3F171 A & B Set (ALL UREs)

6. (201) One of your shift leader duties is to ensure food temperatures are being taken during your shift every a. 30 to 45 minutes. b. 35 to 50 minutes. c. 40 to 55 minutes. d. 45 to 60 minutes.

9. Make sure food temps are being taken every 30-45 minutes. If food is in the danger zone, ensure it is reheated or chilled to proper temp or discarded. 10. Add items for any leftovers/desserts that will be used for the next meal period. 1-4 a. 30 to 45 minutes.

22. (208) What is a fundamental premise of Air Force-input tool (AF-IT) reporting? a. Integrity. b. Accuracy. c. Timeliness. d. Statistical data.

A fundamental premise of AF-IT reporting is integrity. AF-IT is a single automated reporting system within the DOD, functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations. 1-24 a. Integrity.

10. (004) A lodging reservation is considered guaranteed if the guest provides a. valid credit card information. b. temporary duty orders. c. contact information. d. an e-mail address.

A reservation is considered guaranteed if the guest provides a valid credit card at time of reservation. 1-8 a. valid credit card information.

13. (203) When is the end of fiscal year (FY) inventory conducted? a. 30 September. b. 30 October. c. 30 November. d. 30 December.

On the last day of the current fiscal year (FY) (Oct 1 thru Sep 30), the FSO assigns someone outside of food service or a disinterested person (inventory officer) to conduct a physical inventory. The food service manager provides the inventory officer with the count sheets. The inventory officer, with assistance from storeroom personnel, counts all items in all storage locations, kitchen, and production areas. Storeroom personnel enters the counts into the automated system. The storeroom personnel will review and save the inventory. 1-8 a. 30 September.

1. (201) How often does Air Force public health require self-inspections of dining facilities? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Periodic.

One of the main tools to monitor enforcement of standards and sanitation practices is through accomplishing self-inspections and evaluations. AFI 48-116 requires periodic self-inspections; however, Air Force public health requires weekly self-inspections. (1-3) b. Weekly.

55. (217) Who has overall responsibility for the base honor guard (HG) program? a. Protocol officer. b. Group commander. c. Mortuary officer (MO). d. Installation commander.

Overall responsibility for the base HG program rests with the installation commander. The installation commander ensures MFH are furnished to all eligible decedents and provides adequate funding and resources to meet the operational requirements of the program. d. Installation commander.

50. (211) In order to determine if your operation will support multiple operations, consider whether the members will be deployed longer than how many days? a. 10. b. 20. c. 30. d. 60.

During beddown, you may determine you need more support other than just resale or sundry sales operations. When in doubt, use the following factors to determine if your operation will support multiple or satellite operations: • Members have been deployed longer than 60 days. • Members will rely on your location for support. 2-10 d. 60

30. (206) What percentage of the population is planned for when determining the total number of meals you must serve? a. 80. b. 85. c. 90. d. 95.

During sustainment, one of the primary efforts is determining the total number of meals we must serve while planning on feeding 90 percent of the population. Begin using production logs to assist in menu planning and production. 1-17 c. 90.

50. (012) Who determines whether officers and enlisted females can be billeted in the same shelter during contingency operations? a. Lodging manager. b. Unit commander. c. Site commander. d. First sergeant.

During the planning phase, find out the total number of females. Female officers and female enlisted may be housed in the same area, but ultimately the site commander determines whether you can billet enlisted and officer females in the same shelters. c. Site commander.

25. (007) What is a factor to consider before increasing the amount of sundries offered to lodging guests? a. Size. b. Demand. c. Popularity. d. Cash value.

Each base may increase items based on local demands and may include souvenir-type items. As you increase your selection of available items, make sure to pay attention to the shelf life of the items as well as the stock movement amounts. 2-1 b. Demand.

33. (211) Once you are identified as a family affairs representative (FAR), training should be completed within how many hours? a. 12. b. 24. c. 36. d. 48.

FARs should be identified within 12 hours of notification of an AF active duty death. Orders and training should be completed within 24 hours of the FAR being identified. The fallen Airman's unit commander chooses and recommends to the installation mortuary officer (MO), or alternate MO, the name of a same unit member selected to serve as the FAR, and ensures that individual is placed on temporary duty (TDY) orders, as necessary. b. 24. Note: identified in 12/trained in 24

40. (209) Main fitness centers, on active duty bases, have a minimum of how many hours available for programs, facilities, and equipment staffing expertise? a. 70. b. 80. c. 90. d. 100.

Facility access during unmanned hours is strictly controlled by local policy set by the base commander. Main FCs, on active duty bases, are open a minimum of 90 manned hours per week and are comprised of programs, facilities, and equipment staffing expertise. C. 90

18. (206) Handling of biohazard waste is coordinated with a. civil engineering (CE). b. the combatant commander (CCDR). c. expeditionary combat support (ECS). d. United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC).

Find out if CE can support potable and non-potable water, electrical and/or generator power, lighting, biohazard wastewater (control and storage if necessary), waste handling, lighting, ECUs, if necessary, and support for refrigeration. 1-18 a. civil engineering (CE).

43. (213) What is the maximum allowance authorized if the person authorized disposition of the deceased (PADD) makes arrangement to have remains cremated? a. $5,000. b. $7,000. c. $9,000. d. $10,000.

If remains are cremated and retained or scattered by the PADD (when there is no commercial fee for scattering). c. $9,000.

35. (207) Which Air Force information management tool accounts for all types of meals served in the dining facility? a. 79, Headcount Record (Storage Safeguard Form). b. 1650-b, Field Feeding Summary. c. 1119-1, Field Feeding Monthly Monetary Record d. 1254, Register of Cash Collection Sheets.

AF IMT 1119-1, Field Feeding Monthly Monetary Record Use this form to account for all types of meals (including flight meals). Use it to record cash or signatures collected for meals on AF IMT 79. 1-19 c. 1119-1, Field Feeding Monthly Monetary Record

34. (207) Which Air Force information management tool verifies all cash collected and the number of essential station messing (ESM) personnel served? a. 79, Headcount Record (Storage Safeguard Form). b. 1650b, Field Feeding Summary. c. 1119-1, Field Feeding Monthly Monetary Record. d. 1254, Register of Cash Collection Sheets.

AF IMT 79, Headcount Record (Storage Safeguard Form) Use this form to verify the daily amount of cash collected and number of ESM personnel served. You must always safeguard this form and investigate if forms are missing. 1-19 a. 79, Headcount Record (Storage Safeguard Form).

31. (008) Who prepares the nonappropriated fund (NAF) income and expense (I&E) budget for lodging operations? a. Budget analyst. b. Lodging managers. c. Resource advisor (RA). d. Resource manager (RM).

Activity managers prepare NAF I&E budgets for their activity, and lodging managers prepare NAF I&E budgets for lodging operations. Activity managers use these projections, when compared to actual performance, to help identify specific areas where revised planning or corrective action is needed in their operations. 2-4 b. Lodging managers.

11. (203) Who approves contingency and wartime inventory levels? a. Headquarters Air Force/A1S. b. Installation commander. c. Force support squadron (FSS) commander. d. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division (AFSVA/SVOF). 1

Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division (AFSVA/SVOF) must approve contingency and wartime inventory levels. 1-7 D. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division (AFSVA/SVOF).

38. (009) Which agency is the final approval authority for rate package requests? a. Air Force Services Activity (AFSVA). b. Air Force Services Activity/Lodging Branch (AFSVA/SVOL). c. Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Cost and Economics (SAF/FMC). d. United States Air Force/Directorate of Services Requirements Division (USAF/A1SR).

Air Force, Directorate of Services, Requirement Division (AF/A1SR), in conjunction with the Directorate of Economics and Business Management (SAF/FMCEM), reviews the rate request and recommends approval to the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Cost and Economics (SAF/FMC), or disapproves the request and returns it to AFSVA/FMN. SAF/FMC is the final approval authority for the rate package. 2-5 d. United States Air Force/Directorate of Services Requirements Division (USAF/A1SR).

34. (211) Who makes the recommendation for an individual to be the family affairs representative (FAR) of a deceased member? a. Next-of-kin (NOK). b. Mortuary officer (MO). c. Unit commander. d. Installation commander.

Airman's unit commander chooses and recommends to the installation mortuary officer (MO), or alternate MO, the name of a same unit member selected to serve as the FAR c. Unit commander.

54. (217) The base honor guard (HG) inputs the number of funeral honors data into the funeral honors database (FHDB) no later than how many days from the execution date of the detail? a. 30. b. 45. c. 60. d. 75.

All funeral detail requests and associated information must be entered into FHDB within 30 days of the detail execution date. At the end of each calendar year, all funeral honors data must be entered into the system not less than 15 days after year's end when the report to Congress is due. a. 30

8. (003) Which report generated from the Property Management System (PMS) database is vital to the housekeeping staff? a. Arrivals. b. Departure. c. Vacant rooms. d. Space availability.

Along the same lines as the previous report, the Departure report is also printed every hour and at normal checkout time. This report is also kept at the front desk. Together with the Arrivals Report, it shows the availability of rooms, taking into account reservations, arrivals, room extensions, and departures. This report is vital to ensure the housekeeping staff cleans all vacated rooms and they are available for check-in. 1-6 B. Departure

33. (008) Activities using point of sales (POS) systems must forward receiving documents to the nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO) no later than how many workdays after the receiving date? a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 5.

Any activity using a point of sale (POS) system to maintain perpetual inventory enters receiving documents into the POS system before forwarding to the NAF AO. No more than 2 workdays after the receiving date, activities using POS systems should forward documents to the NAF AO. 2-4 A.2

16. (004) Front desk staff should report to duty at least how many minutes prior to the scheduled shift change? a. 20. b. 15. c. 10. d. 5.

As a GSM, you must ensure the procedures listed above are done; only then may the departing shift be relieved of duty. In addition, your front desk staff or GSR should report to duty 15 minutes prior to scheduled shift change in order to complete the tasks listed above. 1-12 B.15

4. (201) Which log does the shift leader review throughout the day to determine why a cashier is ringing items through the register incorrectly? a. Product mix (P-Mix). b. Production. c. Waste. d. Thaw.

As a senior cook and shift leader, you are solely responsible for drawing and returning unused subsistence at the end of each meal period. This responsibility includes requesting proper quantities of items required for meal preparation and safeguarding the form during meal periods. Here is an example of a typical day for a shift leader: ** Start your day with a DD Form 2973 or AF IMT 1038: 1. Review and complete the production log during shift. 2. Check the registers before each meal and verify menu items are accurately updated on the point of sale (POS). 3. If menu items' prices are inaccurate, refer to CAFÉ training folder on the server to refresh the back of the house (BOH) to the front of the house (FOH) under "local all" submenu. 4. Walk the facility in a figure-eight pattern to correct any issues. Monitor your entire facility, personnel, guests, and so forth. Alternate with other managers, if possible. 5. Check all serving lines 15-20 minutes before opening. 6. Review the product mix (P-Mix) log throughout the day to see why cashiers are ringing items through the register incorrectly. 1-3 a. Product mix (P-Mix).

49. (012) In a deployed environment, quarters for senior officers should be located near a. the flight line. b. Security Forces. c. the dining facility. d. the command post.

As soon as possible, select quarters for senior officers (O-6 and above). Locate these quarters near the command post, if possible. General officers normally are housed one per shelter or room. Very important persons (VIP) may be billeted two per shelter or room. d. the command post.

8. (201) What percent of collected surcharge money is deposited into the base operation and maintenance fund if the dining facility has a mess attendant contract only? a. 25. b. 50. c. 75. d. 100.

As stated previously, operational charges (also known as surcharge) are used to purchase needed operating supplies and expendable items. As meals are sold, the monies are collected from most cash paying guests. Following is a further breakdown of how the funds are used: 1. Dining facilities with a mess attendant food service contract will deposit 50 percent of surcharge money collected into the base operations and maintenance (O&M) appropriation fund. 2. Dining facilities with a full food service contract will deposit 100 percent of surchange money collected into the base O&M appropriation fund. 1-5 b. 50. Mess attendant food service contract 50% Full Food Service Contract 100%

36. (207) When must receipts be deposited under field feeding accounting? a. Last day of each week. b. Last day of each month. c. Monthly. d. Daily.

As with operations on a main base, deposits are a means of keeping a minimum amount of cash on hand required for operating needs. Commanders make sure operating managers avoid accumulating cash in excess of operating needs. Cash collected from AF IMT 79 should be deposited to the supporting accounting and finance office or to a bank. Deposits are made at least once a week using DD Form 1131; however, all receipts must be deposited on the last day of each month (or as close as possible). The supporting accounting and finance office can make Services fund deposits. b. Last day of each month Note - Deposits are made at least once a week using DD Form 1131 - all receipts must be deposited on the last day of each month

5. (003) What maximum number of lines is allowed on an AF Form 1206 nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy? a. 8. b. 16. c. 24. d. 32.

B.16

29. (008) What basic element of a financial statement lists items such as inventory values? a. Balance sheet. b. Supporting schedules. c. Statement of cash flow. d. Income and expense statement.

Balance sheet Lists items such as cash in bank, investments, receivables, central storeroom inventory values, and fixed asset value. These items and other things are listed at monetary value for the current year-to-date (YTD) and prior YTD. 2-3 a. Balance sheet.

6. (003) Which report generated from the Property Management System database is not included on a Front Desk Backup report? a. Guest Account Balance. b. Space Availability. c. Blocked Rooms. d. Night Audit.

Be aware that one of the night shift's duties is to perform and print the Night Audit. Although the Night Audit is maintained at the front desk until it is replaced the following night, the information may not be current enough for use in a PMS outage. For this reason, the Front Desk Backup must be printed and kept at the front desk. 1-6 d. Night Audit.

22. (006) Housekeeping should do deep cleaning items such as curtains and floor boards a. annually. b. semi-annually. c. quarterly. d. monthly.

In addition to full room and common area cleaning, do deep cleaning and preventive maintenance checks according to prescribed standards. Items such as curtains, furniture, and floor boards should be cleaned semi-annually. Carpets in guest rooms are shampooed twice a year or as needed. Hallways and common areas are done quarterly or as needed. OIs should be developed for the housekeeping staff to use for identifying maintenance requirements and carpet care needs. More guidance on standards and checklists are located in the AF Lodging Standards Checklist which can be downloaded from the Services Web site. 1-14 b. semi-annually.

5. (003) How often must all lodging operations perform backups of the Property Management System (PMS) database? a. Monthly. b. Weekly. c. Daily. d. Hourly.

In addition to the Front Desk Backup, the Arrivals report is printed every hour and kept at the front desk. It serves as a forecast of personnel to arrive and provides a real-time view of reservations as they occur. 1-6 d. Hourly.

39. (010) Appropriated funds (APF) appliance requirements are worked closely with which office to allow adequate lead time in delivering items for beneficial occupancy dates of lodging facility renovations? a. Safety. b. Contracting. c. Public Health. d. Furnishings Management.

It is critical to ensure APF furnishings and appliance requirements are worked closely with the FMO to allow adequate lead-time for ordering, receiving, warehouse storage (if necessary), and delivering lodging items in time for beneficial occupancy dates of lodging facility renovations. 2-8 d. Furnishings Management.

44. (011) Lodging management assistance visits (LMAVs) are conducted every a. year. b. 2 years. c. 3 years. d. 4 years.

Lodging management assistance visits (LMAV) are conducted once every 2 years; lodging operations must score 80 percent or higher to pass. Failed operations are reevaluated every 6 months until achieving a passing score. 3-3 b. 2 years.

24. (007) Who ensures lodging guests have the option of purchasing sundry items? a. Front desk staff. b. Housekeeping staff. c. Housekeeping manager. d. Lodging general manager.

Lodging managers or general managers ensure guests have the option of purchasing sundry items 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. 2-1 d. Lodging general manager.

40. (010) A project preparation package (PPP) is submitted to which office? a. Contracting. b. Furnishings management office (FMO). c. United States Air Force/Directorate of Services Requirements Division (USAF/A1SR). d. Air Force Services Activity/Services Directorate Operations Division (AFSVA/SVOL).

Lodging renovations involve both appropriated and nonappropriated funds. With that said, the two main offices involved are the installation CE squadron and AFSVA/SVOL. A project preparation package (PPP) is generated and submitted to AFSVA/SVOL. 2-8 d. Air Force Services Activity/Services Directorate Operations Division (AFSVA/SVOL).

21. (006) Management may enter a guest's room to ensure safety and security after the "Do Not Disturb" sign has been displayed on a lodging room door for how many consecutive days? a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 5.

Lodging staff will not enter a guest room displaying a "Do Not Disturb" sign, unless the sign has been displayed for three consecutive days. On the third day, lodging staff will enter the room to ensure the safety of the guest and condition of the room. Do not enter the room earlier than the posted checkout time 1-4 b. 3

47. (215) The government purchase card (GPC) is used for which type of expense? a. Other. b. Primary. c. Secondary. d. Advertisement.

MOs make sure a GPC account is established and maintained for active duty deaths (primary expenses only) within their AOR and that receipt and properly itemized invoices are promptly submitted. b. Primary.

9. (203) Which rations are not used for contingency or deployment? a. Humanitarian daily rations (HDR). b. Unitized group rations (UGR). c. Meals, ready to eat (MRE). d. B-rations.

MRE-Requires neither cooks nor equipment. UGR (unitized group ration)-Requires cooks and equipment. A-ration- Requires cooks, equipment, and refrigeration. Humanitarian daily ration (HDR)- Requires neither cooks nor equipment. These are a State Department responsibility. 1-9d. B-rations.

48. (012) During a contingency, who must management coordinate with before planning any lodging assignments? a. Force support squadron commander. b. Civil engineer commander. c. Site commander. d. First sergeant.

Management must coordinate with the site commander before planning any assignments. The site commander determines whether personnel are billeted by organization or on a first come, first served basis. 3-7 c. Site commander.

7. (201) Which items are not purchased with an operational charge for meals? a. Cups. b. Food. c. Supplies. d. Paper plates.

NOTE: There is no charge for enlisted members entitled to essential station messing (ESM) (meal card). The operational charge is used to help purchase operating supplies, such as paper plates, cups, and so forth. 1-5 B. food

18. (005) Who establishes operating instructions (OI) for safeguarding valuables of guests staying at your installation? a. Housekeeping supervisor. b. Guest service manager. c. General manager. d. Flight Chief.

No matter the storage method used, the general manager should have established OIs when it comes to safeguarding valuables. This ensures proper control procedures are established. Keep in mind, local force protection condition (FPCON) levels may be heightened, thus altering the level of services your lodging operation is able to provide to guests. 1-13 b. Guest service manager.

6. (003) At a minimum, how many rooms does an Air Force (AF) lodging need to have in order to compete for a large installation category of the AF Innkeeper Award? a. 485. b. 385. c. 285. d. 185.

C.285 AF Innkeeper Award This award program recognizes excellence in AF lodging. Installations compete in one of two categories: 1. Large installation--at least 285 lodging rooms. 2. Small installation--fewer than 285 lodging rooms.(1-10)

46. (012) What square footage per person does the lodging operation use to plan for all contingency operations? a. 100. b. 75. c. 50. d. 25.

Commonly in the aftermath of an emergency, the lodging operation is faced with an unexpected influx or surge of personnel. This may entail setting up lodging operations in whatever facility or field asset available. In these circumstances plan on allocating 50 square feet per person. Lodging general managers may lodge personnel in less space due to military necessity. 3-4 c. 50

31. (211) Which mortuary program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict? a. Current death. b. Concurrent return. c. Temporary interment. d. Wartime mortuary affairs (MA).

Concurrent return program provides for search, recovery, and evacuation of remains to a mortuary, where remains are identified and prepared as directed by the PADD and shipped to the final destination for permanent disposition. This is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict. It should be activated when the current death program capabilities are exceeded but conditions do not require temporary interment. 2-2 b. Concurrent return. Note: return asap MA is the current Temporary is last resort

41. (209) What is not considered when determining hours of operation for the fitness center? a. Patron. b. Facility. c. Mission. d. Personnel.

Consider the following when determining operating hours: • Mission—Base mission and its personnel. • Personnel—Number of personnel available to work all shifts. • Funding—Money available to support extended hours of operation. • Programs—Variety, size, and total number of programs. • Patrons—Number of patrons who frequent the facility, their needs, and participation in the programs. 2-2 b. Facility.

16. (206) The wartime flight feeding planning factor is based on a. 80 percent of convalescent. b. 90 percent of base population. c. 100 percent of base population. d. 70 percent of patients in medical facility.

Cook to feeding population ratio: 1:50 Feeding capacity: Seating capacity times 30 minutes, divided into meal hours. Wartime feeding population: 100% of base population unless alternate feeding opportunities are available. 1-13 c. 100 percent of base population.

32. (206) How many people are required to have the Single Palletized Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) operational in four and a half hours? a. 4. b. 8. c. 10. d. 12.

- 550 people in support of AEF deployments. - four hours after rations arrive. - 8 people about 1.5 hours - 2.5 hours are required to prepare a meal 1-17 b. 8.

31. (206) The Single Palletized Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) is designed to feed how many people per meal during deployment? a. 500. b. 550. c. 1000. d. 1100.

- 550 people in support of AEF deployments. - four hours after rations arrive. - eight people about 11⁄2 hours - 2.5 hours are required to prepare a meal 1-17 b. 550.

45. (210) At least how many times a year are special events in the fitness center (FC) held? a. 2. b. 4 c. 6. d. 8.

4 per year, of which one should be family oriented (e.g. walk/runs, sports days, etc.). 2-6 b. 4 Group Exercise Classes - A min of 10 Equipment Orientations -appointment basis or through regularly scheduled classes. Fitness Improvement Programs- Offer a combination of aerobics and strength conditioning classes based on local needs to support AF Fitness Program. Incentive Programs- min of 4 per year special events- min of 4 per year

5. (201) When does the shift leader review the waste log to make sure all waste is authorized? a. Before each meal. b. Before it is processed. c. After each meal. d. After it is processed.

7. Review the waste log BEFORE it is processed to make sure all waste is authorized. Make all adjustments in the computer after each meal. 8. Walk through the kitchen to make sure unused and excess items are returned to storeroom after each meal period. 9. Make sure food temps are being taken every 30-45 minutes. If food is in the danger zone, ensure it is reheated or chilled to proper temp or discarded. 10. Add items for any leftovers/desserts that will be used for the next meal period. 1-3 b. Before it is processed.

29. (206) What rations are served for deployments lasting over 30 days? a. A-Rations only. b. Unit group rations (UGR) only. c. Meals ready to eat (MRE) only. d. A mix of UGR-A and A-Rations.

Planning Factors Deployment Days Type Meals 1-4 MRE (3 meals) 5-14 UGR (2 meals) MRE (1 meal) 15-29 UGR (3 meals) 30 and longer Begin introducing UGR A-Rations (UGR-A) and A- Ration products d. A mix of UGR-A and A-Rations.

3. (201) Which wartime priority supports the strategic offense and defensive missions? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

Priority Support 1- Combat support for strategic offensive and defensive missions. 2- Mobilization and deployment of military personnel on Prime RIBS teams for wartime use in the overseas theater(s) of operation. 3- Maintaining a continental United States (CONUS) sustaining force capable of carrying out the wartime support requirements, other than strategic mission support. a. 1

46. (210) How soon should you begin planning special events? a. One week. b. One month. c. Three months. d. Six months.

Start planning special events three months in advance. Coordinate within FSS and other base agencies to make sure your event is not in conflict with another event on the installation. You should develop a checklist that is unique to your installation and can be used and modified as needed without reinventing the wheel all the time. c. Three months.

13. (004) Temporary lodging facility (TLF) assigned guests without a valid credit card are required to pay how many days in advance? a. 15. b. 20. c. 25. d. 30.

Temporary lodging facility guests (all categories—PCS, etc.) are required to pay in advance through 15 days. 1-9 a. 15.

32. (211) The Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) must be responsive to the information needs of the a. unit. b. media. c. public. d. family.

The Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshals all available resources in support of family needs following unexpected loss of life. This program is also intended to provide a systematic structure that offers assistance, information, and support made available on the family's terms. 2-2 d. family.

4. (202) Which plan is chiefly associated with a temporary base? a. Base support and expeditionary (BaS&E). b. Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP). c. Expeditionary site plan (ESP). d. Base support plan (BSP).

The BSP is primarily developed for locations with a permanent military presence while the ESP is associated with an expeditionary or temporary base. 1-3 c. Expeditionary site plan (ESP).

3. (002) What Property Management System (PMS) feature is best for looking at "out-of-order" rooms? a. Guest Information Worksheet. b. Blocking Worksheet. c. Flash Status. d. History.

The Blocking Worksheet gives a graphical look at the status of each room. Users can view in-house, blocked, reserved, and out-of-order rooms. You can also access the guest account to change any information or add postings and messages. 1-5 b. Blocking Worksheet.

1. (001) The commercial lodging (CL) authorization letter entitles duty status travelers to a. special rates. b. discounted meals. c. government meals. d. the government rate.

The CL agreement entitles duty status travelers to the agreed government rate for the specified period. The traveler retains this authorization and submits it with his/her travel voucher. Without it, the member will not be paid. 1-2 d. the government rate.

49. (216) Who completes the inspection checklist portion of DD Form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains? a. Summary courts officer (SCO). b. Family affairs representative (FAR). c. Contracting officer's representative (COR). d. Person authorized direct disposition (PADD).

The COR will complete the inspection checklist portion of DD Form 2063. c. Contracting officer's representative (COR).

38. (209) A fitness and sports manager (FSM) must respond to guest comments within how many hours? a. 24. b. 48. c. 72. d. 96.

The FSM will respond to customer comments within 48 hours, document the outcome, and maintain a record for one year. 2-2 b. 48 hours

39. (209) Documented guest comments are recorded and maintained for how many months? a. 3. b. 6. c. 9. d. 12.

The FSM will respond to customer comments within 48 hours, document the outcome, and maintain a record for one year. 2-2 d. 12.

4. (002) Which Property Management System (PMS) feature is used for retaining accurate reservation and cancellation figures? a. Flash Status. b. Stay Wizard. c. History Module. d. Blocking Worksheet.

The History Module encompasses guest and group history in one area. An Air Force Inn can retain accurate information on the number of reservations, stays, cancellations, and no-shows, and how much revenue is generated by each guest or group. 1-5 c. History Module.

35. (211) Who creates the deceased's mortuary case file? a. Mortuary officer (MO). b. Mortuary affairs (MA) technician. c. Family affairs representative (FAR). d. Casualty affairs representative (CAR).

The MA technician creates the deceased's mortuary case file and ensures the FAR log of events is included when closed out. 2-3 b. Mortuary affairs (MA) technician

36. (211) Who is responsible for explaining the roles of a family affairs representative (FAR) to the family? a. Mortuary affairs (MA) technician. b. Installation commander. c. Mortuary officer (MO). d. Unit commander.

The MO will apprise the family of the FAR's role and make sure that they wish to have a FAR assigned. Once this has been determined, the MO provides the name and rank of the FAR, and lets the PADD/PNOK know the FAR will make an introductory call. Face-to-face contact with the family begins on or about the same time as the casualty assistance representative's (CAR) initial outreach, but is dictated by the family's needs. Ideally, the FAR and the CAR meet the family together. The FAR is discouraged from meeting with family members alone. 2-3 c. Mortuary officer (MO).

32. (008) The responsibility to ensure all base-level bills for lodging operations are paid lies with the a. nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO). b. resource management flight chief (RMFC). c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC). d. Force support squadron commander.

The NAF AO is responsible for making sure all base-level bills for lodging operations accounts are paid in full once you make sure the product was received or the service was performed. The NAF AO posts accounts payable transactions when an activity receives goods or services on credit. The NAF AO then makes payment to the vendor to clear the accounts payable. 2-4 a. nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO).

28. (008) Who prepares financial statements for lodging operations? a. Nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO). b. Resource manager (RM). c. General manager. d. Finance office.

The NAF AO maintains the general ledgers and prepares financial statements monthly and sends them to the force support squadron (FSS) management. 2-3 a. Nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO).

30. (008) To facilitate budget completion, who provides the format for the income and expense (I&E) budget? a. Comptroller. b. Resource manager (RM). c. Force support squadron commander. d. Nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO).

The NAF AO provides the I&E budget formats to facilitate completing the budgets. If the budget is automated (Services Activity recommends using automated budgets), the activity manager may want to take advantage of using it by performing a "what if" type analysis before finalizing the activity's budget input. 2-4 d. Nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO).

34. (008) Which document is not required to substantiate a payment order? a. E-mail confirmation. b. Receiving report. c. Vendor invoice. d. Contract.

The NAF AO usually requires three documents to substantiate payment to a vendor: a contract, receiving report vendor invoice. 2-5 a. E-mail confirmation.

20. (204) Which system is designed to automate all installation-level subsistence ordering? a. Point of Sale (POS) System. b. Prime Vendor (PV) Program. c. Air Force Corporate Food Service Recipe System. d. Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES).

The STORES Web ordering program is designed to automate all installation-level subsistence ordering and receipting for DOD food customers. The ordering process is rather straightforward. STORES is a Web-based system that supports many catalogs (i.e., PV, milk, dairy, bread, and fresh fruit and vegetables). 1-10 d. Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES).

23. (007) Which factor is the final determination on the means used to sell sundry items? a. Providing quality customer service. b. Availability of lodging staff. c. Layout of buildings. d. Inventory selection.

The final determination on the means used to sell sundry items is based on providing quality customer service and not the convenience of the lodging staff. Sundry items can range from basic hygiene items to microwavable meals. 2-1 a. Providing quality customer service.

17. (206) A reference for beddown planning is covered in a. AFI 10-201, Force Readiness Reporting. b. AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution. c. AFI 32-1001, Operations Management. d. AFI 38-205, Expeditionary Manpower Management.

The following references can assist you in the beddown planning. • AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution. 1-15 b. AFI 10-403 Deployment Planing and Excution The following references can assist you in the beddown planning. • After-action reports (AAR) and plans from previous beddown operation if available. (Lessons learned and AAR can be found on the AFSVA/Director of Services [SV] or the AEF online website.) • Air Force Handbook (AFH) 10-222, V1, Civil Engineer Bare Base Development. • AFH 10-222, V2, Bare Base Assets. • AFH 10-247, V4, Guide to Services Contingency Planning: Mortuary Affairs Search and Recovery. • Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution. • AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution. • AFI 10-404, Base Support and Expeditionary (BaS&E) Site Planning. • Air Force Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (AFTTP) 3-34.1, Services Contingency Beddown and Sustainment. • WMP-1, Services Supplement.

9. (202) Success of your operation is based upon the satisfaction of the a. staff. b. patrons. c. public health. d. senior leadership. (AFSVA/SVOFA).

The guests or patrons are the most important part of your operation. Your success depends on their satisfaction. The guest deserves nothing less than the best quality service we can provide. 1-5 b. patrons.

34. (013) Who approves fund storage limits? a. Installation commander. b. Squadron commander. c. Resource manager (RM). d. Activity manager.

The installation commander approves fund storage limits. The limits based on the advice and guidance of the Defense Force commander (DFC) and installation Integrated Defense Plan (IDP) guidelines. Facilities storing $100,000 or more will comply with AFI 31-101, Integrated Defense (ID).

41. (011) The installation commander or designee inspects a sampling of all types of lodging facilities a. weekly. b. monthly. c. quarterly. d. annually.

The installation commanders (or their designees) are responsible for ensuring lodging facilities on their bases meet or exceed the standards set forth in AFI 34-135, Air Force Lodging Program. To achieve this task, your installation commander or designee annually inspects a sampling of all types of lodging facilities. 3-1 d. annually.

11. (204) Which time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is associated with a written operation plan (OPLAN)? a. requirements-driven b. Balance and certified. c. Capabilities driven. d. Ratified.

The requirements-driven TPFDDs are associated with written OPLANs, concept plans (CONPLAN), and operation orders (OPORD). This type contains the AF presentation of forces in support of a specific requirements-driven plan. AF planners support the requirements-driven TPFDDs by building, sourcing, verifying, and validating ULNs to the component HQ and the supporting or supported combatant command. 1-9 A. requirements-driven

50. (216) The performance objectives and performance threshold required for contract mortuary services are established in the a. performance work statement (PWS). b. service delivery summary (SDS). c. statement of work (SOW). d. PWS and SDS.

The service delivery summary (SDS) is used by you, as the evaluator, and the contractor. It cites the performance objective (service required) of the contractor and the performance threshold (specific standard) required as stated in specific sections of the PWS/SOW. Failure to meet these thresholds may cause the contractor's payment to be withheld. a. performance work statement (PWS).

12. (204) Each entry in the Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES) time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is controlled by the a. Personnel increment number (PIN). b. Force requirement number (FRN). c. Unit line number (ULN). d. PIN and the FRN.

The standard AF ULN construct consists of the FRN and a two-character fragmentation code. The ULN is the data element that controls and identifies each entry in a JOPES TPFDD. 1-11 c. Unit line number (ULN).

12. (203) How often must the storeroom clerk conduct physical inventory? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Once a month. d. Twice a month.

The storeroom manager or clerk conducts physical inventories to determine the actual value of food on hand. Physical inventories verify that items are being accounted. Conduct physical inventories during close of business on the 15th and on the last day of each calendar month for all food service operations. Enter the physical quantities from the count sheets into the automated system. Use AF IMT 3514, Inventory Count Worksheet, for manual operations. Also, the FSO/FSSC reviews, certifies, and conducts inventory. 1-7 d. Twice a month.

19. (206) The two priorities in a force beddown plan are command, control, and communications (C3) and a. security. b. equipment. c. accountability. d. mission readiness.

The two priorities in a force beddown plan are command, control, and communications (C3) and accountability. Upon arrival, establish C3 and verify the FSS chain of command. Identify the location for the FSS UCC and ensure that the lines of communication by telephone, hand-held radio, and/or cell phone (if available) are adequate. 1-15 c. accountability.

21. (207) When a physically limiting condition is detected that might limit your capability to perform deployment duties, you are required to obtain an a. Air Force (AF) Form 431. b. AF Form 469. c. AF Form 512. d. AF Form 522.

Their responsibility to contact medical personnel when a physical condition is detected that might limit their capability to perform deployment duties and an AF Form 469, Duty Limiting Condition Report, is generated. 1-24 b. AF Form 469.

38. (212) What determines which mortuary officer (MO) will open the case file? a. Guidance from Headquarters, Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO). b. The mortuary collection point (MCP). c. MO location in proximity to death. d. Base the casualty was deployed from.

When notified of an active duty death, the MO nearest the place of death will open a new mortuary case file and document pertinent information in the mortuary log including the date and time of the call and the location and condition of the remains. The MO will also determine who has jurisdiction over the remains and start the mortuary checklist. c. MO location in proximity to death.

19. (005) When the housekeeping department is closed who will accept responsibility for lost and found items? a. Front desk staff. b. Security Forces. c. General manager. d. Resource manager.

When the housekeeping department is not open or during after hours, the front desk will secure the items until they can be turned in to the appropriate staff. 1-13 a. Front desk staff.

17. (203) You can print a receipt from Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) after a. order delivery. b. order placement. c. signing for the order. d. transmitting the order.

You can print the receipt after transmitting the order to Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES). You must send the purchase order (from the automated system), STORES Sent Order report, back dock receipt, STORES Sent Receipt report, and the receipt (from the automated system) to the accountant within 24 hours of the delivery. This is known as the purchase reconciliation packet. 1-9 d. transmitting the order

43. (209) What is the minimum number of staff required on duty during manned hours of operation for the fitness center? a. 4. b. 3. c. 2. d. 1.

Your facility must have a minimum of two staff on duty during all hours of operation for emergency response capabilities. During all hours of operation, at least one fitness staff member will interface with customers in the fitness area, be knowledgeable in the safe operation of fitness equipment and facility operation, and is current in fitness safety and basic equipment maintenance and repair in each FC. In addition, all staff members must possess current certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and first aid. 2-3 c. 2.

15. (004) Who establishes specific procedures for lodging operations shift change? a. Front desk staff. b. General manager. c. Resource management flight chief. d. Force Support Squadron commander. 1-20

Your general manager must establish these procedures and guidance for your lodging operation. One of the most important aspects of your job is the accountability of the change fund. b. General manager.

52. (217) Military funeral honors for deceased active duty personnel include a. a two-person team of Air Force (AF) representatives and the playing of Taps. b. a bugler, four-person color guard, and the detail officer in charge (OIC) or noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC). c. a detail including six pallbearers, eight-person firing party, bugler, four-person color guard, and the detail OIC or NCOIC. d. an AF chaplain, a detail including six pallbearers, eight-person firing party, bugler, four-person color guard, and the detail OIC or NCOIC.

a 20-person detail six pallbearers eight-person firing party (seven members and the firing party NCOIC), a bugler a four-person color guard the detail OIC or NCOIC. An AF chaplain may also participate in the ceremony if requested by the family. c. a detail including six pallbearers, eight-person firing party, bugler, four-person color guard, and the detail OIC or NCOIC.

42. (014) What type contracts are approved at one level above the squadron commander? a. Concessionaire. b. Mess attendant. c. Individual service. d. Non-personal service.

a. Concessionaire Concessionaire contracts are approved at one level above the squadron commander (support group commander or equivalent).

39. (014) Who determines fair and and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competitively? a. Contracting officer. b. Marketing director. c. Force support squadron commander. d. Entertainment market.

a. Contracting officer. The contracting officer determines fair and reasonable pricing.

24. (205) During the 30-day probationary period, what shift should new employees work? a. Day. b. Night. c. Swing. d. Weekend.

a. Day

15. (005) What action is key to classifying a position? a. Developing a detailed position description. b. Developing a targeted position description.. c. Developing a creative position description. d. Developing a limited position description.

a. Developing a detailed position description.

17. (007) Which funds are used to support day-to-day operations? a. Operations and maintenance (O&M). b. Nonappropriated. c. Procure d. Fallout.

a. Operations and maintenance (O&M). O&M funds appropriations are used for the day-to-day operation of the organization. Installations distribute these funds for payroll, TDYs, contract services, and supplies required for operating and maintaining installations, facilities, and equipment.

11. (004) What description is considered as a statement of major duties responsibilities and supervisory relationships of a position? a. Position description. b. Duty description. c. Task description. d. Job description.

a. Position description.

24. (009) Which budget should be completed before developing a five-year financial plan? a. Quarterly. b. Semi-annual d. Monthly.

a. Quarterly. Your five-year plan starts with one quarter of one year and, then, is built forward.

24. (209) Which force support squadron (FSS) lead unit type code (UTC) is a 5-person team that supports a population of 550 for less than 5 days? a. RFLX2. b. RFLX3. c. RFSRJ. d. RFSRR.

a. RFLX2. RFLX1- 2-person UTC deployed to perform initial beddown planning, accountability, and casualty reporting RFLX2- 5-person team that can support a population of less than 550 for 5 days RFLX3- 12-person team can support population increases up to 700. RFSRJ- Services Port Mortuary Lead: RFSRR- Services Fatality Recovery Lead 1-26/27

3. (002) What document helps conduct effective, standardized training throughout the Services (SV) career field? a. Services' training aids (STA). b. Job qualification standard (JQS). c. Air Force training record (AFTR). d. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

a. Services' training aids (STA). STAs are documents developed by the Air Force Services Activity (AFSVA) designed to help training managers and trainers conduct effective, standardized training throughout the SV career field.(1-5)

13. (005) What resource allows continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower? a. Strategic source memorandums of agreement (SS MOA). b. Air Force Reserve (AFR) backfills. c. Non-strategic source MOAs. d. National Guard backfills.

a. Strategic source memorandums of agreement (SS MOA).

2. (001) Who is responsible for writing the work center master training plan (MTP)? a. Supervisor. b. Flight chief. c. Unit training manager (UTM). d. Major command (MAJCOM) training manager.

a. Supervisor. Because the MTP illustrates the different operating requirements (from base to base), each activity manager/supervisor is ultimately responsible for writing it

9. (004) What primary document reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission? a. Unit manpower document (UMD). b. Authorized manning document (AMD). c. Unit personnel management roster (UPMR). d. Unit manning and personnel management roster (UMPMR).

a. Unit manpower document (UMD).

10. (004) How many days annually can the Air Force (AF) use non-extended active duty officers and Airmen as military personnel appropriation (MPA) man-days to meet short-term needs? a. 89. b. 139. c. 179. d. 365.

b. 139

43. (015) After how many days should major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations when developing a contract contingency clause? a. 15. b. 30. c. 45. d. 60.

b. 30. MAJCOMs and individual bases should be prepared to expand their operations after the first 30 days.

47. (210) What should managers complete at the end of every event? a. All-purpose checklist for next event. b. After action report. c. Employee feedback. d. Customer survey.

b. After action report.

26. (010) Which funding sources facility category funds revenue generating programs? a. D. b. C. c. B. d. A.

b. C. C -- Revenue- Generating Clubs, golf courses, bowling centers with less than 12 lanes, marinas, car washes, equipment rental, family camps (FAMCAMP), aero club, and so forth. Use NAFs for construction, additions, alterations, and renovations. Use APFs for building systems. Use NAFs for functionally unique items.

12. (005) Who approves a nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA)? a. Comptroller commander. b. Installation commander. c. Contracting commander. d. Force support commander.

b. Installation commander.

19. (007) Which funds are self-generated from sources other than congressional appropriation? a. Operation and maintenance (O&M). b. Nonappropriated. c. Procurement. d. Fallout.

b. Nonappropriated NAFs are cash and other assets that are self-generated or received from NAFI sources other than congressional appropriation.

3. (201) Who is solely responsible for drawing and returning unused subsistence after each meal period? a. Line server. b. Senior cook. c. Grill cook. d. Server.

b. Senior cook.

36. (013) Who appoints an individual to conduct an inquiry for losses over $250, up to and including $2,500, and for losses of $250 or less that appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct? a. Installation commander. b. Squadron commander or director. c. Resource manager (RM). d. Activity manager.

b. Squadron commander or director. For losses over $250 up to and including $2,500, and for losses of $250 or less that appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct, the squadron commander or director appoints an individual to conduct an inquiry.

8. (004) What document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center? a. Unit personnel management roster (UPMR). b. Unit manpower document (UMD). c. Unit authorization file. d. Alpha roster.

b. Unit manpower document (UMD).

20. (008) How often does the force support squadron (FSS) update their budgets? a. Monthly. b. Annually. c. Quarterly. d. Semiannually.

c. Quarterly. Budgets evolve constantly and there will always be changes. To keep up with changes, FSS updates budgets at least at the completion of each quarter (Oct, Jan, Apr, and Jul). This includes a top-down review of goals and performance, adjustments as required, and development of the budgets for three quarters out by activity and financial managers and prepared annually before the fiscal year. Preparing budgets involves everyone from the approval of the installation commander all the way down to the activity manager.

25. (209) Which force support squadron (FSS) lead unit type code (UTC) supports Air Force Mortuary Affairs Operation? a. RFLX2. b. RFLX3. c. RFSRJ. d. RFSRR.

c. RFSRJ. RFLX1- 2-person UTC deployed to perform initial beddown planning, accountability, and casualty reporting RFLX2- 5-person team that can support a population of less than 550 for 5 days RFLX3- 12-person team can support population increases up to 700. RFSRJ- Services Port Mortuary Lead: RFSRR- Services Fatality Recovery Lead 1-26/27

33.(012) Who is responsible for administering the internal management control program (IMCP) within the force support squadron (FSS)? a. Group commander. b. Squadron commander or director c. Resource manager d. Facility manager.

c. Resource manager The RM is responsible for administering the internal management control program (IMCP).

30. (011) Who is responsible for providing operating instructions for transporting, storing, and using all property within the force support squadron (FSS)? a. Facility manager. b. Nonappropriated accountant. c. Resource manager (RM). d. Squadron commander.

c. Resource manager (RM). The RM is responsible for providing operating instructions (OI) for transporting, storing, and using all property.

2. How many months must you file and keep self-inspection records? a. 3. b. 6. c. 8. d. 12.

d. 12. One of the main tools to monitor enforcement of standards and sanitation practices is through accomplishing self-inspections and evaluations. AFI 48-116 requires periodic self-inspections; however, Air Force public health requires weekly self-inspections. Use Defense Department (DD) Form 2973, Food Operation Inspection Report, to document weekly inspections. File and keep the form for a year.

28. (011) Which Air Force information management tool (IMT) is used as a control register to track equipment transactions? a. 122. b. 123. c. 125. d. 126.

d. 126 AF IMT 126, Custodian Request Log Used as a control register to track all transactions. You must maintain a copy of any request sent to base supply.

25.(010) Which funding sources facility category funds mission sustaining programs? a. D. b. C. c. B. d. A.

d. A A -- Mission Sustaining Mission sustaining facilities include fitness centers, libraries, intramural sports fields, child development centers, and community activity centers. Use APFs for construction, additions, alterations, and renovations. Use APFs for all facility M&R work. B -- Basic Community And C -- Revenue- Generating

21. (008) Who prepares income and expense (I&E) budgets? a. Contracting officer. b. Finance officer. c. Resource manager (RM). d. Activity manager.

d. Activity manager activity managers Prepare income and expense (I&E), nonappropriated fund requirement budget (NRB), and APF budgets 15-20 Oct, Jan, Apr, Jul

32. (012) At what level within the Air Force (AF) must internal controls be established to ensure the proper use of all resources? a. Operational. b. Administrative. d. All levels.

d. All levels. Internal controls are established at every level in the AF. DOD supports the government's commitment to ensure the proper use of all resources.

28. (206) Who decides when and how much rations you receive during a contingency operation? a. Prime vendor (PV). b. Installation commander. c. Force support squadron (FSS) commander. d. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Funds Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA).

n other words, "push" means that rations are ordered for you; you have no control over when and how many rations you will be receiving. This is all decided at AFSVA/SVOFA and higher headquarters level based on the expected population of the bare base. The "push" system converts to a "pull" system once personnel strength has stabilized at the bare base and the type of operations (i.e., flight line, work shifts, bomber, fighter, and refueling) and feeding capabilities have been determined. Quantities and types of rations are then ordered by deployed FSS planners through a PV. 1-16 d. AFSVA/SVOFA

43. (011) What percentage of rooms is the housekeeping supervisor required to inspect on a weekly basis? a. 5. b. 10. c. 15. d. 20

room inspections of at least 5 percent of all rooms every week. 3-1 a. 5.

27. (011) At base level, who is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets? a. Facility manager. b. Squadron director. c. Squadron commander. d. Resource manager (RM).

d. Resource manager At base level, the RM is the single custodian for all NAF assets, unless another individual is appointed according to AFI 34-201, Use of Nonappropriated Funds (NAFS), prescribes.

20. (207) Within the force support squadron (FSS), who ensures qualified individuals fill each deployable unit type code (UTC) position assigned to the unit? a. Flight chief. b. Activity manager. c. Resource manager (RM). d. Unit deployment manager (UDM).

d. Unit deployment manager (UDM).

7. (003) The Arrivals Report generated from the Property Management System (PMS) database is printed every a. 4 hours. b. 2 hours. c. hour. d. half hour.

the Arrivals report is printed every hour and kept at the front desk. c. hour.

27. (210) The force module (FM) concept has how many FMs? a. 3. b. 6. c. 9. d. 12.

the FM concept employs six FMs Open the Base C2 Establish the Base Generate the Mission Operate the Base Robust the Base

26. (007) When determining fair market price, which retailer would you not use for price comparison? a. Commissary. b. Local grocery store. c. Other lodging operations. d. Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES).

• AAFES—$3.50. • Commissary—$3.25. • Local grocery store—$3.75. 2-2 c. Other lodging operations.

36. (009) How many year(s) of the base lodging fund (BLF) consolidated files are included in a rate request change package? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

• BLF consolidated budget files for the upcoming 2 years. 2-7 b. 2

1. (001) The master training plan (MTP) makes sure a. everyone is trained on every task in the MTP. b. every base in the Air Force is training the same tasks. c. every base in each command is training the same tasks. d. every task required in each activity is identified and trained.

d. every task required in each activity is identified and trained. Your work center MTP ensures every task required in each activity is identified and trained. (1-1)

9. (004) What information is not given out for reservations made with commercial lodging (CL) for customers traveling on orders? a. E-mail address of traveler. b. Temporary duty orders. c. Credit card information. d. Home address.

f on-base space is unavailable and the reservation is made at CL, give the hotel the pertinent information (name, arrival/departure date, address, etc.). Do not give the hotel the customer's credit card. Inform the guest it is his or her responsibility to call the hotel and guarantee a late arrival. 1-8 c. Credit card information.

45. (011) To pass a lodging inspection the lodging operation must score at least a. 75 percent. b. 80 percent. c. 85 percent. d. 90 percent.

lodging operations must score 80 percent or higher to pass. Failed operations are reevaluated every 6 months until achieving a passing score. 3-3 b. 80 percent.

44. (209) Within how many days of assignment must the fitness center (FC) staff complete customer service training? a. 30. b. 60. c. 90. d. 180.

• Cardiopulmonary resuscitation/basic life support (CPR/BLS) certification within 30 days of assignment. • Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Fitness Specialist Course scheduled within 180 days of assignment. • Customer service training within 30 days of assignment. • Health promotions supplemental training as available. • PTL-B course within 120 days of assignment. 2-3 a. 30

52. (211) The nonappropriated funds (NAF) custodian should make sure an inventory is completed a. daily. b. weekly. c. monthly. d. yearly.

• Ensuring inventories are completed monthly 2-10 c. monthly.

53. (212) Who publishes operating instructions (OI) prohibiting serving alcoholic beverages to intoxicated individuals? a. Force support squadron (FSS) commander. b. Resource manager. c. Flight chief. d. Shift leader.

• Flight chiefs write and publish OIs prohibiting serving alcoholic beverages to individuals who appear intoxicated, or close to being intoxicated. 2-12 c. Flight chief.

42. (011) Who is responsible for maintaining a record of lodging housekeeping inspections? a. Housekeeping supervisor. b. General manager. c. Unit commander. d. Flight chief.

• Housekeeping supervisors (including work leaders) complete and record "formal" room inspections of at least 5 percent of all rooms every week. Provide documentation to ensure any identified deficiencies/write-ups are corrected, and maintain documentation of inspections for at least 1 year. 3-1 a. Housekeeping supervisor.

37. (211) Summary courts officers' (SCO) personal property actions should be completed within how many days? a. 180. b. 120. c. 100. d. 90.

SCO will be advised that all personal property actions should be completed within 90 days of appointment; an additional 90-day extension may be granted by the installation commander. Any additional requests for extension beyond 180 days may be granted by Headquarters Air Force/Services (HAF/A1S). d. 90. Note: completed in 90 days/Installation Commander can grant an additional 90 days/HAF/A1S beyond 180 days

21. (204) The Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) sends an electronic data interchange (EDI) transaction to a. the vendor and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). b. Department of Defense (DOD) food customers. c. the vendor and DOD food customers. d. any government computer.

STORES sends the EDI transaction to the vendor and DLA. One of the major benefits of STORES Web ordering is for you, the customer, to have the opportunity to receive your food products within 48 hours after placing the order. 1-10 a. the vendor and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

7. (004) How many types of manpower do the Air Force (AF) rely on to do its mission? a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four.

C.

15. (206) At which deployment period will three unitized group rations (UGR) be served each day? a. Day 15 through 29. b. Day 5 through 14. c. Day 0 through 4. d. Day 30+.

Day 0 - 4- Three MREs a day. Day 5 - 14- 1 MRE and 2 UGR (i.e., fresh fruit and vegetable supplements). Day 15 - 29- Three UGRs a day. Day 30+- Four meals a day, integrating fresh food. 1-13 a. day 15-29

6. (202) Within the emergency management (EM) process, who communicates to higher headquarters (HQ) and with civilian agencies during emergencies? a. Emergency operations center (EOC). b. Installation commander's office. c. Emergency support function (ESF). d. Installation control center (ICC).

Emergency management (EM) C2 originates with the commander in chief (CINC) and is delegated to the major command (MAJCOM) through the Department of Defense (DOD) and Headquarters Air Force (HAF). The installation's C2 organizational structure consists of an installation control center (ICC), emergency operations center (EOC), and unit control center (UCC). The ICC controls the EOC and the UCCs and directs strategic actions supporting the installation's mission. The command post is part of the ICC and functions as the essential C2 node. The ICC provides a communication link with higher headquarters (HHQ) and civilian agencies. 1-4 d. Installation control center (ICC).

12. (004) What document authorizes lodging to apply unpaid charges to a guest's credit card? a. Registration form. b. Nonavailability letter. c. Commercial lodging letter. d. Personal property envelope.

Ensure the guest signs the registration form. Signing this card authorizes lodging to apply unpaid charges to their credit card. 1-9 a. Registration form.

26. (206) Who is responsible for providing bulk water after the initial period of contingency operations? a. Force support squadron (FSS). b. Civil engineering (CE). c. Public health (PH). d. Prime vendor (PV).

Food and water are life-sustaining requirements during contingency operations. For deployments, where there is non-potable water, FSS is responsible for providing individual bottled water as a supplement to field rations. The base that is tasked with the unit type code (UTC) RFSEW (denotes bottled water) will be responsible for purchasing water through the base O&M funds. CE is responsible for providing bulk water. 1-16 b. Civil engineering (CE). note: providing individual bottled water as a supplement to field rations and CE will in Bulk (water buffaloes, and other water supplies

14. (205) Under the lead/follow support concept, when planning support in 3F1 functional areas, food services must maintain a cook-to-customer ratio under a. 2:75. b. 2:50. c. 1:75. d. 1:50.

Food services must maintain a cook-to-customer ratio under 1:50 (e.g., one cook to every 50 customers). The operations must be capable of using the two prepared meals and one MRE concept and be able to escalate to three prepared meals. 1-12 D.1:50

14. (203) In a non-automated dining facility, which form do you use to transfer subsistence to another dining facility? a. AF Information Management Tool (IMT) 977. b. AF IMT 3516. c. DD Form 988. d. DD Form 1119-1.

For non-automated facilities, use an AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt, for all transfers.

29. (210) After the start of the "open the base" force module (FM), the "generate the mission" FM will be expected to be in place no later than (NLT) day a. 2. b. 4. c. 6. d. 8.

Generally this module is in place not later than (NLT) 4 days after the start of the opening of the air base. b. 4. Open the Base C2 Establish the Base Generate the Mission NLT 4 days Operate the Base NLT than 7 days Robust the Base 30 days after

28. (210) Which force module (FM) contains specific weapons systems such as fighters, tankers and cargo aircraft crews, and maintenance teams? a. Robust the base. b. Operate the base. c. Generate the mission. d. Command and control.

Generate the mission. FM contains specific weapons systems such as fighters, tankers and cargo aircraft crews, and maintenance teams. Generally this module is in place not later than (NLT) 4 days after the start of the opening of the air base. c. Generate the mission.

2. (001) Nonavailability (NA) certificates for government lodging are not issued when a. temporary duty (TDY) is less than 24 hours. b. government-controlled lodging is occupied. c. temporary lodging facilities are occupied. d. business suites are occupied.

Here are some important factors about NA certificates you need to know: • Government quarters are considered not available when the TDY is less than 24 hours. Therefore, NA numbers are not issued in such circumstances. • Lodging does not issue NA numbers to Air Reserve Component (ARC) units in an inactive duty, non per diem status when at their home station. • The general manager issues NA numbers only if the installation does not have lodging facilities available. 1-3 a. temporary duty (TDY) is less than 24 hours.

22. (205) When should hazards be identified in the food and water (FW) distribution systems? a. At each step. b. When ordering. c. When receiving. d. At weekly inventory.

Identify hazards at each step of the FW distribution systems. Assess and manage the risk for effective FW protection. The goal is optimal security in a cost-effective manner. Complete security is not realistic, but proper implementation of the ORM process can reduce risk to an acceptable level. 1-11 a. At each step.

23. (205) Under the food and water (FW) program, the goal is optimal security a. at any cost. b. in a cost effective manner. c. to minimize vulnerability. d. to enhance force protection (FP).

Identify hazards at each step of the FW distribution systems. Assess and manage the risk for effective FW protection. The goal is optimal security in a cost-effective manner. Complete security is not realistic, but proper implementation of the ORM process can reduce risk to an acceptable level. 1-11 b. in a cost effective manner.

11. (004) What must a guest be informed of at the time of reservations? a. Room number. b. Availability of government meals. c. Place for commercial lodging (CL). d. Local cancellation or no show policy.

Inform the guest of the local cancellation/no show policy at time of reservation. 1-8 d. Local cancellation or no show policy.

42. (213) What is the maximum allowable number of interment flags given to a deceased's family without approval of Headquarters, Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO)? a. 4. b. 3. c. 2. d. 1.

Interment flags--The PADD, spouse (if the decedent was married), and parents may be provided a flag and a flag case. The PADD will receive one flag. If the parents are married, they will receive one flag together. If the parents are divorced, each will receive a flag. Additional flags will not be provided without approval from Headquarters, Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO). b. 3. NOTE: Spouse:1 Parents 1 or 2 if divorced

40. (212) The family affairs representative (FAR) log of events is located in which tab of the mortuary case file? a. 6. b. 5. c. 3. d. 2.

a. 6.

10. (203) What is not an issue surfacing from a larger inventory? a. Physical inventories are hampered. b. Monetary accounts may suffer. c. Broader selection of items. d. Food spoilage increases.

Peacetime inventory levels for main dining facilities are recommended to be kept at a manageable level based on your operation's storage capabilities and daily needs. As you have learned, because you have a PV supplying your operation on a regularly scheduled basis, there is no need to have a massive amount of subsistence on hand. Consider storage capabilities and daily needs. Unnecessary inventory levels could result in the following chances of more issues surfacing, such as: • Refrigerators and dry storage areas are overloaded. • Physical inventories could be miscounted. • Monetary accounts may suffer. • Food spoilage increases. 1-6 c. Broader selection of items.

7. (202) Which organization serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for emergency support functions (ESF) dealing with mass care, housing, and human services? a. Force support squadron (FSS). b. Civil engineer (CE). c. Security forces (SF). d. Medical group.

Personnel assigned to direct ESFs must be highly knowledgeable and have decision-making authority for their function. The ESF has 15 functions or "chairs;" the FSS serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for ESF 6: Mass Care, Housing and Human Services. 1-5 a. Force support squadron (FSS).

54. (212) Who should you notify promptly in an alcohol-related incident that may result in potential claims? a. Force support squadron (FSS) commander. b. Office of special Investigation (OSI). c. Security forces. d. Legal office.

Promptly report any incident that may result in a potential claim to the FSS commander or division chief (senior leadership). 2-12 a. Force support squadron (FSS) commander.

35. (009) Lodging rates are not based on a. actual nonappropriated fund (NAF) income and expenses (I&E). b. budgeted NAF I&E for the next two fiscal years. c. nonappropriated fund (NAF) cash flow budget. d. Two-year NAF capital requirements budget.

Rate request changes are normally submitted no later than (NLT) 15 February to the AFSVA/SVOL. A rate request package consists of the following documents: • NAF I&E budget, specifically the standard "A" sheets or actual data from the NAF Budget Financial Analysis System. • Consolidated BLF balance sheet file as of 31 Dec. • BLF consolidated budget files for the upcoming 2 years. • Consolidated BLF year-to-year 2-5 c. nonappropriated fund (NAF) cash flow budget.

10. (204) Which of the following enables timely operational capability assessments to facilitate joint force projection planning? a. Unit line number (ULN). b. Cargo increment number (CIN). c. Force requirement number (FRN). d. Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

The TPFDD enables timely operational capability assessments to facilitate joint force projection planning and execution in support of national objectives and operational missions. For contingency and crisis action planning, planners at the supported component headquarters (HQ) develop the AF requirements, by UTC, in the TPFDD to express the total expeditionary force needed to meet the specified mission objectives. These unique requirements are called unit line numbers (ULN). 1-9 d. Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

33. (206) The approval authority for all food and water sources in a deployed environment is a. installation commander. b. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). c. United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC). d. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division (AFSVA/SVOF).

The United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC) is responsible for approval of food and bottled water sources. 1-18 p.c. United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC)

2. (201) The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) addresses all of the following except a. the mission. b. execution tasks. c. specific situations. d. the concept of operations (CONOPS).

The WMP sets the requirements for developing mobilization and planning programs required to support and sustain contingency operations. It encompasses all basic functions for matching facilities, personnel, and materiel resources with planned activity. WMP-1 is a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. It addresses these subjects: • General situation. • Mission. • Concept of operations (CONOPS). • Execution tasks for AF forces in regional conflicts. 1-1/1-2 c. specific situations.

5. (202) Which part of the base support expeditionary site plan (ESP) identifies resources? a. Part 1. b. Part 2. c. Services annex. d. Joint support plan.

The base support ESP is developed in two parts. • Part one identifies resources and capabilities of a location by functional area and is the focus of the expeditionary site survey. • Part two allocates resources identified in part one, assesses the ability to support the operation, and also identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC). 1-3 a. Part 1.

51. (216) Who is responsible for providing a complete quality control program to assure contract requirements are met? a. Quality assurance evaluator (QAE). b. Mortuary officer (MO). c. Commander. d. Contractor.

The contractor will establish a complete quality control program to assure the requirements of the contract are provided as specified. One copy of the Contractor's Quality Control Program will be provided to the contracting officer at the pre-award survey. Provide an updated copy to the contracting officer on the contract start date and as changes occur. d. Contractor.

27. (007) Which term is used to describe pricing an item above the market when no alternative retailer is available? a. Price fixing. b. Price gouging. c. Fair market pricing. d. Alternative pricing.

The definition of price gouging is pricing an item above market price when no alternative retailer is available. An excellent example of price gouging is the 75 to 100 percent rise in gasoline prices when the World Trade Centers were destroyed. 2-2 b. Price gouging.

38. (014) Who must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force (AF) installations? a. AF. b. Contractor. c. Employees. d. Facility manager.

a. AF. he AF must remain neutral in dealing with contract- related labor disputes that may occur on AF installations.

46. (215) Who is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses? a. Headquarters Air Force Services Activity/Services Directorate (HQ AFSVA/SV). b. Headquarters Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO). c. Installation commander. d. Major command (MAJCOM)/Services (A1S).

The major command/Services (MAJCOM/A1S) is responsible for: • Developing a financial plan governing the payment of mortuary-related expenses for bases within its command and ensuring it is in effect at their installations. • Ensuring a plan is in place for funding on weekends or holidays including having a POC at the MAJCOM/A1S office and base budget. The MAJCOM will notify the AFMAO of the names and numbers of the POCs. • Reporting funding shortfalls and requesting additional funds from the AFMAO. d. Major command (MAJCOM)/Services (A1S).

23. (208) Who designs measurement criteria for readiness reporting? a. Force support squadron commander (FSS/CC). b. Installation deployment officer (IDO). c. Global force management (GFM). d. Functional area manager (FAM).

The measurement criteria are designed by the FAM and executed by commanders to determine a realistic indication of unit readiness. 1-25 d. Functional area manager (FAM).

13. (205) Which is not one of the nine key and essential pieces of personnel deployment tasking information? a. Plan identification designator (PID). b. Air Force specialty code (AFSC). c. Personnel increment number (PIN). d. Position number suffix.

The nine key and essential pieces of personnel deployment tasking information are: 1. Plan identification designator (PID). 2. ULN, ULN position number. 3. Position number suffix. 4. Air Force specialty code (AFSC). 5. Unique qualifications. 6. Tasked personnel accounting symbol (PAS). 7. Required delivery date (RDD) or date required in place (DRI). 8. Duty location (DLOC). 9. Attached PAS. 1-11 c. Personnel increment number (PIN).

18. (203) Who must initial on the original delivery invoice on any shortages or errors? a. Storeroom personnel and food service section chief (FSSC). b. Storeroom personnel and driver or vendor. c. Accountant and FSSC. d. Accountant and driver.

The number one rule for a storeroom clerk is to sign only for what you actually receive! Any changes to a vendor's invoice must have initials from both the dining facility and vendor representatives—no exceptions! The receipt is your main receiving document, not the vendor's invoice. 1-9 b. Storeroom personnel and driver or vendor.

1. (201) Which of the following is not provided by the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) to support operations? a. Current policies. b. Planning factors. c. Concept of operations (CONOPS). d. Global force management (GFM) forces.

The primary users of WMP-1 are the Air Staff, AF planners, and AF commanders. The WMP provides specific resources for conducting and supporting contingency operations including: • Current policies. • Planning factors. • Global force management (GFM) apportioned forces. 1-1 c. Concept of operations (CONOPS).

37. (208) What document breaks down each food service evaluation category area and describes evaluation criteria to complete Air Force information management tool 1038? a. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 34-240, Food Service Program Management. b. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-239, Food Management Program. c. Dining Facility Manager's Handbook. d. Corporate Food Service Handbook.

The questions listed in the table above are just a touch of what items or issues that are addressed during the evaluation. Attachment 2 of AFMAN 34-240 details each area that is evaluated. 1-21 a. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 34-240, Food Service Program Management.

16. (203) To identify errors, compare menu mix report with a. waste log. b. production log. c. cashier miscellaneous log. d. inventory count worksheet.

There are two types of adjustments: inventory adjustment (raw) and recipe adjustment (finished). You should compare the adjustments to the menu mix report in the automated system. The menu mix report identifies items sold through the register. On a daily basis, compare the menu mix report and production log to identify any errors. For example, if the production log shows 200 servings of meatloaf was prepared and the menu mix shows that 185 servings of meatloaf was sold, then there should be 15 servings of meatloaf on the recipe adjustment unless the servings were carried over to another meal period. This report can also help identify excessive waste and serve as a tool to reduce the amounts prepared. 1-9 b. production log.

30. (210) How many days after an operational location is established will the "robust the base" force module (FM) expect support forces to be in place? a. 15. b. 20. c. 25. d. 30.

This FM contains those support forces that would typically not arrive until 30 days after an operation location is established. d. 30.

42. (209) Who has approval authority to alter hours of operation of fitness facilities? a. Flight chief. b. Fitness center director. c. Squadron commander. d. Installation commander.

To alter the operating hours, the installation commander has approval authority. In addition, the FC should be open on federal holidays with the exception of Thanksgiving and Christmas. 2-3 d. Installation commander.

27. (206) In a deployed environment, the food service operation reaches initial operational capability (IOC) when it serves the first a. hot A-ration. b. meals, ready to eat (MRE). c. hot unit group ration (UGR). d. mix of UGRs and A-Rations.

To define mission accomplishment in terms of support, planners use two statements—initial operational capability (IOC) and full operational capability (FOC). The food service operation achieves IOC at the time it serves the first hot UGR. It reaches FOC when it uses a mix of UGRs, fresh, frozen, perishable, non-perishable, or pre-prepared items to deliver all hot meals. 1-16 c. hot unit group ration (UGR)

19. (203) Who do you coordinate through to add new food items to the catalog? a. Flight chief. b. Force support squadron (FSS) commander. c. Installation commander. d. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Fund Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA).

We cannot just buy anything we want for our dining facilities. Authorized vendors deliver all authorized food items, from bread to MREs; you cannot just go down to the corner grocery store and buy what you want. If you want a new food item, you must coordinate it through AFSVA/SVOFA to get it added to the catalog so that you can order it through an approved source. 1-9 D.AFSVA/SVOFA

37. (009) Who or which agency reviews all capital requirements for compliance with lodging standards? a. Installation commander (CC). b. Force Support Squadron commander (FSS CC). c. Air Force Services Activity/Lodging Branch (AFSVA/SVOL). d. Air Force Services Activity/Nonappropriated Funds Division (AFSVA/FMNF).

To finalize the rate package, AFSVA/SVOL reviews the files from the BLFs and checks for completeness and accuracy through these actions: • Validates budgeted income and expense data on consolidated files for reasonableness based on historical actual data and justifications provided for material deviations from the historical data. • Reviews all capital requirements budgets for compliance with lodging standards, appropriate fund source, and adequate descriptive information. • Reviews and certifies all BLF files. AFSVA/FMN links all files to the Rate Determination Schedules and creates an AF consolidated rate C. AFSVA/SVOL

15. (203) Who approves transfers of excess meals, ready to eat (MRE)? a. Unit commander. b. Military public health (MPH). c. Food service section chief (FSSC). d. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Fund Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA).

Transfers are not limited to between facilities and items that are medically condemned. We also do transfers for: • Out of the facility for a base or unit exercise. • Bulk food to avoid excessive waste. • Excess meals, ready to eat (MRE) and subsistence that have not been used in a reasonable amount of time. (Requires AFSVA/SVOFA approval.) • Federal emergencies such as floods and fires. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) must approve this action. 1-8 d. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Fund Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA).

48. (211) In a deployed environment, nonappropriated funds (NAF) resale operations are normally established by day a. 5. b. 10. c. 15. d. 20.

Typically, NAF resale operations are normally established on or about day 15 of the deployment during the sustainment phase and conducted as a part of the lodging, fitness center, and recreation center operations. 2-9 c.15

20. (005) After how many days does lodging consult with or turn in unclaimed high value items to Security Forces? a. 60. b. 45. c. 30. d. 15.

Under no circumstances will any employee keep any items found. Consult with or turn in to SF any articles of high value such as watches or jewelry unclaimed for over 30 days. 1-13 c. 30.

14. (004) Who establishes procedures for group check-ins at Air Force Inns? a. Housekeeping supervisor. b. Guest services manager. c. Lodging manager. d. Flight chief.

Use the procedures established by the lodging manager for preblocking and assigning rooms for groups. Group check-in may take place at an alternate location. You may meet the bus of guests in the parking lot of their building and hand out keys or meet them on the flight line. These types of reservations involves the entire staff and management depends on everyone to make them successful c. Lodging manager.

4. (003) What dates are the inclusive dates for awards packages? a. 1 Jan-31 Dec. b. 1 Oct-30 Sep. c. 1 May-30 Dec. d. 1 Oct-1 Apr.

a. 1 Jan-31 Dec.

41. (213) How many copies of a certified state death certificate are given to a person authorized to direct disposition (PADD)? a. 10. b. 12. c. 16. d. 18.

a. 10.

14. (005) A regular nonappropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed how many hours a week? a. 10 to 15. b. 15 to 20. c. 20 to 40. d. Over 40.

c. 20

29. (011) Which Air Force form is used when turning-in equipment items? a. 126. b. 1297. c. 2005. d. 3005.

c. 2005 AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request Use when an item is in ASRS and the basis of issue requires approval at wing or base level or lower. Is the basis of issue and preface for special base-level coordination, such as civil engineering? Primarily used when requesting, turning-in, or transferring equipment.

44.(015) What day after mobilization are morale programs brought online? a. 10. b. 20. c. 30. d. 40.

c. 30 During the initial surge phase of a conflict, morale programming is de-emphasized. However, sustaining force plans should include emphasized morale programs after day 30 of mobilization,

39. (212) Funeral home itemized charges are filed in which tab of the mortuary case file? a. 2. b. 3. c. 5. d. 6.

c. 5

26. (209) Which BEAR set transitions from initial to established messing? a. BEAR Single Pallet Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK). b. BEAR Portable Electric Kitchen (PEK). c. BEAR 9-2 550 Kitchen. d. Swift BEAR.

c. BEAR 9-2 550 Kitchen. 1-28

17. (005) A guest requesting storage of classified material should be referred to a. Wing Safety. b. Anti-terrorism. c. Command post. d. Security Forces.

c. Command post.

22. (008) Who reviews and finalizes all budgets prior to submission for approval? a. Installation commander. b. Group commander. c. Force support squadron commander or director. d. Flight commander.

c. Force support squadron commander or director. FSS commander or director Review and finalize all budgets prior to submission for approval 25 Oct, Jan, Apr, Jul

37. (014) In order to be responsive to mission needs and requirements, the contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the a. individual. b. contractor. c. Government d. activity the contract supports.

c. Government To be responsive to mission needs and requirements, contracts must be awarded that are in the best interest of the government.

35. (013) What type of loss is it when someone fails to exercise even a slight degree of care or acts in a manner that is an extreme departure from the course of action expected of a reasonable person with all circumstances considered to prevent a loss? a. Simple negligence. b. Willful misconduct. c. Gross negligence. d. Proximate cause.

c. Gross negligence.

8. (203) When deployed, which ration type does not require cooks? a. A-ration. b. B-ration. c. Meal, ready to eat (MRE). d. Unitized group ration (UGR).

c. Meal, ready to eat (MRE).

53. (217) Who is eligible for flyovers? a. Active duty Air Force (AF) 3- and 4-star general officers with command pilot ratings only. b. Retired AF 3- and 4-star general officers regardless of aeronautical rating only. c. Active duty AF 3- and 4-star general officers regardless of aeronautical rating only. d. Both active duty and retired AF 3- and 4-star general officers regardless of aeronautical rating.

d. Both active duty and retired AF 3- and 4-star general officers regardless of aeronautical rating. 1. Active duty and ARC-rated officers and non-rated career aviators (13BX officers and 1AXXX enlisted crewmembers, such as flight engineers, loadmasters, boom operators, etc.). The rated category includes taking courses of instruction leading to such an aeronautical rating. The ARC will be treated the same as active duty (eligible when the death occurs on or off duty). This includes ARC members not on unit training assembly (UTA) or military orders. 2. Non-career aviators (i.e., nurses, medical technicians, intelligence, etc.) but only when they die in the line-of-duty while performing aviation duties. 3. Dignitaries of the armed forces and federal government. 4.Active duty and retired USAF 3- and 4-star general officers, regardless of aeronautical rating. 5. Active duty or retired USAF members who have been awarded the Congressional Medal of Honor, Army Distinguished Service Cross, the Navy or the Air Force Cross. 6. Active duty or retired USAF aviators who have achieved one or more officially recognized aerial victories (Aces). 7. Active duty or retired Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force (CMSAF). 8. USAF members (active duty, retired, or honorably separated) who were prisoners of war (POW).

18. (007) Which funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress? a. Operation and maintenance (O&M). b. Nonappropriated. c. Procurement. d. Fallout.

d. Fallout Fallout funds generally result from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress to cover military and civilian pay increases, utility cost increases, and so forth, which were not projected in the first approved budget. Funds do not come from money that MAJCOMs have reserved for year-end spending.

25. (205) In which area should personal items such as lunch containers be prohibited? a. Locker. b. Dining. c. Back office. d. Food handling.

d. Food handling.

41. (014) In what situation do you not use individual service contracts? a. When the contract is less than one year. b. When the service will only be provided one time. c. When the contract will be paid on a per job basis. d. For services that the individual is obligated to provide the nonappropriated funds instrumentality (NAFI) as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position.

d. For services that the individual is obligated to provide the nonappropriated funds instrumentality (NAFI) as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position. • Do not use ISCs in the following situations: • Construction services. • Services by an employee of the activity where performance of the service would create a conflict of interest. • Services that the individual is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position.

31. (012) When safeguarding resources, how many steps are involved in the controlling process? a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four.

d. Four. All AF organizations must use a cost-effective internal management control (IMC) program to protect resources IAW AFPD 65-2 and AFI 65-201, Managers' Internal Control Program Procedures. IMC is a plan of organization and methods, as well as measures used to satisfy the following requirements: • Safeguard resources. • Promote operational economy and efficiency. • Assure accuracy and reliability of information. • Assure adherence to applicable laws, regulations, and policies.

48. (215) Which deceased member's relative is not authorized to receive travel and per diem entitlements for funeral travel? a. Spouse. b. Children. c. Parent/parents. d. Grandchildren.

d. Grandchildren.

40. (014) Which type of contract is awarded to specified individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)? a. Unique skill. b. On-call service. c. One-time service. d. Individual service.

d. Individual service Individual service contracts (ISC) may be entered into noncompetitively. The contracting officer is responsible for determining fair and reasonable pricing. Insurance should be considered where unique risks are associated with the services to be performed. These contracts are awarded to specified individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the NAFI.

16. (006) Who determines and implements the appropriate media mix to support force support squadron (FSS) activities? a. Customer. b. Flight chief. c. Activity manager. d. Marketing manager.

d. Marketing manager

44. (214) Which transport method is not authorized for movement of a deceased member's remains? a. Hearse or service car. b. Commercial aircraft. c. Government aircraft. d. Personal vehicle.

d. Personal vehicle.

23. (009) What should you do when a piece of equipment is purchased? a. Delete that line item from your budget. b. Deduct the actual cost of the item on your budget. c. Annotate the actual cost of the item on your budget. d. Program a replacement into the long-range capital improvement plan.

d. Program a replacement into the long-range capital improvement plan when a piece of equipment is purchased, a replacement item should be programmed into the long-range capital improvement plan.

51. (211) The nonappropriated funds (NAF) custodian should maintain a Memorandum Control Record for items costing less than a. $1,000. b. $2,000. c. $3,000. d. $4,000.

• Maintaining property record (Memorandum Control Record) for items costing less than $1,000 but do not lose their identity when used. 2-10 a. $1,000. The following is a list of some of the custodial responsibilities for administering NAF operations: • Disbursing funds for only those expenditures authorized by the commander or designated representative. • Depositing cash and check receipts daily, or on an as-required basis. • Maintaining petty cash fund amounts authorized. • Preparing vouchers according to invoices and reports. • Recording checks in check register. • Maintaining property record (Memorandum Control Record) for items costing less than $1,000 but do not lose their identity when used. • Maintaining property record for fixed assets costing in excess of $1,000. • Ensuring inventories are completed monthly as required according to AFI 34-202, Procedures for Protecting Nonappropriated Funds Assets and AFMAN 34-214, Procedures for Nonappropriated Funds Financial Management and Accounting. Coordinate with supporting command for end-of-month suspense dates. • Maintaining records required to fully account for the unit MWR fund. • Preparing operating instructions (OI) for cash-handling procedures as required for the fund's operations. • Ensuring a budget is prepared and revised quarterly or as needed. • Ensuring monthly financial statements are prepared, reconciled, and forwarded to theater command. Reports must arrive based on supporting commands suspense dates. 2-10

49. (211) Which is not a control measure for nonappropriated funds (NAF) resale? a. Using a lockable cash box. b. Leaving money overnight. c. Conducting surprise cash count. d. Using proper forms.

• Mandatory use of AF IMT 2555, NAF Collection Record, to record sales and services, when not using a register. • Set and aggressively maintain fund storage limit. • Using a lockable cash box or drawer. • Never leaving monies unattended. • Proper use of cash forms. • Surprise cash counts. 2-9 b. Leaving money overnight.