A&P2 • Connect • Chapter18
place the steps of iron metabolism in order. start with iron intake, and finish absorption from the digestive tract. • the stomach acids converts Fe3+ to Fe2+ • gastroferritin carries Fe2+ to intestine for absorption • a mixture of Fe2+ and Fe3+ is ingested • Fe2+ binds to gastroferritin
1) a mixture of Fe2+ and Fe3+ is ingested 2) the stomach acid converts Fe3+ to Fe2+ 3) Fe2+ binds to gastroferritin 4) gastroferritin carries Fe2+ to intestine for absorption
list in order the events of platelet plug formation. • mass of platelets forms a platelet plug • psuedopods contract and draw the vessel walls together • platelets grow long spiny psuedopods • contact with collagen of a broken vessel or another rough surface
1) contact with collagen of a broken vessel or another rough surface 2) platelets grow long spiny psuedopods 3) psuedopods contract and draw the vessel walls together 4) mass of platelets forms a platelet plug
list in order the events of platelet plug formation. • psuedopods contract and draw the vessel walls together • platelets grow long spiny psuedopods • mass of platelets forms a platelet plug • contact with collagen of a broken vessel or another rough surface
1) contact with collagen of a broken vessel or another rough surface 2) platelets grow long spiny psuedopods 3) psuedopods contract and draw the vessel walls together 4) mass of platelets forms a platelet plug
list, in order, the stages of erythropoiesis. start with the least differentiated cell type and end with erythrocytes. • hemopoietic stem cells • erythrocytes • erythroblasts • reticulocytes • colony-forming units
1) hemopoietic stem cells 2) colony-forming units 3) erythroblasts 4) reticulocytes 5) erythrocytes
place the events of heme disposal in order, starting with what happens first. • macrophages convert the heme into biliverdin • macrophages remove the iron • a yellow-green pigment called bilirubin is formed
1) macrophages remove the iron 2) macrophages convert the heme into biliverdin 3) a yellow-green pigment called bilirubin is formed
list, in order, the events that occur during fibrinolysis. • kallikrein catalyzes the formation of plasmin • plasmin dissolves the blood clot • prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein
1) prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein 2) kallikrein catalyzes the formation of plasmin 3) plasmin dissolves the blood clot
place the steps of hemostasis in the correct order, starting with what happens first. • platelet plug formation • blood coagulation • vascular spasm
1) vascular spasm 2) platelet plug formation 3) blood coagulation
how many heme groups are there in each hemoglobin molecule? a) 4 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3
a) 4
one molecule of hemoglobin contains which of the following? a) 4 globin chains and 4 heme groups b) 2 globin chains and 2 heme groups c) 4 globin chains and 1 heme group d) 1 globin chain and 1 heme group
a) 4 globin chains and 4 heme groups
a person tells you that she has A+ blood. which antigens are expressed on the surface of her RBCs? select all that apply. a) Antigen A b) Antigen B c) Antigen D
a) Antigen A + c) Antigen D
an individual with A antigens on their RBCs, but no B antigens, has which ABO blood type? a) Type A b) Type AB c) Type O d) Type B
a) Type A
which of the following most accurately describes a platelet plug? a) a mass of platelets and trapped formed elements b) a site where platelets are formed in the bone marrow c) a region on a platelet that forms the psuedopod d) a signal that initiates megakaryocyte production in the bone marrow
a) a mass of platelets and trapped formed elements
which term describes lymphocytes and monocytes? a) agranulocytes b) multinucleate c) granulocytes d) phagocytes
a) agranulocytes
what are agglutinins? a) antibodies that bind to RBC antigens b) antigens that are expressed on the surface of RBCs c) large antigen-antibody complexes d) the non-protein moieties of hemoglobin
a) antibodies that bind to RBC antigens
iron is a crucial component of which of the following? a) cytochromes b) albumin c) myoglobin d) hemoglobin
a) cytochromes + c) myoglobin + d) hemoglobin
which would directly reduce blood viscosity? a) decreased hematocrit b) protein deficiency c) increased platelet production d) dehydration
a) decreased hematocrit + b) protein deficiency
why can a transfusion reaction be fatal? a) free hemoglobin can block the kidney tubules and cause death from acute renal failure b) the production of plasma proteins increases, altering kidney function c) opportunistic infections may develop d) the binding sites for oxygen in hemoglobin are exposed
a) free hemoglobin can block the kidney tubules and cause death from acute renal failure
antibodies belong to which class of plasma proteins? a) gamma globulins b) fibrinogen c) albumins d) alpha globulins
a) gamma globulins
the cardiovascular (not circulatory) system includes which of the following? select all that apply. a) heart b) blood vessels c) blood d) bone marrow
a) heart + b) blood vessels
which is a sex-linked blood clotting disorder that is more common in men than women? a) hemophilia b) thalassemia c) anemia d) hemolytic disease
a) hemophilia
which can cause anemia? select all that apply. a) hemorrhage b) increased erythropoiesis c) inadequate hemoglobin synthesis d) increased hemolysis
a) hemorrhage + c) inadequate hemoglobin synthesis + d) increased hemolysis
which are functions of the circulatory system? select all that apply. a) it helps to stabilize fluid distribution in the body b) it carries oxygen from the lungs to peripheral tissues and CO2 from peripheral tissues to the lungs c) it neutralizes toxins and helps to destroy pathogens d) it absorbs lipids through lacteals in the digestive system
a) it helps to stabilize fluid distribution in the body + b) it carries oxygen from the lungs to peripheral tissues and CO2 from peripheral tissues to the lungs + c) it neutralizes toxins and helps to destroy pathogens
decreased blood osmolarity could cause which of the following? select all that apply. a) low blood pressure b) increased blood viscosity c) increased reabsorption of tissue fluid d) edema
a) low blood pressure + d) edema
urea is an example of which of the following? a) nitrogenous waste b) alpha globulin c) plasma protein d) formed element e) amino acid
a) nitrogenous waste
which of the following is transported in plasma? select all that apply. a) nutrients b) dissolved gases c) nitrogenous wastes d) bile
a) nutrients + b) dissolved gases + c) nitrogenous wastes
blood is a fluid connective tissue. which term refers to the fluid matrix of blood? a) plasma b) CSF c) serum d) lymph
a) plasma
which are functions of the circulatory system? select all that apply. a) stabilization of body fluid pH b) formation and elimination of urine c) regulation of body temperature d) transportation of nutrients and gases
a) stabilization of body fluid pH + c) regulation of body temperature + d) transportation of nutrients and gases
what is viscosity? a) the resistance of a fluid to flow due to particle cohesion b) the temperature at which a solution will become a gas c) a measure of the proton concentration in a solution d) the concentration of a solution expressed as the number of solute particles per liter
a) the resistance of a fluid to flow due to particle cohesion
inadequate erythropoiesis or hemoglobin synthesis, hemorrhage and increased RBC destruction are all common causes of the erythrocyte disorder called ____________________. (one word)
anemia
which erythrocyte cell-surface antigens determine a person's ABO blood group? select all that apply. a) O b) B c) A d) D
b) B + c) A
which blood type is the most common in the United States? a) B b) O c) AB d) A
b) O
platelet activation is an example of positive feedback. what does that mean? a) activating one platelet makes it more difficult to activate another b) activating one platelet leads to the activation of another platelet, and then another c) activating one platelet starts a cascade of fibrin formation d) activating one platelet leads to a positive outcome
b) activating one platelet leads to the activation of another platelet, and then another
how do blood-viscosity reducing drugs increase blood flow? a) by increasing the osmolarity b) by making the blood thinner and less sticky c) by increasing the hematocrit d) by changing the pH of the blood
b) by making the blood thinner and less sticky
what is the most abundant formed element of the blood? a) leukocytes b) erythrocytes c) megakaryocytes d) lymphocytes
b) erythrocytes
the release of clotting factors by damaged blood vessels and perivascular tissues initiates the __________________ pathway of coagulation. a) intrinsic b) extrinsic
b) extrinsic
the extrinsic mechanism of coagulation is initiated by which of the following? a) prostacyclin coating the endothelium b) factors released by damaged blood vessels (thromboplastin) c) myeloblasts released prematurely from the bone marrow d) clotting factors
b) factors released by damaged blood vessels (thromboplastin)
which conditions are associated with clotting disorders? select all that apply. a) iron deficiency b) gallstones c) malnutrition d) leukemia e) hemophilia
b) gallstones + c) malnutrition + d) leukemia + e) hemophilia
which term refers to tissues that produce the formed elements of the blood? a) yellow marrow b) hemopoietic tissues c) white pulp d) red pulp
b) hemopoietic tissues
list some functions of plasma proteins. select all that apply. a) primary source of energy b) immune defense c) transport of iron, copper, lipids, hydrophobic hormones d) clotting
b) immune defense + c) transport of iron, copper, lipids, hydrophobic hormones + d) clotting
albumin plays a role in which of the following? select all that apply. a) immune defense b) pH buffering of plasma c) maintenance of osmolarity d) solute transport
b) pH buffering of plasma + c) maintenance of osmolarity + d) solute transport
what is agglutination? a) the production of blood, especially its formed elements b) the production of large antigen-antibody complexes c) the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin d) the binding of carbon monoxide to hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin
b) the production of large antigen-antibody complexes
which statements about platelets are true? select all that apply. a) platelets contribute more than the WBCs to the blood volume b) they are not cells but small fragments of megakaryocytes c) a normal platelet count ranges from 130.000 to 400.000 platelets/uL d) platelets are very small (2 to 4um in diameter) e) they are the most abundant formed elements
b) they are not cells but small fragments of megakaryocytes + c) a normal platelet count ranges from 130.000 to 400.000 platelets/uL + d) platelets are very small (2 to 4um in diameter)
what is the least common leukocyte?
basophils
what is vascular spasm? a) a long-term mechanism that triggers fibrin production b) a short-lived mechanism in which the damaged vessel dilates, increasing the amount of clotting agents c) a short-lived mechanism in which the damaged vessel narrows to minimize blood loss d) the response of a capillary network to changing carbon dioxide levels
c) a short-lived mechanism in which the damaged vessel narrows to minimize blood loss
what do hemopoietic tissues produce? a) only platelets b) only red blood cells c) all formed elements of the blood d) RBCs and WBCs, but not platelets
c) all formed elements of the blood
a person's specific blood type is based on which of the following? a) the form of hemoglobin produced by the RBCs b) differences in white blood cell production c) antigens expressed on the RBC plasma membrane d) antibodies located on the RBC plasma membrane
c) antigens expressed on the RBC plasma membrane
why is thrombosis more likely to occur in veins than in arteries? a) the pressure in veins is higher than in arteries b) the walls of veins are stretchier and contain more collagen c) blood flows more slowly in veins and does not dilute thrombin and fibrin as rapidly d) the diameter of veins is generally smaller than in arteries
c) blood flows more slowly in veins and does not dilute thrombin and fibrin as rapidly
carbohydrates, proteins and water (as well as some other nutrients) are transported from the digestive system to the body's cells in which of the following fluids? a) lymph b) urine c) blood plasma d) cerebrospinal fluid
c) blood plasma
the intrinsic mechanism of coagulation is triggered by which of the following? a) prostacyclin b) exposed collagen c) clotting factors in the plasma d) damaged endothelium and the release of cytoplasm
c) clotting factors in the plasma
which term refers to the contribution of protein to the osmotic pressure of the blood? a) blood hydrostatic pressure b) viscosity c) colloid osmotic pressure d) hematocrit
c) colloid osmotic pressure
which blood cells are critical to survival because of their ability to transport oxygen? a) lymphocytes b) monocytes c) erythrocytes d) platelets
c) erythrocytes
which may activate platelets? a) low oxygen concentrations b) ferritin c) exposed collagen d) reticulocyte activating factor
c) exposed collagen
which term refers to the production of blood, especially the formed elements? a) hemolysis b) erythroblastosis c) hemopoiesis d) erythropoiesis
c) hemopoeisis
what is leukopoiesis? a) elevated WBC count (above 10.000 WBCs/uL) b) a type of small, round agranulocyte c) production of white blood cells d) cancer that affects blood and bone marrow
c) production of white blood cells
old blood cells usually die as they pass through what organ? a) lungs b) heart c) spleen d) kidneys
c) spleen
the interaction of protein factors to produce a clot is called ___________________.
coagulation
adult hemoglobin consists of which of the following? a) 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains b) 1 alpha, 1 beta and 1 gamma chain c) 2 alpha, 1 beta and 1 gamma chain d) 2 alpha and 2 beta chains
d) 2 alpha and 2 beta chains
what is the first procoagulant that the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways have in common? a) prothrombin activator b) hageman factor c) thromboplastin d) Factor X
d) Factor X
which of the following is characteristic of lymphocytes? a) multi-lobed nucleus b) biconcave cells c) a granulocyte with dark cytoplasmic granules d) a small cell with a large round nucleus
d) a small cell with a large round nucleus
which blood cells are biconcave and lack a nucleus and other organelles? a) macrophages b) eosinophils c) monocytes d) erythrocytes
d) erythrocytes
which best describes clot retraction? a) platelets clump together in blood smears b) clots dissolve when the underlying tissue has been healed c) agglutinated RBCs block blood vessels during transfusion reactions d) fibrin threads contract to pull the edges of the wound together
d) fibrin threads contract to pull the edges of the wound together
which plasma component is nor present in serum? a) albumin b) immunoglobulins c) nitrogenous wastes d) fibrinogen e) glucose and electrolytes
d) fibrinogen
which term refers to the multipotent stem cells in bone marrow? a) adenocarcinoma b) hepatic progenitor cells c) thrombocyte d) hemopoietic stem cell
d) hemopoietic stem cell
what is hemostasis? a) the breakdown of red blood cells b) hereditary blood-coagulation disorder c) mass of clotted blood in the tissues d) physiological process that controls excessive bleeding
d) physiological process that controls excessive bleeding
which is another term for clotting factors? a) anticoagulants b) platelets c) growth factors d) procoagulants
d) procoagulants
what is erythropoiesis? a) production of WBCs b) production of antibodies c) production of platelets d) production of RBCs
d) production of RBCs
why can liver disease impede blood clotting? a) the liver is the primary site of platelet storage and maturation b) reduced production of heparin c) excessive bile production reduces fibrin formation d) the liver synthesizes most clotting factors
d) the liver synthesizes most clotting factors
a(n) ____________________ is a blood clot that breaks loose and travels in the bloodstream.
embolus
leukocytes called __________________ function to destroy large parasites such as hookworms and tapeworms.
eosinophils
true or false: a total WBC count is more useful than a differential WBC count when tying to pin down the specific cause of a disease.
false
true or false: all clotting deficiencies are hereditary.
false
true or false: all the components of blood originate in the bone marrow.
false
true or false: in most cases of bleeding, only the intrinsic mechanism of coagulation is activated.
false
the meshlike framework of a blood clot is formed by a sticky protein called ___________________.
fibrin
as part of coagulation, the plasma protein called ___________________ is converted to fibrin.
fibrinogen
the three components of the circulatory system are the blood vessels, the blood, and the __________________.
heart
name the discipline that specifically deals with the study of blood.
hematology
when they are in the tissues, masses of clotted blood are called ___________________.
hematoma
iron is critical for the synthesis of __________________, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells.
hemoglobin
name the protein in the cytoplasm of red blood cells that binds oxygen and helps to buffer the blood pH.
hemoglobin
the rupture of red blood cells is called _________________.
hemolysis
the clotting cascade that originates from within the blood itself is called the __________________ pathway.
intrinsic
the cancerous disease called __________________ results in large numbers of leukocytes and their undifferentiated precursors being released into the blood.
leukemia
the alternate term for a white blood cells (WBC) is ___________________.
leukocyte
the formed elements of the blood are platelets, erythrocytes and five types of leukocytes, which include eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils, monocytes and _____________________.
lymphocytes
which leukocytes leave the bloodstream and transform into large phagocytic tissue cells called macrophages?
monocytes
________________ are granulocytes that phagocytize bacteria.
neutrophils
___________________ is the fluid component, a complex mixture of water, proteins, nutrients, electrolytes, wastes, hormones and gases.
plasma
the main components of blood are a fluid portion called _________________ and formed elements that include the blood cells.
plasma
when collagen in the wall of a blood vessel is exposed as a result of injury, _________________ adhere and develop long, spiny psuedopods which draw the vessel walls back together.
platelets
the enzyme ___________________ converts fibrinogen into fibrin.
thrombin
true or false: erythrocytes circulate for about 120days before they die.
true
true or false: transfusion reactions occur when antibodies in the recipient's blood bind to the antigens on the donor's RBCs and agglutinate the donated blood.
true
match the type of hemoglobin with its description. Hemoglobin HbA - Hemoglobin HbA2 - Hemoglobin HbF about 2.5% of adult hemoglobin; contains two alpha globin chains and two delta globin chains - fetal hemoglobin; contains two alpha globin chains and two gamma globin chains; it binds oxygen tightly - the most common type in the adult; contains two alpha globin chains and two beta globin chains
• Hemoglobin HbA = the most common type in the adult; contains two alpha globin chains and two beta globin chains • Hemoglobin HbA2 = about 2.5% of adult hemoglobin; contains two alpha globin chains and two delta globin chains • Hemoglobin HbF = fetal hemoglobin; contains two alpha globin chains and two gamma globin chains; it binds oxygen tightly.
match each type of plasma protein to its role. album - globulins - fibrinogen solute transport, pH buffering, regulation of blood viscosity and osmolarity - clotting - immunity
• albumin = solute transport, pH buffering, regulation of blood viscosity and osmolarity • globulins = immunity • fibrinogen = clotting
match each type of leukocyte to its percentage of total WBCs in healthy individuals. eosinophils - neutrophils - basophils - lymphocytes - monocytes 2%-4% of WBCs - 60%-70% of WBCs - <0.5% of WBCs - 25%-33% of WBCs - 3%-8% of WBCs
• eosinophils = 2%-4% of WBCs • neutrophils = 60%-70% of WBCs • basophils = <0.5% of WBCs • lymphocytes = 25%-33% of WBCs • monocytes = 3%-8% of WBCs
match each alpha globulin to its role. haptoglobulin - ceruloplasmin - prothrombin promotes blood clotting - transports copper - transports hemoglobin released by dead erythrocytes
• haptoglobulin = transports hemoglobin released by dead erythrocytes • ceruloplasmin = transports copper • prothrombin = promotes blood clotting
match the blood cell disorder with its description. leukopenia - leukocytosis - leukemia - polycythemia total WBC count above 10.000 WBCs.uL - abnormally high red blood cell count - cancer of hemopoietic tissues resulting in high numbers of leukocytes - total WBC count below 5.000 WBCs/uL
• leukopenia = total WBC count below 5.000 WBCs/uL • leukocytosis = total WBC count above 10.000 WBCs/uL • leukemia = cancer of hemopoietic tissues resulting in high numbers of leukocytes • polycythemia = abnormally high red blood cell count
match the precursor cell with the cell(s) that arise from each. monoblast - myeloblast - lymphoblast - erythroblast monocyte - erythrocytes - granulocytes - lymphocytes
• monoblast = monocyte • myeloblast = granulocytes • lymphoblast = lymphocytes • erythroblast = erythrocytes
match the components of blood with their relative percentage. plasma - hematocrit - buffy coat 37%-52% - 47%-63% - 1% or less
• plasma = 47%-63% • hematocrit = 37%-52% • buffy coat = 1% or less
