In patients with severe acute pancreatitis, some fluid collects in the retroperitoneal space and peritoneal cavity. Patients sequester up to one third of their plasma volume. Initially, most patients develop some degree of dehydration and, in severe cases, hypovolemic shock. Fluid replacement is a high priority in the treatment of acute pancreatitis. The IV solutions ordered for fluid resuscitation are usually colloids or lactated Ringers solution; however, fresh frozen plasma and albumin may also be used. IV fluid administration with crystalloids at 500 mL/hr is at times required to maintain hemodynamic status. Often, vigorous IV fluid replacement at 250 to 300mL/hr continues for the first 48 hours or a volume adequate to maintain a urine output of greater than or equal to 0.5 mL/kg body weight per hour. Fluid replacement helps to maintain perfusion to the pancreas and kidneys, reducing the potential for complications.

A patient presents to the emergency department with a suspected thyroid storm. The nurse should be alert to which of the following cardiac rhythms while providing care to this patient? a. Atrial fibrillation b. Idioventricular rhythm c. Junctional rhythm d. Sinus bradycardia

ANS: A Increased heart rate and tachydysrhythmia, including atrial fibrillation, may accompany thyroid storm. Bradycardiac rhythms may be suggestive of hypothyroidism.

The patients platelet count is 35,000/microliter. The provider orders the administration of 10 units of single-donor platelets. After transfusion, the nurse can expect the patients platelet count to be: a. between 85,000/microliter and 135,000/microliter. b. Between 50,000/microliter and 75,000/microliter. c. greater than 150,000/microliter. d. between 150,000/microliter and 185,000/microliter.

ANS: A Medical treatment of thrombocytopenia includes infusions of platelets. Patients who require multiple platelet transfusions should be evaluated for single-donor platelet products, which permit administration of 6 to 10 units of platelets with exposure to the antigens of only one person. For every unit of single-donor platelets, the platelet count should increase by 5000 to 10,000/microliter.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone major abdominal surgery. The nurse notices that the patients urine output has been less than 20 mL/hour for the past 2 hours. It is 0200 in the morning. The patients blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 110 beats per minute. Previously, the pulse was 90 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse should: a. contact the provider and expect an order for a normal saline bolus. b. wait until 0900 when the provider makes rounds to report the assessment findings. c. continue to evaluate urine output for 2 more hours. d. ignore the urine output, as this is most likely postrenal in origin.

ANS: A Most prerenal causes of AKI are related to intravascular volume depletion, decreased cardiac output, renal vasoconstriction, or pharmacological agents that impair autoregulation and GFR (Box 15-2).

Pain control is a nursing priority in patients with acute pancreatitis because pain: a. increases pancreatic secretions. b. is caused by decreased distention of the pancreatic capsule. c. decreases the patients metabolism. d. is caused by dilation of the biliary system

ANS: A Pain control is a nursing priority in patients with acute pancreatitis not only because the disorder produces extreme patient discomfort but also because pain increases the patients metabolism and thus increases pancreatic secretions. The pain of pancreatitis is caused by edema and distention of the pancreatic capsule, obstruction of the biliary system, and peritoneal inflammation from pancreatic enzymes. Pain is often severe and unrelenting and is related to the degree of pancreatic inflammation.

A patient has been on daily, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. His prescription runs out before his next appointment with his physician. Because he is asymptomatic, he thinks it is all right to withhold the medication for 3 days. What is likely to happen to this patient? a. He will go into adrenal crisis. b. He will go into thyroid storm. c. His autoimmune disease will go into remission. d. Nothing; it is appropriate to stop the medication for 3 days.

ANS: A Patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy are at high risk for adrenal crisis, because therapy suppresses the endogenous production of steroids. Adrenal crisis may be precipitated by sudden withdrawal of glucocorticoid therapy.

The nurse is caring for a patient with severe pancreatitis and who is orally intubated and on mechanical ventilation. The patients calcium level this morning was 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse notifies the provider and: a. places the patient on seizure precautions. b. expects that the provider will come and remove the endotracheal tube. c. withhold any further calcium treatments. d. place an oral airway at the bedside.

ANS: A Patients with severe hypocalcemia (serum calcium level less than 6 mg/dL) should be placed on seizure precaution status, and respiratory support equipment should be available (e.g., oral airway, suction). In this case, the patient is already intubated so an oral airway is not needed. This value is critically low and replacement of calcium is expected.

The nurse examines the patients complete blood count with differential analysis and notices that the patients neutrophils are elevated, but the lymphocytes are lower than normal. The drop in lymphocyte count in the differential is most likely due to: a. the increase in neutrophil count. b. a new viral infection. c. a decreased number of bands. d. the lack of immature neutrophils.

ANS: A The differential count measures the percentage of each type of white blood cell (WBC) present in the venous blood sample, the total adding up to 100%. If the percentage of one type of WBC goes up (neutrophil count), the percentage of the remaining WBCs must go down as a result of the mathematical function of the differential. An elevation in the neutrophil count usually indicates a bacterial infection. Bands are immature neutrophils. The phrase a shift to the left refers to an increased number of bands, or band neutrophils, compared with mature neutrophils on a complete blood count (CBC) report. This finding generally indicates an acute bacterial infectious process (not viral) that draws on the WBC reserves in the bone marrow and causes less mature forms to be released.

Which of the following is a high-priority nursing diagnosis for both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome? a. Activity intolerance b. Fluid volume deficit c. Hyperthermia d. Impaired nutrition, more than body requirements

ANS: B Both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome result in dehydration and hypovolemia; therefore, fluid volume deficit is a priority nursing diagnosis

The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure.To detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should: a. not be concerned unless urine output decreases. b. evaluate the patient's serum creatinine for up to 72 hours after the procedure. c. obtain an order for a renal ultrasound. d. evaluate the patients post void residual volume to detect intrarenal injury.

ANS: B Contrast- induced kidney injury is diagnosed by an increase in serum creatinine of 25%, or 0.5 mg/dL, within 48 to 72 hours following the administration of contrast.

The patient is admitted with anemia and active bleeding. The nurse suspects intravascular disseminated coagulation (DIC). Definitive diagnosis of DIC is made by evidence of: a. a decrease in fibrin degradation products. b. an increased D-dimer level. c. thrombocytopenia. d. low fibrinogen levels.

ANS: B Diagnosis of DIC is made based on recognition of pertinent risk factors, clinical symptoms, and the results of laboratory studies. Evidence of factor depletion in the form of thrombocytopenia and low fibrinogen levels is seen in the early phase; however, definitive diagnosis is made by evidence of excess fibrinolysis detectable by elevated fibrin degradation products, an increased D-dimer level, or a decreased antithrombin III level.

The patient is admitted with the diagnosis of GI bleeding. The patients heart rate is 140 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 84/44 mm Hg. These values may indicate: a. a need for hourly vital signs. b. approximately 25% loss of total blood volume. c. resolution of hypovolemic shock. d. increased blood flow to the skin, lungs, and liver.

ANS: B Hypotension is an advanced sign of shock. As a rule, a systolic pressure of less than 100 mm Hg, a postural decrease in blood pressure of greater than 10 mm Hg, or a heart rate of greater than 120 beats/min reflects a blood loss of at least 1000 mL25% of the total blood volume. Vital signs should be monitored at least every 15 minutes. As blood loss exceeds 1000 mL, the shock syndrome progresses, causing decreased blood flow to the skin, lungs, liver, and kidneys.

A patient with type 1 diabetes who is receiving a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion via an insulin pump contacts the clinic to report mechanical failure of the infusion pump. The nurse instructs the patient to begin monitoring for signs of: a. adrenal insufficiency. b. diabetic ketoacidosis. c. hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state. d. hypoglycemia.

ANS: B If the insulin pump fails, the patient with type 1 diabetes will have a complete interruption of insulin delivery; diabetic ketoacidosis will occur. Adrenal insufficiency would not result from insulin pump failure. Hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state is a hyperglycemic complication associated with type 2 diabetes; this patient has type 1 diabetes. Interruption of insulin delivery in type 1 diabetes would result in hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. Because mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, the nurse should: a. assess the patients hearing. b. assess the patients lungs. c. decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered. d. give extra doses prior to giving radiological contrast agents.

ANS: B Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic often used in acute kidney injury caused by rhabdomyolysis, increases plasma volume. Patients may be at risk for the development of pulmonary edema due to the rapid expansion of intravascular volume triggered by mannitol. Hearing is assessed with administration of loop diuretics, such as furosemide, which have been associated with deafness. Aggressive fluid administration is required in rhabdomyolysis. Diuretics may increase the risk of acute kidney injury from volume depletion when they are given before procedures requiring radiological contrast agents or if the patient is hypovolemic. Adequate hydration prior to administration of diuretics is essential.

The nurse is evaluating the patients laboratory values and notes an IgG level of 240 mg/dL. The nurse realizes that this patient is a candidate for: a. no change in therapy because the level is normal. b. an immunoglobulin infusion. c. gene replacement therapy. d. increased doses of immunosuppressive medications.

ANS: B Medical therapy is directed at reversing the cause of the immune dysfunction and preventing infectious complications. In primary immunodeficiencies, B-cell and T-cell defects are treated with specific replacement therapy or bone marrow transplantation. IgG blood levels of less than 300 mg/dL warrant immunoglobulin infusion. Gene replacement therapy may soon be a realistic curative treatment option for some disorders. In secondary immunodeficiencies, the underlying causative condition is treated. For example, malnutrition is corrected, or doses of immunosuppressive medications are adjusted. For this patient, immunosuppressive medications should be discontinued or doses lowered.

The nurse is assisting the patient to select foods from the menu that will promote wound healing. Which statement indicates the nurse's knowledge of nutritional goals? a. Avoid foods that have saturated fats. Fats interfere with the ability of the burn wound to heal. b. Choose foods that are high in protein, such as meat, eggs, and beans. These help the burns to heal. c. It is important to choose foods like bread and pasta that are high in carbohydrates. These foods will give you energy and help you to heal faster. d. Select foods that have lots of fiber, such as whole grains and fruits. These will promote the removal of toxins from the body that interfere with healing.

ANS: B Nutritional therapy must be instituted immediately after burn injury to meet the high metabolic demands of the body. Oral diets should be high in calories and high in protein to meet the demands of the body

The patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis and is demonstrating severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and ascites. Using the Ranson classification criteria, the nurse determines that this patient: a. has a 99% chance of survival. b. has a 15% chance of dying. c. has a 40% chance of dying. d. has no chance of survival.

ANS: B Patients with acute pancreatitis can develop mild or fulminant disease. As a consequence, research has addressed criteria for predicting the prognosis of patients with acute pancreatitis. The early classification criteria were developed by Ranson, who suggested that the number of signs present within the first 48 hours of admission directly relates to the patients chance of significant morbidity and mortality. In Ransons research,patients with fewer than three signs had a 1% mortality rate, those with three or four signs had a 15% mortality rate, those with five or six signs had a 40% mortality rate, and those with seven or more signs had a 100% Mortality

In vivo, the primary activator of the coagulation cascade occurs via the: a. intrinsic pathway. b. extrinsic pathway. c. common pathway. d. either intrinsic or extrinsic pathway.

ANS: B The classic theory of coagulation is viewed as occurring through two distinct pathways, intrinsic and extrinsic, which share a common final pathway, formation of insoluble fibrin. It is now known that the classic cascade theory of coagulation illustrates what occurs in vitro. In vivo, the primary activator of the coagulation cascade occurs via the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway serves to amplify the coagulation cascade

The patient is admitted with anemia caused by blood loss and thrombocytopenia. His platelet count is 22,000/microliter. The patient is scheduled for a transfusion of RBCs and a transfusion of platelets. The nurse should: a. give the RBCs before the platelets. b. give the platelets before the RBCs. c. use local therapies to stop the bleeding. d. give the platelets and RBCs at the same time.

ANS: B When the patients blood does not clot because of thrombocytopenia, administration of RBCs before platelets will result in RBC loss from disrupted vascular structures. Platelets should be given first. Local therapies to stop bleeding are used when systemic anticoagulation is necessary for treatment of another health condition (e.g., myocardial infarction, ischemic stroke, or pulmonary embolism). Local procoagulants act by direct tissue contact and initiation of a surface clot.

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is: a. 70 to 120 mg/dL. b. a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL compared with admitting values. c. a decrease of 50 to 75 mg/dL compared with admitting values. d. less than 200 mg/dL.

ANS: C Initial insulin infusions should be administered with a target blood glucose reduction of 50 to 75 mg/dL per hour. Decreases of less than this rate may be associated with inadequate insulin replacement and allow for the persistence of the ketotic state. Rapid reductions of blood glucose may precipitate life-threatening cerebral edema; thus, controlled reduction of glucose is required.

A 32-year-old patient is admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. Following aggressive fluid resuscitation and intravenous (IV) insulin administration, the blood glucose begins to normalize. In addition to glucose monitoring, which of the following electrolytes requires close monitoring? a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Sodium.

ANS: C Potassium must be closely monitored. In the early stages of diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, the potassium value is often high, but it may lower to critical levels once fluid balance has been restored and glucose has returned to more normal levels. Insulin administration used in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis further promotes lowering of potassium as the electrolyte is relocated to the cellular bed.

The patient is being admitted with GI bleeding. Blood work includes serial hemoglobin and hematocrit Test Bank - Introduction to Critical Care Nursing 7e (Sole 2016) 296levels. The nurse understands that: a. the hematocrit is a direct reflection of quick blood loss. b. as extravascular fluid enters the vascular space the hematocrit increases. c. the hematocrit value does not change substantially during the first few hours. d. the administration of intravenous fluids has no effect on hematocrit levels.

ANS: C The hematocrit (Hct) value does not change substantially during the first few hours after an acute bleeding episode. During this time, the severity of the bleeding must not be underestimated. Only when extravascular fluid enters the vascular space to restore volume does the Hct value decrease. This effect is further complicated by fluids and blood products that are administered during the resuscitation period.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is admitted with abdominal pain. To detect abdominal masses, the nurse: a. observes for skin pigmentation and discolorations. b. looks for pulsations originating from the vena cava. c. has the patient take a deep breath. d. watches for signs of pain and distention.

ANS: C The nurse looks for any obvious abdominal masses, which are best seen on deep inspiration. Pulsations, if they are seen, usually originate from the aorta. The nurse observes for pigmentation of skin (jaundice), lesions, discolorations, old or new scars, and vascular and hair patterns that may indicate general nutrition and hydration status, not masses. Abdominal distention, particularly in the presence of pain, should always be investigated because it usually indicates trapped air or fluid within the abdominal cavity.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a splenectomy, and notices that the patients platelet count has increased. The nurse realizes that the increase is due to: a. platelet response to infection. b. stimulation secondary to erythropoietin. c. the patients inability to store platelets. d. the platelets 120-day life cycle.

ANS: C Two thirds of the platelets circulate in the blood. The spleen stores the remaining third and may become enlarged if excess or rapid platelet removal occurs. In patients who have had a splenectomy, 100% of the platelets remain in circulation. Platelets are the first responders in the clotting response (not infection), and they form a platelet plug that temporarily repairs an injured vessel. RBCs (not platelets) are generated from precursor stem cells under the influence of a growth factor called erythropoietin. Platelets have a life span of 8 to 12 days, but they may be used more rapidly if there are many vascular injuries or clotting stimuli. Maturation of RBCs takes 4 to 5 days, and their life span is about 120 days.

Common to both the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathway is: a. factor XII b. factor VII. c. factor X. d. subendothelial collagen.

ANS: C When blood is exposed to subendothelial collagen or is injured, factor XII is activated, which initiates coagulation via the intrinsic pathway. In the extrinsic pathway, tissue injury precipitates release of a substance known as tissue factor, which activates factor VII. Factor VII is key in initiating blood coagulation, and the two pathways intersect at the activation of factor X. Both coagulation pathways illustrate a final common pathway of clot formation, retraction, and fibrinolysis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with the diagnosis of sepsis. The patient is on a ventilator in the critical care unit, and is receiving a proton pump inhibitors (PPI) to reduce the risk for a stress ulcer. In this scenario, a stress ulcer is likely secondary to: a. infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria. b. decreased acetylcholine production. c. a decreased number of parietal cells. d. ischemia associated with sepsis.

ANS: D A stress ulcer is an acute form of peptic ulcer that often accompanies severe illness, systemic trauma, or neurological injury. Ischemia is the prior etiology associated with stress ulcer formation. Ischemic ulcers develop within hours of an event such as hemorrhage, multisystem trauma, severe burns, heart failure, or sepsis. The shock, anoxia, and sympathetic responses decrease mucosal blood flow leading to ischemia. The secretion of acid is important in the pathogenesis of ulcer disease. Acetylcholine (a neurotransmitter), gastrin (a hormone), and secretin (a hormone) stimulate the chief cells, which stimulate acid secretion. Parietal cell mass in people with peptic ulcer disease is 1.5 to 2 times greater than in persons without disease. Infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria is a major cause of duodenal ulcers.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis. To provide adequate pain control, the nurse: a. should suggest that the patient receive epidural analgesia. b. provides oral pain medication on an as needed (PRN) basis. c. removes any nasogastric tubes. d. administers pain medication on a routine schedule.

ANS: D Analgesic administration is a nursing priority. Adequate pain control requires the use of IV opiates, often in the form of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. In the case in which a PCA pump is not ordered, pain medications are administered on a routine schedule, rather than as needed, to prevent uncontrollable abdominal pain. Insertion of a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction may help ease pain.

Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome? a. An 18-year-old college student with type 1 diabetes who exercises excessively b. A 45-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes who forgets to take her insulin in the morning c. A 75-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease who has recently started on insulin injections d. An 83-year-old, long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimers disease who recently developed influenza

ANS: D Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is more common in type 2 diabetes; influenza is a stressor that would result in further increases in blood sugar. Some individuals with advanced Alzheimer's disease cannot communicate thirst needs and may be incontinent, making hypertonic fluid loss more difficult to estimate. Uncontrolled type 1 diabetes is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Interruption of insulin delivery related to a missed insulin dose in type 1 diabetes creates a situation of absolute insulin deficiency in type 1 diabetes and is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. A patient with type 2 diabetes who is new to insulin is at risk for hypoglycemia.

In hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, the laboratory results are similar to those of diabetic ketoacidosis, with three major exceptions. What differences would you expect to see in patients with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome? a. Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and greater ketosis b. Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and milder ketosis c. Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and greater ketosis d. Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and no ketosis

ANS: D In patients with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS), glucose is higher; osmotic diuresis is greater, resulting in higher osmolality; and ketosis is usually absent. Glucose values in HHS are typically higher than those of diabetic ketoacidosis and are not typically accompanied by ketosis.

Trends in nutritional management of the patient with pancreatitis are changing. As a result, the nurse understands that: a. patients with pancreatitis must eat nothing in order to prevent release of secretin. b. nasogastric suction is essential in treating patients with pancreatitis. c. a nasogastric tube is no longer required to treat patients with ileus. d. immediate oral feeding in patients with mild pancreatitis may help recovery.

ANS: D Nasogastric suction and nothing by mouth status were classic treatments for patients with acute pancreatitis to suppress pancreatic exocrine secretion by preventing the release of secretin from the duodenum. Normally, secretin, which stimulates pancreatic secretion production, is stimulated when acid is in the duodenum; therefore, nasogastric suction has been a primary treatment. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain may also be decreased with nasogastric suctioning. A nasogastric tube is also necessary in patients with ileus, severe gastric distention, and a decreased level of consciousness to prevent complications resulting from pulmonary aspiration. Trends in nutritional management are changing. Early nutritional support may be ordered to prevent atrophy of gut lymphoid tissue, prevent bacterial overgrowth in the intestine, and increase intestinal permeability.

The nurse notes that the patients neutrophil count is less than 500 cells/microliter. The nurse realizes that this patient is: a. is at low risk for infection. b. is at mild risk for infection. c. is at moderated risk for infection. d. is at severe risk for infection.

ANS: D Neutropenia is defined as an absolute neutrophil count of less than 1500 cells/microliter of blood. Neutropenia may occur as a result of inadequate production or excess destruction of neutrophils. Patients with low neutrophil counts are predisposed to infections because of the bodys reduced phagocytic ability. Neutropenia is classified based on the patients predicted risk for infection: mild (1000 to 1500 cells/microliter) moderate (500 to 1000 cells/microliter) severe (<500 cells/microliter).

In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, when is an intravenous (IV) solution that contains dextrose started? a. Never; normal saline is the only appropriate solution in diabetes management b. When the blood sugar reaches 70 mg/dL c. When the blood sugar reaches 150 mg/dL d. When the blood glucose reaches 250 mg/dL

ANS: D Normal saline is the best initial fluid choice for management of hyperglycemic states. However, when the glucose reaches about 250 mg/dL, solutions containing dextrose are added to prevent hypoglycemia. Hypotonic solutions are required to replace intracellular fluid deficits, and dextrose is required to prevent hypoglycemia later when glucose levels reach initial targets. A glucose level of 70 mg/dL is suggestive of hypoglycemia and would require oral glucose replacement, a 50% dextrose bolus, or glucagon administration.

A patient is admitted to the oncology unit with a small cell lung carcinoma. During the admission, the patient is noted to have a significant decrease in urine output accompanied by shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes. The nurse is aware that this clinical presentation is consistent with: a. adrenal crisis. b. diabetes insipidus. c. myxedema coma. d. syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

ANS: D SIADH may be induced by ectopic sources of antidiuretic hormone, including small cell lung carcinoma. The clinical presentation of a dilutional hypervolemia is consistent with SIADH. Adrenal crisis is characterized by fluid loss secondary to decreased cortisol and aldosterone levels resulting in sodium loss. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by increased urine output and is not typically caused by lung tumors. Myxedema coma, although characterized by facial and peripheral edema, does not result from small cell lung carcinoma.

he nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse notes fresh blood starting to ooze from the patients rectum and intravenous site. The nurse contacts the provider expecting an order for: a. an infusion of protein S factor. b. blood work to evaluate protein C level. c. a laboratory test to determine factor X level. d. vitamin K injections.

ANS: D The coagulation factors are plasma proteins that circulate as inactive enzymes, and most are synthesized in the liver. Vitamin K is necessary for synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X, and protein C and protein S (anticoagulation factors). Thus, liver disease and vitamin K deficiency are commonly associated with impaired hemostasis.

The patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse should: a. assess pain level because pancreatic pain is unique in character. b. examine laboratory values for low amylase levels. c. expect lipase levels to decrease within 24 hours. d. evaluate C-reactive protein as a gauge of severity.

ANS: D The diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is based on clinical findings, the presence of associated disorders, and laboratory testing. Pain associated with acute pancreatitis is similar to that associated with peptic ulcer disease, gallbladder disease, intestinal obstruction, and acute myocardial infarction. This similarity exists because pain receptors in the abdomen are poorly differentiated as they exit the skin surface. Serum lipase and amylase tests are the most specific indicators of acute pancreatitis because as the pancreatic cells and ducts are destroyed, these enzymes are released. An elevated serum amylase level is a characteristic diagnostic feature. Amylase levels usually rise within 12 hours after the onset of symptoms and return to normal within 3 to 5 days. Serum lipase levels increase within 4 to 8 hours of clinical symptom onset and then decrease within 8 to 14 days. Creactive protein increases within 48 hours and is a marker of severity.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with anemia. This mornings hematocrit level is 24%. Platelet level is 200,000/microliter. The nurse can expect to: a. continue monitoring the patient, as this hematocrit is normal. b. administer platelets to help control bleeding. c. give fresh frozen plasma to decrease prothrombin time. d. provide RBC transfusion because this level is below the normal threshold.

ANS: D Transfusion thresholds are established based on laboratory values and patient-specific variables. In general, a threshold for RBC transfusion is considered a hematocrit of 28% to 31%, based on the patient's cardiovascular tolerance. If angina or orthostasis is present, a higher threshold may be maintained. The threshold for transfusing platelets is usually between 20,000 and 50,000/microliter. Cryoprecipitate is usually infused if the fibrinogen level is less than 100 mg/dL. Fresh frozen plasma is used to correct a prolonged prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time or a specific factor deficiency.

Which of the following statements is true about the medical management of diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Serum lactate levels are used to guide insulin administration. b. Sodium bicarbonate is a first-line medication for treatment. c. The degree of acidosis is assessed through continuous pulse oximetry. d. Volume replacement and insulin infusion often correct the acidosis.

ANS: D Volume replacement promotes hemodilution in the face of a hyperosmolar state. Insulin administration promotes entry of glucose into cells and relieves ketosis. As volume is replaced and glucose normalizes, the acidosis often resolves. Insulin administration, not lactate levels, is guided by blood glucose values. Sodium bicarbonate is only administered to correct severe acidosis (pH < 7.1). Degree of acidosis is assessed through arterial blood gas readings and serum ketone levels.

The patient is being seen for complaints of general malaise, fatigue, and shortness of breath. The patient states that he has felt this way since he had a cold 6 weeks earlier. The nurse should expect the provider to order: a. lymph node biopsy. b. differential blood count only. c. complete blood count (CBC) with differential. d. Bone marrow biopsy.

C The first screening diagnostic tests performed to detect hematological or immunological dysfunction are a Complete Blood Count (CBC) with differential and a coagulation profile. The CBC evaluates the cellular components of blood The CBC reports the total RBC count and RBC indices: Hematocrit Hemoglobin WBC count differential, platelet count cell morphologies.