A+ (220-801) Study Questions

Which of the following are valid examples of IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.) A. 2001:0db8:3c4d: 0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab B. ::ffff:c0a8:173 C. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab D. 2001::1ab4::5468

A, B, C. An IPv6 address contains 128 bits, written in eight 16-bit fields represented by four hexadecimal digits. Option A contains all eight fields expressed in full. Option B is an IPv4 address expressed in IPv6 form. Option C is the same address as option A but written in accepted shorthand. Option D is not valid because the double colons (::) can be used only once within an address.

What is typically included in the EP laser printer toner cartridge? (Choose three.) A. Toner B. Print drum C. Laser D. Cleaning blade

A, B, D. In an electrophotographic (EP) laser printer toner cartridge, the toner, print drum, and cleaning blade are all contained in the toner cartridge. The laser is usually contained within the printer, not within the toner cartridge.

In the interest of a safe work environment, which of the following should you report? (Choose two.) A. An accident B. A near-accident C. Dirt on the floor inside a building D. Rain forecasted for a work day

A, B. Accidents and near-accidents should always be reported. Dirt isn't usually a safety issue. Rain could be, but hopefully that doesn't affect the inside of your building.

Which of the following measures can be implemented to reduce the risk of ESD? (Choose two.) A. Antistatic wrist strap B. Antistatic bag C. Antistatic hair net D. Shuffling your feet

A, B. Antistatic wrist straps, bags (for parts), and floor mats can all help reduce the risk of ESD. There are no antistatic hair nets (but if you have long hair, it's best to tie it back so it doesn't contact the computer parts). Shuffling your feet on the floor will actually increase the risk of ESD.

Which of the following are components of an LCD? (Choose two.) A. Inverter B. Screen C. CRT D. Backdrop

A, B. The components of an LCD screen are the inverter, screen, and backlight. The video card is also a key component of the LCD system. A CRT is a different technology than LCD.

Your network is running IPv4. Which of the configuration options are mandatory for your host to communicate on the network? (Choose two.) A. IP address B. Subnet mask C. Default gateway D. DNS server address

A, B. The only mandatory IPv4 configuration items are an IP address and a subnet mask. If you are not connecting to another network, you do not need a default gateway. DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses but they are not mandatory.

You have just installed a wireless router on your home network. Which of the following should you do to make it highly secure? (Choose two.) A. Change the default administrator name and password. B. Change the SSID. C. Enable WEP. D. Configure it to channel 11.

A, B. You should always change the default administrator name and password as well as the default SSID when installing a new wireless router. Enabling encryption is also a good idea, but WPA and WPA2 are better options than WEP. The channel has nothing to do with security.

What are the five output voltages that have been commonly produced by PC power supplies over the years? (Choose five.) A. +3.3VDC B. -3.3VDC C. +5VDC D. -5VDC E. +12VDC F. -12VDC G. +110 VAC H. -110 VAC

A, C, D, E, F. A PC's power supply produces +3.3VDC, +5VDC, .5VDC, +12VDC, and .12VDC from a 110VAC input.

Which of the following statements are not associated with a star network? (Choose all that apply.) A. A single cable break can cause complete network disruption. B. All devices connect to a central device. C. It uses a single backbone computer to connect all network devices. D. It uses a dual-ring configuration.

A, C, D. In a star network, all systems are connected using a central device such as a hub or a switch. The network is not disrupted for other users when more systems are added or removed. The star network design is used with today's UTP-based networks.

Which of the following are possible interfaces for printers? (Choose three.) A. Parallel B. PS/2 C. Serial D. Network

A, C, D. Printers can communicate via parallel, serial, USB, infrared, wireless, and network connections.

You are setting up a wireless network. Which wireless standards would give the users over 40Mbps throughput? (Choose three.) A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

A, C, D. Three current standards, 802.11a (54Mbps), 802.11g (54Mbps), and 802.11n (600Mbps) give users the required throughput.

Which of the following are the numbers of pins that can be found on DIMM modules used in desktop motherboards? (Choose three.) A. 168 B. 180 C. 184 D. 200 E. 204 F. 232 G. 240

A, C, G. DIMMs used in desktop-motherboard applications have one of three possible pin counts. SDR SDRAM is implemented on 168-pin modules. DDR SDRAM and 16-bit RIMMs are implemented on 184-pin modules. DDR2 and DDR3 are implemented on 240-pin modules with different keying. Dual-channel RIMM modules have 232 pins. Modules with 200 and 204 pins are used in the SODIMM line, and there are no modules with 180 pins.

Which two of the following are standards for cellular communications? A. GSM B. SIG C. CDMA D. CCFL

A, C. The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) and Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) are cellular standards. A SIG is a special interest group, and cold cathode fluorescent lamp (CCFL) is a backlight on a laptop.

Which of the following are 4G standards? (Choose two.) A. LTE B. GSM C. CDMA D. WiMAX

A, D. LTE and WiMAX are 4G standards. GSM and CDMA are cell phone communication standards. (CDMA 2000 is the same as LTE, and it's 4G, but CDMA by itself is not 4G.)

What are two advantages that TCP has over UDP? (Choose two.) A. Acknowledged delivery B. Faster delivery C. Lower overhead D. Virtual circuits

A, D. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that establishes virtual circuits and acknowledges delivery of packets. Because of these features, it has higher overhead than UDP and is a little slower.

All of the following systems benefit from increased RAM except____________ . (Choose two.) A. Home theater PC B. Virtualization workstation C. Graphic design workstation D. Gaming PC

A, D. Virtualization and graphic design workstations benefit from as much RAM as can be installed. Home theater PCs and gaming PCs do not require a large amount of temporary storage of instructions and data. They are more about the rapid movement of graphical data toward an output device.

Which of the following is not one of the three major components of a hard disk drive system? A. Drive interface B. Controller C. Hard disk D. Host adapter

A. A conventional hard disk drive system consists of the hard disk and its often-integrated controller as well as a host adapter to gain access to the rest of the computer system. The drive interface is a common component of the controller and host adapter.

What component allows you to keep desktop devices such as keyboard, monitor, and mouse permanently connected so they can be used by an attached laptop? A. Docking station B. Keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch C. Print server D. USB hub

A. A docking station made specifically for its associated brand and model of laptop can host desktop components permanently, regardless of whether the laptop is attached to the docking station. When the laptop's portability is not required, but instead use of the desktop components is the priority, attaching the laptop to the docking station makes such components available to the laptop without separately attaching each component.

Which of the following is used to store data and programs for repeated use? Information can be added and deleted at will, and it does not lose its data when power is removed. A. Hard drive B. RAM C. Internal cache memory D. ROM

A. A hard drive stores data on a magnetic medium, which does not lose its information after the power is removed and can be repeatedly written to and erased.

What troubleshooting device would you use if you needed to trace a cable through a wall? A. Toner probe B. Cable tester C. Multimeter D. Loopback plug

A. A toner probe will allow you to check the physical path of a cable through something like a wall. Cable testers will test to see if the cable works. Multimeters can test voltage and see if a cable is operational as well. Loopback plugs are used to test network adapters.

Which of the following system types does not require a CPU enhancement of any sort? A. A/V editing workstation B. Gaming PC C. Graphic design workstation D. Virtualization workstation

A. A/V editing workstations require video enhancements and a hard drive capable of storing a large quantity of data and accessing it quickly. The other system types require faster or more plentiful processors.

Which of the following types of LCD has the best performance characteristics? A. Active matrix B. Passive matrix C. Dual matrix D. Dual scan

A. Active matrix technology is superior to passive matrix. Dual scan is merely an enhanced form of passive matrix but is not on par with active matrix. Dual matrix isn't an LCD type.

What happens during the developing stage of laser printing? A. An electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner particles. B. Heat is applied to the paper to melt the toner. C. The laser creates an image of the page on the drum. D. An electrostatic charge is applied to the paper to attract toner particles.

A. After a laser has created an image of the page, the developing roller uses a magnet and electrostatic charges to attract toner to itself and then transfers the toner to the areas on the drum that have been exposed to the laser. The toner is melted during the fusing stage. The laser creates an image of the page on the drum in the writing stage. An electrostatic charge is applied to the paper to attract toner in the transferring stage, which happens immediately after the developing stage.

What kind of media is most commonly used when large amounts of data need to be archived on a regular basis? A. Tape B. Optical disc C. External hard drive D. Floppy diskette

A. Although inefficient as an interactive medium, sequential tape-based storage continues to be developed in increasing capacities. Tape remains the best choice for frequently backing up large amounts of data for redundancy and archival purposes.

What is the single, fixed resolution of an LCD called? A. Native resolution B. Default resolution C. Refresh rate D. Burned-in resolution

A. An LCD's native resolution is the single, fixed resolution that provides optimal clarity.

Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in an EP process laser printer? A. +600VDC B. -600VDC C. +6000VDC D. -6000VDC

A. Because the toner on the drum has a slight negative charge (-100VDC), it requires a positive charge to transfer it to the paper; +600VDC is the voltage used in an EP process laser printer.

Besides 802.11 standards, which wireless communication method works in the 2.4GHz range? A. Bluetooth B. Infrared C. Satellite D. Cellular

A. Bluetooth also operates in the 2.4GHz range.

Which of the following wireless communication standards is often described in terms of a wireless personal area network? A. Bluetooth B. Infrared C. Cellular D. Ethernet

A. Bluetooth networks are often called wireless personal area networks (WPANs)

What is contrast ratio? A. The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be displayed B. A term that was used with CRTs but has no meaning with LCDs C. The ratio of luminance between two adjacent pixels D. Something that can be corrected through degaussing

A. Contrast ratio is a selling point for LCDs. Higher contrast ratios mean darker blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent pixels is known as contrast, not contrast ratio.

You are setting up a small network that will not connect to the Internet. You want computers to be able to locate each other by using hostnames. What service will do this? A. DNS B. DHCP C. FTP D. APIPA

A. DNS is typically known as a name resolver on the Internet, but it will work on private networks as well. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures clients with IP address information. FTP is for file downloads. APIPA is a process used to automatically assign clients a private IP address when they can't reach the DHCP server.

Which of the following IP addresses would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet? A. 10.25.11.33 B. 18.33.66.254 C. 155.118.63.11 D. 192.186.12.2

A. DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses. On the Internet, a DNS server needs to have a public IP address. The address 10.25.11.33 is in a private address space, so that address would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet.

Which of the following expansion buses uses serial communications and is capable of operating in USB and PCIe modes? A. ExpressCard B. CardBus C. Mini PCI D. FireWire

A. The ExpressCard bus brings USB 2.0 and PCIe to the small-form-factor computing industry. CardBus supports USB 1.1 and PCI only. Mini PCI is PCI, not PCIe.

Why do A/V editing workstations benefit from more than one monitor? A. Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped. B. While one graphics adapter works on one rendering project, the other can simply display a normal desktop. C. Once the editing is complete, the second monitor is used to present the results to others on the team. D. Additional monitors are used for remote collaboration among other editors.

A. Editors of this type of media have numerous controls and timelines to keep track of. These constructs often lie along the bottom of the application and run horizontally. Subsequent monitors allow the editor to spread out without shrinking the view excessively.

Which of the following most accurately describes how to obtain a firmware upgrade for your laser printer? A. Download the firmware upgrade for free from the manufacturer's website. B. Pay to download the firmware upgrade from the manufacturer's website. C. Have a certified laser printer technician come to your site and install a new firmware chip. D. Contact the manufacturer of the printer, and they will send you the firmware upgrade on a CD.

A. Firmware upgrades for laser printers are downloaded for free from the manufacturer's website. A technician does not need to install a new chip because firmware is upgraded via software. It's unlikely that the manufacturer will send you the upgrade on a CD; it will refer you to its website to download it.

If you are going to run a network cable in the space above the drop ceiling in your office, which type of cable should you use? A. Plenum B. PVC C. Coaxial D. Fiber-optic

A. For areas where a cable must be fire retardant, such as in a drop ceiling, you must run plenum-grade cable. Plenum refers to the coating on the sleeve of the cable, not the media (copper or fiber) within the cable itself. PVC is the other type of coating typically found on network cables, but it produces poisonous gas when burned.

What voltage does the corona wire or corona roller hold? A. +600VDC B. -600VDC C. 0VDC D. -100VDC

A. For the toner (which has a charge of -600VDC) to be transferred from the print drum (which has a charge of -600VDC) to the paper, there must be a positive, or opposite, charge of greater difference to break the -600VDC charge from the drum.

Which of the following is not a requirement for a graphic design workstation? A. Fast hard drive B. Maximum RAM C. Powerful CPU D. High-end video

A. Graphics design and CAD/CAM design workstations do not require a fast hard drive because the artist works with static images that do not stream from the drive. However, RAM in which to hold the highly detailed, sometimes 3D artwork before saving, a powerful processor for implementing complex algorithms on a small amount of information during rendering, and high-end video for assisting in the rendering and display of the images are necessary.

Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 80? A. HTTP B. HTTPS C. Telnet D. POP3

A. HTTP uses port 80. HTTPS uses 443, Telnet 23, and POP3 110.

Which of the following best describes the concept of hot-swappable devices? A. Power does not need to be turned off before the device is inserted or removed. B. The device can be removed with power applied after it is properly stopped in the operating system. C. Care must be taken when swapping the device because it can be hot to the touch. D. The device can be swapped while still hot, immediately after powering down the system.

A. Hot-swappable devices can be removed while the power to the system is still on. Warm-swappable devices need to be stopped in the operating system before being removed. The term has nothing to do with the heat level of the device.

Which of the following display interfaces is equivalent to DisplayPort with PCIe added in? A. Thunderbolt B. WHUXGA C. IEEE 1394c D. HDMI

A. Intel and Apple collaborated on Thunderbolt to add PCIe to VESA's DisplayPort and to make the resulting interface smaller and less expensive to connect.

What type of adapter has an RJ-11 jack built in? A. Modem B. Video C. Sound D. NIC

A. Modems have RJ-11 jacks for interface to the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). The modular jacks that Ethernet NICs have are known as RJ-45 jacks.

What is the proper way to dispose of a broken CRT monitor? A. Take it to a computer recycling center. B. Discharge it with a high-volt probe and throw it away. C. Remove the glass screen and throw it away. D. Cut off the power cord and throw the monitor away.

A. Monitors should be recycled after the end of their useful life. They contain many harmful elements, including lead, that can cause environmental problems.

Which of the following is not an example of a standard peripheral input-device connector? A. ⅛" jack B. Mini-DIN C. D-subminiature D. USB

A. Multimedia input devices, not standard input devices, use 1/8 g jacks. Standard input devices include human interface devices, such as keyboards and mice. The other three options can be used for such devices.

You are setting up a small office network for a client. Which Internet service would you recommend to provide the best speed? A. DSL B. Dial-up C. Satellite D. BRI ISDN E. PRI ISDN

A. Of the options listed, DSL provides the fastest speed. DSL can easily provide 12Mbps downloads. Dial-up is limited to 56Kbps, and ISDN BRI (128Kbps) and PRI (about 1.5Mbps) don't even come close. Satellite is also much slower than DSL.

When replacing a power supply' which of the following tends to vary among power supplies and must be chosen properly to support all connected devices? A. Wattage B. Voltage C. Amperage D. Resistance

A. Power supplies are rated in watts. When you purchase a power supply' you should make sure the devices inside the computer do not require more wattage than the chosen power supply can offer. The voltage is fairly standard among power supplies and has nothing to do with the devices connected to the power supply. Amperage and resistance are not selling points for power supplies.

What devices transfer packets across multiple networks and use tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination? A. Routers B. Bridges C. Hubs D. Switches

A. Routers are designed to route (transfer) packets across networks. They are able to do this routing, and determine the best path to take, based on internal routing tables they maintain.

Which of the following protocols uses TCP port 23? A. Telnet B. SSH C. FTP D. DNS

A. Telnet uses port 23. SSH uses port 22. FTP uses ports 21 and 20. DNS uses port 53.

What model is used to provide a common way to describe network protocols? A. OSI B. ISO C. IEEE D. CSMA/CD

A. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is used to describe how network protocols should function. The OSI model was designed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

Which of the following uses would not require a custom configuration for a PC? A. A computer running Windows 7 Ultimate with 1TB of data and 250GB of applications installed B. A computer running WHS 2011 C. A design computer used to drive a lathe that makes automotive rims D. A computer to replace a BD player and DVR

A. The Windows 7 computer can be built as a normal system with a 2TB or 3TB drive. WHS 2011 needs a home server PC. The rims are crafted by a type of CAD/CAM workstation capable of CNC. A home theater PC is an ideal choice to take the place of both the BD player and DVR.

If you are unable to display a given resolution on a monitor, which of the following might explain why? A. The graphics adapter does not have enough memory installed. B. The video display unit does not have enough memory installed. C. You are using a CRT with a single fixed resolution. D. You have the refresh rate set too high.

A. The amount of memory installed on a graphics adapter is directly related to how many pixels can be displayed at one time and how many colors the pixels can be set to. Monitors don't have memory installed in them. LCDs, not CRTs, have a single, fixed resolution called the native resolution. By default, you might be limited to a particular refresh rate because the resolution is too high, but the refresh rate is automatically adjusted down, if necessary, when you select a resolution.

Your Core i5 fan has a four-pin connector, but your motherboard only has a single 3-pin header with the CPU_FAN label. Which of the following will be the easiest solution to get the necessary cooling for your CPU? A. Plug the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. B. Buy an adapter. C. Leave the plug disconnected and just use the heat sink. D. Add an extra chassis fan.

A. The easiest solution that works to cool your CPU is to connect the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. The missing pin allows you to control the speed of the fan. Without it, the fan will run at top speed, which is fine, albeit a little noisier. The heat sink alone should not be relied upon for proper cooling of modern CPUs.

What part of a laser printer supplies the voltages for the charging and transfer corona assemblies? A. High-voltage power supply (HVPS) B. DC power supply (DCPS) C. Controller circuitry D. Transfer corona

A. The high-voltage power supply is the part of the laser printer that supplies the voltages for the charging and transfer corona assemblies.

Which of the following socket types is required for the Intel Core i7-9xx desktop series? A. LGA 1366 B. LGA 1156 C. LGA 1155 D. LGA 775

A. The lower-end Core i7 desktop (nonmobile) processors call for the LGA 1156 socket, but the 9xx series requires the LGA 1366 socket.

Why is high-end cooling a requirement for gaming PCs? A. Gaming PCs tend to overclock their CPUs and run multiple high-performance GPUs. B. Gaming controllers have components for tactile realism that generate copious amounts of heat. C. Digital sound cards generate more heat than analog sound cards. D. Placing that many hard drives in such a small space generates too much heat.

A. The processors found in a gaming PC are many, and the CPU is often overclocked. Such a configuration generates too much heat for conventional cooling to dissipate before the system is damaged. These machines don't have unusual hard-drive requirements. The cooling has no effect on external controllers, and sound cards don't generate much heat, but analog would certainly generate more than digital.

You are manually configuring a TCP/IP host. Another administrator gives you the router's IP address. What is the TCP/IP term for this? A. Default gateway B. Subnet mask C. DNS server D. DHCP server

A. The router is your doorway out into other networks and is known in TCP/IP terms as the default gateway. Without this configuration option, you will not be able to get to external networks.

Which computer component contains all the circuitry necessary for other components or devices to communicate with one another? A. Motherboard B. Adapter card C. Hard drive D. Expansion bus

A. The spine of the computer is the system board, otherwise known as the motherboard. On the motherboard you will find the CPU, underlying circuitry, expansion slots, video components, RAM slots, and various other chips.

What type of coaxial cable is recommended for digital television cable signals? A. RG-6 B. RG-8 C. RG-58 D. RG-59

A. The two RG standards used for cable television are RG-6 and RG-59. Of the two, RG-6 is better and can handle digital signals. RG-59 is for analog signals only. RG-8 is thicknet coax, and RG-58 is thinnet coax.

Which of the following have Intel and AMD integrated into their Atom and Fusion processor lines that hasn't been integrated before? A. A GPU B. A math coprocessor C. The frontside bus D. The memory controller

A. These CPUs integrate the graphics processing unit. The Core i7 before them integrated the memory controller, eliminating the FSB. Math coprocessors have been integrated since the 80486DX.

After a presentation using a video projector, when in a hurry to pack everything up and head to the airport, which of the following should you avoid doing immediately? A. Unplugging the projector's power cable B. Unplugging the projector's video cable from your laptop C. Powering down the projector D. Turning off your laptop

A. Unplugging the power to the projector before the projector's fan has had the opportunity to cool the unit and stop running on its own can lead to expensive repairs on the projector or to the cost of replacing the projector outright.

PC Cards rely on which type of software to operate? (Choose two.) A. Cardmember Services B. Card Services C. Modem Services D. Socket Services

B, D. The PC Card architecture has two components. The first is the Socket Services software, and the second is the Card Services software.

Which laptop accessory allows you to power your laptop from a car or airplane? A. AC adapter B. DC adapter C. Battery converter D. Automotive Wizard

B. A DC adapter converts the DC output from a car or airplane accessory power plug into the DC voltages required by your laptop.

Which protocol was developed to be a secure alternative to Telnet? A. SMB B. SSH C. SNMP D. SFTP

B. The Secure Shell (SSH) was developed as a secure alternative to Telnet. SMB is Server Message Block, which is a network file system. SNMP is for network management. SFTP is designed for secure file downloads. It's a secure alternative to FTP, not a replacement for Telnet.

Which of the following are advantages to using dial-up Internet service? (Choose two.) A. High speed B. Broad availability C. Low cost D. High security

B, C. Dial-up Internet is archaic by today's standards, but it is widely available (anywhere there is phone service) and it's generally lower in cost than other Internet access methods. It's definitely not high speed, and its security is really no different than that of broadband Internet access methods.

At the end of the day, you finish a job only to find the user you were doing it for had to leave. What should you do? (Choose two.) A. Clean up and leave no evidence that you were there. B. Leave a note for the user detailing what was done and how to contact you. C. Notify the user's manager and your own that you have finished. D. Put the system back to its original state.

B, C. You should leave a note for the user explaining what you did and include your contact information. You should also notify your manager and the user's manager that you have completed your task.

Which of the following wireless IEEE standards operate on the 2.4GHz radio frequency and are directly compatible with each other? (Choose two.) A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11d D. 802.11g

B, D. Both 802.11b and 802.11g operate in the 2.4GHz range and use similar transmission standards. Many devices on the market are listed as 802.11b/g, meaning they will work with either system. Alternatively, 802.11a operates in the 5GHz range. Finally, 802.11d is not a commonly implemented standard.

You have discovered prohibited material on a user's laptop computer. What two things should you do first? (Choose two.) A. Destroy the prohibited material. B. Confiscate and preserve the prohibited material. C. Confront the user about the material. D. Report the prohibited material through the proper channels.

B, D. If you encounter prohibited material, you should confiscate and preserve the material and report it through the correct channels. Confronting the issue directly with the user before you have established a proper case could cause problems.

Which of the following are page-description languages? (Choose two.) A. Page Description Language (PDL) B. PostScript C. PageScript D. Printer Control Language (PCL)

B, D. Of those listed, only PostScript and PCL are page-description languages. There is no PDL or PageScript.

Which of the following are OSHA requirements for a safe work environment that must be followed by employers? (Choose two.) A. Attend yearly OSHA safe work environment seminars. B. Provide properly maintained tools and equipment. C. Have an OSHA employee stationed within 5 miles of the facility. D. Display an OSHA poster in a prominent location.

B, D. Private sector employers are required by OSHA to maintain a safe work environment. This includes maintaining tools and equipment, keeping records of accidents, and displaying a safety information poster.

You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want client computers to automatically obtain IP configuration information. Which type of server do you need for this? A. DNS B. DHCP C. Domain controller D. IP configuration server

B. A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration information to hosts when they join the network. A Domain Name System (DNS) server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A domain controller may provide login authentication, but it does not provide IP configuration information. There is no IP configuration server.

Which type of PC Card is used most often for expansion devices like NICs, sound cards, and so on? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV

B. A Type II PC Card is the type used most often for expansion devices like NICs, sound cards, SCSI controllers, modems, and so on.

What is the physical component where data is stored in a HDD? A. Read/write head B. Platter C. Sector D. Cluster

B. A conventional HDD contains discs called platters, on which data is stored magnetically through read/write heads by way of a magnetic coating.

Which tool is used by technicians to connect an RJ-45 connector to the end of a cable? A. Punch-down tool B. Crimper C. Cable tester D. Loopback plug

B. A crimper can attach connectors to the end of a network cable. A punch-down tool will attach a cable to a wiring frame such as a 110 block. Cable testers will see if the cable works properly after you've created it. A loopback plug is for testing network cards.

What is the unit of measure used by manufacturers of projectors to indicate the brightness of their product? A. Lux B. Lumens C. Watts D. Candelas

B. A lumen is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off, based solely on what the human eye can perceive.

What can you use to convert video to a format that can be uploaded to the Internet, among other things? A. A barcode reader B. A video capture card C. A TV tuner card D. A MIDI device

B. A video capture card is used to convert raw video input to a format that can be shared electronically. Although many TV tuner cards provide this functionality, it is their videocapture component that gives them this capability. Any adapter that is strictly a TV tuner cannot capture video.

Which of the following is not a common requirement in a home server PC? A. File and print sharing B. Maximum RAM C. Gigabit NIC D. Media streaming E. RAID array

B. Additional RAM in the home server PC offers no advantage for the performance of the server past a certain point. The tasks the server is asked to perform do not require high performance.

On which properties tab do you select the refresh rate to use between the graphics adapter and monitor in Windows Vista? A. Adapter B. Monitor C. Advanced D. Display Settings

B. Although it's true that you must start with the Display Settings dialog box, which ironically shows a single tab labeled Monitor, and that you subsequently click the Advanced Settings button, it's on the Monitor properties tab thereafter that you select the refresh rate. The Adapter tab in those same properties pages has no selection for refresh rate.

What type of expansion slot is preferred today for high-performance graphics adapters? A. AGP B. PCIe C. PCI D. ISA

B. Although technically all slots listed could be used for video adapters, PCIe excels when compared to the other options and offers technologies such as SLI, which only make PCIe's advantage more noticeable.

What kind of device uses unique physical traits of the user to authenticate their access to a secure system or location? A. Barcode reader B. Biometric device C. Keyboard D. Touch screen

B. Biometric input devices scan a physical trait of the user, such as voice, fingerprint, and retina, for authentication purposes when the user attempts to access computer systems and other property.

Which optical disc format supports a data capacity of 25GB? A. Double-sided, double-layer DVD+R B. Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray disc C. Double-sided, single-layer DVD-R D. Double-sided, single-layer DVD+R

B. Blu-ray discs have a single-sided, single-layer capacity of 25GB. The best the other options achieve is no more than roughly 17GB.

Which of the following is not a benefit of laptop design? A. Portability B. Increased performance C. Desktop replacement D. Higher-quality construction

B. By and large, compromises always must be made when comparing laptops to desktops. Although laptops can be used as desktop replacements, their performance is almost always lower than comparably priced desktops.

_______________ is the type of media access method used by NICs that listen to or sense the cable to check for traffic and send only when they hear that no one else is transmitting. A. Token passing B. CSMA/CD C. CSMA/CA D. Demand priority

B. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) specifies that the NIC pause before transmitting a packet to ensure that the line is not being used. If no activity is detected, then it transmits the packet. If activity is detected, it waits until it is clear. In the case of two NICs transmitting at the same time (a collision), both NICs pause to detect and then retransmit the data.

You have a computer with the IP address 171.226.18.1. What class is this address? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Not a valid IP address

B. Class A addresses have a first octet between 1 and 126, Class B between 128 and 191, and class C between 192 and 223. With a first octet of 171, this is a Class B address.

Which of the following resolutions is an example of a 16:10 aspect ratio? A. 1280×1024 B. 1920×1200 C. 800×600 D. 2048×1536

B. Dividing 16 by 10 produces a value of 1.6. Dividing the first number of a 16:10 resolution by the second number always results in 1.6. Resolutions with a 4:3 aspect ratio produce the value 1.333, while 5:4 resolutions such as 1280x1024 produce the value 1.25.

All of the following are recommended for gaming PCs except____________ . A. High-end cooling B. A RAID array C. High-end video D. Better sound card

B. Gaming PCs are not known for requiring fault tolerance or data persistence. RAID arrays, therefore, are generally not included. The other components are a benefit for gaming PCs, however.

On the primary IDE channel 'if a single hard disk is attached' its jumper should be set to ______. A. Slave B. Single if available' otherwise Master C. Master D. Boot

B. If there is a Single setting 'it should be used. Otherwise' use Master. Slave is never appropriate for a single drive. There is no such jumper setting as Boot.

Which device in a bubble-jet printer contains the print head? A. Toner cartridge B. Ink cartridge C. Daisy wheel D. Paper tray

B. In a bubble-jet printer, the ink cartridge is the actual print head. This is where the ink is expelled to form letters or graphics. Toner cartridges are used by laser printers to store toner. A daisy wheel is the device that impacts the letters on the paper in a daisy-wheel printer. Paper trays are the storage bins in laser printers and bubble-jet printers that allow the pickup rollers to feed the paper into the printer.

Which of the following wireless communication methods has an operational range of 1 meter with a viewing angle of 30 degrees? A. Bluetooth B. Infrared C. WiMAX D. Satellite

B. Infrared is limited to about 1 meter, with a viewing angle of about 30 degrees. Most Bluetooth devices can transmit up to 10 meters. WiMAX has a maximum range of about 5 miles. Satellite signals can travel from the surface of the Earth to a small metal can orbiting the planet.

What category of adapter would you need to install to equip a system with one or more USB ports? A. Multimedia B. I/O C. Communications D. Video

B. Interfaces, such as USB ports, are considered input/output ports. If you have to add USB capability to a computer, an I/O adapter with USB ports on it would meet the need.

Which of the following is required by a virtualization workstation? A. Multiple host operating systems B. Maximum RAM allowed C. File sharing services D. Multiple NICs

B. Maximum RAM and CPU cores are the primary requirements for such systems. Although there are multiple guest operating systems, generally there is but one host to those guests. File sharing may be a service the administrator decides to offer, and multiple NICs might prove advantageous with virtual machines that are popular among the clients, but these workstations do not require either.

What type of connector does a Mini PCI type IIA card have? A. 52-pin card edge B. 100-pin stacking C. 100-pin card edge D. 124-pin card edge

B. Mini PCI cards have either a 100-pin stacking connector or a 124-pin card edge connector. Type II cards have a 100-pin stacking connector. Mini PCIe cards have 52-pin card edge connectors.

What is the approximate minimum level of static charge for humans to feel a shock? A. 300 volts B. 3,000 volts C. 30,000 volts D. 300,000 volts

B. Most people can feel an electric shock at about 3,000 volts. However, computer equipment can be damaged with as little as 100 volts.

Transmitting at 10Gbps, how far can signals on an MMF cable travel? A. 100 meters B. 550 meters C. 1 kilometer D. 40 kilometers

B. Multimode fiber (MMF) can transmit up to 550 meters, depending on the Ethernet specification. Other standards using MMF can transmit only up to 300 meters. If you need to transmit up to 40 kilometers, you will need to use single-mode fiber (SMF).

Which of the following is most helpful when flashing the BIOS on a desktop computer system? A. Floppy diskette drive B. Uninterruptible power supply C. An Internet connection D. The Windows administrator password

B. None of the options are required, but a UPS is by far the most helpful among the answers in that loss of power during this procedure can range from annoying to devastating.

Which of the following is not a consideration when upgrading power supplies? A. You might find that you do not have a matching motherboard connector on your new power supply. B. You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply. C. You might find that your power rating is not adequate on the new power supply. D. You might find that you do not have enough of the appropriate connectors coming from the power supply for the devices you have installed.

B. Personal computers do not have permanently installed power supplies. Like other electrical and electronic components 'power supplies can and do fail on a regular basis. Permanently mounting a power supply to a chassis would be a disservice to the consumer. You should consider the cumulative power needs of your installed components' and you might have to obtain adapters and splitters if you do not have enough or you have the wrong types of connectors coming from the power supply.

What memory chips would you find on a stick of PC3-16000? A. DDR-2000 B. DDR3-2000 C. DDR3-16000 D. PC3-2000

B. Remember the 8:1 rule. Modules greater than but not including SDR SDRAM are named with a number eight times larger than the number used to name the chips on the module. The initials PC are used to describe the module, the initials DDR are used for the chips, and a single-digit number after PC and DDR is used to represent the level of DDR. The lack of a single-digit number represents DDR as long as the number that is present is greater than 133 (such as PC1600). Otherwise, you're dealing with SDR (such as PC133). This means that PC3-16000 modules are DDR3 modules and are populated with chips named DDR3 and a number that is one-eighth of the module's numeric code: 2000.

Which video technology has a resolution of 1280x1024? A. SVGA B. SXGA C. WSXGA D. UXGA

B. SXGA has a resolution of 1280x1024. Consult Table 4.1 for the resolutions that characterize other technologies.

You press the front power button on a computer and the system boots. Later, you press it briefly and the system hibernates. When you press it again, the system resumes. You press and hold the button and the system shuts down. What is this feature called? A. Programmable power B. Soft power C. Relay power D. Hot power

B. Soft power is the feature whereby the front power button acts as a relay to initiate various system power changes, depending on the duration that the button is held.

Your friend is concerned about the security of making an online purchase. What should you tell him to look for in the address bar of the web browser? A. HTTP B. HTTPS C. SSH D. SFTP

B. The HTTP protocol is inherently unsecure, but the HTTPS protocol is secure. (SSH and SFTP are secure as well, but they are not protocols used to connect to websites.)

Which of the following must contain information about a chemical solvent's emergency cleanup procedures? A. OSHA B. MSDS C. Product label D. CRT

B. The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) contains information about chemical properties, including what to do if an accident occurs.

Which of the following is not controlled by the Northbridge? A. PCIe B. SATA C. AGP D. Cache memory

B. The Northbridge is in control of the local-bus components that share the clock of the frontside bus. SATA and all other drive interfaces do not share this clock and are controlled by the Southbridge.

An associate is trying to explain why a particular model of CRT monitor displays images in such high quality but is unable to recall a specific term. The associate mentions that each phosphor is on average only 0.25mm away from the nearest phosphor of the same color. What is the associate trying to describe? A. Resolution B. Dot pitch C. Refresh rate D. The number of dots per inch

B. The associate is trying to think of the term dot pitch. Essentially, dot pitch is the height of a dot-phosphor trio added to the distance between the next dot trio in the same direction. It works out to be the distance from any point on one dot to the same point on the next dot of the same color. The smaller this number, the better the display quality. The number of dots per inch is a similar concept but inversely proportional and not measured in fractions of a millimeter. Resolution is a software concept; dot phosphors are hardware related. The refresh rate has nothing to do with how close the chemical dots are to one another.

Which of the following system types does not benefit from video enhancements? A. CAD/CAM design workstation B. Home server PC C. A/V editing workstation D. Home theater PC

B. The clients of the home server PC that use the server for streaming video content might benefit from enhanced video, but the server will not.

A customer tells you that the last technician who was there spent three hours on the phone making personal calls. What should you do with this information? A. Nothing. B. Inform your manager. C. Talk to the technician personally. D. Ask the customer to prove it.

B. The customer is expressing a concern that she was not shown respect by a technician from your company. You should apologize and make your manager aware of the situation or concern. Unless you are a supervisor, which is not implied in the question, you should not personally talk to the technician about the issue.

15. Which printer contains a wheel that looks like a flower with raised letters and symbols on each petal? A. Bubble-jet printers B. Daisy-wheel printer C. Dot-matrix printer D. Laser printer

B. The daisy-wheel printer gets its name because it contains a wheel with raised letters and symbols on each "petal."

Which assembly permanently presses the toner into the paper? A. Transfer corona B. Fuser C. Printer controller circuitry D. Paper transport assembly

B. The fuser assembly presses and melts the toner into the paper. The transfer corona transfers the toner from the drum to the paper. The printer controller circuitry converts signals from the PC into signals for the various printer assemblies. The paper transport assembly controls the movement of the paper through the printer.

What type of device will block unwanted traffic from your network using a set of rules called an ACL? A. Router B. Firewall C. Internet appliance D. NAS

B. The job of a firewall is to block unwanted traffic. Firewalls do this by using a list of rules called an access control list (ACL). Routers connect networks to each other. Internet appliances give the user Internet access. A network attached storage (NAS) device is like a dedicated file server.

What does the red stripe on a ribbon cable indicate? A. Pin 16 B. Pin 1 C. The manufacturer's trademark D. Parity

B. The red stripe on the cable indicates pin 1.

A firewall operates by using a set of rules known as what? A. SLA B. ACL C. Default deny D. DMZ

B. The set of rules for access on a firewall is called an access control list (ACL). An SLA is an agreement on service level for QoS. Default deny is a good policy for firewalls because it doesn't let any traffic through. A DMZ is a subnet located between an external network router and an internal router.

Which type of system simply needs to run standard versions of Windows and desktop applications? A. Thin client B. Thick client C. Home server PC D. Virtualization workstation

B. Thick clients are standard desktop PCs. They stand in contrast to systems with specialized requirements, such as the remaining options.

When replacing your laptop's AC adapter, which of the following purchases is acceptable to obtain the same or better results? A. An AC adapter with a higher voltage rating than the original B. An AC adapter with a higher wattage rating than the original C. A DC adapter with the same voltage rating as the original D. An AC adapter with a lower voltage and wattage rating than the original

B. Think of wattage as a "bucket" of power that the attached device can draw on. A bigger bucket simply holds more power but does not force the power on the device. Less wattage is not advised, however. Voltage can be thought of as the pressure behind the power to the device. Anything but the proper voltage is dangerous for the device. When you replace a laptop's AC adapter, you should match the voltage ratings of the original adapter. This also means you should use an adapter with a fixed voltage if that matches the characteristics of the original; otherwise, obtain one that automatically switches voltages at the levels needed.

What peripheral port type is expandable using a hub, operates at 1.5MBps, and is used to connect various devices (from printers to cameras) to PCs? A. DVD 1.0 B. USB 1.1 C. IEEE 1394 D. IEEE 1284

B. USB hubs are used to connect multiple peripherals to one computer through a single port. They support data transfer rates as high as 12Mbps, or 1.5MBps (for USB 1.1, which is the option listed here).

What do UltraDMA/66 and higher require? A. Cable Select configuration B. An 80-wire cable C. Operating system support D. That the BIOS be set for UltraDMA instead of DMA

B. UltraDMA/66 requires a special ribbon cable with extra wires to cut down on cross-talk. It does not require Cable Select to be in use' and it does not require specific operating system support because it operates at a lower level than the OS. There is no special setting in the BIOS for UltraDMA drives.

VGA-based video technologies use what type of signal between the adapter and monitor? A. Digital B. Analog C. Compressed D. Composite

B. VGA signals are analog, uncompressed, component signals that carry all the video information for all three components of the original RGB signal.

Which of the following is not a common requirement of a home theater PC? A. Surround sound B. HDMI C. Micro-ATX case D. TV tuner

C. Home theater PCs are based on the mini-ITX motherboard and have their own form factor, HTPC, a more compact form factor than chassis made for micro-ATX boards.

Why do virtualization workstations require as many CPU cores as possible? A. Each virtual machine has one or more cores installed directly in it. B. Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data C. Fault tolerance dictates that if one CPU core fails, there should be one or more in line to take its place. D. Because each guest operating system runs in its own space, multiple cores are required to store the collective data

B. Virtual machines do not imply virtual processing. The data storage, processing cycles, and RAM usage are all real. The separate hard drive and chassis for each operating system are virtual. The other answers all have at least one fundamental problem with their logic. CPU cores are not installed in virtual machines but in CPU packages within physical machines. CPU cores do not take over for each other. There is no fault tolerance among them. Storing data is the job of RAM, which should also be maximized for virtualization workstations.

Which of the following security standards was the first to introduce a dynamic 128-bit per-packet security key? A. WEP B. TKIP C. AES D. CCMP

B. WEP could use a 64-bit or 128-bit security key, but it was a static key. TKIP introduced a dynamic per-packet key. AES and CCMP came after TKIP.

Which of the following is a socket technology that is designed to ease insertion of modern CPUs? A. Socket 479 B. ZIF C. LPGA D. SPGA

B. ZIF sockets are designed with a locking mechanism that, when released, alleviates the resistance of the socket to receiving the pins of the chip being inserted. Make sure you know your socket types so that the appearance of a specific model, such as Socket 479, in a question like this does not distract you from the correct answer. Only LGA would be another acceptable answer to this question because with a lack of pin receptacles, there is no insertion resistance. However, no other pin-layout format, such as SPGA, addresses issues with inserting chips. LPGA might have evoked an image of LGA, leading you to that answer, but that term means nothing outside of the golfing community.

Which types of printers are referred to as page printers because they receive their print job instructions one page at a time? (Choose two.) A. Daisy wheel B. Dot matrix C. Bubble-jet D. Laser E. Thermal

C, D. A page printer is a type of computer printer that prints a page at a time. Common types of page printers are the laser printer and the inkjet (or bubble-jet) printer.

Which of the following standards are specified by IEEE 1284? (Choose two.) A. SPP B. RS-232 C. EPP D. ECP E. FireWire F. USB

C, D. Bidirectional parallel ports can both transmit and receive data. EPP and ECP are IEEE 1284 standards that were designed to transfer data at higher speeds in both directions so that devices could return status information to the system. The standard parallel port only transmits data out of the computer. It cannot receive data. FireWire is specified by IEEE 1394. IEEE 1284 does not specify serial protocols, such as RS-232 and USB.

To avoid software-based virtualization, which two components need to support hardware-based virtualization? A. Memory B. Hard drive C. CPU D. BIOS

C, D. Both the CPU and BIOS have to be designed to support virtualization in hardware.

Which of the following devices work at Layer 2 of the OSI model? (Choose two.) A. Hub B. Router C. Bridge D. Switch

C, D. Bridges and switches are Layer 2 devices. Hubs work at Layer 1, and routers work at Layer 3. Note that some switches are called multilayer switches and will work at Layer 3 as well.

Which two TCP/IP protocols work at the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model? (Choose two.) A. IP B. ARP C. TCP D. UDP

C, D. The two protocols that work at the Host-to-Host layer are TCP and UDP. IP and ARP both work at the Internet layer.

When moving computer equipment, which of the following are good procedures to follow? (Choose two.) A. Lift by bending over at the waist. B. Carry monitors with the glass face away from your body. C. Use a cart for heavy objects. D. Ensure that there are no safety hazards in your path.

C, D. You should always lift with your legs, not your back. This means bending at the knees and not the waist. Monitors should be carried with the glass face toward your body. Using carts for heavy objects is a good idea, as is ensuring that your path is free of safety hazards, such as trip hazards.

You have just installed a new printer. After it is installed, it prints only garbled text. Which of the following is likely the problem? A. Wrong IP address B. Worn print head C. Incorrect print drivers D. Unsupported printer

C. If a printer is using out-of-date or incorrect printer drivers, the printer may produce pages of garbled text. The solution is to ensure that the most recent printer drivers are downloaded from the manufacturer's website.

When approaching an older LCD panel from the side, you don't realize there is actually an image displayed on it until you are almost in front of it. Which two options might explain why you could not detect the image from the side? (Choose two.) A. Older LCDs were equipped with a motion sensor. B. Multiple monitors are in use, and the LCD is the secondary monitor, resulting in its poor oblique visibility. C. The user has a privacy filter in place. D. The monitor employs active-matrix pixel addressing. E. It is a passive-matrix LCD panel.

C, E. Older LCD panels might have employed a passive-matrix addressing for their pixels, resulting in a poorer viewing angle than that created by active-matrix LCD panels. Additionally, privacy filters intentionally limit the angle of screen visibility by changing the light's polarization when viewed from the side. Antiglare filters might unintentionally do the same thing.

Which of the following is used to properly discharge voltage from an unplugged computer monitor? A. Antistatic wrist strap B. Screwdriver C. High-voltage probe D. Power cord

C. A high-voltage probe is designed to release the electricity from high-voltage components, which are found in the back of CRT computer monitors. Wearing an antistatic wrist strap when working on a computer monitor can cause the stored-up electric current to be released through your body, which could result in serious injury or death!

What is the primary function of the SSID? A. Secure communication between a web server and browser B. Secure communication between a server and remote host C. A type of password used to help secure a wireless connection D. A type of password used to secure an Ethernet 802.3 connection

C. A service-set identifier (SSID) is the unique name given to the wireless network. All hardware that is to participate on the network must be configured to use the same SSID. Essentially, it is the network name. When you are using Windows to connect to a wireless network, all available wireless networks will be listed by their SSID.

What type of pointing device features a ball and buttons on the top and a flat, steady surface on the bottom? A. Mouse B. Touchpad C. Trackball D. Trackpad

C. A trackball is a sort of stationary mouse that has the ball for movement detection on the top of the device along with the keys. The ball is actuated by the thumb or fingers, not by moving the device along a flat surface or mouse pad. Trackballs are ideal where desk space is limited. There is no such thing as a trackpad.

You have four AA alkaline batteries that you just removed from a remote-control device. What is the recommended way to dispose of these batteries? A. Throw them in the trash. B. Incinerate them. C. Take them to a recycling center. D. Flush them down the toilet.

C. Alkaline batteries should always be recycled. Throwing them in the trash means they'll end up in a landfill where they can contaminate the environment. Burning batteries is always a bad idea because they will explode.

Which statement about LCDs is most accurate? A. The concept of refresh rate has no meaning with regard to LCDs. B. LCDs are preferred to CRTs because they can display a larger range of resolutions. C. LCDs tend not to be as clear as CRTs. D. LCDs require more power than CRTs.

C. At the same resolution, CRTs are more likely to display a clearer image than LCDs. LCDs are normally limited to a fixed, native resolution but require less power than CRT monitors. Although LCD screens are not regularly and systematically refreshed the way CRTs are, the LCD refresh rate dictates how often any one pixel is allowed to change.

What should you do for a Li-ion battery that appears to charge fully but does not last as long as the battery's meter indicates it will last? A. Replace the battery. B. Exercise the battery. C. Calibrate the battery. D. Short the terminals to discharge the battery.

C. Battery calibration for Li-ion batteries allows the powered device to drain the battery's power before recharging. Battery exercising is the initial charging and discharging of nickelbased batteries so that they will function as expected. You should never short a battery's terminals, and replacement is a last resort when any battery has reached the end of its life.

Which of the following is the recommended video output technology for home theater PCs? A. DVI B. WUXGA C. HDMI D. YCbCr

C. Because of its exceptional capabilities of digital video and audio output as well as its potential for support of future standards, HDMI is the home-theater video output technology of choice. Neither DVI nor component (YCbCr and YPbPr) can make the same claims. WUXGA is a resolution of 1920 n 1200 and not a video output technology.

What should you do first to remove external devices from your laptop? A. Just remove the device. B. Unplug the power to the device, then remove the device. C. Click the Safely Remove Hardware icon. D. Click the Remove Hardware Now icon.

C. Before removing external hardware, you should click the Safely Remove Hardware icon.

In a thin client configuration, if the operating system is not resident on the client, where is it normally found? A. On a DVD inserted at bootup B. On a USB flash drive C. On the server for session-by-session client use D. Embedded in a flash module on the motherboard

C. Clients request services of servers. Thin clients can request software services from their servers, whether in the form of running the software and passing the results to the client or passing the code of the software to the client to be executed by its processor and kept only in RAM.

Which packaging is used for DDR SDRAM memory? A. 168-pin DIMM B. 72-pin SIMM C. 184-pin DIMM D. RIMM

C. DDR SDRAM is manufactured on a 184-pin DIMM. DIMMs with 168 pins were used for SDR SDRAM. The SIMM is the predecessor to the DIMM, on which SDRAM was never deployed. RIMM is the Rambus proprietary competitor for the DIMM that carries DRDRAM instead of SDRAM.

Of all network cabling options,_______________ offers the longest possible segment length. A. Unshielded twisted-pair B. Coaxial C. Fiber-optic D. Shielded twisted-pair

C. Fiber-optic cable can span distances of several kilometers because it has much lower attenuation, crosstalk, and interference in comparison to copper cables.

Which of the following interfaces allows audio to be sent out over the same cabling infrastructure as video? A. VGA B. DVI C. HDMI D. Composite

C. HDMI is a digital interface and cabling specification that allows digital audio to be carried over the same cable as video.

What is the formatted capacity of high-density 3½ " floppy diskettes? A. 360KB B. 720KB C. 1.44MB D. 2.88MB

C. High-density 3½" floppy diskettes have a formatted capacity of 1.44MB. Double-density 5¼" floppies can be formatted to a capacity of 360KB, while double-density floppies support 720KB. The extended-density 3½" floppy diskettes can be formatted to 2.88MB.

Which of the following results can occur with improper display settings? A. The computer spontaneously reboots. B. The graphics adapter automatically chooses to use the highest supported resolution. C. You might have to scroll to see parts of the Desktop. D. The mouse cursor changes or permanently disappears.

C. If your monitor allows you to change the resolution, it might not actually allow you to change the resolution. As confusing as that sounds, your monitor might maintain its optimal hardware resolution, such as an LCD's native resolution, and force you to scroll to see any pixels created by the chosen software resolution that it cannot fit on the hardware screen at that particular moment.

You have set up a wireless router on your network and configured it to use AES. What configuration option do you need to choose on the client computers? A. WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. TKIP

C. If your router is using AES, the clients will need to use WPA2. TKIP is a protocol utilized by WPA. WEP is the weakest of the encryption options.

You have been asked to configure a full mesh network with seven computers. How many connections will this require? A. 6 B. 7 C. 21 D. 42

C. In a mesh network, the number of connections is determined by the formula n(n-1)/2. With seven computers, that means 21 connections.

Which OSI layer signals "all clear" by making sure the data segments are error free? A. Application layer B. Session layer C. Transport layer D. Network layer

C. It is the responsibility of the Transport layer to signal an "all clear" by making sure the data segments are error free. It also controls the data flow and troubleshoots any problems with transmitting or receiving data frames.

Which of the following would be the best choice as a personal display technology if a user wants to save desk space and not have to deal with interference from nearby speakers? A. CRT B. HDMI C. LCD D. Projector

C. LCDs do not have electron guns that are aimed by magnets as CRTs do. This difference makes LCDs more compatible with nearby speaker magnets. Additionally, the cathode ray tube for which CRT monitors are named is a rather bulky component, requiring more desk space to accommodate the CRT's cabinet. Projectors are not common personal display devices; they are used more in group environments. HDMI is a standard for connecting display devices, not a type of display device.

Which type of input device employs roughly the same connector as the original AT keyboard? A. Barcode reader B. PS/2 keyboard C. MIDI D. Touch screen

C. MIDI devices use a 5-pin DIN connector similar to the one used with the original AT keyboard.

How many pins does a MicroDIMM memory module have? A. 72 B. 144 C. 172 D. 198

C. MicroDIMMs can have 144 or 172 pins.

What type of connector does the Mini PCI IIIA standard use? A. 100-pin card edge B. 100-pin stacking C. 124-pin card edge D. 124-pin stacking

C. Mini PCI IIIA uses a 124-pin card edge connector, as does Mini PCI IIIB. Mini PCI standards IA, IB, IIA, and IIB use 100-pin stacking connectors.

Which laptop component is often upgraded with an external PCMCIA device? A. Video card B. Motherboard C. Network card D. Keyboard

C. Network cards are available in PCMCIA forms. If your network card fails or you need an upgrade, you can easily install an external PCMCIA NIC.

Which category of adapters includes NICs? A. Multimedia B. I/O C. Communications D. Video

C. Network interface cards are considered to be a form of communications adapter.

Why should you equip a home server PC with a gigabit NIC? A. All systems, including the server, should communicate at the same spee B. The server should not be allowed to communicate at the higher speeds of the rest of the network or it will be overuse C. The server should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck. D. The operating system home servers run is not compatible with Fast Ethernet.

C. Optimally, the server should communicate across a link that is the aggregate of all client links, but at the least, the server's link should be a faster one to alleviate the potential bottleneck when all clients try to access the server simultaneously.

You have been trying to troubleshoot a user's system all day when it suddenly becomes clear that the data is irretrievably lost. Upon informing the customer of this, he becomes so angry that he shoves you against a wall. What should you do? A. Shove the user back, only a little harder than he shoved you. B. Shove the user back, only a little easier than he shoved you. C. Try to calm the user down, and leave the site if you cannot. D. Yell for everyone in the area to come quickly.

C. Physical abuse violates respect and should be avoided at all costs. You should try to calm the user down. If you cannot do this, you should leave the site immediately and not return until it is safe to do so. You may also want to report the incident to your management so that they're aware of the situation.

Of the following voltage pairings, which one accurately represents the input and output, respectively, of power supplies and AC adapters? A. AC in, AC out B. DC in, DC out C. AC in, DC out D. DC in, AC out

C. Power supplies and AC adapters use standard wall outlets for an input of AC voltage, which they convert to the DC voltages required by the components they supply power to.

What level of QoS is designated for interactive voice and video? A. 1 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

C. QoS level 5 is designated for interactive voice and video, with less than 100ms delay. Level 1 is for background applications and is low priority. Level 4 is known as controlled load, which is lower priority than interactive voice and video. Level 6 only has 10ms latency but is reserved for control traffic.

Which of the following protocols is responsible for sending email? A. IMAP4 B. POP3 C. SMTP D. SNMP

C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is responsible for sending email. IMAP4 and POP3 both receive email. SNMP is a network management protocol.

Which technology is based on flash memory and is intended to eventually replace conventional hard disk drives that have moving discs and other mechanisms? A. USB flash drives B. Memory cards C. Solid-state drives D. Optical drives

C. Solid-state disks (SSDs) are capable of replacing conventional HDDs, contingent upon cheaper components and higher capacities.

How do you connect a DVI-A interface on a peripheral to a DVI-D interface on the computer? A. With a DVI-I cable B. With a cable that is terminated on one end with a DVI-A connector and on the other end with a DVI-D connector C. You wouldn't interconnect those two interfaces D. With a standard DVI cable

C. Such a connection should not be made. DVI-I cables act like universal cables; they can connect two DVI-A interfaces or two DVI-D interfaces with adapters. Natively, they are used to connect two DVI-I interfaces, both of which are configured as either analog or digital. They are unable to convert the analog signal to a digital one, however. Analog and digital DVI interfaces are too disparate to interconnect.

Which of the following protocols is responsible for resolving IP addresses to hardware A. addresses? B. DNS C. DHCP D. ARP E. RARP

C. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves IP addresses to hardware (MAC) addresses. RARP does the reverse-it resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures TCP/IP clients.

What peripheral port type was originally developed by Apple and is currently regarded as the optimal interface for digital video transfers? A. DVD B. USB 2.0 C. IEEE 1394 D. IEEE 1284

C. The IEEE 1394 standard provides for greater data transfer speeds, increased power, and the ability to send memory addresses as well as data through a serial port. USB 3.0 proves to threaten more competition in these areas, but USB 2.0 could not compare to the overall performance of IEEE 1394.

Which IEEE 802 standard defines a bus topology using coaxial baseband cable and is able to transmit at 10Mbps? A. 802.1 B. 802.2 C. 802.3 D. 802.5

C. The IEEE 802.3 standard originally specified the use of a bus topology with coaxial baseband cable and can transmit data up to 10Mbps.

Which of the following memory types has the smallest form factor? A. RIMM B. DIMM C. MicroDIMM D. SODIMM

C. The SODIMM and MicroDIMM are the common laptop small-form factor memory standards. Of the two, MicroDIMM is smaller.

Which laptop input device was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of laptops? A. Touchpad B. Mouse C. Point stick D. Trackball

C. The Touchpoint point stick was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of laptops.

You're temporarily filling in on phone support when a caller tells you that he is sick and tired of being bounced from one hold queue to another. He wants his problem fixed, and he wants it fixed now. What should you do? A. Inform him up front that you are only filling in temporarily and won't be of much help. B. Transfer him to another technician who handles phone calls more often. C. Try to solve his problem without putting him on hold or transferring him elsewhere. D. Suggest that he call back at another time when you are not there.

C. The best solution is to meet the customer's needs and solve his problem. If that means you have to summon additional help or resources, you should do so.

Where can you find the best degaussing tool for modern CRT monitors? A. At a computer specialty shop B. At a consumer electronics store C. Built into the monitor D. As a freeware download

C. The built-in degaussing tool of the latest CRT monitors is designed to work with the monitor in which it is found. External degaussing tools, while effective, can be a little hard on the delicate inner workings of the CRT. Software alone cannot degauss a CRT monitor.

The surround sound mode known as 5.1 employs how many speakers when only one is used for each channel? A. 1 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 8

C. The description 5.1 refers to six channels of audio. The 5 in the name refers collectively to the single center channel, the right and left front channels, and the right and left rear channels. The 1 in the name refers to the single LFE channel connected to the subwoofer.

Which of the following platter spin rates is not commonly associated with conventional magnetic hard disk drives? A. 5400 rpm B. 7200 rpm C. 10,200 rpm D. 15,000 rpm

C. The other common spin rates are 10'000 rpm and 12'000 rpm.

Which of the following allows you to perform the most complete restart of the computer without removing power? A. Start Restart B. Start Hibernate C. Reset button D. Power button

C. The reset button causes the computer to return to nearly the same point it is in when you power it on, but without the need for power cycling. Using Restart in the Start menu does not reboot as deeply as the reset button. Hibernation is a power state that completely removes power after saving the contents of RAM to the hard drive; pressing the power button is required to resume the session in the same manner as starting the computer after a complete shutdown. The power button cannot be used as a method of restarting the system.

Which printer part gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper? A. Laser-scanning assembly B. Fusing assembly C. Corona assembly D. Drum

C. The transfer corona assembly gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper. For some printers, this is a transfer corona wire, and for others, it is a transfer corona roller.

You are installing a single 802.11g wireless network. The office space is large enough that you need three WAPs. What channels should you configure the WAPs on to avoid communication issues? A. 2, 5, and 7 B. 1, 8, and 14 C. 1, 6, and 11 D. 3, 6, and 9

C. There are 14 communication channels in the 2.4GHz range, but only the first 11 are configurable. The three non-overlapping channels are 1, 6, and 11.

Which socket type is required for an AMD Phenom II that uses DDR3 RAM? A. AM2 B. AM2+ C. AM3 D. Socket 940

C. This processor requires an AM3 socket. The only other version of Phenom II was for the AM2+ and is not compatible with DDR3 RAM.

Which of the following is not a consideration when installing an internal storage device? A. You should match the form factor of the drive or adapt it to an available drive bay or slot. B. You should secure the drive with at least two screws on one side and preferably two on each side. C. Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity. D. You need to be sure that the routing of the drive's ribbon cable, if applicable, does not obstruct the engineered flow of air across internal components.

C. Today's hard drives, regardless of their rpm, have standard internal power connections. Each of the other options are valid concerns when installing an internal drive.

________ is the fastest and most modern interface used as an expansion method for external peripherals, such as mice, web cams, scanners, and printers, and is popular on laptops and desktops alike. A. Parallel B. PS/2 C. USB D. ATA

C. USB is used most often in laptops as an expansion bus for external peripherals. Although parallel and PS/2 allow for connection of external peripherals, they are not as flexible or widely used for expansion as USB.

What is the most secure wireless encryption standard for 802.11 networks? A. WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. SAFER+

C. WEP was the original encryption standard developed for WiFi networks, but it is easily hacked. WPA is an upgrade, but WPA2 is more secure and incorporates the entire 802.11i standard. SAFER+ is used to encrypt Bluetooth communications.

You promised a customer that you would be out to service their problem before the end of the day but have been tied up at another site. As it now becomes apparent that you will not be able to make it, what should you do? A. Arrive first thing in the morning. B. Wait until after hours and then leave a message that you were there. C. Call the customer and inform them of the situation. D. Send an e-mail letting them know you will be late.

C. While calling and sending e-mail are both solutions to this situation, calling the customer provides an immediate means of communication that you know will get there. Inform the customer of the situation and offer to be out the first opportunity you can, which will hopefully be first thing in the morning.

While working on a user's system, you discover a sticky note attached to the bottom of the keyboard that has their username and password written on it. The user is not around, and you need to verify that the network connection is working. What should you do? A. Log in, verify access, and log out. B. Log in and stay logged in when you are finished. C. Page the user. D. Log in and change the user's password.

C. You should page the user and let them know they need to verify access. You also should tell them that you saw the sticky note and highly recommend that they change their password and not write it down. Logging in to the system using the information you found would be violating the privacy of that user and should not be done. Further, logging in with someone else's information makes you a potential scapegoat for any data that is corrupted or missing until the user changes the password.

You want to plug a keyboard into the back of a computer. You know that you need to plug the keyboard cable into a PS/2 port. Which style of port is the PS/2? A. RJ-11 B. DE9 C. DIN 5 D. Mini-DIN 6

D. A PS/2 port is also known as a mini-DIN 6 connector.

What is the largest NTFS volume size supported by Windows XP? A. 256GB B. 2TB C. 128TB D. 256TB

D. A fixed number of clusters is supported by each operating system, leading to a corresponding maximum volume size. If the maximum NTFS cluster size of 64KB is used, Windows XP can support a single-volume size of 256TB. When a cluster size of one sector, or 512 bytes (½ KB), is used, the maximum volume size reduces to 2TB.

In which network design do users access resources from other workstations rather than from a central location? A. Client-server B. Star C. Ring D. Peer-to-peer

D. A peer-to-peer network has no servers, so all of the resources are shared from the various workstations on which they reside. This is the opposite of a client-server network, in which the majority of resources are located on servers that are dedicated to responding to client requests.

Which of the following is required when constructing an A/V editing workstation? A. Gigabit NIC B. Powerful processor C. Maximum RAM D. Fast hard drive

D. A/V editing workstations require specialized audio and video cards and large and fast hard drives and benefit from dual monitors. A fast NIC, extra RAM, and a faster than normal processor do not support the requirements of A/V editors.

Which of the following descriptions most closely matches that of a thin client? A. A high-resolution monitor, keyboard, and mouse B. A computer with a low-profile case C. A laptop D. A dumb terminal with a NIC

D. Although not all thin clients are devoid of local processing capability, some are. High-resolution graphics are not a requirement of thin clients, but even such systems require a system unit with a NIC.

What does a Q in video resolution names, such as QXGA, refer to? A. Both the horizontal and vertical components of the resolution have been quadrupled. B. The resolution is cut to one-fourth. C. The technology is faster. D. Both the horizontal and vertical components of the resolution have been doubled.

D. Although the Q stands for quad, the pixel count for each axis is only doubled, resulting in four times as many total pixels.

What is the maximum number of IPv6 addresses that can be assigned to one IPv6 interface? A. One (unicast) B. Two (unicast and anycast) C. Three (unicast, anycast, and multicast) D. None of the above

D. An IPv6 interface is not limited in the number of addresses it can be assigned, although there could be limitations based upon practicality.

A physical star topology consists of several workstations that branch off a central device called a_________. A. NIC B. Bridge C. Router D. Hub

D. At the center of a star topology is a hub or a switch. A NIC is a network card, which each computer must have to be on the network. Bridges and routers are higher-level connectivity devices that connect network segments or networks together.

Which of the following broadband technologies provides two dedicated, digital data channels that can be combined for greater throughput? A. DSL B. Cable C. Satellite D. BRI ISDN E. PRI ISDN

D. Basic rate interface ISDN (BRI ISDN) provides two separate 64Kbps B channels for data transmissions. These channels can be combined to increase throughput. A PRI ISDN uses 23 B channels. DSL, cable, and satellite do not offer multiple dedicated digital channels.

Which of the following display types physically creates the image displayed in a manner most similar to OLED displays? A. CRT B. LED C. LCD D. Plasma

D. Both OLED and plasma displays use electrodes to excite the material in a sealed chamber to produce light. Each in its own way uses that light to create red, green, or blue light within individual subpixels. Plasma is more akin to CRT in that they both use chemical phosphors to create the red, green, and blue hues. In contrast to the way CRTs and PDPs produce color, OLEDs natively produce these colors of light without the use of filters or phosphors.

You are purchasing, for home use, an inkjet printer cartridge that you know has an MSDS. How do you obtain the MSDS for this product? A. The store is required to give you one at the time of purchase. B. It's contained in the packaging of the printer cartridge. C. You are not legally allowed to have an MSDS for this product. D. Visit the website of the printer cartridge manufacturer.

D. Companies are not legally required to provide MSDSs to consumers. However, most will if you ask. The best place to look is the manufacturer's website.

_______ is immune to electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference. A. Twisted-pair cabling B. CSMA/CD C. Broadband coaxial cabling D. Fiber-optic cabling

D. Companies that want to ensure the safety and integrity of their data should use fiberoptic cable because it cannot be affected by electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference. Even though some copper cables have shielding, they are not immune to EMI or RFI. This eliminates twisted-pair and coaxial. CSMA/CD is an access method, not a cable type.

Which step in the laser printer printing process occurs immediately after the writing phase? A. Charging B. Fusing C. Transferring D. Developing

D. Developing happens after writing. The correct order is cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, and fusing.

Which type of printers can be used with multipart forms? A. Bubble-jet printers B. Laser printers C. Thermal printers D. Dot-matrix printers

D. Dot-matrix printers are impact printers and therefore can be used with multipart forms. Daisy wheel printers can be used with multipart forms as well.

Which of the following is a concept that applies only to conventional magnetic hard disk drives and not newer solid-state drives? A. Storage capacity B. External attachment C. Access time D. 7200 rpm

D. Each concept applies to both HDDs and SSDs except for platter spin rates. Revolutions per minute (rpm) measurements refer to drives with moving parts. SSDs have none.

Which of the following protocols is used for secure delivery of email? A. SMTP B. SNMP C. POP3 D. IMAP4

D. IMAP4 and POP3 are the two protocols that are used for email delivery. Of the two, only IMAP4 provides security features. SMTP sends email. SNMP is a network management protocol.

Which of the following statements regarding floppy drive installation is true? A. Like a hard drive, the floppy drive requires no external access. B. Like DVD-ROM drives, floppy drives have a 5¼ " form factor and must be installed in the larger drive bays. C. Because it is antiquated technology, floppy disk drives can no longer be purchased new. D. Although some drives might not clearly key the receptacle for the Berg power connector, you must insert the connector correctly or the drive can be damaged.

D. Inserting the Berg connector upside down will damage the drive the first time the motor is activated. Floppy drives require front access for floppy disk insertion. Their form factor is only 3.5", and you can still buy them new. (See the sidebar "Do You Smell Something?" in this chapter.)

Why might you use a KVM switch? A. You have multiple Ethernet devices that need to communicate with one another. B. You need to be able to switch the voltage supplied to a particular device. C. You have a printer that is not attached to the network but you want multiple computers to be able to print to it. D. You have more than one server and don't want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each.

D. KVM switches are ideal when you have multiple computers situated near one another and do not want to commit the extra desk space to each computer having its own keyboard, mouse, and monitor.

How do laptop hard drives differ from desktop hard drives? A. Laptop hard drives use completely different standards from those used by desktop hard drives for communication with the host. B. Laptop hard drives are solid state; desktop hard drives have spinning platters. C. Laptop hard drives require a separate power connection; desktop hard drives are powered through the drive interface. D. The most common form factor of a laptop hard drive is about an inch smaller than that of a desktop hard drive.

D. Laptop hard drives commonly have a 2½" form factor. The most common form factor for desktop hard drives is 3½". Laptop hard drives use the same drive technologies as their desktop counterparts, such as serial and parallel ATA. As with desktop hard drives, laptop hard drives are available in both solid-state and conventional varieties. Unlike desktop hard drives, laptop hard drives do not have separate power connectors.

Where can you obtain the service manual for a laptop computer? A. By pressing F1 while in Windows B. By pressing F2 while the system is booting up C. With the laptop, as a paper copy D. From the manufacturer's website

D. Laptop service manuals can be obtained from the manufacturer's website. It's very rare that paper service manuals are shipped with the laptop. Pressing F1 while in Windows will open Windows Help, and pressing F2 on many laptops during the system boot will take you into the BIOS.

When enabled, which feature of a wireless router allows only specified computers to access the network? A. Port forwarding B. WPS C. SSID D. MAC filtering

D. MAC filtering is a security option that can specify that only computers with specific MAC (hardware) addresses can access the network. Port forwarding is a feature of firewalls. WPS is an easy setup mechanism for wireless networks. SSID is the wireless network name.

Which of the following statements about power supplies is true? A. You must make sure the voltage selector switch on the back of the power supply is switched to the lower setting if the computer is going to be used in Europe. B. SATA hard drives most often use the same type of power connector PATA hard drives use C. Power supplies supply power to ATX-based motherboards with connectors known commonly as P8 and P9. D. Molex connectors are used with PATA hard drives, while Berg connectors are used with floppy drives.

D. Molex power connectors have been used with larger internal devices since the original PCs hit the market. When the 3 1.2 g floppy diskette drives were launched, they used the newer Berg connectors. Europe requires the voltage selector switch be set at the higher setting. SATA drives most often use a specific power connector that is not compatible with the Molex connector used by PATA drives. AT-based motherboards call for P8 and P9 connectors; ATX motherboards have a newer 20- or 24-pin single power connector.

You find out that a disgruntled ex-employee's computer has a boot password that must be entered before the operating system is ever loaded. There is also a password preventing your access to the BIOS utility. Which of the following motherboard components can most likely be used to return the computer to a state that will allow you to boot the system without knowing the password? A. Cable header B. Power supply connector C. Expansion slot D. Jumper

D. Most motherboards have a jumper or similar momentary closure mechanism that will allow you to clear the CMOS memory of any user settings and cause the BIOS to use factory defaults, including no user or supervisor passwords.

Which service allows users with private IP addresses to access the Internet using a public IP address? A. DHCP B. DNS C. DMZ D. NAT

D. Network Address Translation (NAT) allows users to have a private IP address and still access the Internet with a public IP address. NAT is installed on a router and translates the private IP address into a public one for the user to access the Internet. DHCP assigns IP configuration information to clients. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A DMZ is an area on a network between an external router and an internal router.

You have just purchased a motherboard that has an LGA775 socket for an Intel Pentium 4 processor. What type of memory modules will you most likely need for this motherboard? A. DIP B. SIMM C. RIMM D. DIMM

D. Pentium 4 processors are always mated with memory mounted on DIMMs.

Which of the following reasons justifies having a powerful processor in a CAD/CAM workstation? A. Only powerful processors can stream graphical information efficiently. B. Manufacturing equipment is generally faster than design equipment, which needs faster processors to keep up. C. Graphics adapters used in CAD/CAM do not have their own processors, so the CPU performs this job as well. D. The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be processor intensive.

D. Quite simply, the rendering of 2D and 3D graphics makes use of complex algorithms that need all the processing power they can get to remain usable. These stations deal with static images, not streaming video. Manufacturing equipment is generally slower than computers used for the design phase. These workstations call for high-end video, which includes graphics adapters with GPUs often more powerful than the system's CPU.

What port does the RDP protocol work on? A. 53 B. 143 C. 389 D. 3389

D. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) works on port 3389. DNS works on port 53, IMAP4 works on 143, and LDAP works on 389.

What might cause your display to appear in a resolution of 640x480? A. You have your resolution set to SVGA. B. You added memory to your graphics adapter but have not informed the BIOS of the new memory. C. You have your resolution set to XGA. D. You have booted XP into Safe Mode.

D. Safe Mode in XP disables as many nonessential drivers and services as possible. One of the nonessential drivers it disables is the driver for the graphics adapter. Windows uses its standard VGA driver to control the graphics adapter while you are in Safe Mode. Another reason for defaulting back to standard VGA is that you might have a corrupt or incorrect driver for your adapter.

Which peripheral port type was designed to transfer data at higher speeds over a D-sub interface? A. DVD B. USB C. IEEE 1394 D. IEEE 1284

D. The IEEE 1284 standard specifies that the ECP parallel port use a DMA channel and the buffer be able to transfer data at higher speeds to printers.

Which motherboard design style features smaller size and lower power consumption? A. ATX B. AT C. Micro ATX D. ITX

D. The ITX motherboard family consists of smaller boards that fit in standard or miniature cases and use less power than their larger counterparts.

What is the combined total speed of a PCIe 2.0 x16 slot? A. 500MBps B. 16Gbps C. 8GBps D. 16GBps

D. The PCIe 1.1 specification provided 250MBps of throughput per lane per direction. With the 2.x versions of PCIe, this rate was doubled to 500MBps. As a result, each v2.0 lane is capable of a combined 1GBps. A x16 slot consists of 16 lanes, for a total bidirectional throughput of 16GBps.

What is the maximum speed of USB 2.0 in Mbps? A. 1.5 B. 12 C. 60 D. 480

D. The USB 2.0 spec provides for a maximum speed of 480 megabits per second (Mbps- not megabytes per second, or MBps).

The workstations on your network are configured to use a DHCP server. One of the workstations can't communicate with other computers. Its IP address is 169.254.1.18. What could be the problem? A. The subnet mask is wrong. B. It has a private IP address. C. The default gateway is wrong. D. It can't reach the DHCP server.

D. The address assigned to the computer is an APIPA address. Microsoft client computers (and others) will configure themselves with an address in this range if they are unable to reach a DHCP server.

What is the correct order of the steps in the EP print process? A. Developing, writing, transferring, fusing, charging, cleaning B. Charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning C. Transferring, writing, developing, charging, cleaning, fusing D. Cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing

D. The correct sequence in the EP print process is cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, and fusing.

You are running an 802.11g wireless router in mixed mode. You have three 802.11g wireless NICs using the router. A new user connects using an 802.11b wireless NIC. What will happen? A. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11Mbps while the users with 802.11g will access the network at 54Mbps. B. The user with 802.11b will not be able to communicate on the network. C. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11Mbps. The users with 802.11g will access the network at 54Mbps unless they are communicating with the 802.11b device, which will be at 11Mbps. D. All users will access the network at 11Mbps.

D. The good news is that 802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b. The bad news is if you run in a mixed environment, all devices that communicate with the WAP (or router) will be forced to slow down to accommodate the older technology.

Which of the following connector types is an MFF connector? A. BNC B. ST C. SC D. LC

D. The local connector (LC) is a mini form factor (MFF) fiber-optic connector developed by Lucent Technologies. If it helps, think of LC as "Little Connector."

Which of the following is true regarding a monitor's refresh rate? A. As long as the graphics adapter can refresh the image at a particular rate, the attached monitor can accommodate that refresh rate. B. The refresh rate is normally expressed in MHz. C. The refresh rate is normally selected by using the controls on the front panel of the monitor. D. As you lower the resolution, the maximum refresh rate allowed tends to increase.

D. The maximum allowable refresh rate does tend to be affected by the resolution you choose in the operating system. The refresh rate is most often expressed in cycles per second (Hz), not millions of cycles per second (MHz). You must usually select the refresh rate you want from the display settings dialog boxes, not through the monitor's built-in menu system, although the monitor's system can often tell you which refresh rate you're using. Finally, both the monitor and adapter must agree on the refresh rate you select. If either device does not support a particular refresh rate, such a rate cannot be used.

Which of the following is it possible to do with multimonitor settings? A. Connect multiple monitors to your computer only by using a graphics adapter with two video interfaces. B. Cause two different Desktops to merge onto the same monitor. C. Connect two laptops together so they display the same Desktop. D. Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors.

D. The multimonitor feature allows two monitors to display exactly the same thing (clone) or to extend your Desktop onto the second monitor. There is no need to use one adapter to achieve this result. In fact, the two adapters don't even have to use the same expansion-bus architecture. The two cards must, however, use the same graphics-adapter driver.

The process by which the processor slows down to conserve power is officially called_______. A. Underclocking B. Cooling C. Disengaging D. Throttling

D. The processor can reduce how fast it's working, which is called throttling, to help conserve battery life.

Which of the following is not an advantage of a Universal Serial Bus (USB) printer interface? A. It has a higher transfer rate than a serial connection. B. It has a higher transfer rate than a parallel connection. C. It automatically recognizes new devices. D. It allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.

D. The rate of transfer and the ability to automatically recognize new devices are two of the major advantages that make USB the current most popular type of printer interface. However, it is the network printer interface that allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.

Any printer that uses the electrophotographic process contains how many standard assemblies? A. Five B. Six C. Four D. Nine

D. There are nine standard assemblies in an electrophotographic process printer. Early laser printers using the electrographic process contained nine standard assemblies. Newer laser printers do not require an ozone filter and contain only eight standard assemblies.

Which of the following is a common feature of a standard thick client? A. Has enhanced video capabilities B. Has a high-performance hard drive C. Has as much RAM installed as is possible D. Can run a full version of Windows

D. These standard systems do not have any special requirements, just that they can run Windows and desktop applications.

A computer is experiencing random reboots and phantom problems that disappear after reboot. What should you do? A. Replace the motherboard. B. Boot clean. C. Replace the power supply. D. Open the cover, clean the inside of the computer, and reseat all cards and chips.

D. When a computer is experiencing random reboots and phantom problems that disappear after reboot, you should open the cover, clean everything (if it's dirty), and reseat all cards and chips. Some components could have gunk on them that carries an electrical charge or could have experienced "chip creep," where they slowly work themselves out of their sockets.

A customer is trying to explain a problem with their system. Unfortunately, the customer has such a thick accent that you are unable to understand what the problem is. What should you do? A. Just start working on the system and looking for obvious errors. B. Call your supervisor. C. Ask that another technician be sent in your place. D. Apologize and find another user or manager who can help you translate.

D. While there is no perfect solution to problems of this type, the best solution is to find someone else who can mediate and help you understand the problem.

You arrive at the site of a failed server to find the vice president nervously pacing and worrying about lost data. What should you do? A. Offer a joke to lighten things up. B. Downplay the situation and tell him that customers lose data every day. C. Keep your head down and keep looking at manuals to let him know you are serious. D. Inform him that you've dealt with similar situations and will let him know what needs to be done as soon as possible.

D. You should always act with confidence and in a way similar to how you would want to be treated if you were in the customer's situation. Ignoring, downplaying, and joking about the vice president's obvious concern are very poor choices.

Which of the following is an IPv6 broadcast address? A. ::1 B. FE80:: C. FF00:: D. ::FFFF E. None of the above

E. IPv6 does not have broadcasts. IPv6 does have multicasts, which are a bit like targeted broadcasts. FF00:: is the first part of a multicast address.

Which step in the EP print process uses a laser to discharge selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum? A. Writing B. Transferring C. Developing D. Cleaning

The writing step uses a laser to discharge selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum.