ABO Questions

In what type of surgery do you not need to level both mx and md arches?

3-piece maxilla

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: how does palate grow?

Displaced: down + fwd Models downwards w resorption of nasal floor and apposition on inside surface of palate

"How would you position the arm in a high pull head gear relative to the center of resistance in order to achieve clockwise rotation of the MAXILLA?"

Distal to the CR (correct)

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: know whether osteoblasts or osteoclasts have high level of alkaline phosphatase

osteoblasts

adenoid is located: in anterior pharyngeal wall posterior pharyngeal wall

posterior pharyngeal wall

Rank the following study designs from least to most power:

Expert opinion, case series, case study, cohort, randomized. Proffit 4th edition, P281

BQ: what is the most likely cause of a tooth following avulsion?

External RR

How do you correct a deep bite:

Extrude posterior teeth, intrude anteriors

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Nasion is bw what bones?

Frontal bone & nasal bones

BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Males have _______increases in lip length than females; males have ________ increases in lip thickness than females.

GREATER GREATER

The limit of maxillary expansion is dictated by? RESISTANCE IS?

LIMIT - coronoid process Resistance - . Zygomatic arches (correct)

What makes the TMJ different from any other joint in the body?

No hyaline cartilage on the articular surface. (instead has fibrous connective tissue)

Big Curve of Wilson and openbite: posterior teeth ___ ____ ______

Posterior teeth will not disocclude

Wire w the lowest coefficient of friction in SS bracket?

SS

SARPE is more stable than a 3-piece maxilla. When doing SARPE you need to do a down fracture osteotomy

T/F

For demanding patient: To alleviate distrust u can ...

To alleviate distrust can recommend a second opinion

Why do you have to do 1st order bend in the traditional edgewise appliance

To compensate for the B-L thickness of the teeth Profitt page 420

TH A: TMD can be a SECONDARY FACTOR, but NEVER a primary factor in a MQ question.

True

" The cranial base grows by what mechanism?" "a. Intramembranous b. Endochondral c. Appositional

"a. Intramembranous b. Endochondral (correct) c. Appositional " cranial basE = Endochondral

" What are some characteristics of taurodontism?" associated with

"a. Bull shaped molars "

What is the widest cervical vertebrae from C1 to C5? a. C1 b. C2 c. C4 d. C5

"a. C1 "

"Arachodonic acid pathway is activated by a. IL-1 b. IL-6 c. TNF-alpha d. all of the above

"a. IL-1 b. IL-6 c. TNF-alpha d. all of the above (correct)" wikipedia

What bone bridges the cranial base and the facial skeleton? a. Sphenoid b. Maxilla c. Temporal d. Frontal

"a. Sphenoid (correct)

" In Posselt's diagram what is the final motion?" a. Pure Hinge b. Pure Rotation c. Half rotation, half hinge d. None of the above

"a. Pure Hinge (correct) "

Frontal compensates for the orbit or lacrimal?

lacrimal

Does root proximity affect perio status?

yes

Where does part of temporal bone cross orbit on PA ceph?

"a. Bisect orbit * b. Upper 1/3 of orbit c. Lower 1/3 of orbit d. Floor of orbit "

As skeletal age matures what changes to you see in the vertebrae? A concave curvature in the (superior/inferior) border.

A concave curvature in the inferior border.

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Superimposed on S-N, facial growth is _______.

Usually downward and forward, but can be backward (true for max & mandible)

Which would give an orthopedic effect in an anterior open bite?

Vertical Chin cup (per Buschang article hyperdiv phenotype)

TPA can be used for all of the following except: a. vertical anchorage b maintaining Leeway space c. A-P anchorage d. Rotate molars around the palatal root e. Transverse stability

b maintaining Leeway space c. A-P anchorage

What is your treatment for a 5 year old with a thumbsucking habit? a. RPE b. Crib c. Extraction d. Do nothing

d. Do nothing (correct)"

BUQ: where is COR in the mandible?

for complete dentition: bw PM2 - M1

BUQ: Pt point constitutes the Junction of the PTM fissure and what?

forament rotundum

" If angle of convexity is normally zero & you measure -5, what type of malocclusion is it? " "a. Class I b. Class II div I c. Class II div 2 d. Class III

d. Class III

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Maxilla & premaxilla fuse at approximately ___ years of age

during first 2 yrs

When to do Twin block?

during or slightly after onset of pubertal peak in growth velocity "Article ""Treatment timing for Twin-block therapy,"" Baccetti: Optimum treatment timing for Twin-block therapy appears to be during or slightly after the onset of the pubertal peak in growth velocity"

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Horizontal process of the maxillary and the palatine bone forms what?

hard palate

Following LeForte I surgery what growth potential remains? a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Normal Growth d. None

a. Vertical LeForte 1 inhibit further AP maxillary growth while allowing vertical mx growth to continue

Function of the temporalis. a. Close and retrude mandible b. Open mandible

a. close and retrude mandible (correct) Goggle

" In response to heavy pressure against a tooth, pain is normally felt: " a. Immediately b. After 3-5 seconds c. After 3-5 minutes d. After 3-5 hours

" "b. After 3-5 seconds (correct)

" What is the risk of bacteremia?" a. Septicemia b. Infective endocarditis c. Meningitis

" "b. Infective endocarditis (correct)

3mm OB w/ exaggerated curve of Wilson..what problem would you encounter? a. working interference b. non-working interference c. protrusive interference

" "b. non-working interference (correct)

Lip bumper does all the following except-

no change in molar vertical

How much growth remaining if C2 and C3 have inferior curvature and C4-C5 are square? Peak mandibular growth will occur within ___ yr CVSM stage 1 2 3 4

peak mandibular growth will occur within 1 year (stage CVMS II) ABO Breakdown

BU CEPH Q: FH points

porion to orbitale

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Maxilla grows down and forward because:

primarily due to displacement u do get some modeling (NOT AP, but vertically u get modeling down by resorption of nasal floor + deposition on palatal roof)

BU CEPH Q: what is the midline point?

prostheion = supradentale on ceph

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: in which bone is the foramen ovale located?

sphenoid

Mandibulofacial dysostosis another name for what syndrome?

teacher collins

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Which maturity measures are correlated the most?

Menarche and PHV Note: Dental maturity relatively INDEPENDENT of others

** Which of the following is NOT associated with Treacher Collins: a. Downward slanting eyes b. Missing or hypoplastic zygoma c. High ANB d. Hypoplastic maxilla

d. Hypoplastic maxilla (correct)" " SE: technically LH says there is hypo plastic maxilla buschang says: Maxilla -posterior part shortened vertically Individuals with mandibulofacial dysostosis exhibit a characteristic facies (Figure 1-87). The zygomas are hypoplastic, resulting in a narrow face with depressed cheeks and downward-slanting palpebral fissures. In 75% of patients, a coloboma, or notch, occurs on the outer portion of the lower eyelid. About half of the patients have no eyelashes medial to the coloboma. Often the sideburns show a tongue-shaped extension toward the cheek. The ears may demonstrate a number of anomalies. The pinnae often are deformed or misplaced, and extra ear tags may be seen. Ossicle defects or absence of the external auditory canal can cause conductive hearing loss. The mandible is underdeveloped, resulting in a markedly retruded chin. Radiographs often demonstrate hypoplasia of the condylar and coronoid processes, with prominent antegonial notching. The mouth is downturned, and about 15% of patients have lateral facial clefting (see page 2) that produces macrostomia. Cleft palate is seen in about one third of cases. The parotid glands may be hypoplastic or may be totally absent. (Neville, Brad W.. Oral & Maxillofacial Pathology, 2nd Edition. W.B. Saunders Company, 012002. pp. 42 - 43). "

Post-treatment studies of malocclusions treated with extraction of teeth by Little et al found: a. 20% relapse of mandibular incisors b. 1/3 relapse of mandibular incisors c. 50% relapse of mandibular incisors d. 2/3 relapse of mandibular incisors

d. 2/3 relapse of mandibular incisors (correct)"

Which of the following nerves does NOT go through the superior orbital fissure? "a. CN III b. CN IV c. CN V1 d. CN V2 e. CN VI

d. CNV2 "Superior orbital fissure: Located between the greater and lesser wings, it communicates with the orbit and transmits the ophthalmic veins and nerves (CN III, CN IV, CN V1, CN VI, and sympathetic fibers) entering the orbit. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 899). Foramen rotundum (round foramen): Located posterior to the medial end of the superior orbital fissure, it transmits the maxillary nerve (CN V2) that supplies the skin, teeth, and mucosa related to the maxilla (i.e., lining the upper jaw and maxillary sinus). (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 899). "

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: during evolution, as the eyes moved closer together what happened to forehead and nose?

forehead became higher, nose became larger

The density of a radiograph is decreased by a. Increasing the milliamperes b. Increasing the exposure time c. Increasing the developing time d. Increasing the tube-patient distance

d. Increasing the tube (X-ray) to patient distance * " Density = (mAs * kVp)/(Length X-ray to object) density is decreased by: -DECREASING mAs -increasing X-ray to patient distance

What gives sensory innervation to anterior 2/3 tongue? a. Lingual nerve b. Facial nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. none of the above

lingual nerve of Trigeminal (CN5) I think the answer here is Lingual nerve. General sensation of the anterior 2/3 is supplied by the Lingual nerve which is a branch of V3 of the Trigeminal nerve CN V. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tongue

"What is released during the breakdown of periodontal fibers? a. Interleukin 1 b. Interferon c. Neocytokines "

"a. Interleukin 1 (correct) Proinflammatory = TNF alpha, IL-1 beta, IL-2, IL-6, IL-8, PGE-2, IFN gamma; MMP Anti-inflammatory = IL-4, 10, 13. "Am J Orthod Dentofacial Orthop 2006;130:7.e1-7.e6 ""Interleukins 2, 6, and 8 levels in human gingival sulcus during orthodontic treatment"" "

What are characteristics of Gardners? name 4 and what's NOT assoc with Gardners

supernumerary teeth (impacted teeth) polyps osteomas epidermoid cysts remember that no facial clefts are present in this syndrome

Pain associated with ortho treatment is usually found -->

when heavy forces are used

What is the latency period following the distraction for osteogenesis osteotomy?

5-7 days

How much is SD of + 1

66-68% or 2/3 Remembered from stats class

Where is the center of resistance if you close a maxillary diastema with finger springs

Apical 2/3 (resistance = apical 2/3 bc resistance has more letters than rotation which is apical 1/3)

Creation of bone on the maxilla for maxillary molars comes from:

Apposition of bone at the sutural area behind the tuberosity

The first clinically observable reaction to radiation is: a. Loss of hair b. Erythema of the skin c. Agenesis of the blood cells d. Loss of elementary epithelium

""b. Erythema of the skin (correct)

What additional piece of information would you gather at your records visit to obtain condylar inclination? a. A CR bite b. A CO bite c. A Protrusive wax bite d. Lateral excursive wax bites

""c. A Protrusive wax bite (correct)

Unreliability of Frankfort Horizontal (FH) as horizontal reference line in cephalometrics stems from: 1. Difficulty of locating point Suborbitale 2. Difficulty of locating point Porion 3. The true horizontal may show a divergence of up to 10º from FH a. 1 & 2 only b. 2 & 3 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3

"1. Difficulty of locating point Suborbitale 2. Difficulty of locating point Porion 3. The true horizontal may show a divergence of up to 10º from FH d. 1, 2 & 3 (correct)"

Functional appliances accelerate the growth of the mandible. Treated patients have longer mandibles. a) First statement is true, second false B) First statement false, second true C) Both true D) Both false

"a) First statement is true, second false (correct) ABO article 1 - Early treatment for Class II Division I,

The sequence of giving CPR to an adult: a. 30 compressions for 2 breaths b. 15 compressions to 2 breaths

"a. 30 compressions for 2 breaths (correct) says its 30-2 for both adults, children, and infants for single rescuer except if you have 2 rescuers and it's 15-2 just for children and infants

" Which one is not true about Impacted canines"

"a. 30% of them come palatal" 85% OF ALL IMPACTIONS ARE PALATAL: GENETIC

Of the following, which is true? a. A 1mm CO/CR shift is acceptable b. A 1mm lateral shift is acceptable

"a. A 1mm CO/CR shift is acceptable (correct)

" In order to have bodily movement you need:" a. A force and a counter-moment b. A force c. A moment d. A couple

"a. A force and a counter-moment (correct) * or a force thru the center of resistance

Providing pt w/enough information to make important decisions about what orthodontic or orthognathic procedure he or she will accept is: a. A moral obligation b. An ethical obligation c. A legal obligation d. Only A & B e. A, B & C

"a. A moral obligation b. An ethical obligation c. A legal obligation e. A, B & C (correct) " (P696)

If you see an unconscious person lying on the floor what do you do first? a. Activate EMS b. Look for ID c. Start CPR d. Nothing

"a. Activate EMS (correct)

Histochemically basal bone and alveolar bone: "a. Are vastly different b. Basal bone is more resistant to resorption c. Are no different d. Alveolar bone is less cancellous"

"a. Are vastly different b. Basal bone is more resistant to resorption c. Are no different (correct) d. Alveolar bone is less cancellous"

All of the following are true about Apert's and Crouzon's EXCEPT: a. Asymmetric mandible b. Supernumeraries c. Craniosynostosis d. Cleft Palate e. class III f. midface hypoplasia

"a. Asymmetric mandible (correct) b. Supernumeraries c. Craniosynostosis d. Cleft Palate e. class III f. midface hypoplasia" "Crouzon's and Apert's syndrome are most commonly characterized by premature fusion of coronal and lamdoid sutures Early fusion of just lamdoid is plagiocephally Coronal fusion results in brachi appearance Sagital suture premature fusion results in dolicofacial appearance Trigonocephaly results from premature fusion of metopic suture Only difference between Apert's and Crouzon's is that Apert's has syndactally Supernumeraries can be seen in Crouzon's and Aperts"

When does mineralization of permanent first molars begin? "a. At birth b. 4 months in utero

"a. At birth (answer) 6 yrs" "Profit 4th ed. pg. 94, Table 3-3 1st molar starts calcification 32 wks in utero" 3. The permanent teeth begin to develop at approximately four months of age in utero. Maxillary and mandibular first molars begin to calcify at birth. They are the first to begin calcification. The mandibular third molars are generally the last teeth to begin calcifying. This happens at about 8-10 years of age.

Mandibular advancement, what procedure is best

"a. BSSO"

What is the bacteria that is the cause of bone loss during orthodontic treatment? a. Bacteroides Gingivalis b. Actinomyces c. Porphyromonas gingivalis d. Staphylococcus areus

"a. Bacteroides Gingivalis * c. Porphyromonas gingivalis (same thing as a)

Which of the following may not be used in pts w/ TMD? a. Class III elastics b. Class II elastics c. Herbst d. HG

"a. Class III elastics (correct) An anteriorly displaced disc will be worsened Controversial says: Says TMD patient no anterior positioning splint or class 3 elastics. Only used anterior position splint to capture anterior displaced aras: Some ppl say the use of Class III elastics in the non-growing class III patients may cause inc in TMD due to the compression of the retrodiscal tissue.

A patient with no spacing of the deciduous dentition will have a. Crowding in the permanent dentition b. Normal permanent dentition c. Spacing of the permanent dentition d. A Class III malocclusion

"a. Crowding in the permanent dentition *

In prioritizing realistic treatment objectives, a compromise could be made on the following, except: a. Establishing ideal occlusion. b. Addressing the patient's chief complaint. c. Achieving ideal facial esthetics. d. Maximizing stability

"a. Establishing ideal occlusion. b. Addressing the patient's chief complaint. c. Achieving ideal facial esthetics. d. Maximizing stability."

Treatment of muscle dysfunction usually requires a combination of: a. Flat appliances for muscle relaxation b. Stress management c. Physical therapy d. All of the above

"a. Flat appliances for muscle relaxation b. Stress management c. Physical therapy d. All of the above * "

"Nasal epithelial cells (look up the exact type of cells) What type of cells found in nasal cavity?" "a. Goblet b. Ciliated c. Pseudostratified Colcorrelation umnar d. All of the above

"a. Goblet b. Ciliated c. Pseudostratified Columnar d. All of the above (correct)" Dr. Kahn stated that nasal epi cells are goblet, ciliated and pseudostratified columnar

HIPAA stands for: a. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act b. Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act c. Health Insurance Privacy and Accountability Act

"a. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (correct)

If you tip maxillary central incisors toward each other with springs on a Hawley to close a diastema, where is the center of rotation? a. In the apical 1/3 of the root b. In the center of the root c. In the center of the entire tooth

"a. In the apical 1/3 of the root (correct)

What is the most stable tooth position? Most stable joint position?

"a. Maximum intercuspation - IC (correct) Most stable Joint position? CR

" Shown picture of wrist film and asked how much growth is left?"

"a. None b. Limited * c. A lot "

Opened RPE .5 mm/day, teeth start moving mesially, what happened?

"a. Normal effect *"

What does the Chi-Square test measure?

"a. Observed versus expected frequency *" nominal vs nominal data

In open bite malocclusions, surgery is usually performed: a. Only in the maxillary arch b. Only in the mandibular arch c. In both arches d. In the premaxillae

"a. Only in the maxillary arch *

Tooth most likely to cause TMJ a. Buccal cusp of Mx 2nd molar b. Lingual cusp of Mx 2nd molar c. Buccal cusp of Md 2nd molar d. Lingual cusp of Md 2nd molar

"b. Lingual of maxillary 2nd molar"

The most important factor when creating the ideal smile arc is: a. The shape of the teeth b. The position of the lower lip c. Bracket placement according to case evaluation d. The length of the teeth

"c. Bracket placement according to case evaluation (correct) " "ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 100 ""It is important to assess and visualize the incisor-smile arc relationship and place brackets so as to extrude the maxillary incisors in flat smiles and to maintain the smile arc where it is appropriate. A set formula for bracket placement based on tooth measurements...is not appropriate for maximum esthetics...Just as patients get individualized treatment plans, they also should have individualized designs for appliance placement."""

Which of the following is mandatory in radiation protection for the patient? a. Gonadal shields b. High-speed film c. Collimator d. Use of long, lead-lined cones

"c. Collimator * narrows a beam

Cephalometrics is best used to determine a. Skeletal pattern b. Dental pattern c. Dental pattern related to the skeletal pattern d. None of the above

"c. Dental pattern related to the skeletal pattern

" Infants with repaired clefts of lip and palate:" a. Have normal development of hard and soft tissue b. Have normal development of the soft palate c. Have a deficiency of the soft palate d. None of the above

"c. Have a deficiency of the soft palate (correct) "

"The temporal bone on a PA ceph appears as a line? on?" a. Superior 1/3 of the orbit b. Middle 1/3 of the orbit c. Inferior 1/3 of the orbit d. None of the above

"c. Inferior 1/3 of the orbit " the temporal bone bisects the orbit

" Which of the following permanent posterior teeth has a mesial marginal ridge that is located more cervical that its distal marginal ridge?" a. Maxillary first premolar b. Maxillary second molar c. Mandibular first premolar d. Mandibular second molar

"c. Mandibular first premolar (correct) "

" Which malocclusion is commonly found with an interincisal angle of 165 degrees?" a. Class I b. Class II div 1 c. Class II div 2 d. Class III

"c. class II div 2 " Interincisal angle norms 130-135

What is the posterior border of the foramen magnum called on a cephalogram? a. basion b. opisthion c. axithion d. post border of the foramen magnum

""b. opisthion (correct) Posterior border = oPisthion

Which of the following cause frequent balancing side contacts? a. Lingual cusps of the maxillary first premolars b. Lingual cusps of the mandibular first premolars c. Lingual cusps of the maxillary second molars d. Lingual cusps of the mandibular second molars

""c. Lingual cusps of the maxillary second molars (correct)

Which is not seen in acute closed lock patients? a. deviation upon opening b. range of motion 27mm or less c. joint sounds d. pain with forced maximum opening

""c. joint sounds

"Which of the following structures appear radiolucent on an oral radiograph: 1. Medial palatine suture 2. Anterior nasal spine 3. Mandibular canal 4. Genial tubercles 5. Hamular process" a. 1 & 3 only b. 1, 3 & 5 c. 4 & 5 only d. 2 & 3 only

"a. 1 & 3 only (correct) 1. Medial palatine suture 3. Mandibular canal

What is the minimum osseointegration required for successful TADS: a. 5% b. 85% c. 50%

"a. 5% (correct) "Osseointegration should increase with loading time Levels as low as 5% can provide adequate osseointegration for orthodontic loading (ABO article #8 - pg 6 2nd conclusion of ""Systematic Review of Temprorary Skeletal Anchorage Devices"" by Cornelis 2007) regular implants 75% osseointegrated"

What is the minimum amount of force needed to cause disintegration of bone around an implant? a. 50g b. 100g c. 200g d. 400g e. none of the above

"a. 50g b. 100g c. 200g d. 400g e. none of the above (correct)"

Distance between SN and natural head position is usually a. 7 degress b. 5 degrees c. 0 degrees

"a. 7 degrees (correct) Jacobsen txt chapter on Natural head position

" From mesial of upper 7 to opposite arch, what is average percent of Bolton"

"a. 91% (don't word it as bolton) 77% anterior"

Osteoclasts come from? a. Bone marrow b. Blood c. PDL d. Bone

"a. Bone marroW FROM CONTROVERSIAL *OCs come from blood monocytes from hematopoietic cells in bone marrow. —always choose bone marrow NOT blood, onlyblood if bone marrow isn't an option OBs are undifferentiated mesenchymal cells " Board breakdown and internet sources state that they are derived from hematopoietic bone marrow so answer may be A, not B

" Intramembranous bone formation comes from:" "a. Condensation of mesenchyme b. Endoderm c. Ectoderm " Goggle

"a. Condensation of mesenchyme (correct)

Where do you put outer bow of HPHG if want to close anterior open bite and palatal plane clockwise? a. Distal b. Mesial c. Above d. Below e. through center of resistance

"a. Distal (correct) -to move palatal plane clockwise, you would want outer bow to be distal to CR of maxilla (this would cause anterior part of palatal plane to tip downward closing open bite) - this would require a long outer bow bent down so it is below the CR

"A 28 YO female presents w/ skeletal Class III open bite, maxillary deficiency, and mandibular prognathism. After appropriate ortho tx with leveling & aligning, the skeletal condition remained the same. The hand articulated models occlude well. The surgical treatment of choice is:" a. Lefort osteotomy for maxillary intrusion b. Mandibular set-back c. Maxillary osteotomy for maxillary advancement d. Anterior maxillary segmental osteotomy e. Reduction genioplasty f. Mandibular osteotomy for autorotation i. b, d, and e ii. b, c and e iii. a, b, c, and e iv. a, b, and e v. a, b, c, f

"a. Lefort osteotomy for maxillary intrusion b. Mandibular set-back c. Maxillary osteotomy for maxillary advancement f. Mandibular osteotomy for autorotation iii. a, b, c, f

For a female at menarche, which statement is true? "a. Most growth is complete b. Most growth is yet to come

"a. Most growth is complete (correct)

Which of the following is the most common odontogenic tumor? a. Odontoma b. Ameloblastoma

"a. Odontoma (correct) b. Ameloblastoma" note: most common odontogenic tumor odontoma no one loses their jaw over it - Most common CLINICALLY SIGNIFICANT odontogenic tumor AMELOBLASTOMA Can lose jaw with this! Neville's ""Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology"" says odontoma *Addendum: according to Dr. Kahn's (USN path instructor) ppt on odontogenic cysts/tumors, ""ameloblastoma is the most common true odontogenic tumor"" whereas ""Odontoma is the most common MIXED (epithelial and mesenchymal origin) odontogenic tumor"" and it is ""a hamartoma, not a true 'tumor'."" Therefore, I believe the answer should be AMELOBLASTOMA "

What is the treatment of a one-walled defect (mesially tipped)?

"a. Uprighting b. Extrusion c. All of the above (correct) d. None of the above"

Aperts has all of the following except: a. hypoplastic orbital rim b. syndactyly c. premature fusion of sutures d. all of the above

"a. hypoplastic orbital rim b. syndactyly c. premature fusion of sutures (CORONAL) d. all of the above (correct)"

A TMD patient opens wide/yawns and her jaw locks open, she moves her jaw to the left and the left joint pops, what has happened? a. left posterior disk displacement b. right posterior disk displacement c. left anterior disk displacement d. right anterior disk displacement

"a. left posterior disk displacement (correct)

Which would you use to compare 2 means? a. t-test b. Chi square c. Correlation

"a. t-test * (parametric) non-parametric - analyze median, two words

" When looking at a ceph, what is level with Frankfort Horizontal?" a. zygomatic arch b. Go-Gn c. S-N d. ANS-PNS

"a. zygomatic arch (correct)

"Maturity of bone Order of bone" a.woven, composite, lamellar b.woven, lamellar, composite c.woven, composite, lamellar, bundle

"a.woven, composite, lamellar, bundle Why Charkas Loves Boys (true) " "Angle Ortho, 1987, Roberts, Rigid Endosseous Implants for Orthodontic and orthopedic anchorage. - there are three microscopic types of bone tissue: woven, lamellar and composite bone. 1. Woven (embryonic, new ortho bone) bone is poorly organized tissue that is formed rapidly (30-50 ± JLm/day) in response to skeletal wounding and overload. 2. Lamellar bone (cortical, compact), the principal load bearing tissue of the skeleton, is formed relatively slowly (0.6JLm/day) and has considerable strength because of a high degree of matrix maturation prior to mineralization. 3. Composite bone is a biological compromise of woven bone for rapid healing which is subsequently filled-in with lamellar bone to improve strength. Ten Cate's oral histology pg 253: -Bundle bone = non-lamellar; immature; directly lines socket; penetrated by collagen Sharpey's fibers of the PDL "

How many minutes without oxygen can the brain survive?

"c. 6 minutes

Patients with skeletal Open bite have all the following except? a) Short posterior cranial base b) Short ramus c) Long mandibular body/corpus length d) Short posterior facial height e) Long anterior facial height "

"c. Long Corpus length (correct) from Aras class Patients with skeletal Open bite have all the following except? a) Short posterior cranial base b) Short ramus height I thought this was according to the article it says decreased posterior facial height caused by smaller ramus heights c) Long mandibular body/corpus length d) Short posterior facial height e) Long anterior facial height (Other choices were Bjork's indicators)" Bjork article:

Skeletally hyper divergent open bite patient (Buschang/English article) True mandibular rotation was significantly greater during _________ than __________; Rotation was particularly marked during the transition from _______ → _____ dentition

True mandibular rotation was significantly greater during childhood than adolescence; rotation was particularly marked during the transition from primary → early mixed dentition. (BOARD Q); Treatment should be initiated BEFORE adolescent spurt

"Multiple T/F: You can use an 8 bit monitor to display a picture taken from a camera that has 8 bits and 250 shades of grey (is this an appropriate display?). T/T T/F F/T F/F "

True, True. (correct) This is an appropriate monitor because the human eye can only see this many shades of grey. Any higher of a resolution will not be picked up by the human eye.

" Which point is associated with the occipital condyle?"

b. Bolton point " "Jacobson 2nd ed. page 49 Bolton point is the intersection of the outline of the occipital condyle and the foramen magnum at the highest point on the notch posterior to the occipital condyle."

According to the functional matrix theory, "primary growth sites" such as the condyle and sutures: "a. Cause expansion and growth b. Respond by compensating for translational forces (compensating of soft tissues) c. Are the primary genetic basis for all growth and development d. In addition to the bony skull are the major influences in growth"

b. Respond by compensating for translational forces (correct)

" Which of the following is true?" a. Height is achieved early on in development more than bredth or depth b. Depth is achieved early on in development more than bredth or height c. Bredth is achieved early on in development more than height or depth

c. Bredth is achieved early on in development more than height or depth(correct) "

A differential diagnosis for a multilocular radiolucency includes all of the following except? a. Ameloblastoma b. Central giant cell granuloma c. Cementoblastoma

c. Cementoblastoma (correct)"

Mixed dentition kid w/no signs of skeletal openbite, good posterior occlusion, no speech probs, but has tongue thrust. What do you do? a. Tongue Crib, b. Speech Pathology, c. Myofunctional therapy d. No treatment

d. No treatment

"What are some contraindications to orthodontic movement when a patient presents with a maxillary incisor that had previously had a horizontal fracture in the apical third of the root, which has now healed?" a. If it had endo performed b. If it had apicoectomy performed c. All of the above d. No worsening of prognosis of tooth

d. No worsening of prognosis of tooth (correct)"

With maxillary expansion, widening of the alar base is due to: a. Unpredictable side effect b. Encroachment of the nasal septum c. Improper reattachment of the muscles around ANS d. None of these seem right

d. None of these seem right (correct)"

" A patient with a cleft palate only is best retained with" a. An anterior bridge b. A posterior bridge c. Partial denture d. Retainer with a pontic

d. Retainer with a pontic (correct) "

cranial nerve name acronym

oh, oh,oh,to touch and feel (a) Virgin girls vagina ah heaven

BUQ: 4 ceph features of open bite

steep mand plane inc AFH supraeruption norm mand body length normal ramus ht inc distance nasal floor to root apicies of 3's and 6s dec posterior cranial base (S-N) low position of mental foramen

Herbst what is true:

steepen occlusal plane, increase mandibular corpus, decrease SNA

"Patient has fever, multiple blisters? What has erythematous gingivitis?" a. Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis b. ANUG

" a. Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis " HSV1 - initial infection generally occurs between 3-5 yrs, incubation 2-12 days. Symptoms : fever, sore throat, small vesicles develop on pharyngeal and oral mucosa, rapidly ulcerate and increase in number to involve soft palate, buccal mucosa, tongue, floor of mouth, and often lips and cheeks; tender gums may bleed; fetid breath, swollen lymph nodes in the neck

What do you suspect is happening when a patient has clicking after 30mm of opening? a. Trigeminal Neuralgia b. Anterior displaced disc c. Torn disc d. Arthritic condyle

""b. Anterior displaced disc *

In the adult Class II Div 1 malocclusion with an ANB of 8 degrees and a favorable nasolabial angle (NLA), surgery is usually performed: a. In the maxillary arch b. In the mandibular arch c. In both arches d. At pogonion

""b. In the mandibular arch *

Your pt has Cl I molar, canine occl in both arches & everything is normal. There's spacing in the anterior max segment. The problem is: a. Mandibular teeth are too large b. Maxillary teeth are too small c. Basal bone in the maxillary arch is too large d. None of the above

""b. Maxillary teeth are too small (correct)

As a result of dental prophylaxis, microorganisms around teeth enter the bloodstream. This condition is an example of: a. Pyeria b. Toxemia c. Bacteremia d. Septicemia e. Focal infection

""c. Bacteremia (correct)

" Maryland bridge, how much overbite do you need?" a. 1 mm or less b. 1-2 mm c. 2-3 mm d. 4-5 mm

"a. 1 mm or less (correct)

The key to success of serial extraction is to extract the first PM's (4's): a. Before the canines erupt b. After the canines erupt c. Never

"a. Before the canines erupt (correct) CD4

" If you tip maxillary central incisors toward each other with springs on a Hawley to close a diastema, where is the center of rotation?" a. In the apical 1/3 of the root b. In the center of the root c. In the center of the entire tooth

"a. In the apical 1/3 of the root (correct)

Lefort I osteotomy in combination with orthodontic treatment is usually used for the following maxillofacial corrections: a. Maxillary intrusion b. Widening of the palate c. Correction of facial asymmetry d. Closing an anterior open bite e. All of the above

"a. Maxillary intrusion b. Widening of the palate c. Correction of facial asymmetry d. Closing an anterior open bite e. All of the above * "

"10. The treatment of hyperdivergent (skeletal), open bite in the primary dentition is predicated on what?"

"a. The phenotype does not self-correct (correct) this is true for skeletal open bites NOT for dental

To check the periodontal condition in the posterior, which would you use? a. Vertical Bitewing b. Horizontal Bitewing c. Occlusal d. Panorex

"a. Vertical Bitewing *

Root resorption is seen more with: what tooth mvmts?

"a. intrusion & lingual ROOT torque "Article ""Predicting and preventing root resorption: Part 2"" Samishima ""Patients who underwent first premolar extraction therapy had more resorption than those patients who had no extractions or had only maxillary first premolars removed. Duration of treatment and the horizontal (but not vertical) displacement of the incisor apices were significantly associated with root resorption."" Graber, Current principles and techniques, 2000 pg 183: ""intrusion and torque are probably the most detrimental to the tooth involved."" Proffit 4th ed. pg 309: A major risk factor for severe resorption of maxillary incisor roots during orthodontic treatment is contact of the roots with the lingual cortical plate. What causes the roots to contact the lingual cortical plate? Two circumstances, primarily: torquing the upper incisors back during Class II camouflage and tipping them facially in Class III camouflage (because the roots go lingually as the crowns go facially). "

What affects the penetration to the patient the most? a. KVp b. Distance c. Intensifying screens d. Exposure time

"a. kVp "

which of the following explain correction of overjet by the Twin block EXCEPT: a. length in body of mandible increased b. most of the class II correction is dental c. the lower incisors are capped to prevent flaring and extrusion d. vertical ramus growth

"a. length in body of mandible increased (T) b. most of the class II correction is dental (F) c. the lower incisors are capped to prevent flaring and extrusion (T) d. vertical ramus growth (T)" **CHECK IF D IS TRUE**

All are reasons to extract before surgery EXCEPT: a. transverse issues b. crowding c. dental decompensation d. overjet e. excessive protrusion

"a. transverse issues (correct)

Definition of ankylosis? a. two mineralized surfaces fused together b. osteointegration

"a. two mineralized surfaces fused together (correct) "Proffit p566 ""Ankylosis of an unerupted tooth is always a potential problem. If an area of fusion to the adjacent bone develops, orthodontic movement of the unerupted tooth becomes impossible, and displacement of the anchor teeth will ccur. Occasionally, an unerupted tooth will start to move and then will become ankylosed, apparently held by only a small area of fusion. It can sometimes be freed to continue movement by anesthetizing the area and lightly uxating the tooth, breaking the area of ankylosis"""

Which type of file do you lose the most information upon compression. a. JPEG b.Lead JPEG c. TIFF d. RAW

"a.Jpeg (we think it's correct- in CDABO packet)

What is the greatest indicator of root resorption? b. Root morphology or length

"a.Previous history of root resorption (correct) NOT root morphology or root length

What bones form the Lambdoidal suture? a. 2 occipital and one parietal b. 2 parietal and one occipital c. 2 frontal and one parietal d. 2 parietal

"b. 2 parietal and 1 occipital " "The lambdoid suture (or lambdoidal suture) is a dense, fibrous connective tissue joint on the posterior aspect of the skull that connects the parietal and temporal bones with the occipital bone. Its name comes from its lambda-like shape. At birth, the bones of the skull do not meet. If the lambdoid suture closes too soon on one side, the skull will appear asymmetrical (plagiocephaly)."

How much bone lost (buccal lingual ridge reduction) in 6 yrs? a. 20% b. 30% c. 40%

"b. 30% (really 33-34%) "ABO Breakdown pg 17: Max B-L ridge reduction after extraction: 23% in 6 mo 33-34% in 5 yrs ABO article #85d (p50) Also on article #85d (p53) Kokich states that in the Mandibulular arch congenitally missing a lower 2nd premolar...""If the primary molar is extracted, the ridge thickness will decrease by about 30%."""

BUQ: Downs anaylsis use as reference plane: a. S-N b. FH c. N-Ba

"b. FH" Downs + Rickets = FH SteiNer = SN

What is a diagnostic tool to distinguish between skeletal, sexual and PVH maturity? a. plaster models b. hand/wrist film c. PA ceph d. Photographs

"b. Hand wrist films"

The ideal smile arc: a. Is a flat symmetrical smile b. Has the maxillary incisal edge curvature parallel to the curvature of the lower lip upon smile c. Is also called nonconsonant smile d. Is defined with a spontaneous smile

"b. Has the maxillary incisal edge curvature parallel to the curvature of the lower lip upon smile (correct) " ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 99

" Where is the articular tubercle located relative to the sigmoid notch?" a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Middle

"b. posterior " Netter's

Which is NOT seen in cleidocranial dysplasia? a. delayed eruption b. premature eruption c. supernumerary teeth d. wormian bones

"b. premature eruption"

" What are the best ways to determine a person's growth potential?" a. Serial cephs, family history, dental age b. Serial cephs, hand-wrist film, chronological age c. Serial cephs, family history, hand-wrist film d. Family history, chronological age, dental age

"c. Serial cephs, family history, hand-wrist film (correct)

The radiopaque line that passes obliquely through the orbits on a posterioanterior ceph is which bone? a. Temporal b. Ethmoid c. Sphenoid d. Parietal

"c. Sphenoid (greater wing of sphenoid) The Greater Wing of the Sphenoid passes obliquely across the lateral portion of the orbit. If the temporal bond does the same I don't see it. THE ANSWER IS SPHENOID (Greater Wing, specifically)

A positive tuberculin means the person was previously exposed to TB. Positive result does not indicate the level of current activity. A) First statement is true, second false B) First statement false, second true C) Both True D) Both False

"c. both T " http://www.webmd.com/a-to-z-guides/tuberculin-skin-tests

CBCT is good for most hard tissues and some soft tissues. CBCT is less expensive and less radiation than CT. a. First statement is true, second false b. First statement false, second true. c. Both true d. Both false

"c. both true " Jacobsen text p. 236

If angle of convexity is normally zero & you measure -5, what type of malocclusion is it? (N-A-Pg) a. Class I b. Class II div I c. Class II div 2 d. Class III

"d. Class 3 (correct) " "Positve Angle of convexity indicates a convex profile (Cl II) Negative angle of convexity indicates a concave profile (Cl III) See Downs analysis"

**** Which of the following is a midline point on a lateral ceph: a. Opisthion b. Point A c. Menton d. Orbitale e. Porion

Buschang = supradentale "a. Opisthion (correct) - might just be the posterior Midsagittal point?? b. Point A (correct) c. Menton d. Orbitale e. Porion" " A Point correct because it's directly from the Jacobson definition of A Point. Other midline points on lat ceph (incomplete): A point ANS B Point Cervical Point Glabella Gnathion Opisthion A unilateral (non mid sagittal) point would be: Incison Inferious (incisor tip)"

Herbst and Mara have what effects? →

Can help open the bite ( true - Aras)

What is the result of doing a VY closure for surgery?

Increased vermillion show and lengthen the philtrum

When restoring peg laterals, 1) create more space than needed. 2) Close space after restoration is complete 3) restore it as soon as space is available

Kokich article reference

Digital radiographs produce 256 shades of gray. Human eye can only see 16 shades of gray. T/T T/F F/T F/F

True, True. (correct) (if 8 bit only) 16^2 = 256 "Gray scale resolution is how many shades of gray are in the image; also known as contrast or bit depth. The imaging system is capable of capturing and separating literally thousands of shades of gray Contrast is expressed in bits. A 1-bit image has only 2 shades (pure black and white—the darkest and lightest shades of gray in the imaging scale) and is expressed as ""I to the power of 1."" A 2-bit image is expressed as ""1 to the power of 2,"" or 1 × 2 = 2 × 2 = 4 shades of gray. A 3-bit image has 8 shades of gray, or 1 × 2 = 2 × 2 = 4 × 2 = 8. A 4-bit image has 16 shades of gray, and so on. In an 8-bit image, there are 256 shades of gray and this is the standard. However, systems capable of up to 12 bits or 4098 shades of gray presently exist. The more bits in the image, the greater are the storage needs for the images. The human eye of the person in the street can commonly separate 16 shades of gray, a photographer or radiologist can separate about 25 shades of gray, and under laboratory conditions the maximum for the unaided eye to separate is somewhere around 64 shades of gray. The image itself usually does not occupy the entire gray scale as can be seen by viewing the histogram. The image may be confined to about 30 shades of gray. For best results it is desirable to have a system capable of at least 256 shades of gray. This way there is space on the scale to lighten or darken the image (histogram shift) or spread the shades of gray over a bigger part of the scale (histogram stretch). Remember, 8 bits or 256 shades of gray represents the limit of most monitors. (Langlais, Robert. Exercises in Oral Radiology and Interpretation, 4th Edition. W.B. Saunders Company, 122003. p. 68). This means that the detector can theoretically capture 256 (28) to 65,536 (216) different densities. In practice the actual number of meaningful densities that can be captured is limited by inaccuracies in image acquisition; these inaccuracies are given the generic term of noise. Regardless of the number of density differences that a detector can capture, conventional computer monitors are capable of displaying a gray scale of only 8 bits. Because operating systems such as Windows reserve a number of gray levels for the display of system information, the actual number of gray levels that can be displayed on a monitor is 242. A more important limiting factor is the human visual system, which is capable of distinguishing only about 60 gray levels at any time under ideal viewing conditions. (White, Stuart C.. Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation, 5th Edition. Mosby, 122003. p. 232). Jacobson text (2nd edition), p54 ""computers use brightness values of varying numbers of bits. for example, in an 8 bit system each pixel has a range of 256 (2 to the 8th) values of grey. 0 being the darkest black and 255 being the whitest white...human eye can detect detail 0.1mm x 0.1mm"" "

An arrow points to calcified styloid process on dry skull or radiograph. What syndrome is associated with this?

a. Eagle Syndrome Eagle syndrome is a pain syndrome resulting from calcification of the stylohyoid ligament: pain upon yawning or turning head due to nerve impingement

Which of the following affects both maxilla and mandible and occurs due to a disturbance in the first trimester: a. Hemifacial microsomia b. Mandibulofacial Dysostosis aka Treacher Collins c. Crouzon's

b. Mandibulofacial Dysostosis aka Treacher Collins

Adjunctive orthodontic treatment is a: a. Treatment with a complete fixed appliance for no more that 6 months. b. Tooth movement carried out to facilitate other dental procedures. c. Treatment with a removable orthodontic appliance. d. Treatment that must be carried out by an orthodontist but requires a careful coordination with other dental specialties.

b. Tooth movement carried out to facilitate other dental procedures.**

Specificity is: a. The percent of persons without the disease b. True negatives/ patients without the disease

b. True negatives/ patients without the disease * " Specificity is the probability of a negative new test result when there is no disease truly present.

Pt with open bite, can open 27mm, deviates left upon opening a. anterior disc displacement with reduction b. anterior disc displacement without reduction c. posterior disc displacement d. none of the above

b. internal disc derrangement without reduction (on left side) "-ADD without reduction (closed lock) = disc is displaced anteriorly at all times; usually no sound produced and limited mouth opening (23mm) - ADD with reduction = disc slides into and out of its normal position as jaw opens and closes; pop/click sound is produced after 30mm of opening "

The parts of the sphenoid bone include all of these EXCEPT: "a. Anterior clinoid process b. Dorsum Sellae c. Cribriform plate d. Hypophyseal fossa

c. Cribriform plate (correct) the cribiform plate is an ethmoid structure

The American heart association currently recommends antibiotic prophylaxis in cardiac patients: a. In all orthodontic procedures b. In patients undergoing simple orthodontic procedures c. In patients undergoing extensive orthodontic procedures d. None of the above

c. In patients undergoing extensive orthodontic procedures (correct)

Excessive wear of the incisal edge of a lower left cuspid indicates: a. Interference on the left side b. Incisal interference c. Interference on the right side d. All of the above

c. Interference on the right side (correct) balancing interference on the OPPOSITE SIDE I suppose that if there is an interference on the right side then, the right canine would not be as worn as on the left, but I would also assume that if there was an interference on the right side, that would prevent the left canine from being in occlusion as well???

Which of the following statements about orthodontic mechanotherapy in adult patients is false: a. Intrusion is often required in leveling. b. Forces must be kept very light. c. Orthodontic space closure is often contraindicated. d. Successful camouflage of jaw discrepancies requires very careful planning

c. Orthodontic space closure is often contraindicated. (correct)

?? The most effective time to surgically close a cleft palate is: a. 6 months after birth b. at birth c. one year after birth d. two years after birth

c. one year after birth (SE: could be C or D according to profits) Definitive lip repair is typically achieved by the time the infant is 3 to 6 months old. Repair of the palate is typically delayed until 1 to 2 years of age.The timing of palatal repair takes into consideration the developing speech and language skills of the child against the scarring effects of early repair, and the effect these may have on the development of the nasomaxillary complex

All the following statements regarding excessive mobility of a tooth in ortho mov't are true, except a. It could be due to the use of heavy forces. b. It could be due to traumatic occlusion c. It is self-correcting when the cause is eliminated d. It is an expected response to most orthodontic treatments.

d. It is an expected response to most orthodontic treatments. (correct)"

Properties of an ideal wire material for orthodontic purposes include all of the following EXCEPT: a. High strength b. Low stiffness c. High formability d. Low range

d. Low range (correct) " "Proffit 4th ed pg 361 The properties of an ideal wire material for orthodontic purposes can be described largely in terms of these criteria: it should possess (1) high strength, (2) low stiffness (in most applications), (3) high range, and (4) high formability "

Which of the following is most likely to create a consonant smile arc? a. Overemphasized canine guidance b. Maxillary incisor intrusion to open the bite c. Mandibular incisors brackets placed too gingival d. Maxillary incisors brackets placed more gingival in an open bite patient.

d. Maxillary incisors brackets placed more gingival in an open bite patient. (correct)" ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 100-101

In the surgical treatment of Class II open bite via bilateral posterior maxillary intrusion procedure, relapse is minimized by: a. Widening of the palate (midsagittal split) b. Overcorrection of the freed segments during surgery c. Skeletal wire fixation through the buttresses d. Passive repositioning of the segments during surgery

d. Passive repositioning of the segments during surgery * "

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Decrease in cell # is called _____.

hypoplasia

BUQ: where is bolton point?

sup portion of the retrocondylar fossa bolton point is associated with the occipital condyles

Clark's twin block is mostly dental correction True False

true "Article ""Treatment timing for Twin-block therapy,"" Baccetti • Greater skeletal (than dental) contribution to correction of molar relation and overjet (occurs via increased mandibular length and ramus height and more posterior direction of condylar growth). Skeletal is 55%-61% while dental is 39-45%) Article ""A cephalometric comparison of treatment with the Twin-block and stainless steel crown Herbst,"" Schaffer - Twin block slightly more efficient than Herbst in correcting: 1. molar relationship 2. sagittal maxillomandibular skeletal differential 3. greater elongation of mand ramus "

Hyperdivergent phenotype --> what is best to treat hyperdiv phenotype early according to buschang?

vertical pull chin cup

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: According to Behrents, when does facial growth cease?

well into the 40's

Canine impactions

"- 1-2% incidence of max impacted canines - 8% bilateral - 2/3 are palatal - 1/3 are facial - 2x more common in females" Bishara "Impacted maxillary canines: A review"

" Origin and insertion of anterior Digastrics " origin anterior digastric

"-Origin of ant. digatric-close to the lingual symphysis (on mandible) -Origin of pos. diagatric- medial surface of the mastoid process of the temporal bone and a deep groove between the mastoid process and the styloid process called the digastric groove. Inertion: Both muscles insert into the intermediate tendon of the hyoid bone " Wikipedia

"Gorelick fluorosis Multiple T/F: Gorlick states that significant decalcification occurs in 50% of of orthodontic patients. These patients should avoid large amounts of flouride to allow the enamel to remineralize. "

"First statement: true Second statement: true" "If you administer fluoride throughout treatment such as theres continuous remineralization of surface enamel the white spot lesion will never penetrate deeper than the surface but if the lesion has already penetrated deeper than .5 mm, you will mineralize the surface layer which will prevent the remineralization of the deeper level so you'll still have the white spot lesion, if you use MI paste you can mineralize the deeper surface and work outward. 50% of patients develop white spots (true) - these patient should avoid high amounts of fluoride (after debonding true) (during treatment - false depending on the timing) Does putting fluoride on immediately after treatment helps (NO) - it helps during but not after Highest incidence of white spots was maxillary lateral incisors Half of the pts developed white spots. However, this number reduced if they used Fl tx regularly while bands/bonds were on. However, if you placed Fl once immediately after debonding or debanding it did not help. Avoid Fl initially after debonding. - This is straight from Gorelick's article. All his articles can be found in AJO."

Tall cusps

"Generally, tall cusps and deep fossae promote a predominantly vertical chewing stroke, whereas flattened or worn teeth encourage a broader chewing stroke. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 48). Okeson Summary on Z drive I. Angle of eminence vs. occlusal plane A. steeper the eminence—the longer the post. tooth cusps may be. B. flatter eminence—shorter the post. tooth cusps must be. II. Curve of spee A. flatter curve of spee—the longer the post. cusps may be B. steeper curve of spee—the shorter the post. cusps must be III. Vertical overlap of anterior teeth A. the greater the vertical overlap—the longer the post. cusps may be. B. the lesser the vert. overlap—the shorter the post. cusps must be. IV. Functional horizontal overlap of anterior teeth A. when functional horizontal overlap is 0-.5 mm—the post. cusps may be long. B. when functional horizontal overlap is greater than .5 mm—the post. cusps must be short. TABLE 6 - 1 VERTICAL DETERMINANTS OF OCCLUSAL MORPHOLOGY (CUSP HEIGHT AND FOSSA DEPTH) (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 145). TABLE 6 - 2 HORIZONTAL DETERMINANTS OF OCCLUSAL MORPHOLOGY (RIDGE AND GROOVE DIRECTION) (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 145). "

Factors that contribute to optimal detail sharpness include: a. A small focal spot area b. Increase kilovoltage c. A long focal-spot film distance d. A short object film distance i. a and b ii. a and c iii. a and d iv. c and d v. a,c and d

"a & d correct a. a small focal spot area d. a SHORT object film distance" sharpness = FSS (focal spot) * OID (object to film distance)/SOD (source to object distance) you want SMALL FSS & OID LARGE SOD to get a sharp image https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BxHmsb1Gnyg

Sutural growth, endochondral and intramembranous growth are all seen in a) the neurocranium and the midface b) the neurocranium only c) the neurocranium, the midface and the mandible

"a) the neurocranium and the midface (correct) "Neurocranium = chondrocranium (cranial base) + membranous neurocranium (calvaria/cranial vault); grows by all 3 methods The maxilla only grows by intramembranous (and possibly sutural), but the midface includes other structures (it's basically the opposite side of the cranial base from the cranial vault) therefore the midface also grows by all three methods Sutural growth in the mandible (though there is a suture) is virtually non-existent Board breakdown states :Neurocranium + midface: all three types of growth occur: sutural, endochondral and appositional.(Pg.15)"

" What is the normal intermolar width for adolescents?"

"a. 33-35mm (correct) b. 36-39 c. 39-42 d. none

Acromegaly is caused by a disturbance in the a. Anterior pituitary gland b. Posterior pituitary gland c. Hypothalamus

"a. Anterior pituitary gland * "

" What are possible reasons for a patient to have a Class I occlusion on one side and a Class II on the other?" a. Arch asymmetry b. Skeletal asymmetry c. Midline discrepancy d. All of the above

"a. Arch asymmetry b. Skeletal asymmetry c. Midline discrepancy d. All of the above (correct) "

Which part of the maxilla does growth increase the arch length? "a. Condyle b. Tuberosity c. Alveolus"

"a. Condyle b. Tuberosity (correct) c. Alveolus"

" In a growing child if you increase the loading forces of mandible, does this cause:" "a. Increase haversian turnover b. decrease haversian turnover c. no effect "

"a. Increase haversian turnover (correct) "

Surgery Sequence a. Maxillary Lefort, Fix the Maxilla, Mandibular BSSO, Fix the maxilla to mandible, Fix the mandible b. Lefort, fixate Lefort, BSSO, fixate BSSO, fix arches together

"a. Maxillary Lefort, Fix the Maxilla, Mandibular BSSO, Fix the maxilla to mandible, Fix the mandible (correct) "

Which of the following is the LEAST desirable treatment option to decrease the gingival display in a gummy smile patient with a consonant smile arc? a. Maxillary incisor intrusion b. Orthognatic surgery c. Functional appliance d. Mandibular incisor extrusion

"a. Maxillary incisor intrusion (correct) " "ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 101 Consonant smile arc = parallel to the curvature of the lower lip upon smile Pg 99 - ""The smile arc should be defined as the relationship of the curvature of the incisal edges of the maxillary incisors and canines to the curvature of the lower lip in the posed smile. The ideal smile arc has the maxillary incisal edge curvature parallel to the curvature of the lower lip upon smile; the term consonant is used to describe this parallel relationship."""

What happens to A point during an RME? a. Moves forward b. Moves downward c. Moves backward d. Moves upward e. Doesn't move

"a. Moves forward (correct) b. Moves downward (correct)

" The portal of entry to the bloodstream of bacteria in Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is:" a. Mucosal of gingival bleeding b. Salivary glands c. Lymphatics d. a and c e. a, b, and c

"a. Mucosal of gingival bleeding (correct)

Which system is the first formed in the embryo? a. Muscular b. Vascular c. Neural d. Lymph

"a. Muscular b. Vascular c. Neural (correct) d. Lymph"

What can cause myofacial pain? a. Myocardial infarction b. Parotitis c. Myositis d. All of the above

"a. Myocardial infarction b. Parotitis c. Myositis d. All of the above *"

" Cranial vault increases rapidly in size the first few yrs postnatal & completes approx 90% of its growth by age 6. Tissue growth is:" "a. Neural b. Dental c. Genital d. Lymphoid e. Somatic

"a. Neural

Which sutures get split with an RME? a. Palatal b. Circummaxillary c. Circumzygomatic d. All of the above What suture is NOT affected RME?

"a. Palatal b. Circummaxillary c. Circumzygomatic d. All of the above (correct)" **Suture that is NOT affected RME? Pre-maxillary**

Syndromes associated with clefts include: a. Pierre Robins b. Treacher Collins c. Crouzon's d. Aperts e. All the above

"a. Pierre Robins b. Treacher Collins c. Crouzon's d. Aperts e. All the above *"

A patient has lost a mandibular first molar, the second molar is tipped mesially, and you want to upright the second molar. Which should be evaluated in your decision whether to extract the third molar? a. Presence of maxillary third molar on that side b. Pontic space needed c. Distance of the mandibular third molar to the ramus d. All of the above

"a. Presence of maxillary third molar on that side b. Pontic space needed c. Distance of the mandibular third molar to the ramus d. All of the above (correct)"

" The normal downward and forward direction of facial growth results from:" "a. Upward and backward growth of the maxillary sutures and the mandibular condyle b. Vertical eruption and mesial drift of the dentition c. Interstitial growth in the maxilla and mandible d. Epithelial induction at the growth centers i. a and b ii. a and c iii. a and d iv. b and c v. b and d "

"a. Upward and backward growth of the maxillary sutures and the mandibular condyle b. Vertical eruption and mesial drift of the dentition

Cepalometric analysis is: a. Used as an aid in the total diagnosis of an orthodontic case b. Used for longitudinal growth studies c. Used for orthodontic treatment planning d. Used for evaluating results of therapy e. All of the above

"a. Used as an aid in the total diagnosis of an orthodontic case b. Used for longitudinal growth studies c. Used for orthodontic treatment planning d. Used for evaluating results of therapy e. All of the above (correct) "

Diode laser works by: a. ablation b. protein degeneration c. Heat

"a. ablation (correct) " """The laser cuts the tissue through ablation, where the energy is absorbed in the cells and is immediately subjected to heating, welding, coagulation, protein denaturization, drying vaporization, and carbonization. (Mosby's and AJODO 2005 Sarver - Soft tissue laser tecnology and cosmetic gingival contouring."" If you have to pick one - pick ablation but all of them could be correct Profit Pg 316 - ""[Diode laser] in comparison to the CO2 or erbium-YAG lasers also used now in dentistry, has two primary advantages: (1) it does not cut hard tissue, so that there is no risk of damage to the teeth or alveolar bone if it is used for gingival contouring, and (2) it creates a ""biologic dressing"" because it coagulates, sterilizes and seals the soft tissue as it is used. There is no bleeding, no other dressing is required, and there is no waiting for a healing period http://www.dentistryiq.com/index/display/article-display/177451/articles/woman-dentist-journal/volume-1/issue-3/science/emerging-applications-for-the-soft-tissue-diode-laser.html Interaction of the laser with tissue is a photo-thermal event, in which light is transformed into heat. When the laser beam penetrates tissue and is absorbed, a designated amount of energy is removed per unit of time, with a resultant temperature rise. Coagulation begins at over 50°C, with protein denaturation at 60°C. At temperatures 100°C to 200°C, vaporization of water occurs. (Note: Water is the chief component of soft tissue.) Laser surgery is achieved by the process of ablation, removing this tissue by converting it to a gaseous state or plume.8 The plume is considered to be a biohazard and should be removed with high-volume evacuation AJODO 2008, Kravitz, ""Soft-tissue lasers in orthodontics: An overview"" ""Lasers cut by thermal ablation—decomposition of tissue through an instantaneous process of absorption, melting, and vaporization.1 Essentially, the cells of the target tissue absorb the concentrated light energy, rapidly rise in temperature, and produce a micro-explosion known as spallation.1 Thermal ablation depends on the amount of light energy absorbed.4 The degree of absorption is determined by the wavelength (, measured in nanometers [nm]) of the laser, the electrical power of the surgical unit (measured in watts [W]), the time of exposure, and the composition of the tissues."""

What should you do to decrease the contrast? a. Increase the kVp b. Decrease the kVp c. Increase the mA d. Decrease the mA

"a. inc the kvp *KVP IS THE ONLY ONE TO AFFECT CONTRAST (MAS DOES NOT). KVP HAS AN INVERSE RELATIONSHIP TO CONTRAST

"3. What measurements gives evidence of rotation of mandible?" "a.Angle of condyle b.Length of condylar head c.Mandibular canal curvature d.All of the above

"a.Angle of condyle b.Length of condylar head c.Mandibular canal curvature d.All of the above (correct)" See above article #54: The seven signs are related to the following features: (1) inclination of the condylar head, (2) curvature of the mandibular canal, (3) shape of the lower border of the mandible, (4) inclination of the symphysis, (5) interincisal angle, (6) intcrprcmolar or intermolar angles, and (7) anterior lower face height.

At what age can you start to superimpose on S-N? a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11

"b. 7" bc Spheno-ethmoidal stable after 7

The tongue reaches is maximum size at age? a.5 b.8 c.11

"b. 8 " Wolford article

The radiopaque line that passes obliquely through the orbits on a posterioanterior ceph is which bone? a. Ethmoid b. Sphenoid c. Temporal d. Parietal

"b. sphenoid bone" Greater wing of the Sphenoid passses obliquely through the orbit of a PA Ceph

Incidence usually indicates what?

"iNcedence a. How many New cases of a disease are occurring relative to the whole population *"

Know which artery goes into the pterygomaxillary fissure: a. Accessory meningeal artery b. Sphenopalatine artery c. Lingual artery d. Infraorbital artery

"maxillary sphenopalatine artery - branch of MAXILLARY ARTERY(correct)" Wikipedia The sphenopalatine artery is a branch of the maxillary artery which passes through the sphenopalatine foramen into the cavity of the nose, at the back part of the superior meatus. Here it gives off its posterior lateral nasal branches. Crossing the under surface of the sphenoid, the sphenopalatine artery ends on the nasal septum as the posterior septal branches. Here it will anastomose with the branches of the greater palatine artery."

Primary failure of eruption is seen more frequently in the anterior region. When orthodontic forces are applied, ankylosis often occurs with such teeth when extrusive force is placed on them T/T T/F F/T F/F

"multiple T/F 1st statement is FALSE 2nd statement is TRUE" "Profitt 4th Edition pg. 461 Fig 12-47 caption: ""Primary failure of eruption is characterized by a posterior open bite due to failure of some or all posterior permanent teeth to erupt even though their eruption path has been cleared. It can involve any or all posterior quadrants."" Profitt 4th Edition pg.457: ""The affected teeth are not ankylosed, but do not erupt and do not respond normally to orthodontic force. If tooth movement is attempted, usually the teeth will ankylose after 1- 1.5 mm of movement in any direction."""

When swallowing, the amount of force applied when the teeth are in contact is:"

50grams " Okeson says 66.5 lbs (5th ed, p.51)

A good measure of the severity of a malocclusion is the AB line to a. Occlusal plane b. Mandibular plane c. Frankfort horizontal d. Facial plane (N-Pg)

?? other docs say a. occlusal plane is right d. Facial plane (N-Pg) (Correct) " "Answer key says Occl plane. However, there do not seem so be any analysis that measure A-B to occl plane. Wits does AO to BO Downs analysis uses A-B to Facial plane, so that seems to be the only thing that is measured against A-B."

Which is not an esthetic line? E-line S-line I-line Z-line

I-line (correct) "Ricketts E Line - Line drawn from the tip of the nose to the soft tissue pogonion Holdaway's H Line - Line tangent to the upper lip from the soft tissue pogonion Burstone's B Line - A Line joining the soft tissue subnasale as the upper point and skin pogonion as the lower point Steiner's S1 Line - Line drawn from the center of the S - shaped curve between the tip of the nose and the skin subnasale to the soft tissue pogonion Sushner's S2 Line - Line drawn from the soft tissue nasion to the skin pogonion

Latency period needed after SARPE. Latency period forms callus. T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/T "Article ""Surgically assisted rapid palatal expansion:A literature review,"" Suri: ""The surgical corticotomy and the initial appliance activation intraoperatively are followed by a period of rest before starting expansion of the appliance This rest period is called the latency period.This gives the tissues time to form a callus but is too short to allow for consolidation. Callus distraction has been reported to create a regenerate that readily ossifies and stabilizes and thus provides increased stability. Most authors agree that the latency period is essential, but slight variations in its exact duration were seen in the literature"" - latency period time ranged 5-7 days "

" Which cusp of the mandibular right second molar moves through the buccal cusps of the maxillary right second molar when a person moves from right lateral excursion to centric occlusion?" a. Mesobuccal b. Distobuccal c. Mesolingual d. Distolingual

b. Distobuccal (correct)

Myofacial Pain dysfunction syndrome has at its base etiologies of: 3

b. Occlusion, physiological factors and trauma * a. Anatomy and occlusion b. Occlusion, physiological factors and trauma c. Malocclusion and structure d. None of the above

What does not improve load deflection rate? a. Increase wire diameter b. Increase modulus of elasticity c. Increase interbracket span

c. Increase interbracket span

The temporal bone on a PA ceph appears as a line on? a. Superior 1/3 of the orbit b. Middle 1/3 of the orbit c. Inferior 1/3 of the orbit d. None of the above

c. Inferior 1/3 of the orbit (correct) The Petrous portion of the temporal bone is superimposed in on the lower 1/3 of the orbit on a PA ceph

CT has better resolution than CBCT. CBCT is faster, less exposure, less time. a. First statement is true, second false b. First statement false, second true. c. Both true d. Both false

c. T/T

The growth of the lower face (Facial growth) occurs most parallel to: a. The neural growth curve b. The lymphoid growth curve c. The general growth/somatic curve d. All of the above e. None of the above

c. The general growth/somatic curve

What is the most reasonable explanation when the mandible appears smaller on a successive cephalometric radiograph? a. The first one is wrong b. The patient didn't grow c. The patient's head was tilted

c. The patient's head was tilted per Aras

Most common source of error on a ceph a. Source-film distance b. Patient-film distance c. Vertical position of the head

c. Vertical position of the head (correct) " The machine should be calibrated so that a. and b. remain consistent

Tartar control toothpaste controls 50% of tartar build-up. b/c it contains pyrophosphate.(Triclosan antibacterial) a. First statement is true, second is false b. First statement is false, second is true c. Both false d. Both true

d. Both true (correct)"

A- It's better for pt to have rhinoplasty & orthognathic surgery in same procedure. B- Simultaneous max surgery & rhinoplasty can easily be accomplished. a. A- 1st statement is correct, 2nd statement false. b. B- 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is correct. c. C- Both statements are correct. d. D- Both statements are false.

d. D- Both statements are false.*** " (P693)

When considering the option whether to band or bond the permanent molars, which of the following statements is true? a. The gingival attachments are severely damaged by judicious banding b. The plaque index in banded permanent second molars is the same as bonded second molars c. Bonded second permanent molars exhibit the same gingival reactions as banded permanent second molars d. In the long run there is no difference in the gingival health of banded or bonded permanent second molars

d. In the long run there is no difference in the gingival health of banded or bonded permanent second molars (correct)"

dsf

fads

" What does the upper second premolar occlude with in a Class III?" a. Mandibular second premolar and first molar b. Mandibular first molar only c. Mandibular first and second molar d. Mandibular second molar only

" "b. Mandibular first molar only (correct)

Under normal conditions, the presence of mamelons in a 14 YO patient is indicative of: a. Fluorosis b. Malnutrition c. Malformation d. Malocclusion e. Enamel composition

" "d. Malocclusion (correct)

Treacher-Collins pt would be expected to have all of the following EXCEPT: a. ANB of greater than 5 b. Downward slanting eyes c. Missing zygomatic arch d. Md hyperplasia e. Hearing impairment

" "d. Md hyperplasia (correct)

"During the finishing stages of orthodontics, your patient has a CR to CO slide of 2mm into a good Cl I relationship, what is the appropriate treatment? How do you finish with 2mm CR-CO discrepancy?" a. Equilibrate the mandibular distal inclines and the maxillary mesial midlines b. Cl II elastics c. Cl III elastics d. Functional appliance

" a. Equilibrate the mandibular distal inclines and the maxillary mesial midlines (this is correct if minimal shift) MXM/MDD b. Cl II elastics (this is correct if over 2mm) " """The shorter the slide, the more likely it is that selective grinding can be accomplished within the confines of the enamel. Normally an anterior slide of less than 2 mm can be successfully eliminated by a selective-grinding procedure. The direction of the slide in the sagittal plane can also influence the success or failure of selective grinding. Both the horizontal and the vertical components of the slide should be examined. Generally, when the slide has a great horizontal component, it is more difficult to eliminate within the confines of the enamel (Fig. 19-2). If it is almost parallel with the arc of closure (i.e., large vertical component), eliminating it is usually easier. Therefore both the distance and the direction of the slide are helpful in predicting the outcome of selective grinding."" (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 591). "

Early treatment of hyperdivergent (meaning skeletal), open bite in the primary dentition, b/c the phenotype will not self correct"

"a. (T/T)" the 1st would be false if it was a dental open bite should be trt early bc 80% self correct in mixed dentition

If there is no correlation between two sets of data, what is the coefficient of correlation? a. 0 b. 1 c. 10 d. 100

"a. 0 (correct)

What amount of overbite is necessary for a bonded bridge? a. 0.5mm b. 1-2 mm c. 2-3 mm d. 3-4 mm

"a. 0.5mm (correct) " ABO Breakdown: minimal OB 0.5-0.75mm (just enough to disclude posterior teeth in protrusion)

" What causes a problem in a cleft patients' speech?" a. An inability to build up intraoral pressure b. A large tongue c. A narrow mandible d. All of the above

"a. An inability to build up intraoral pressure (correct)

Which of the below are possible arch forms? a. Bonwill-Hawley b. Catenary c. Bradey Trifocal d. All of the above

"a. Bonwill-Hawley - based on a mathematical model b. Catenary - based on a pendulum swinging from two points c. Bradey Trifocal - based on trifocal ellipse d. All of the above (correct)"

** In patients with tight anterior occlusion, when late mandibular growth occurs the contact relationship of the incisors may cause: "a. Distal displacement of the mandible b. Flaring of the maxillary incisors c. Crowding of the mandibular incisors d. Marked mesial movement of the maxillary incisors i. a, b and c ii. b, c and d iii. a, b and d "

"a. Distal displacement of the mandible b. Flaring of the maxillary incisors c. Crowding of the mandibular incisors i. a, b and c

How does the nonworking condyle move? a. Downward forward, and medially b. Downward, backward, and medially c. Downward, forward, and laterally d. Downward, backward, and laterally

"a. Downward forward, and medially * "

" Cleft palate develops:" a. During the first trimester of pregnancy b. During the second trimester of pregnancy c. During the third trimester of pregnancy d. At birth

"a. During the first trimester of pregnancy (correct) "

What would you want PREsurgically if a patient were to have a mandibular advancement only? a. Maximum retraction of the lower incisors b. Maximum retraction of the upper incisors

"a. Maximum retraction of the lower incisors *

Fibrous dysplasia displays what type of appearance (buzz word)?

"a. Orange peel or ground glass appearance"

Where are adrenocorticosteroids produced? "a. Thalamus b. Pituitary c. Thyroid d. Adrenal gland

"a. Thalamus b. Pituitary c. Thyroid d. Adrenal gland (correct)"

Tooth with the most root resorption

"a. Upper laterals " 213123 U2*>U1>U3>L1>L2>L3

Type of resorption associated with autotransplantation: a. external resorption b. internal resorption

"a. external resorption (correct) " "Panos exaggerate root resorption by up to 20% so PAs are preferred. The worst area of a pan. Most accurate location of a pan is the mx anterior. Both of these are caused Resorption and ankylosis are seen so it is likely external resorption."

" Which bone is purely intramembranous?" "a. parietal and frontal b. ethmoid c. temporal

"a. parietal and frontal (correct) " "Intramembranous- Frontal, Parietal, Nasal, Lacrimal, Zygomatic, Vomer, Palantine, Maxilla Purely Endochondral- Incus, Stapes, Ethmoid, Inferior Concha, Hyoid Mixed- Maleus, Temporal, Spenoid, Mandible, Occipital" Intramembranous § Frontal, Maxilla, Parietal, Palatine, Lacrimal, Zygomatic, Nasal, Vomer o Purely endochondral- mnemonics: HE IS In "endo" § Hyoid, Ethmoid, Incus, Stapes, Inferior concha o Mixed - mnemonics: Ma MOST "mix" § Malleus, Mandible, Occipital, Sphenoid, Temporal

Arthritic changes-

"a. synovial fluid"

Which of the following has endochondrial, intramembranous, sutural and apposition/resorption? "a.midface b.mandible c.neurocranium

"a.midface (correct) c.neurocranium (correct)" A and C are correct

" What are the chances that a child will inherit the trait if an autosomal dominant individual and a non-carrier have a child?" a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

"b. 50% "

What can be used as a substitute to locate porion: a. Internal meatus b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Ear rod d. Frankfort Horizontal

"c. ear rod

Looking at a hand-wrist XR determine how much growth still remains. once u see sesamoid ossification how much % growth STILL REMAINING a. 50% b. 60-70% c. 90% d. 0%

60-70% growth remaining

What is the name of the intersection between the Bolton-nasion line and a perpendicular from sella? a. Witz registration point b. Broadbent registration point c. Jarabak registration point d. Holdaway registration point

b. Broadbent registration point (correct) used in Downs analysis for SI

What is limit of RPE? a. Zygoma b. Coronoid process of mandible c. Lateral ptyregoid plate

b. Coronoid process **CONFIRMED BY ARAS + SALAMAN** Salaman said - "RPE- Zygomatic buttress (resistance) over coronoid (limit) "Article ""Surgically assisted rapid palatal expansion:A literature review,"" Suri ""The areas of resistance have been classified as anterior support (piriform aperture pillars), lateral support (zygomatic buttresses), posterior support (pterygoid junctions), and median support (midpalatal synostosed suture)"" "

What statistical find analysis would you use to find the relation between brushing and gum disease? a. Regression analysis b. Correlation analysis c. T-test d. Chi-square test

b. Correlation analysis * Correlation bw 2 variable (degree if linear relationship bw 2 variables)--> u brush, then u don't get cavities

" What is parallel forces in opposite directions?" a. Moment b. Couple c. Rotation

b. Couple (correct)

Major cause of Cl I crowding is NOT early loss of dental material in primary dentition because: a. Forces of occlusion prevent any spontaneous space closure. b. Decrease in primary teeth loss due to fluoridation in the US had little or no impact on the prevalence of malocclusions. c. Use of a space maintainer often does not prevent eventual crowding in the permanent dentition. d. None of the above

b. Decrease in primary teeth loss due to fluoridation in the US had little or no impact on the prevalence of malocclusions. (correct)

As a cause of root resorption: a. Type of treatment is most important b. Duration of treatment is more important than type c. Can be prevented with straight wire appliances d. None of the above

b. Duration of treatment is more important than type *

When are the growth peaks? "a. First two years of life b. Early infancy and adolescence c. Early Childhood"

b. Early infancy and adolescence

Most anomalies occur in which period a. Pre-embryonic (<5 weeks) b. Embryonic (5-10 weeks) c. Fetal (>10 weeks) d. Neonatal

b. Embryonic (5-10 weeks)

"Muliple T/F: A preadjusted appliance almost always guarantees a good fit of occlusion but you almost always need to bend the wire to finish properly." a. First statement true, second false b. First statement false, second true c. Both True d. Both False

b. First statement false, (BC it says GUARANTEES) second statement true A preadjusted appliance almost always guarantees a good fit of occlusion but you almost always need to bend the wire to finish properly."

If you find internal resorption, what is your treatment? a. Watch and wait b. Immediate RCT c. Extract d. Stop all orthodontic treatment

b. Immediate RCT *

A tooth with trauma and a necrotic pulp should have what done prior to ortho treatment? a. Nothing b. Root canal therapy (correct) c. Extraction d. None of the above

b. Root canal therapy (correct)

" How does fluoride prevent dental caries?" a. Increases remineralization of enamel b. Increase hardness of enamel c. Decreases solubility of enamel

c. Decreases solubility of enamel (correct) "

" If a person has steep premolar cusps, then the orthodontist should finish this patient with...." a. Equilibration b. Open bite c. Deeper overbite d. Sharper canines

c. Deeper overbite (correct)

Where are helicies placed? a. In areas of the smallest bending moment b. Anywhere c. In areas of the largest bending moment d. All of the above

c. In areas of the largest bending moment (correct)

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: bolton point is associated the closest with what?

occipital condyles

If patient allergic to penicillin, what would u give for abx prophylaxis?

"a. 1 hour before procedure (correct) "Doses: 1. Amoxicillin 2g 1hr before procedure 2. Allergic to amox: Clindamycin 600mg 1hr before procedure "

On the PHV curve, the onset of puberty correlates best with the maximum growth spurt at the following age: "a. 9 years for boys b. 12 years for girls c. 14 years for boys d. none of the above e. all of the above"

"a. 9 years for boys b. 12 years for girls (correct) c. 14 years for boys (correct) d. none of the above e. all of the above"

" Class III elastic effects"

"a. Counterclockwise moment b. retrocline lowers c. procline uppers d. all of the above (correct) " III (3) - CCW (3)

" Curve of Spee is" a. Dental compensation b. Skeletal compensation c. Both

"a. Dental compensation"

" The major growth in the body of the mandible:" a. Depends on the condyle b. Occurs in the symphysis c. Is appositional d. Is endochondral e. Depends on Meckel's cartilage

"a. Depends on the condyle b. Occurs in the symphysis c. Is appositional (correct) d. Is endochondral e. Depends on Meckel's cartilage " majority at the condyle is a mixed: endochondral + IM

"You are most likely to get a magnified image if? What is the most common error causing magnification?" "a. Increase object to film distance b. Decrease object to film distance"

"a. Increase object to film distance (correct)

Shown a periapical film of pt with long, thin roots on max, man incisors, what are possible complications with orthodontics treatment?

"a. Increase risk of root resorption *"

" What happens in osteopetrosis? " a. Increased radiopacity b. Decreased radiopacity c. A honeycombed appearance of bone

"a. Increased radiopacity (correct) Hoenycomb/soap bubble appearance = ameLOblastoma "

Bone tissue grows by: "a. Interstitial growth b. Osteoclastic activity c. Proliferation of endodermal tissues d. Differentiation of cartilaginous tissue

"a. Interstitial growth b. Osteoclastic activity c. Proliferation of endodermal tissues d. Differentiation of cartilaginous tissue (correct)

What are symptoms of TMD? a. Pain b. Locking c. Condyle Dislocation d. All of the above

"a. Pain * "● SIGNS (something we see)--ADD, locking, condylar dislocation ● SYMPTOMS (something the PATIENT notices)--pain, join sounds, impaired mobility of joints

" Non-centric cusps in a posterior crossbite are the..." a. Upper lingual and the lower buccal b. Upper lingual and the lower lingual

"a. Upper lingual and the lower buccal (correct) "

What does not occur in hyalinization? "a. physiologic tooth movement b. bone resorption c. pdl resorption d. medullary resorption"

"a. physiologic tooth movement (correct) b. bone resorption c. pdl resorption d. medullary resorption"

In utilizing, which appraisal is a determination of the relationship between the maxilla and the mandible? a. Wits b. SNA c. Facial Axis (NaBa-PtGn) d. E-line

"a. wits " SNA is maxilla only, Facial axis is growth direction, E line is Soft tissue

Which organ is responsible for calcium conservation ?

"a.Liver b.Kidney (correct) c.Spleen d.Brain "

Which of the following will result in the greatest loss of arch length a.Loss of maxillary second primary molar at 6 ½ b.Loss of maxillary second primary molar at 11 c.Loss of mandibular first molar

"a.Loss of maxillary second primary molar at 6 ½ (Correct)

Curve of the mandibular canal and inclination of the condylar head is a characteristic of what? a.Rotation of the mandible b.A Class III malocclusion c.A skeletal open bite d.A skeletal deep bite

"a.Rotation of the mandible (correct) article #54: The seven signs are related to the following features: (1) inclination of the condylar head, (2) curvature of the mandibular canal, (3) shape of the lower border of the mandible, (4) inclination of the symphysis, (5) interincisal angle, (6) intcrprcmolar or intermolar angles, and (7) anterior lower face height.

high condylectomy

"article ""Consideration for orthognathic surgery during growth, Part 1: Mandibular Deformities"" Wolford: - surgically eliminate further AP Mandibular growth with High Condylectomy to remove the active growth center(s) and prevent further MN growth. - If orthognathic and TMJ sx are performed at same time, BSSO is the choice b/c it maintains the best soft tissue attachment and thus vascularity to the proximal segment - Consists of surgically removing the superior 3-5mm of the condylar head - Will predictably stop vertical and anterior growth. - TMJ function after surgery will remain normal if the condylar head is appropriately recontoured and disk is repositioned and stabilized on the condyle and in the fossa.. - Except in select cases, procedure should generally be deferred until age 14 in girls and age 16 in boys (when normal MX and MN growth is closer to completion) "

" The usual incubation period for Hepatitis B virus infection is:"

"b. 1-6 months (~75 days on average) " a. 1-2 days b. 1-2 weeks c. 1-6 months d. 1 year e. 5 years

How does a Twin Block help correct a Class II Div 1? a. it allows for a horizontal component of md growth b. it allows you to increase VDO by removing acrylic from lower part of appliance so that md teeth will erupt c. it allows for primarily dental correction of OJ d. the acrylic coverage on the lower anteriors is to prevent flaring of lower incisors

"b. it allows you to increase VDO by removing acrylic from lower part of appliance so that md teeth will erupt (correct) " "Article ""Treatment timing for Twin-block therapy,"" Baccetti: ""A proposed benefit of the Twin-block appliance is the ability to control vertical development of the molars and premolars through selective removal of acrylic during treatment (Fig 3). In patients with a short lower anterior facial height and/or an accentuated curve of Spee, the acrylic on the posterior portion of the maxillary bite block was trimmed according to the recommendations of Clark in order to promote eruption of the posterior dentition."" "

" Which tooth has the potential to touch both anterior and posterior antagonists in an ideal centric occlusion?" a. Mandibular canine b. Mandibular lateral c. Maxillary canine d. Maxillary first premolar

"c. Maxillary canine (correct) "

What is location for CR?

Exact location is not known most agree on superior anterior position of the condyle

** 15 yo male needs SARPE. Expansion is predictable and stable T/T T/F F/T F/F

F/F

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Explain the differences between long bone epiphyseal and condylar growth?

Primary vs secondary cartilage

Which characteristic of a Class II division 2 malocclusion that is most prone to relapse? a. Rotated centrals b. Mesially rotated maxillary first molars c. Deep bite **WHATS THE ORDER OF RELAPSE**

a. Rotated centrals Rotations > deep bite > COS

"The activation phase of a superelastic NiTi involves what state? " a. Austenitic b. Martensetic c. Crystalline to amorphous d. Amorphous to crystalline

b. Martensetic * Proffit 4th ed pg 363: see figures 10-6 and 10-7

If you do a maxillary impaction for a hyperdivergent patient who already has a class I occlusion, then you also need to consider? a. Mandibular advancement b. Maxillary advancement or mandibular reduction c. Nothing

b. Maxillary advancement or mandibular reduction * (or else pt will turn Class III after impaction)

First molar rotates, mesial goes lingual relative to 2nd PM. If you put straight wire in, what will happen? a. Premolar extrusion b. Molar moves buccally c. Molar moves lingually

b. Molar moves buccally (correct)

The right and left sides of the mandible fuse: "a. Just before birth b. Shortly after birth c. Near the end of the 1st year of life d. Near the end of the 2nd year of life"

b. Shortly after birth

In a physiologic response to sustained pressure against a tooth, movement begins after: a. 1 hour of force application b. 24 hours of force application c. 48 hours of force application d. 72 hours of force application

c. 48 hours of force application (correct)

The percentage of ortho pts w/mucogingival probs that require perio treatment before orthodontic therapy is: a. 1-5% of children and 10-15% of adults b. 5-10% of children and 5-10% of adults c. 5-10% of children and 20-25% of adults d. None of the above

c. 5-10% of children and 20-25% of adults (correct)

When is neural growth complete a. 3 months into conception b. birth c. 6-7 yrs old

c. 6-7 yrs old(correct)"

The most important single indicator of TMJ dysfunction is: a. The presence of a Sunday bite. b. The presence of joint noise. c. Reduced amount of maximum opening. d. Excessive clenching and grinding

c. Reduced amount of maximum opening.*

What is affected early in Rheumatoid Arthritis? a. Cartilage b. Bone c. Synovia

c. Synovia (correct)"

A very light radiograph is caused by the following EXCEPT a. Too short exposure time b. Wrong side of film being toward the tube c. White light being leaked into the darkroom

c. White light being leaked into the darkroom** " this will cause a DARK XRAY

10 y.o. w/ tongue thrust ; 0mm OJ and OB; no speech problems

do nothing

What is NOT a characteristic of Down's syndrome? a. wormian bones b. mental retardation c. fissured tongue d. hypoplastic maxilla e. early eruption of teeth

e. early eruption of teeth (correct)" ABO Breakdown

Meiosis-

know that it is division of the cells w half the chromosomes

Extrusion can occur at __mm/wk Extruded teeth held for __ mo before movement

Extrusion can occur at 1mm/wk Extruded teeth held for 6mo before movement

Multiple T/F: Supemumerary more common in the posterior (T/F). Supernumeraries are usually associated with syndromes. (T/F).

F/T

" True or False: Human eye sees 46 shades of gray. Digital camera sees 256 shades (if 8 bit only)" T/T T/F F/T F/F

F/T or 46 is supposed to be 16

Lip bumper correction primarily seen thru

Increase in arch width/Lateral Expansion (because it holds the cheeks away and allows the tongue to be unopposed)

Which genes are associated with hereditary tooth agenesis?

MSX1 and PAX9 (correct) Articles #35 + #76

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: What is the best indicators for pubertal growth -chronological age, skeletal age, or dental age?

Skeletal age

NSAIDs inhibit tooth movement by inhibiting prostaglandins. (T/F) Decreased prostaglandin levels raise the pain threshold. (T/F)

T/T "Proffit 4th Ed. Pg 343. Fortunately, although potent prostaglandinin hibitors like indomethacin can inhibit tooth movement, The common analgesics( ibuprofen, aspirin) seem to have little or no inhibiting effect on tooth movement at the dose levels used with orthodontic patients. Article ""Medication effects on the rate of orthodontic tooth movement,"" Bartzela: ""Studies on the effects of NSAIDs during experimental OTM in animals all evaluate the effects of relatively short administrations.They showed decreases in the number of osteoclasts, since prostaglandins are involved either directly or indirectly in osteoclast differentiation or in stimulating their activity.This has been shown for acetylsalicylic acid and flurbiprofen, indometacin (indomethacin), and ibuprofen. Whether this also leads to a reduction in the rate of OTM is less clear."" Prostaglandin E2, inflammation and pain threshold in rat paws. D. C. KUHN and A. L. WILLIS. British Pharmacological Society: Pg. 184p Repeated injection of prostaglandin E2 in rat paws induces chronic swelling and a marked decrease in pain threshold, disappearance of the PGE2 allowed pain threshold to rise."

Growth directions: Maxilla grows up and back but is displaced down and forward Mandible grows on the posterior extent of the ramus and condyle T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/T "Maxilla grows up and back but is displaced down and forward Mandible grows on the posterior extent of the ramus and condyle (displacing the mandible downward and forward). Simultaneous resorption on the anterior of the ramus and coronoid process. Pogonion has apparent growth by resorption at B point but no actual deposition at Pog (slight amount of deposition on lingual of symphysis)."

Clockwise moment around maxillary molar, where do you put your force? a. Distal to Center of resistance b. Mesial to Center of resistance c. Above center of resistance d. Below center of resistance

a. Distal to Center of resistance (correct)

What is the treatment of an interdental crater? a. Osseous reshaping b. Apical repositioning c. Distal wedge

a. Osseous reshaping

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: ACTH is from what gland?" "a. Pituitary b. Adrenal c. Thyroid "

a. Pituitary

What Nerve is sensory to anterior 2/3 of tongue? a. Trigeminal (CN5) b. Facial (CN7) c. Glossopharyngeal (CN9) d. Vagus (CN10)

a. Trigeminal (V) lingual nerve

Intrusion of incisors in adult patient's which marginal bone loss should be avoided due to increase risk of bone loss: a. True b. False

a. True

668 & 669 ** ?? Most common sign of developing anterior openbite

a. degenerative arthritis above is answer from key I may go w rheumatoid arthritis is there both an option "Profitt Pg 319: FIg 8-50: Shows anterior Openbite patient with Severe condylar degeneration due to rheumatoid arthritis he also states on Pg 319: ""adult onset rheumatoid arthritis can destroy the condylar process and create a deformity"" ABO breakdown: osteoarthritis (degenerative joint disease) - open bite, change in occlusion, pain"

2019What happens with hypocalcemia?" a. Muscle hyperactivity b. Decrease in cardiac output

b. Decrease in cardiac output (correct) "**BOTH TECHNICALLY BUT IF ONLY ONE OPTION GO W DECREASED CARDIAC OUTPUT**

Which variable does research measure after manipulating things in the experiment? a. Independent b. Dependent c. None of the above

b. Dependent * independent variables are deliberately manipulated to invoke change in the dependent variables

"The condyle is wider mediolaterally than AP by what? a. half as much (1/2) b. twice as much (2x) c. three times as much (3x) d. none of the above

b. Twice as much (correct) 2x as wide mediolateral dimension than AP dimension " Okeson page 7 - " The total mediolateral length of the condyle is 15 to 20 mm, and the anteroposterior width is between 8 and 10 mm."

Compensates for growth of the Orbit? a.Frontal bone b. Lacrimal bone

b.Lacrimal bone ANSWER because just relates to growth of the ORBIT from controversial

After maxillary expansion, how long does it take to re-establish the suture? a. 4-6 weeks b. 2-3 months c. 4-6 months d. 9 months

c. 4-6 months *

Patients treated with arch length expansion procedures in the mixed dentition: a.Maintain the expansion for an indefinite time period after treatment b.Relapse to the original arch length immediately after treatment c.Lose arch length, in the majority of cases, until the arch length is less than the pretreatment arch length d.Relapse to the original arch length after an average time of 7 years posttreatment

c.Lose arch length, in the majority of cases, until the arch length is less than the pretreatment arch length (correct)

What are the advantages to giving platelet rich plasma during surgery? a.You are in a hospitalized setting b.Because the plasma has a platelet count of over 250,000 c.Because it contains all the nutrients necessary for healing except _____and fibronectin. d.Because it contains platelet-derived growth factor, transforming growth factor (TGF), and insulin-like growth factor.

d.Because it contains platelet-derived growth factor, transforming growth factor (TGF), and insulin-like growth factor."

FFrom where is the incus derived? a. Meckel's cartilage b. The first branchial arch c. tuberculum impar

fa. Meckel's cartilage (<-- better ans, more specific) b. The first branchial arch (oralso true)a should be both

When canines are expanded, they are

highly prone to relapse

Most important factor for U1s?

horizontal bone level relates to papilla levels

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Recent studies -according to Proffit-indicate late mandibular incisor crowding is due to:

late mandibular growth

best time to treat a pt with a functional appliance?

late mixed dentition

The medial pterygoid muscle attaches to the maxillary tuberosity and the lateral pterygoid plate of what bone? a. sphenoid b. temporal c. frontal d. none of the above

sphenoid (correct) "Wedged between the frontal, temporal, and occipital bones is the sphenoid, an irregular unpaired bone that consists of a body and three pairs of processes: greater wings, lesser wings, and pterygoid processes. The greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid spread laterally from the lateral aspects of the body of the bone (Fig. 7.5C). The pterygoid processes, consisting of lateral and medial pterygoid plates, extend inferiorly on each side of the sphenoid from the junction of the body and greater wings. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 896). "

?? "Class III, MPA= 17. What is the lower incisor angle? "

they think answer is 87 b/c Class III will have higher FMIA "Tweed CH, The Frankfort-mandibular plane angle in orthodontic diagnosis, classification, treatment planning, and prognosis: Frankfort-mandibular plane angle (FMA)--16-28 Frankfort-mandibular incisor angle (FMIA)--68 Incisor-mandibular plane angle (IMPA)—90 +/- 5˚ - article says that the above does apply to severe Class II or III patients. it states that Class III pts have acute IMPA "

What happens when canines are expanded?

a. Highly prone to relapse (correct)

Student t test used when ...

used when comparing 2 means

" The cranial base develops by :"

"a. Proliferation at the synchondroses (correct)" and endochondral

" The goal of serial extraction is to:"

"a. Transfer incisor crowding posteriorly to the PM extraction site *"

How much is SD of + 2

0.96

What does NOT cause TMD

Answer: Extraction of Upper bicuspids

For md advancement what procedure is best?

BSSO

BMP

Bone Morphogenetic Proteins (BMP) found in bone and potent inducer of de novo bone synthesis

A picture of a panorex is shown and you are asked what is obvious? answer = caries

Caries

BUQ: distance bw sella and articulare shortened what MO do u have Class 2 Class 3

Class 2 angle of posterior CB for C2 will be larger so it will relatively dec the distance

Most rapid somatic growth occurs?

Conception to birth

BUSCHANG GROWTH QS: Corpus length increases less than ramus height between 7-15 years of age?

False Corpus Length: increases 1.9/yr & 1.6/yr (Males/Females) Ramus Ht increases 1.7mm/yr and 1.4mm/yr rmbr that for every 3mm that the condyle grows UP, u get 1mm loss at gonion. so the total increase of ramus ht is 2/3 of the total vertical increase of the ramus. that's why corpus length increases more than the ramus ht. but there is still greater vertical growth than AP growth

BUQ: Steiner analysis: know what plane upper incisor and lower incisor are related to?

HOLDAWAY RATIO U1-NA = 4mm L1-NB + PgNB = 4mm

Which teeth only contact one tooth in opposing arch?

Max 8s and Mandibular 1s

BUQ: Ricketts landmarks

PTM Xi point

High pull occipital HG, how does it correct open bite?

Palatal plane tips down anteriorly place outer bow Distal to Center of Resistance -to move palatal plane clockwise, you would want outer bow to be distal to CR of maxilla (this would cause anterior part of palatal plane to tip downward closing open bite) - this would require a long outer bow bent down so it is below the CR

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: The temporalis muscle acts as what type of functional matrix?

Periosteal

Stiffest wire?

Stainless Steel Proffit p362; Table 10-1

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: incisive fossa located on maxilla mandible

maxilla

" Which of the following is a viable treatment plan when there is less tooth mass on the upper?" a. Extract 2 maxillary premolars b. Extract 2 mandibular premolars c. Extract 1 lower incisor d. Extract 4 premolars

" "c. Extract 1 lower incisor (correct)

Steiner analysis is the first modern cephalometric analysis to: "1. Emphasize the interrelationship between individual measurements into a pattern. 2. Offer specific guides for use of cephalometric measurements in treatment planning. 3. Establish different cephalometric norms for different ethnic groups. 4. Use a cross-sectional study to establish cephalometric norms. a. 1 & 2 only b. 2 & 3 only c. 1 & 3 only d. All of the above"

"1. Emphasize the interrelationship between individual measurements into a pattern. 2. Offer specific guides for use of cephalometric measurements in treatment planning. a. 1 & 2 only (correct)

"Congenitally missing laterals with retained b and c. How do you manage the primary dentition for the erupting canine?"

"Extract the b to guide eruption of the canine into the lateral space (for bone preservation until it is time to distalize the canine and prepare for implant.)" "ABO article #85d (p50) ""Based on this information, the orthodontist should allow tile permanent canines to erupt mesially if the maxillary lateral incisors are congenitally absent (Fig 8). As the canines are moved distally, an edentulous ridge will be created. Over time, this ridge will not resorb as much as a ridge resorbs following tooth extraction."""

You want to predict the ceph measurement with mandibular rotation, what stat will you use? a. Correlation \

"a. Correlation** indicates the strength & direction of a linear relationship between two random variables.

Which is the most stable surgical procedure? a. Mandibular advancement b. Maxillary impaction c. Maxillary downfracture d. Mandibular setback

"b. Maxillary impaction"

" The cribriform plate is part of which bone?" a. Sphenoid b. Ethmoid c. Mastoid d. Temporal

"b. ethmoid " Wikipedia

What foramen does V2 pass through? a. Ovale b. Rotundum c. Spinosum d. Magnum

"b. rotundum

The parotid duct (Stensen's duct) enters the oral cavity by penetrating through the:" a. Orbicularis oris b. Zygomaticus major c. Buccinator d. Risorius e. Masseter

"c. buccinator"

" If both parents have no cleft but one sibling does, what are the chances that a cleft will occur in a new sibling?" a. 100% b. 50% c. 5% d. 0%

50% ??

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Most muscles of mastication are innervated by branches of __ cranial nerve?

5th cranial nerve

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: SMIs related to the velocity growth curves what stage is PHV

6

PHV occurs at SMI stage __-__ 3-4 4-5 5-6 6-7

6-7

Closed lock is defined as what? a. ADD without reduction b. ADD with reduction

ADD without reduction *

Increase clockwise rotation of A and B (relative to SN)? Wits a. ANB increases b. ANB decreases

ANB increases (& Class II) "Article ""The "Wits" appraisal of jaw disharmony,"" Jacobsen: -Counterclockwise rotation of jaws relative to SN = Class III (ANB decreases) -Clockwise rotation of jaws relative to SN = Class II (ANB increases)"

An experimental situation was given in which the researcher wanted to determine the effects of 3 continuous variables on a fourth variable. What statistical test would you do here?

ANOVA

BUQ: what delimits the middle cranial fossa?

ANTERIOR: less wing and ant crinoid process POSTERIORLY: roof of petrous bone and dorsum sella LATERAL: squamous portion of temporal, parietal and greater wing of sphenoid

BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: After 6 years of age, where does the greatest increase in size of the mandible occur? AP ? Vertical ?

AP -posterior aspect 1Vertical -superior aspect

?? When a round stainless steel wire is used as a fingerspring, doubling the diameter of the wire increases the force it delivers to: When a round stainless steel wire is used as a fingerspring, doubling the length of the wire decreases the force it delivers to:

Double diameter --> inc F 8x as much Doubling length -- > dec F 1/2 as much **answer wrote wrong originally as 2x (I think)** " "Proffit 4th ed pg 369 2x diameter = 8x strength, 1/16 springiness, 16x stiffness, 1/2 range "

What lies bewtween temporal bone and posterior base of orbit?

Ethmoid sinus or orbital plate of frontal bone " "

"What nerve is the special sensory (taste) to anterior 2/3 of tongue? a. Lingual nerve b. Facial nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. none of the above

Facial (VII) - Chorda tympani

orthognathic procedure most likely to cause post treatment sounds such as popping and crepitus: a. Mandibular Setback b. Mandibular Advancement

Mandibular advancement (per dr fattahi)

" 2 teeth that contact only one other tooth " a. Maxillary centrals b. Mandibular centrals c. Maxillary 3rds d. Mandibular 3rds

Mandibular central and maxillary 3rds"

BUQ: Other than over and underexposure of a ceph film, what is the greatest single factor in reducing the dx quality of the ceph radiograph?

Scatter radiation

Source of growth at the cranial base is where?

Synchondroses (intershenoid, sphenoethmoid)

Soft tissue thickness in females increases more than in males

T

71)Double T/F: Systematic review says that flat splints are acceptable treatment for TMD. Systematic review says splint reduced frequency but NOT intensity of bruxism events: T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/T

Don't need to mount models in SARPE; You do need to in BSSO or Leforte

T/T

Excessive mobility of a tooth during ortho movement could be due to heavy forces, traumatic occlusion, it is self-correcting when the cause is eliminated; T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/T

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: The lateral pterygoid muscle has the majority of its fibers inserting into the neck of the condyle and other fibers that insert into the articular disc and capsule T/F

True

VTO predictions are accurate and can be used in orthodontic tx planning. VTO predictions of soft tissue are accurate.

True, True "Article #66 ""The computer-generated cephalometric VTO predictions were found to be accurate in simulating the outcomes of adult extraction treatment. Although the lower lip was consistently predicted to be 1 mm anterior to its actual posttreatment position, these errors were still small enough to allow for accurate treatment planning."""

VTO predictions are accurate and can be used in orthodontic tx planning. VTO predictions of soft tissue are accurate.

True, True "Article #66 ""The computer-generated cephalometric VTO predictions were found to be accurate in simulating the outcomes of adult extraction treatment. Although the lower lip was consistently predicted to be 1 mm anterior to its actual posttreatment position, these errors were still small enough to allow for accurate treatment planning."""

What are some contraindications to orthodontic tooth movement when a patient presents with maxillary incisor that had previously had a horizontal fracture in the apical 1/3 of the root, which has now healed?

You don't want worsening of prognosis of tooth

Where to superimpose for longitudinal data: a.SN at S b.ethmoid, ant clinoid, GW of sphenoid

a. SN at S (may importante say this is the right answer & Jacobson below says the same?) b.ethmoid, ant clinoid, GW of sphenoid (correct)" "Sella is the most stable cranial structure Jacobson states to superimpose on SN at Sella (p146) "

What is the best point from which to measure the protrusion of the upper incisor? "a. SNA b. Facial angle c. Frankfort horizontal"

a. SNA

Which is most beneficial for 10 year growth study? a. Serial cephs b. Implant study c. Hand/Wrist study d. None of the above

a. Serial ceps

For distraction osteogenesis --> allow ..... days before 1st activation

allow 5-7 days before 1st activation

Which of the following are most common post-op occlusal problems noted in pts who have combined surgical & ortho tx for mandibular excess: a. Posterior open bite, bilaterally, immediately after removing fixation b. Appearance of Class II malocclusion or mandibular asymmetry soon after functions resumed c. Condyles are located posteriorly in the fossa creating and anterior open bite BQ: Most common post-op occlusal problem with mandibular setback and ortho?

appearance of CL II molar or mandibular asymmetry soon after function has resumed

In an asymmetric head-gear what do you do the bow on the side you want to distalize more? a. Close to cheek b. Away from cheek c. Longer d. Shorter e. B and C f. A and C

b. Away from cheek c. Longer e. B and C (correct) "Nanda 1997 pg 130: distal forces exist on both sides, but are 3x greater on the long outer bow side than on the short outer bow side"

What is responsible for detecting discomfort and pain? a. Proprioceptors b. Nociceptor c. None of the above d. All of the above

b. Nociceptor *

All adult patients undergoing orthodontic treatment should typically have careful scaling at: a. The same frequency they would require without orthodontic treatment. b. Twice the frequency they would require without orthodontic treatment. c. Three times the frequency they would require without orthodontic treatment. d. None of the above

b. Twice the frequency they would require without orthodontic treatment. (correct)

** How can you counter the effects on the molars of a tip-back bend? a. Use a high pull headgear with a long outer bow b. Use a high pull headgear with a short outer bow

b. Use a high pull headgear with a short outer bow (correct)"

How does the condyle move on the balancing side? a. upward, forward, and medial b. downward, forward, and medial c. upward, backward, and laterally d. downward, backward and laterally

b. downward, forward, and medial

what does NOT change from 8-18 yo? a. Facial axis b. Facial angle

b. facial axis (RICKETTS) What changes from 8-18 yo --> facial angle o Facial axis (NaBa-PtGn) - stable (Pt = foramen rotundum) o Y-axis - stable

The Bolton % 6-6 lower vs upper is ... a. 76% b. 78% c. 91% d. 94%

c. 91% Mosby's Review - pg. 33 - Mean anterior ratio is 77.2 and the mean overall 6-6 is 91.3

What is effective bone graft for alveolar cleft? "a. Bone from cadaver b. Bone from chin c. Bone from calvaria d. Bone from rib e. Bone from iliac

c. Bone from calvaria (correct) d. Bone from rib (correct) e. Bone from iliac (correct)" iliac > calvarium > rib

The assessment of mandibular movements as a diagnostic procedure in evaluating TMJ disorders a. Has no bearing on the functional capacity of the stomatognathic system b. Is necessary to determine whether the TMD is muscular or intracapsular or a combination of both c. Is critical for the evaluation of mandibular dysfunction d. Is unreliable

c. Is critical for the evaluation of mandibular dysfunction *

" What happens to the balancing side in canine protected occlusion?" a. The canine is the only thing touching b. Group function c. It is out of occlusion

c. It is out of occlusion (correct) "

After root resorption has occurred during orthodontic treatment and treatment is stopped, what happens to the root resorption? a. It slowly stops b. It continues to get worse c. It stops

c. It stops * "

" Which muscle pulls lip up when smiling?" a. Risorius b. Orbicularis oris c. Levator Labialis superioris d. none of the above

c. Labialis superioris (correct) " Netter's

" How can you prevent distal molar crown tip with a Kloehn type cervical headgear?" a. Lifting the inner bow occlusally b. Lifting the inner bow gingivally c. Lifting the outer bow gingivally d. Lifting the outer bow occlusally

c. Lifting the outer bow gingivally (correct) Using CPHG, where would you place the outer bow to prevent distal tipping of the crown? Above the CR of the molar (gingivally) and long arm

A pt you are treating w/premolar ext has ceramic brackets 3-3 & SS brackets on the posterior teeth, what should be of concern during tx? a. Poor maxillary anterior torque b. Teeth will move slower c. Loss of anchorage during canine retraction

c. Loss of anchorage during canine retraction (correct)"

What is the best Radiographic technique to see TMJ soft tissue? "a. CAT scan b. Tomogram c. MRI d. Bitewing

c. MRI

Karposi's sarcoma in HIV patient's is: a. A transitory condition b. Caused by the papilloma virus c. Multifocal in orgin d. The result of a staph infection

c. Multifocal in orgin caused by HHV-8

What is most likely the cause of malocclusion in cerebral palsy? a. Bone malformation b. Neural dysfunction c. Muscular dysfunction

c. Muscular dysfunction * "

" Which are most related?" "a. Dental age, peak height velocity, skeletal age b. Dental age, skeletal age, sexual age c. Peak height velocity, skeletal age, sexual age d. Peak height velocity, dental age, sexual age "

c. Peak height velocity, skeletal age, sexual age

What should the inclination of the upper incisors be for a resin-bonded bridge in missing lateral case? a. 3-8 degrees b. 10-15 degrees c. Perpendicular

c. Perpendicular

Patient with rotated maxillary incisors, deep bite, large OJ. What is most likely to relapse after treatment? a. OJ b. OB c. Rotations

c. Rotations (correct) Most likely to relapse = Rotations > deep bite > COS (Stability in deep bite pts is more favorable in growing individuals)

Undermining resorption during tooth movement is a. The process by which osteoclasts remove bone on the compressed part of the PDL. b. The process by which osteoclasts remove bone on the stretched part of the PDL. c. The process by which osteoclasts attack the necrotic area of the PDL d. None of the above

c. The process by which osteoclasts attack the necrotic area of the PDL (correct)

Where do you superimpose the mandible on? a. The third molar crypt, the outer cortical part of the symphysis and on the lower border of the mandibular canal b. The third molar crypt, the inner cortical part of the symphysis and on the lower border of the mandibular canal c. The third molar crypt, the inner cortical part of the symphysis and on the lower border of the mandibular canal d. The third molar crypt, the outer cortical part of the symphysis and on the mandibular canal

c. The third molar crypt, the inner cortical part of the symphysis and on the lower border of the mandibular canal (correct) "

In what type of surgery do you not need to level both maxillary and mandibular arches? a. Mandibular advancement b. Maxillary downgraft c. Three piece maxillae

c. Three piece maxillae**"

Which of the following is NOT usually a goal of adjunctive orthodontic treatment for adults: a. Facilitating restorative treatment. b. Improving periodontal health. c. Treating temporomandibular disorders. d. Establishing favorable crown-to-root ratio.

c. Treating temporomandibular disorders. (correct)

" What is the most predictable way to protract a molar?" a. Use the rest of the arch as anchorage b. Use a TPA c. Use an implant

c. Use an implant (correct) "

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Which of the facial bones are not paired (unpaired bones)?

c. Vomer & mandible (correct)

If you have an open apex with necrosis... a. You can commence ortho treatment right away b. You should have endo done and then ortho c. You should do apexification and then ortho d. You should do nothing

c. You should do apexification and then ortho *

In nitinol wires, when stress is the same but strain increases? a.Hysteresis b.Load deflection c.Phase transformation

c.Phase transformation

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: The teeth located highest in the maxilla alveoli and last to erupt during late mixed dentition phase::

canines

** The distance between two magnets decreases by 50%, the force increases by? " a. 50% b. 100% c. 200% d. 400%

d. 400% (correct) " (1/d)2

" In a 16 YO female, the normal ratio % of upper facial height (nasion to ANS) to lower facial height (ANS to menton) is:" a. 63:35 b. 30:79 c. 50:50 d. 43:57

d. 43:57 (correct) Buschang: the lower is always going to be larger than upper " Jacobson 2nd ed.

TMD splint therapy should be weaned off of splint over 3 months. TMJ most common between the ages of 15-25 a. T/T b. F/F c. T/F d. F/T

d. F/T

Which gingival fiber is associated with the most relapse? a. Apical b. Principal c. Transseptal d. Supracrestal

d. Supracrestal (correct)" " Article #46 ""A long-term prospective evaluation of the circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy in alleviating orthodontic relapse,"" Edwards: ""relapse potential in the supracrestal soft tissues is one of the more important factors in relapse."" supracrestal tissues include free gingival and transseptal fibers - ""supraalveolar soft tissues seemingly do contribute to the relapse of orthodontically treated teeth specifically, orthodontically rotated teeth. Edwards reported on a simple and apparently efficacious surgical technique to alleviate the influence that the supracrestal periodontal fibers presumably have on rotational relapse."" PDL fibers (5): (remodel within 2-3 mo after tooth movement - in intro of article) 1. Oblique 2. Horizontal 3. Periapical 4. alveolar crest 5. interradicular Supralveolar/supracrestal gingival fiber groups (5): 1. transseptal (tooth-tooth) 2. Circumferential/free gingival 3. Dentoperiosteal 4. Dentogingival 5. Alveologingival"

"410. The best genetic prototype for predicting facial growth of a child is:" a. The mother b. The father c. The grandparents d. The same sex sibling

d. The same sex sibling (correct) bc they have the same environment (on top of everything else)

" Studies by Behrents from participants in the Bolton study indicate:" a. Facial growth ceases at age 21 b. No antero-posterior changes or vertical changes in adult life c. There is no increase in facial dimensions in adults d. There is an increase in all facial dimensions in adults

d. There is an increase in all facial dimensions in adults (correct) "

BUQ: Wits measurement determines the relative position of the mx and mandible by measuring the distance of Point A and B drawn perpendicular to?

functional occlusal plane

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: End of growth is seen in a H/W film by:

fusion of the radius and ulna (SMI #11)

AHA guidelines for banding molars in a patient with mitral valve prolapse

no prophylaxis needed "JADA, Vol. 139 http://jada.ada.org January 2008: Current guidelines recommend prophylaxis for the following: 1. Prosthetic cardiac valve or prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair 2. Previous infective endocarditis 3. Congenital heart disease (CHD) 4. Cardiac transplantation recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy Procedures requiring prophylaxis: 1. ""Procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa"" (placement of orthodontic bands)"

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: the ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular branches of the trigeminal nerve leave the skull thru which foramina

ophthalmic: Superior orbital fissure (SOF) Max V2: rotundum V3: ovale

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: bones make up floor of orbit?

palatine maxilla zygomatic

Periapical cemental osseous dysplasia (PCOD), what do cyst look like on x-ray? RO RL

radiolucent (middle aged AA women)

When to bond peg lateral?

restore as soon as space available, deband, immediately retain "Article ""Guidelines for Managing the Orthodontic-Restorative Patient,"" Kokich "

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: What are the growth gradients of the head? width vs height vs depth

width most mature height least mature

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Do skeletal open bite malocclusions usually have increased height of the maxillary molars?

yes

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Is there a correlation bw chin asymmetries and nose asymmetries?

yes it explains 30% variation

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Are changes from the later "teens" thru adulthood greater for soft tissue profile than hard tissue profile?

yes, if the nose is included

If a patient had a horizontal root fracture at the apex 5 years ago, and no treatment was done/ there are no symptoms -->

you can begin ortho treatment right away (rmbr horizontal fx cervical 1/3 has worst prognosis)

How long should you retain a tooth that was extruded in a month? A) 1 month B) 3 months C) 6 months

C) 6 months (correct)" Chapter 25 - McNamara's Orthodontics Book written by Kokich says 6 months retention due to oblique periodontal fibers.

What will be affected the most is you have a larger sample? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode

""b. Median (correct)

Inverse correlation between caries and fluoride. No correlation between endo success & brushing. T/T T/F F/T F/F

"T/T

P value 0.05 means...

"a. 95% chance they are different"

" Most common transpositioned tooth"

"a. Canine " Profitt 4th ed. page 139

" True or False: NOSE doesn't stop growing"

"a. True"

" Which is reduced in cleft patients?" a. Upper facial height b. Lower facial height c. Neither d. Both

"a. Upper facial height (correct) due to scaring

What is the normal intermolar width in adults? a. 33-35 mm b. 36-39 mm c. 39-42mm d. none

"b. 36-39 mm (correct)"

If Standard deviation is ±1, and mean is 10, 34% of people would be included in range from 11 to ___?

"c. 10 "

How many mm can a patient open if they have a closed lock?

"d. 23mm* " ABO Breakdown

How many bones are in the craniofacial complex? a. 8 cranial b. 14 facial c. 22 total d. all of the above

"d. all of the above (correct) " "Board Breakdown: 8 Cranial: 2 parietal, 2 temporal, frontal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid 14 Facial: 2 maxillae, 2 zygomatics, 2 nasals, 2 lacrimals, 2 palatines, 2 inferior conchae, vomer, mandible"

"Early vs late facemask therapy Ideal time to begin facemask therapy?"

(1) early = more orthopedic effect; begin either in the deciduous or at the beginning of the mixed dentition (before loss of deciduous molars) (2) Younger patients show significantly greater advancement of maxillary structures and more upward and forward growth of the condyle." "Article ""Managing the developing Class III malocclusion with palatal expansion and facemask therapy,"" Turley: - earlier intervention might provide better orthopedic response, but treatment in the late mixed or early permanent dentition can still produce positive results

BUSCHANGE GROWTH QS Spheno-ethmoidal fuses at what age

(7-8 yrs)

When treating CII its favorable to decrease SN-MP angle to prevent relapse

(T/F)

All the following are advantages to mandibular setback using (BSSO), except: a. Excellent control of the condylar segments b. Osteosynthesis screws can be employed for fixation c. Early mobilization of the jaw d. Low incidence of producing neurosensory changes

** d. Low incidence of producing neurosensory changes*" (P679)

—>total __mm space (for right and left) for 2.5 degree retraction

*Need 1mm space (per side) for 2.5 degrees uprighting —>total 2mm space for 2.5 degree retraction

origin posterior digastric

-Origin of pos. diagatric- mastoid notch on temporal bone (medial surface of the mastoid process of the temporal bone and a deep groove between the mastoid process and the styloid process called the digastric groove.) Insertion: Both muscles insert into the intermediate tendon of the hyoid bone " Wikipedia

1 mm of premolar region expansion with RME creates how __mm gain in maxillary arch perimeter?

0.7 mm increase in Maxillary arch perimeter

The narrower the arch width, (versus a patient with a wider arch width) the arch perimeter increase w/ expansion is : a.Greater for the narrow arch b.Less for the narrow arch c.No difference

1"arch perimeter increase is a.Greater for the narrow arch (correct) McNamara: the narrow group expanded to the greater extent (from age 7-15) without treatment than did the wider group " "McNamara - Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics 2001 pg 37: - Narrow width group had an initial transpalatal width < 31 mm - Neutral group had initial transpalatal width 31-35 mm - Wide group had an initial transpalatal width > 35 mm The narrow group had an increase in transpalatal width of 3.3 mm. That increase was greater than the neutral (2.5 mm) or the wide (1.7 mm) subgroups.A favorable finding was that the narrow group expanded to a greater extent (from age 7 to age 15) without treatment than did the wider group"

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: According to Proffit, dental age is determined by what three factors:

1. Which teeth have erupted 2. How much resorption of primary teeth is present? 3. How much development of permanent teeth has occurred?

When maxillary expansion is carried out without a crossbite you get

1. transverse expansion of the maxillary arch, 2. transverse expansion of the md arch, 3. sign increase in Md arch to correct 3-4mm of crowding

" At what point does the palate close in fetal life?" "a. 2 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 20 weeks "

12 weeks (10-12 WEEKS) NOTE: SECONDARY PALATE FORMS 6-8TH WEEK BY TWO PALATAL PROCESSES

BOARD Q: TMD symptoms most prevalent in what age range?

15-25 yos.

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Mandibular growth rate in 14 year old females has been found to be approximately ____ mm/yr

2 mm/yr Boys will be closer to 3mm/yr for mandibular growth rate

5 types of PDL fibers --> they remodel within __-__ months after treatment o Oblique o Horizontal o Periapical o Alveolar crest o Interradicular

2-3 months

" If two bicuspids are extracted in a Class II Div 1 non-growing patient, what functional cusp lies in an embrasure?" 1. DL cusp of maxillary first molar 2. ML cusp of maxillary first molar 3. ML cusp of maxillary second molar 4. L cusp of mandibular premolar

2. ML cusp of maxillary first molar (correct)

All adult patients undergoing ortho treatment should typically have careful scaling at

2x the frequency they would require without orthodontic treatment

Place the following steps of adjunctive orthodontic treatment planning in the correct sequence: "1. Establishing the occlusion 2. Definitive periodontal/restorative treatment. 3. Disease control. 4. Maintenance. A- 1,3,4,2 B- 3,2,1,4 C- 2,1,3,4 D- 3,1,2,4

3. Disease control. "1. Establishing the occlusion 2. Definitive periodontal/restorative treatment. 4. Maintenance. D- 3,1,2,4** " (P620)

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: How much sex difference in maxillary size is there after adolescence?

3.5-4 mm favoring males in mx size AFTER adolescence How much sex difference in mandibular size is there before adolescence? 1-2mm

BU CEPH Q: in a norm pt, how degrees separate the angle formed by FH-MP and SN-MP?

32 DEG 25 DEG

For HG/FM how much force needed on each side?

350-400g for 12-14hrs/day

Jarabak analysis what does distance from sella to articulate indicate?

3:4

When does cleft lip and palate occur __-___ ____ in utero

6-8 weeks in utero

Maximum age for width of skull?

7-8 yrs

what % of class II its treated successfully in phase 1?

75%

NLA norm value? ___-___

94-110

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: When are deciduous roots complete?

A's -1.5 yrs mx & md E's -3 yrs mx & md

When preparing a peg lateral for bonding, when should you do the bonding? A. During ortho, leaving more space than the contralateral lateral B. During ortho, leaving the same amount of space as the contralateral lateral C. Directly after debond D. 6 months after debond

A. During ortho, leaving more space than the contralateral lateral

In a patient that started significant lower crowding, when you remove the retention, what happens?

Arch length and arch perimeter decreases

What has no effect on the penetrating power? a. kVp b. mAs c. Wavelength of the photons d. Exposure time

BOTH B&D ARE CORRECT b. Mamps d. Exposure time (correct)"

Is the vertical grower forward or backward rotator?

Backward

The bacteria that is the cause of bone loss during orthodontic treatment is ? What bacteria involved in juvenile periodontitis?

Bacteroides Gingivalis (Porphyrmonas Gingivalis) AA

What is NOT a side effect in mandibular symphysial distraction?

Buccal tipping of mandibular segments

What is the x-ray filter made of? a. Copper b. Tungsten c. Aluminum d. Carbide

C. Aluminum

TPA should be used for everything EXCEPT?

CANT BE USED FOR: A-P anchorage (or maintaining leeway) CAN be for: vertical anchorage, rotate molars around the palatal root, and transverse stability; "Proffit 4th ed. pg 476 The best indication for a transpalatal arch is when one side of the arch is intact and several primary teeth are missing on the other side. In this situation, the rigid attachment to the intact side usually provides adequate stability for space maintenance. When primary molars have been lost bilaterally, however, both per manent molars may tip mesially despite the transpalatal arch, and a conventional lingual arch or Nance arch is preferred. "

How does ABO construct mandibular plane angle?

CONSTRUCTED Go-Me - Constructed Go - bisecting the angle formed by a line tangent to the posterior border of the ramus and tangent to the inferior border of the body - Landmark = bisecting line of intersection & outline of mand

If a child is hit in the jaw where is the fracture?

CONTRALATERAL Subcondylar fracture (correct) and potentially body of affected side

" Which malocclusion is commonly found with an interincisal angle of 105 degrees

Class II Div 1 or bimax protrusive

" When patients with various malocclusions are given carrots, almonds, and firm meat, which describes the order in which these patients had difficulty chewing." Class I Class II Class III There is no difference

Class III is worst, then class II, than class I malocclusion, normal class I occlusion = best Does Malocclusion Affect Masticatory Performance? - English & Buschang

Rank the following in order from worst to best in terms of chewing functional efficiency:

Class III malocclusion, Class II malocclusion, Class I malocclusion, Class I normal.

What is the limiting factor for SARPE? a. zygomatic buttress b. Coronoid process

Coronoid process = LIMIT (Area of resistance-->zygomatic buttress) "It seems that both are true but if we had to pick one - we'd go with the coronoid process Support for zygomatic buttress as answer: Article ""Surgically assisted rapid palatal expansion:A literature review,"" Suri ""The areas of resistance have been classified as anterior support (piriform aperture pillars), lateral support (zygomatic buttresses), posterior support (pterygoid junctions), and median support (midpalatal synostosed suture)"""

21. Functional matrix question-- whats involved in translation? A. Capsular B. Periosteal C. Macroskeletal D. Capsular and macroskeletal

D. capsular and macroskeleton : ANSWER What causes translation? → capsular Capsular growth causes macroskeletal units to translate. if it says "Involved" pick both. IF "what causes translation" → CAPSULAR

Which is NOT an effect of Class II elastics?

DOES NOT deepening of bite/bite closure/opening bite

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Fusion of the epi-and diaphysis of the ____is 1 year after PHV

DP3 (SMI #8)

What tissue makes the disc?

Dense Fibrous CT "Okeson Ch1 pg 9: ""The articular disc is composed of dense fibrous connective tissue, for the most part devoid of any blood vessels or nerve fibers."""

From Cases Pg.1 of muy importante (I think) 8 y/o mixed dentition case; Class III with anterior crossbite 1.5 mm diastema with a thick fibrous frenum which blanches the tissue when pulling in the late transitional dentition. what do you do? (ALSO WORDED AS What's not an indication for early tx in this case? a. consolidation of anterior spacing b. posterior TSALD c. possible impacted U3 d. possible impacted L3

Do nothing. Wait till the 3 erupt.

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: During evolution, as the eyes moved closer together, what happened to the forehead and nose?

Forehead became higher, nose became longer and more narrow

Distraction osteogenesis of the mandible most associated with ? Greatest problem: Which one is not associated?

Greatest problem: Periodontal issue with incisors Which one is not associated? TMD

High angle female crossbite- 1-Use (banded/bonded) RPE to control vertical. 2-What would happen if u used the other type? 3-She had supemumerary teeth in mandible near canines when should you extract them? a. Before Tx b. During tx c. After tx

High angle female crossbite- use bonded RPE to control vertical. If you used banded RPE the mandible would rotate down and back as a result of expansion. a. Before Tx (correct)

BUSCHANG GROWTH QS: According to Bjork, how can you tell if backward rotation (Clockwise) has occurred in mandible??

Inclination of condyle, less curvature of inferior alveolar canal (less), shape of lower border (i.eantegonial notch), interincisalangle (↓ ) intermolarangle(↓ ), anterior facial height (↑), inclination of symphysis (swings back)

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: The mechanism of pre-emergent tooth eruption is best explained on the basis of:

It is probably not proliferation of cells at the root apex; cutting off apex does not stop eruption -metabolic activity in Cellular activity or differential blood flow/pressure in the PDL is probably best explanation, although a tooth with no PDL can still erupt (Proffitand Frazier-Bowers 2009)

What is the worst for filing/worst format? a. JPEG b. lead JPEG c. TIFF d. none of above

JPEG Worst format: JPEG>lead JPEG> TIFF loses the most resolution/loses the most information upon compression = JPEG (unless GIF is an answer) JPEG, which stands for Joint Photographic Experts Groups is a "lossy" format meaning that the image is compressed to make a smaller file. The compression does create a loss in quality but this loss is generally not noticeable. JPEG files are very common on the Internet and JPEG is a popular format for digital cameras - making it ideal for web use and non-professional prints.

" What are the symptoms of a Hep B infection?"

Juandice Fever All of the above (correct) "Abdominal pain. Dark urine. Fever. Joint pain. Loss of appetite. Nausea and vomiting. Weakness and fatigue. Yellowing of your skin and the whites of your eyes (jaundice)

the intersection of the outline of the maxillary tuberosity and the zygomatic buttress is termed __________________ ___________

Jugal Point Jugal Process: intersection between the jugal process of the maxilla and the zygomatic buttress Jacobson Pg. 269: Jugale (J), at the jugal process, the intersection of the outline of the maxillary tuberosity and the zygomatic buttress.

" What is a side effect of an asymmetric headgear?"

Lingual Crossbite of the molar of the same side of the longer outer bow + buccal x-bite of molar on side of shorter outer bow

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Name the structures located at the most inferior point of the alveolar crest of the maxillary central. Lingually: Labially:

Lingually: nasopalatine (incisive) foramen Labially: prosthion or supradentale

Low modulus of elasticity --> (high/low) stiffness and (high/low) springiness

Low modulus of elasticity --> low stiffness and high springiness (like Niti)

Order of 2 jaw surgery:

Mx downgraft, mx fixation, BSSO, intermaxillary fixation, Md fixation (fix Md last)

BUQ: what is downs facial plane angle? what structure lie on Downs Facial Plane (in a well balanced face)?

N-Pg/FH A point Pg

BQ: what is safe when taking an MRI?

NiTi wires, clarity brackets, composite wire

**CHECK Cyst that occurs when there is a congenitally missing tooth from dental lamina is called?

OKC Odontogenic Keratocyst - This is the answer because cysts associated with congenitally missing teeth are primordial cysts. All OKC are primordial cysts, but NOT the reverse. This is according to a new classification Other choices were: -lateral periodontal cyst, -periapical, -dentigerous, -residual (this is associated with missing teeth due to extraction, it comes from the Rests cells) " Identify a radiolucency 5mm in diameter and 5mm below alveolar crest." "a. Primordial ? (where a tooth should be but didn't form) b. Residual ? (periapical cyst remaining after extraction) c. Dentigerous ? (crown of unerupted tooth)

What does NOT cause periodontal dx?

Occlusion Perio dx is caused by all but which of the following? Occlusion. It is caused by à biologic width impingement, poor OH, and increase in virulent oral flora

There is a significant crater between the maxillary PMs, what do you do? a. Osseous recountouring b. Extrude the PM c. Extract d. Nothing

Osseous recontouring

RCT tooth compared to normal tooth in terms of root resorption?

RCT tooth will have LESS CHANCE of root resorption as a normal tooth

Leveling the COS includes all except? Relative intrusion of incisors Extrusion of posterior teeth Absolute intrusion of incisors Relative extrusion of canines Uprighting of the posterior teeth

Relative extrusion of canines

How does the body of the mandible lengthen?

Remodeling of the anterior ramus (correct)

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: How does mandible corpus length increase?

Resorption of ant ramus; deposition on post ramus

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: How does alveolar bone investing the maxillary incisors change during growth? (regarding bone overlying facial surface of the incisors)

Resorption of bone on facial surface in front of incisor

When is the best time to extract a submerged (ankylosed) tooth?

Right away

If you take out upper 4's what do you have to do to the 6's usually?

Rotate them mesially (correct)

**2019** Which of the following is a midline point on PA ceph: a. Menton b. Opisthion c. A point d. Jugulae e. ANS

SE: Kula ceph book says Crista Galli & ANS (Menton will deviate in pos with asymmetry) Opisthion: the posterior Midsagittal point on the posterior margin of the foramen magnum answer on roseman: menton from muy imp - Midline structures on PA ceph à crista galli, ANS, opisthion (Menton can deviates, in asymmetric cases)

Meiosis (46 chromosomes - 23 pairs)

Sex cells: ½ # of chromosomes (23)

Heat treated elgiloy has the same stiffness as ....

Stainless steel

BUQ: reference point for Steiner analysis? Downs?

Steiner SN Down FH

A = B X C Springiness, stiffness, strength, range

Strength = Range x Stiffness

Most reliable method to protract a mandibular molar with a TAD is to place it distal to canine. TADs more stable with a pilot hole.

T/F " "

BUQ: The angle of facial convexity ___ with age and it is ____ when mandible behind maxilla

The angle of facial convexity increases with age and it is positive when mandible behind maxilla

Root fracture 1mm below the CEJ, what is the primary thing to look at?

The length of the root

If you remove upper 7's what usually happens to the 8's?

They come in adequate occlusion

"Histologically, undermining resorption shows? What are characteristics of hyalinization? " T/F hyalization is associated with a cell FREE zone

True a. cell free zone "Proffit 4th ed cell free zone is mentioned in Graber"

T/F Secondary osteon makes up what adult bone

True what makes up the adult bone (aka lamellar bone)

Smaller Voxel size is favorable for good resolution. Increased voxel size can cause more magnification. T/T T/F F/T F/F

True False - Voxel size effects resolution and accuracy NOT the magnification.

Most of the early crowding can be solved if you do serial extraction. You get more incisor retroclination by doing so. T/T T/F F/T F/F

True True There is some lingual tipping of lower incisors and overbite often increases from serial exo

Hyoid bone was directed downward but not backward ;physiologic adaptation occurred to insurance maintenance of airway

True/True

"What teeth would you extract in a Class II patient which has mild-moderate crowding in both arches and retruded mandible to prepare them for surgery?"

Upper 5's Lower 4's and 8's.

"Functional appliances accelerate the growth of the mandible. After 4 years following funitional appliances, treated patients have bigger mandibles than controls" a) First statement is true, second false B) First statement false, second true C) Both true D) Both false

a) T/F

Average force necessary to intrude a Lower 1? a. 20 grams b. 300 grams c. 25 grams d. 40 grams

a. 20 grams

When replacing a missing lateral (contralateral peg shaped), what percentage of the central a. 62% b. 75% c. Other choices

a. 62% (2/3 of central) 7mm same size as contralateral lateral

What effect does prostaglandins have on osteoblasts and osteoclast

a. Arachiadonic acid, prostaglandins, stimulate osteoclastic production (correct) and subsequent bone resorption PGE injected locally causes faster tooth mvmt

Ectodermal dysplasia has which of the following clinical manifestations? a. Blue sclera b. Missing teeth c. No sweat glands d. All of the above

a. Blue sclera b. Missing teeth c. No sweat glands d. All of the above + cone shaped teeth

Who was the first guy to do ceph measurements? a. Broadbent b. Steiner c. Downs d. Ketchum

a. Broadbent

Internal root resorption usu takes place in the presence of .... a. Chronic inflammation b. Acute inflammation

a. Chronic inflammation

How do you fix a vertical defect?

a. Extrude (correct)

Which part of the face has both intramembranous and endochondral sutures? a. Upper and middle b. Upper and lower c. Middle and lower d. Upper only

a. Upper and middle (correct)

Which part of the face has both intramembranous and endochondral sutures? a. Upper and middle b. Upper and lower c. Middle and lower d. Upper only

a. Upper and middle (correct)

The causitive organism for shingles is: a. Varicella zoster b. Variola c. HSV

a. Varicella zoster (correct) " "VZV is one of eight herpes viruses known to infect humans (and other vertebrates). It commonly causes chicken-pox in children and Herpes zoster (shingles) in adults and rarely in children. WebMD"

**CHECK?? Correlation is generally expressed as a: a. Whole number b. Ratio c. Fraction d. Percentage

a. Whole number

Patient has unilateral x-bite without a detectable functional shift, what should be done to evaluate a functional shift? a. evaluate midlines b. take PA x-ray c. flat plane splint d. mount the models

a. evaluate midlines (without a shift) **IF THEY ARE SHIFTING --> THEN C. FLAT PLANE SPLINT)

" Growth of the mandible is between what two growth curves?" "a. General and neural b. General and genital c. Neural and lymphoid d. None of the above

a. f=general and neural

Condylar resorption causes what 3 things?

a. facial asymmetry, open bite, class II https://www.treatingtmj.com/tmd/treating-idiopathic-condylar-resorptiona/

Lateral wall of orbit is made up of which 2 bones? a. Frontal process of zygomatic bone b. palatine bone c. greater wing of sphenoid d. lesser bone of sphenoid

a. frontal process of zygomatic bone and c. greater wing of sphenoid

Fibrous dysplasia: buzz word

a. ground glass

59)Forsus is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a. intrude U6 b. distalize U6 c. mesialize lower molars, d. procline lower incisors,

a. intrude U6 - u do get transient intrusion of U6 THIS ONE COULD ALSO BE INC SNB (FROM REMEMBERED IN 2018) intrusion of the 6's occurs but relapses after tx

If a patient was in an accident and the chin deviates to the right, which lateral pterygoid is working? a. Left b. Right c. Neither d. Both

a. left* right lateral pterygoid is paralyzed

BUSCHANG GROWTH Q where does anterior palate expand a. Midline b. Premaxilla

a. midline the premaxilla fuses early on and u get expansion @ the midline

A line drawn through central fossa of maxillary teeth. Where are the interproximal contacts relative to this line? a. the interproximal contacts will be buccal to this line b. the interproximal contacts will be lingual to this line

a. the interproximal contacts will be buccal to this line

" Helices in archwire. Where should they be located to decrease the force?" a. Closer to the lesser bending moment b. Area of the largest bending moment

b. Area of the largest bending moment(correct) "

" The tuberculum impar gives rise to what structure?" "a. Tongue b. Thyroid gland c. Thymus

a. tongue "

Degenerative Joint disorder? a. CT b. CBCT

a.CT * choose this if CBCT is not an answer b.CBCT: ANSWER

What to do if missing laterals?

allow canines to erupt mesially and then distalize "Textbook: McNamara, Chapter 25 Managing Orthodontic Restorative treatment for the Adolescent Patient: A bone graft can be avoided if the central incisor and canine erupt adjacent to one another (Fig. 25-16). As the space is opened orthodontically for the future implant, bone is laid down along fiber tracks of lhe periodontal membrane. The labiolingual width of the alveolar ridge formed in this manner generally is stable over time. Therefore, if implant placement is delayed u n til an adolescent has completed facial growth, the ridge will not become narrower. "

worst worry with impacted canine?

ankylosis determined by radiograph

BUSCHANG ANATOMY Q: a muscle that inserts on the mandible is?

anterior belly of the digastric

sesamoid ossifies (SMI 4) which is a. 2 years before PHV b. 1 year before PHV c. 1 year after PHV d. 2 years after PHV

b. 1 year before PHV sesamoid ossifies

" In late maturing girls, PVH occurs?" a. 6-11 months before menstruation b. 18-24 month before menstration c. more than 24 months before menstration

b. 18-24 month before menstration Normal maturing girls PHV occurs 6-11 months before menarche Later maturing girls: puberty 12monthsPHV18-24monthssmenarcheend growth spurt Boys normal maturing: fat spurt12monthspuberty8-12monthsPHV15-24monthsend of spurt Earlier maturers are more intense

For a research hypothesis to be accepted, statistical analysis has to show that the chance a difference between groups could have arisen due to random variation is: a. 1% (p<0.01) b. 5% (p<0.05) c. 10% (p<0.1) d. None of the above

b. 5% (p<0.05) (correct)

What are the chances that a second child will have the characteristic if one parent is affected by an autosomal dominant characteristic and the other is not and they already have one child with the characteristic? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

b. 50%

What is the average difference between S-N and Frankfort horizontal? a. 3 degrees b. 7 degrees c. 10 degrees d. 13 degrees

b. 7 degrees (Correct) "

Peak incidence of dental trauma occurs between what ages? a. 6-7 b. 8-10 c. 12-14 d. 15-16

b. 8-10 (correct;)

"24. Which of the following is used to etch a ceramic crown?" a. 37% phosphoric acid b. 9% HF

b. 9% HF (correct) " Graber pg 579

Movement of the upper synovial cavity of the TMJ occurs between the a. Condyle and articular capsule b. Articular fossa-eminence and articulating disc c. Condyle and mandibular fossa d. Condyle and articular disc e. Coronoid process and articular tubercle

b. Articular fossa-eminence and articulating disc *

12. What does not lead to black triangles? a. Overlapping teeth b. Convergent roots c. Triangular crowns d. Crestal bone level

b. Convergent roots

Fluoride applied to the teeth prior to bonding: a. Increases bond strength b. Decreases bond strength c. Increases caries susceptibility d. None of the above

b. Decreases bond strength (correct)

" Rate of bone remodeling:" "a. Increases with age b. Decreases with age c. Remains the same d. None of the above

b. Decreases with age (correct)

What covers the condyle? a. Loose connective tissue b. Dense fibrous connective tissue

b. Dense fibrous connective tissue *"

What makes the TMJ joint unique? a. Presence of the articular disc b. Presence of fibrous CT

b. Presence of fibrous CT

Long term stable results of a transverse 9 mm palatal deficiency in a 22 YO female is best achieve when treated by: a. Palatal expansion device b. Surgical expansion and orthodontics c. Lefort osteotomy and orthodontics d. Corticotomies and anterior maxillary segmentalization e. Bone grafting of the posterior maxilla and vomer bone

b. Surgical expansion and orthodontics * "

"Ibuprofen reduces inflammation by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. It produces analgesia because prostaglandins increase the threshold of nociceptors. a. T/T b. T/F c. F/T d. F/F

b. T/F (correct)" Prostaglandins decrease pain threshold

"All the following are indications for controlled orthodontic extrusion of a single tooth, except: " a. Teeth with defects in the cervical third of the root. b. Teeth with defects in the apical third of the root. c. Isolated teeth with one-walled vertical periodontal defect. d. Isolated teeth with two-walled vertical periodontal defect.

b. Teeth with defects in the apical third of the root. (correct)

What metal is used for the target in the XR tube? a. Copper b. Tungsten c. Aluminum d. Molybdenu

b. Tungsten "

A patient w/severe Class III malocclusion w/ TMD symptoms, what's the best surgical procedure? a. BSSO b. Vertical ramus osteotomy c. Maxillary impaction

b. Vertical ramus osteotomy (IVRO) Aras: for BSSO set back, when you are doing fixation there is more torquing at condyle causing TMJ issues

When should an alveolar bone graft in a cleft site be performed? a. When the canine root is 1/3 formed b. When the canine root is 2/3 formed c. When the central root is 1/3 formed d. When the central root is 2/3 formed

b. When the canine root is 2/3 formed (correct)

A helix is placed in the wire when leveling: a. Where wire will easily bend b. Where wire will not easily bend (correct) c. In the center of the wire

b. Where wire will not easily bend (correct)

Which gives off the most radiation? a. CT b. Bone scan c. transorbital d. CBCT

b. bone scan

What happens to the friction in sliding mechanics when forces are parallel to the archwire? a. Increase b. Decrease c. Stays the same

b. decrease

What causes most error in radiographs? a. ear rods b. distance from midsaggital plane to film

b. distance from midsaggital plane to film (correct)" "ABO Breakdown: - film to midsaggital plane = 15cm - source to midsaggital plane = 60 in (5 ft)"

Treatment for a 4 y.o. thumb sucker? a.break the habit even if unpleasant. b.no treatment c.tell the parent not to worry d.refer them for psychiatric issues

b. do nothing "Proffit 4th ed pg 151-153 - sucking habits during the primary dentition years have little if any long-term effect - Mild displacement of the primary incisor teeth is often noted in a 3- or 4-year-old thumbsucker, but if sucking stops at this stage, normal lip and cheek pressures soon restore the teeth to their usual positions. - If the habit persists after the permanent incisors begin to erupt, orthodontic treatment may be necessary to overcome the resulting tooth displacements. The constricted maxillary arch is least likely to correct spontaneously. In many children, if the maxillary arch is expanded transversely, both the incisor protrusion and anterior open bite will improve spontaneously There is no point in beginning orthodontic therapy, of course, until the habit has stopped. "

What should you use for conservative treatment of TMD? a. anterior repositioning splint b. flat occlusal splint

b. flat occlusal splint (correct)"

Which term describes the area of the dental anatomy that is reproduced distinctly on the panoramic radiograph? a. Rotation center b. Focal trough c. Sagittal plane d. Laminograph

b. focal trough

What are the benefits of giving platelet rich plasma during surgery

b. growth factors (correct)" Platelet derived growth factors, transforming growth factor, and insulin like growth factor

Which is the BEST way to determine a person's remaining growth potential? a. Serial cephs b. Hand-wrist c. Family history d. Chronological age

b. hand wrist Growth CESSATIONa.Serial cephs- 12 months apart 2.10 year longitudinal studya.Serial ceph 3.Mandibular rotations/structural methoda.Implant study 4.Growth POTENTIALa.hand /wrist

Undermining resorption occurs: a. in PDL b. in medullary spacdes c. is physiologic d. none of the above

b. in medullary spaces

measure max opening by measuring incisor edge to a. incisal edge b. incisal edge + overbite c. incisal edge + overjet

b. incisal edge + overbite

What usually happens if you seat the mandible from CO to CR? a. decrease the vertical dimension b. increase the vertical dimension

b. increase the vertical dimension* sim previous question all of the above happens from CO --> CR "''a. Overbite decreases b. Overjet increases c. Vertical dimension increases

Which is most unstable surgical procedure?

b. max transverse expansion (correct)

Which suture fuses early in dolichocephalic patients? "a. coronal b. sagittal c. lambdoidal

b. sagittal (correct) -fusion of saggital suture would cause cranium to be long in A-P direction and narrow in width (dolichocephalic) -fusion of coronal suture would cause cranium to be short A-P and wide (brachycephalic)"

How do you minimize amount of mand growth in a 16 yo pt when doing surgery? a. wait till pt is 22 yo b. take serial cephs until no growth for 1 yr

b. take serial cephs until no growth for 1 yr (correct)"

what kind of bone is fetal bone? "a. Lamellar b. Woven c. Spongy

b. woven bone " This is also the type of bone that is formed after initial ortho tx

Looking at a hand-wrist XR determine how much growth still remains. once u see sesamoid ossification how many years of growth do u still have left? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years

b.2 years left with sesamoid ossification (Correct) see above

" On lateral excursions, which cusps contact on the non-working side during non-working side interferences?"

buccal incline of upper lingual cusp lingual incline of lower buccal cusp BULL

Symphysis distraction causes

buccal tipping of condyle (distolateral condylar rotation) Do NOT see --> buccal tipping of Md posterior segments "Angle Orthodontist, Vol 73, No 2, 2003 ""Symphyseal Distraction and Its Geometrical Evaluation"" ""effect of the procedure on the condyle was only 3 degrees of distolateral rotation"""

Tongue thrust in transitional dentition with some openbite? a) Crib b) Myofunctional exercise c) No Tx

c) No Tx (correct)" pg 154 Proffit - Tongue thrust is normal in transitional dentition

Tongue thrust in transitional dentition with some openbite a) Crib b) Myofunctional exercise c) No Tx

c) No Tx (correct)" pg 154 Proffit - Tongue thrust is normal in transitional dentition

62) how to detect osteonecrosis? a) MRi, b) CR, c) Radiograph

c) Radiograph - look at PDL space For evaluating the risk of ORN --> look at CTH values

In an 11 YO male, in a two year period the mandibular molars are expected to erupt? "a. 3 mm b. 4 mm c. 1.5 mm d. 2.5 mm

c. 1.5mm (BUSCHANG: erupt 0.9mm per yr --> 1.8mm in 2 yrs for md molars)

" The optimum force to retract a canine is" a. 50 to 75 grams b. 75 to 100 grams c. 100 to 150 grams d. 150 to 300 grams

c. 100 to 150 grams (correct) "

What is the time that the spheno-occipital synchondrosis unites? a. 8 to 10 years b. 10 to 12 years c. 12 to 14 years d. 15 to 16 years

c. 12-14 yrs **Note buschang slide say spheno-occipital STOPS GROWING AT 15-18yo but his ABO video says sphenoccipital UNITES @ girls 12-13 boys 14-16

Where do upper incisors fall in relation to stomion superioris in skeletal open bite? a. at same level b. 4mm apical to lip c. 3mm below lip d. there is no relationship between incisors and open bite

c. 3mm below lip (correct) "Proffit 4th ed pg 227: - ""skeletal open bite will usually have excessive eruption of posterior teeth, downward rotation of mandible and maxilla, and normal (or even excessive) eruption of anterior teeth"" (normal = max 3mm of incisal display at rest)"

The estimated healing time for an implant in the mandible is? a. 1-2 months b. 3-4 months c. 4-6 months d. 6-8 months

c. 4-6 months (MANDIBLE) 6-8mo for maxilla

** What is a distance along any given axis?" a. A force b. A couple c. A moment

c. A moment (correct) "

" Where does the mandibular foramen lie?" "a. Below and anterior to the mandibular molars b. Below and posterior to the mandibular molars c. Above and posterior to the mandibular molars d. Above and anterior to the mandibular molars " No reference

c. Above and posterior to the mandibular molars (correct)

The fluid found in the PDL space: a. Is derived from the vascular system during inflamation. b. Contains unique elements not found in other tissues. c. Acts as shock absorber. d. Is never present under normal physiological circumstances

c. Acts as shock absorber. (correct)

When do you level the curve of Spee in a brachyfacial patient? a. Before surgery b. During surgery c. After surgery

c. After surgery *"

" Space discrepancies greater than 10 mm ______ require extractions?" a. Sometimes b. Never c. Almost always d. None of the above

c. Almost always (correct)

A 5 YO child has symmetric bilateral enlargement in posterior of the mand. XR reveal large multilocular radiolucencies. Likely diagnosis is: a. Cysts b. Osteopetrosis c. Familial fibrous dysplasia (cherubism) d. Osteitis deformans

c. Familial fibrous dysplasia (cherubism) *

The fibrocartilage between the temporal are and basion around the occipital condyle and functions; "a. For lateral growth b. for frontal growth c. For cushioning any direct forces or to protect from pressure of transfer forces

c. For cushioning any direct forces or to protect from pressure of transfer forces (correct)" No reference

Arachodonic acid metabolite that plays a role in tooth movement? a. Interleukin b. BMP c. Leukotriene

c. Leukotriene (correct)" "Article#3 ""Four families of eicosanoids can be distinguished: leukotrienes, thromboxanes, prostacyclins, and prostaglandins. They are all derived from arachidonic acid by various enzymatic conversions."" "

" Which of the following anatomic structures is frequently superimposed on periapical or occlusal radiographs of the anterior maxilla:" a. Maxillary sinus b. Vomer c. Anterior nasal spine d. Cribiform plate

c. anterior nasal spine

hyoid bone is located: between what 2 cervical vertebrae a. C1-C2 b. C2-C3 c. C3-C4 d. C4-C5

c. between C3-C4

" Which arch form would more closely approximate normal position of the 2nd & 3rd molars + greater width across the premolars" a. Bonwill-Hawley b. Catenary Curve c. Brader d. Arch Blanks

c. brader arch form

When taking lateral cephalograms, double intensifying screens and screen films are used to reduce: "a. Density b. Contrast c. Exposure times d. Secondary radiation e. Target-skin distance

c. exposure times "

most expansion in RME a. nasal cavity b. intermolar c. interpremolar d. J-J e. Alar base

c. interpremolar unless u have centrals or inter canine pick those

Which organ helps retain Ca2+? "a. Heart b. Skin c. Kidney d. Spleen

c. kidney

"The arch length from mesial of mandibular 2nd molar to mesial of contralateral 2nd molar should be about what percentage of that distance in the max arch? a.50% b.73% c.91% d.100%

c.91% Definition of BOLTON discrepancy (correct) " article 55 - Clinical application of a tooth size analysis

If you have a TMD patient going for surgery and you find interferences and open space the appointment before her scheduled surgery. what should you do? a.Delay until both are fixed b.Delay until space is closed c.Delay until interferences are fixed but not spaces d.Do not delav for either reason

c.Delay until interferences are fixed but not spaces

What is the best to determine growth rotation? a. Serial cephs-12mo apart b. Serial cephs c. Implant study d. Hand/Wrist study

c.Implant studies (correct) Bjork ABO article #54

Bonded RPE is important for:

controlling vertical and freeway space prevents max molar extrusion and mandible from moving down and back

According to some studies, temporomandibular joint sounds are a common finding in approximately ____% of the population, including patients before orthodontic treatment. a. 50 b. 75 c. 87 d. 25

d. 25 (correct) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Page 82 section ""TMJ sounds and Orthodontic Treatment"" ""Temporomandibular joint sounds are a common finding and occur in approximately 20-30% of the population including patients before orthodontic treatment"""

When asymptomatic non-ectopic impacted mand 8's are followed from age 20-24 yrs, what % of molars are expected to erupt normal? a. 70 % b. 57 % c. 45 % d. 33 % e. 20 %

d. 33 % (correct)

What bacteria involved in juvenile periodontitis? a. Stapholococcus areus b. Streptococcus albicans c. Porphyromonas gingivalis d. Actinobactilus actinomycetemcomitans

d. Actinobactilus actinomycetemcomitans c - one that causes bone loss during Orthodontics treatment

Which bacterium is involved in juvenile periodontitis? a. Stapholococcus areus b. Streptococcus albicans c. Porphyromonas gingivalis d. Actinobactilus actinomycetemcomitans

d. Actinobactilus actinomycetemcomitans (correct)"

-In a patient with hemifacial microsomia, which of the following exhibit abnormal growth? ○ a. Cranial Base ○ b. Maxilla ○ c. Mandible ○ d. B and C

d. B and C maxillary and mandible

The anchorage value of a tooth is function of all of the following, except: a. Root surface area b. PDL area c. Tooth's inclination relative to the direction of the force d. Crown anatomy

d. Crown anatomy (correct)"

" The mandibular growth rate in females has been found to be:" a. Twice as large for 14 to 16 year olds when compared to 16 to 20 year olds b. Similar for 14 to 16 year olds when compared to 16 to 20 year olds c. Primarily in the mandibular plane area d. Greater in vertical growth than in anterior-posterior

d. Greater in vertical growth than in anterior-posterior (correct) "

In which of the following cleft types is hypertelorism found? a. Oro-ocular (hypotelorism) b. Lateral c. Oblique d. Midline

d. Midline (correct)"

" In its classic form, serial extraction applies to pt who meet all of the following criteria, except:" a. No skeletal disproportions. b. Cl. I molar relationship. c. Normal overbite. d. Mild arch perimeter deficiency

d. Mild arch perimeter deficiency.(correct) Serial Extraction Criteria -Severe crowding ( greater than 10mm) is an indicator of pursuing serial extraction -Normal to moderate OB/OJ -Class I molars -Slight protrusion -No skeletal issue -Goal is to transfer incisor crowding posterior to PM ext site - The key to success in serial extraction is to EXT the first premolars before the canines erupt

" When does the nose stop growing in males? a. Age 18 b. Age 30 c. Age 50 d. Never

d. Never "

Which is correct when looking at a developed lateral cephalogram? a. Left mandible is higher and bigger b. Left mandible is lower and smaller c. Right mandible is higher and smaller d. Right mandible is lower and bigger

d. Right mandible is lower and bigger (correct)"

Which of the following does NOT change from age 8-18? a. Facial angle b Facial axis c. Broadbent registration point d. Y axis e. A and D f. B and D g. None of the following change

d. Y axis (FH-SGn) b. Facial axis o Facial axis (NaBa-PtGn) - stable (Pt = foramen rotundum) o Y-axis - stable

- Pierre Robin Sequence includes which of the following: a. Cleft Palate b. Micrognathia c. Glossoptosis d. All of the above

d. all of the above

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Which of the following is not a characteristic of adenoid facies: a. high palate and constricted maxillary arch b. open-bite tendency c. hyperdivergent mandible d. class II tendency

d. class II tendency

What happens in arch length from deciduous to permanent dentition when measuring from the mesial of the first molars? "a. increases a lot b. increases a little c. decreases a lot d. decreases a little e. stays the same

d. decreases a little (correct)

The articular disk of the TMJ consists of: a. And outer fibrous layer and inner synovial layer b. Areolar tissue covered by dense fibrous connective tissue c. An outer layer of mesothelium and an inner layer of calcified cartilage d. Dense fibrous connective tissue which may be associated with chondrocytes

d. dense fibrous connective tissue which may be associated with condrocytes* "

BUSCHANG ANATOMY Q: A pt with an asymmetric face, a sunken areas over the left ramus and a prominent left zygomatic arch caused by ,muscle atrophy superior to the arch. The dx is? a. lesson of the great auricular and lesser occipital b. lesson of the motor nucleus of the facial nerve c. lesson of the mx division of the trigeminal nerve d. lesion of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

d. lesion of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

Maximum force on an implant to cause osseous degeneration? a. 200 grams b. 400 grams c. 100 grams d. none of the above

d. none of the above (correct)" ?? maybe greater than 400 *shrug*

" The hand bone most closely associated with the onset of puberty is:" "a. Hammate b. Radius c. Ulna d. Sessamoid e. Lunate

d. sesamoid "

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: How many cartilages are in the inferior 1/3 of the nose? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7

d.7 septum, greater/major alar, lesser/minor alar

Which small area of the maxilla does not resorb as the maxilla is carried downward and forward by growth? a.A point b.Supradentale c.ANS d.B point

d.B point

What are the advantages to giving platelet rich plasma during surgery? a.You are in a hospitalized setting b.Because the plasma has a platelet count of over 250,000 c.Because it contains all the nutrients necessary for healing except _? (can't remember) and fibronectin. d.Because it contains platelet-derived growth factor, transforming growth factor (TGF), and insulin-like growth factor.

d.Because it contains platelet-derived growth factor, transforming growth factor (TGF), and insulin-like growth factor. Why is platelet Growth Factor good? It includes many things, which help in wound healing

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: arch depth in the mandible

decreases in arch depth (maxillary has overall little change in arch depth)

" Decrease in cell number is:" a. Metaplasia b. Hypotrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Atrophy e. Hypoplasia

e. Hypoplasia (correct) "

Mandibular inter canine width change from primary --> permanent dentition is ...

increases slightly Profitt: ~2mm t 4th ed pg 99 Buschang: Mandibular - ~3mm inc during transition to EARLY mixed dentition. Compensate for the inc in width from maxillary + inc size of mand incisors compared to max. No change/slight decrease with eruption of permanent canine. because the upper canines are bigger than the lower permanent canines and there's no extra space needed. There's no space there so they can't move into it. You DON'T see that 2nd compensation like u did in the maxilla. Proffit: a slight increase in the width of dental arched across the canines. As growth continues, the teeth erupt not only upward but also slightly outward. This increase is small, about 2 mm on the average, but it does contribute to the resolution of early crowding of the incisors o Moorrees & Reed: About 1.75 mm increased in mandibular intercanine width from primary to permanent dentition

The hyoid bone is positioned more ______ in OSA patients (superior/inferior) MOST effective tx for OSA? Dx OSA gold standard?

inferiorly MOST effective tx for OSA? CPAP Dx gold standard OSA = polysomnography

innervation of anterior digastric & posterior digastric

innervation of anterior digastric: CN 5 trigeminal posterior digastric: CN 7 facial

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: RPE - what sutures are affected?

intermaxillary internasal maxillonasal frontomaxillary frontonasal

Disc displacement without reduction. What happens to opening?

ipsilateral Deviation (to affected side) contralateral limited lateral mvmt >23mm opening (limited opening)

ground glass/orange peel assoc with what dx?

juvenile fibrous dysplasia

Benefit of NiTi is what?

low load deflection rate "Proffit 4th ed pg 555 ""The flat load-deflection curve of superelastic NiTi (see Figure 14-4) makes it ideal for initial alignment"" "

From "Article #47 - ""Evaulation of changes in mandibular anterior alignment from 10-20 yrs post retention"" Little's studies show: ....

relapse is unpredictable "Article #47 - ""Evaulation of changes in mandibular anterior alignment from 10-20 yrs post retention"" 1. Long-term alignment was variable and unpredictable. 2. No descriptive characteristics-such as Angle Class, length of retention, age of the initiation of treatment, or gender- nor measured variables-such as initial or end-of-activetreatment alignment, overbite, overjet, arch width, or arch length-were of value in predicting the long-term result. 3. Arch dimensions of width and length typically decreased after retention, whereas crowding increased. This occurred in spite of treatment maintenance of initial intercanine width, treatment expansion, or constriction. 4. Success at maintaining satisfactory mandibular anterior alignment is less than 30%. with nearly 20% of the cases likely to show marked crowding many years after removal of retainers."

** A sudden change in occlusion, open bite, and pain (parafunction), internal derangement are all associated with a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthritis

rheumatoid arthritis 1. open bite+ 2. change in occlusion+ 3. pain

The greatest increase in arch perimeter is achieved by:

rpe

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Premature fusion of what suture causes the head to be dolicocephalic?

sagittal

SLOB Rule (They tell you tooth is lingual and that they are taking xray from distal)

same lingual, opposite buccal -if you take x-ray from the mesial, the buccal root/object will appear distal on the radiograph

what ganglion does the trigeminal nerve (CN5) come from? (choose all that apply) a. Semilunar ganglion b. Gasserian ganglion c. Trigeminal ganglion d. Geniculate ganglion

semilunar/gasserian ganglion a. Semilunar ganglion b. Gasserian ganglion c. Trigeminal ganglion

" How do you counter balance the tip-back effect of the molars with a high pull headgear?"

shorter outer bow and away from the cheek *"

BUQ: w patient left side closest to the film, the left antegonial notch that lies after-inferiroly to the right notch?

side closest to the film is smaller (less magnification)

Pilot holes are more stable in ...

the mandibular bone

there is both arch circumference and arch length loss from primary to permanent dentition transition True False

there is both arch circumference and arch length loss from primary to permanent dentition transition (ie when 2nd primary molars are lost) TRUE "Proffit 4th edition pg 100: When the second primary molars are lost, the first permanent molars move forward (mesially) relatively rapidly, into the leeway space. This decreases both arch length and arch circumference, which are related but not the same thing Both arch length (L) and arch circumference tend to decrease during the transition (i.e., some of the leeway space is used by mesial movement of the molars). "

What is most associated with mandibular asymmetries in children?

trauma (correct) p172 proffit fig 6-3

Cross bite, asymmetric mandible (The most common cause of an asymmetric mandible in children is?)

trauma and congenital "Proffit 4th ed pg 133-134 ""An old condylar fracture is the most likely cause of asymmetric mandibular deficiency in a child, but other destructive processes that involve the temporomandibular joint such as rheumatoid arthritis or a congenital absence of tissue as in hemifacial microsomia also can produce this problem."" downward away from the rest of the facial skeleton. The "

Elastic limit and proportional limit can be used interchangeably

true

Skeletally hyper divergent open bite patient (Buschang/English article) Treatment should be initiated BEFORE adolescent spurt

true

T/F (from other source): A 0.010-inch diameter wire will be deflected 8 times as much as a 0.020-inch diameter wire by the same force

true

vertical cranial sutures continue to remodel throughout life T/F

true

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: There may be marked variation in calcification of upper and lower third molars (T/F):

true last tooth to emerge of each group is most variable

80% of dental open bites during MIXED dentition autocorrect, so interceptive treatment is of little or no value (when the Open bite is of DENTAL origin)

true true

-Which of the following is NOT a feature of hemifacial microsomia? ○ Skeletal defects ○ Soft tissue defects ○ Skin tags ○ Microstomia ○ Ear abnormalities ○ Soft tissue hypoplasia

○ Microstomia *** (they have MACRO-STOMIA unusually WIDE mouth; cleft in the cheek that is continuous with the corners of the mouth)

" Upper lip soft tissue to chin" ratio

"a. 3:1" Profit 4th ed. pg.180

What wire would you use to apply a constant force over a long period of time? a. Martensitic Niti b. Austenitic Niti c.Braided d.SS

" "b. Austenitic Niti (correct)

When taking an intraoral PA with two films (duplicates), what do you need to adjust to ensure quality? a. Increase kVP b. Decrease kVP c. Increase milliamps d. Decrease milliamps

" "c. Increase milliamps \

" What does not happen during tooth eruption" a. Elongation of the roots b. Occlusal movement c. Mesial movement d. Growth of the alveolar bone e. Resorption of deciduous tooth roots

" "c. Mesial movement (correct)

" Which of the following medications has been shown to cause gingival enlargement?" a. Aspirin b. Epinephrine c. Procardia (nifedipin) d. Motrin (ibuprofen) e. Aldomet (methydopa)

" "c. Procardia (nifedipin) (correct)

Which are not centric cusps in posterior crossbite? a. Lingual cusps of the maxillary first molar b. Buccal cusps of the maxillary first molar

""a. Lingual cusps of the maxillary first molar (correct)

Which of the following is NOT included on ABO DI analysis a. FMA b. ANB c. IMPA d. Sn-MP

"A. FMA " "Everyone got this wrong in 2010 We guessed IMPA because ABO example tracing labels IMPA as ""/1 to MP"" and ABO defines the mandibular plane differently (using constructed gonion instead of gonion) http://www.americanboardortho.com/professionals/clinicalexam/casereportpresentation/preparation/tracings.aspx# http://www.americanboardortho.com/professionals/clinicalexam/casereportpresentation/preparation/CephTraceExample1.aspx ABO uses: SNA, SNB, ANB, SN-MP, FMA, SN-U1, MP-L1, 1/-NA, /1-NB, E-plane http://am ericanboardortho.com/professionals/downloads/Example%20Case%20Presentation.pdf"

"Curve of Monson "

"Is the upper arch curve of wilson http://medical-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/Monson+curve Etymology: George S. Monson, American dentist, 1869-1933; L, curvus, a bend the curve of occlusion in which each tooth cusp and incisal edge lie on the surface of a sphere 8 inches (20 cm) in diameter, with its center in the region of the glabella. -provides balancing side contact during lateral excursions "

what are the growth CENTERS?

"PEENS" Primary cartilage, Endochondral bone formation/Epiphyseal plates, Nasal septum, Synchondroses

"What are the landmarks for vertical facial thirds? "

"Proffit 4th ed pg 177: vertical thirds = hairline (trichion) - eyebrows (glabella); eyebrows - base of nose (subnasale); base of nose - chin (menton)"

What is the application of spring back?

"The ability to deform the wire and return to its original shape."

" When cropping pictures what pixel does ABO recommend" a. 1/4 pics- 24-bit (bits/pixel) color-depth, 300-dpi JPEG images w/ medium compression b. 8-bit grayscale, 200-dpi JPEG with medium compression

"a. 1/4 pics- 24-bit (bits/pixel) color-depth, 300-dpi JPEG images w/ medium compression Xray 8-bit grayscale, 200-dpi JPEG with medium compression "

Among the population of adult ortho pts w/perio disease what is the percentage of pts expected to show rapid progression of the disease: a. 10% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90%

"a. 10% (correct)

The radiation protection guide advocates that the XR dose to operators of the dental machines should not exceed? a. 100 milliroentgens per week b. 10 roentgens per week c. 100 roentgens per week d. 300 roentgens per week

"a. 100 milliroentgens per week * "

After maxillary tooth extraction in anterior region the ridge width is reduced in buccolingual dimension over next 6 months by what %? a. 11% b. 18% c. 23% d. 33%

"a. 11% b. 18% c. 23% (correct) ( 1st 6 months) d. 33% (over 5 years)"

" What is the peak height velocity?"

"a. 12 for girls b. 14 for boys c. both (correct) "

How far is the film from the midsagital plane in a ceph? a. 15 cm b. 20 cm c. 4 feet d. 5 feet

"a. 15 cm (correct)

The sample size in a cephalometric study aiming to produce data for clinical decisions has to be at least: a. 15 patients b. 25 patients c. 50 patients d. None of the above

"a. 15 patients (correct)

"Most stainless steel wires are made of ? a. 18% Chromium b. 10% Nickel c. 8 % Nickel d. a & b e. a & c

"a. 18% Chromium - prevents corrosion c. 8 % Nickel - adds flexibility e. a & c (correct)"

The typical formation of stainless steel for use in orthodontic wires has: a. 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel b. 8% Chromium and 18% Nickel c. 80% Chromium and 18% Nickel d. None of the above

"a. 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel (correct)

Where was the first meeting of ABO? a. 1929 Estes Park, Colorado b. 1938 Estes Park, Colorado c. 1929 Denver, Colorado d. 1932 St. Louis

"a. 1929 Estes Park, Colorado (answer) "1929 - Estes Park, CO - First meeting of ABO 1900 - St. Louis, MO - First meeting of AAO "

What is the ratio of the amount of bony vs. soft tissue advancement in an advancement genioplasty? a. 1:1 b. 1:2 c. 1:3 d. 1:4

"a. 1:1

How to purely rotate a tooth? a. 1st order bends b. 2nd order bends c. third order d. 1st and 2nd order

"a. 1st order bends (correct)

When does primary teeth start to calcify in the fetus? a. 4 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 24 weeks d. 8 months"

"a. 4 weeks b. 14 weeks (correct - U & L centrals) c. 24 weeks d. 8 months"

When a tooth erupts, how much root has been formed? a. 2/3 b. 3/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2

"a. 2/3 (correct) b. ¾ c. 1/3 d. ½" Eruption begins at 2/3, tooth emerges at 3/4 root formation

18 YO Patient is missing upper lateral incisor, how much space is needed for the replacement with an implant?

"a. 2/3 width of the central (62% as written in other answers) b. same as contralateiral lateral c. 7 mm d. all of the above * "

Physicians use height/weight charts when there is how much deviation from norm? a. 20% b. 40% c. 50% d. 90%

"a. 20% b. 40% c. 50% d. 90% (correct)" Same source as above.

" The most difficult to point locate on a ceph is?" a. A point b. B point c. Sella d. Ar

"a. A point (correct)

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of TMD a. Anterior disc displacement (ADD) b. Pain c. Headaches d. All of the above are symptoms

"a. ADD (is a sign not a symptom) * ""● SIGNS (something we see)--ADD, locking, condylar dislocation ● SYMPTOMS (something the PATIENT notices)--pain, join sounds, impaired mobility of joints

" VTO after extraction makes patient look better then in real life"

"a. Accurate to be reliably used"

upper central incisor located 5mm apical to CEJ of other tooth a. CE b. APF

"a. CE (correct) "Article ""Uncovering labially impacted teeth: apically positioned flap and closed eruption techniques,"" Vermette, Kokich, Kennedy: - ""Some clinicians believe that the closed eruption method replicates natural tooth eruption and therefore produces the best esthetic and periodontal results."" CE - If tooth is impacted in the middle of the alveolus or high in the vestibule near the nasal spine {significantly apical to MGJ} APF - If tooth requires more attached gingiva or is displaced lateral to the edentulous area "

What is the worst/poorest appliance for vertical control/anchorage? a. CPHG b. HPHG c. TPA d. Nance e. Twin block

"a. CPHG (correct) CPHG has distal and extrusive vectors

If you are doing research on cephs, but one group is on one machine & the 2nd group is on another machine. What affect on your results? a. Factor in a magnification between the two machines b. Can't use the data c. No effect

"a. Factor in a magnification between the two machines *

True/False " Supernumerary teeth are most common in posteriors"

"a. False" supernumerary more common in anterior

What is associated with primary herpetic gingivostomatitis? a. Fever b. Lymphadenopathy c. Gingival lesions d. All of the above e. None of the above

"a. Fever b. Lymphadenopathy c. Gingival lesions d. All of the above (correct)

The following statements are correct: a. Final facial size is attained earlier in females than males b. Male facial growth continues into the second decade c. Facial growth is likely to be at the time final height was attained in females and continues after in male d. All of the above e. None of the above

"a. Final facial size is attained earlier in females than males b. Male facial growth continues into the second decade c. Facial growth is likely to be at the time final height was attained in females and continues after in male d. All of the above (correct) e. None of the above"

What is more likely to cause an anterior open-bite in a 10 years old child: a. Forward resting position of the tongue. b. Tongue thrust swallowing. c. Thumbsucking habit with duration of about 3h/day. d. None of the above

"a. Forward resting position of the tongue. (correct)

" What does Rickett's use as a reference plane?" a. Frankfort horizontal b. SN c. Palatal plane d. Occlusal plane

"a. Frankfort horizontal (correct)

"How is superelastic NiTi deactivated? a. From martensitic to austenetic b. From austenstic to martensetic

"a. From martensitic to austenetic (correct) by thermal Proffit 4th ed pg 363: see figures 10-6 and 10-7

Where do you find supernumerary teeth? a. Gardner's Syndrome b. Cleidocranial dysostosis c. All of the above d. None of the above

"a. Gardner's Syndrome b. Cleidocranial dysostosis c. All of the above *

" What are some possible causes of a cleft palate?" a. Heredity b. Drugs c. All of the above d. None of the above

"a. Heredity b. Drugs c. All of the above (correct)

" What is the incidence of Cleft palate in American Indian population?" a. Higher than whites b. Less than whites

"a. Higher than whites (correct) AI>C>AA American Indians > caucasian > blacks

" In orthodontic tooth movement, the sites of greatest pressure in the periodontal ligament are characterized by:" "a. Hyalinization b. Infiltration of osteoclasts c. Infiltration of macrophages d. Infiltration of neutrophiles i. a, b and c ii. a, b and d iii. a, c and d iv. b, c and d v. all of the above "

"a. Hyalinization b. Infiltration of osteoclasts c. Infiltration of macrophages d. Infiltration of neutrophiles i. a, b and c ii. a, b and d iii. a, c and d iv. b, c and d v. all of the above (CORRECT) " What is not seen in hyalinized areas of the PDL? Pg. 914 Graber A. Fibroblasts B. Cementoblasts C. Osteoclasts D. Macrophages E. PMNs-ANSWER a. PMNs= AKA neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils If PMNs arent an option then select OSTEOCLASTS. PMN was not an answer choice

Root Resorption is influenced by a. Hypothyroidism b. Nutrition c. Appliance type

"a. Hypothyroidism *

"Best surgical procedure in a patient with TMD problems? What is best surgery for pt with TMD? Class 3 prognathic with TMD. What surgery is best?" a. IVRO b. VRO c. BSSO d. TOVRO

"a. IVRO (correct) Intraoral Vertical Ramus Osteotomy W/ NO RIGID FIXATION Aras: for BSSO set back, when you are doing fixation there is more torquing at condyle causing TMJ issues " "Text: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery: Orthognathic surgery, Raymond J. Fonseca -pts tend to have fewer TMJ complaints after IVRO than after BSSO Article #29 (p98-99)"

Root resorption stops: a. In active retention b. In passive retention

"a. In active retention

Meckel's cartilage forms? "a. Incus b. Malleous c. Sphenomandibular ligament d. All of the above

"a. Incus b. Malleous c. Sphenomandibular ligament d. All of the above" (<-- should be this) & the linguala of the mandible

" The recent consensus is that grafting of alveolar process in cleft palate patient is contradicted during:" a. Infancy b. Late primary and early mixed dentition c. Late mixed and early permanent dentition d. Late teens

"a. Infancy (correct)

Problems with heart valves can cause... a. Infective endocarditis b. Rheumatic Fever c. Aortic Stenosis d. All of the above

"a. Infective endocarditis b. Rheumatic Fever c. Aortic Stenosis d. All of the above *"

What is the treatment of an abraded maxillary central incisor with a gingival margin lower than the other central? a. Intruding the abraded tooth and restoring that tooth b. Apical repositioning c. Gingivectomy on the other central

"a. Intruding the abraded tooth and restoring that tooth*

** Lingual root torque in mandibular anterior, what happens posterior"

"a. Intrusion and MESIAL mvmt"

Which of the following is false about placement of RIF (Rigid Internal Fixation): a. Is required for all orthognatic surgeries, including the highly stable. b. Can displace the condyles. c. Has been suggested as a factor of postsurgical TMD. d. Makes a difference when both jaws are repositioned simultaneously.

"a. Is required for all orthognatic surgeries, including the highly stable. (correct) " "ABO Article #17 - Bailey - Stability and predictability of orthognathic surgery - Page 275 ""For acceptable stability, RIF does not appear to be required for procedures int he highly stable or stable categories. RIF does make a difference, however, when both jaws are repositioned simultaneously. The combination of maxilla up plus mandible forward and its class III counterpart, maxilla forward plus mandible back, can be considered stable (by the same criteria listed above) only if RIF is used"""

Which of the below is true about the suture expanding in maxillary expansion? a. It expands more anteriorly than posteriorly and more inferiorly than superiorly b. It expands more posteriorly than anteriorly and more inferiorly than superiorly c. It expands more anteriorly than posteriorly and more superiorly than inferiorly d. It expands more posteriorly than anteriorly and more superiorly than inferiorly

"a. It expands more anteriorly than posteriorly and more inferiorly than superiorly (correct)

Which of the following is FALSE: a. It is possible that growth in the brachyfacial pattern may lead to a flat smile arc. b. Patients with brachyfacial skeletal pattern might, theoretically, have a tendency for the anterior maxilla to lack the clockwise tilt needed for an ideal smile arc c. In some cases brachyfacial patients might exhibit a counterclockwise tilt that results in a flat smile arc. d. Dolicofacial patients tend to have more ideal smile arcs.

"a. It is possible that growth in the brachyfacial pattern may lead to a flat smile arc. b. Patients with brachyfacial skeletal pattern might, theoretically, have a tendency for the anterior maxilla to lack the clockwise tilt needed for an ideal smile arc c. In some cases brachyfacial patients might exhibit a counterclockwise tilt that results in a flat smile arc. d. Dolicofacial patients tend to have more ideal smile arcs. (correct) " ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 101 - a, b, c are word for word. D is not.

Which of the following surgical procedures is likely to require a graft for stabilization: a. Le Fort I downfracture. b. Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy c. Transoral vertical oblique ramus osteotomy d. Segmental retraction of the anterior maxilla

"a. Le Fort I downfracture.

What do you NOT take into consideration for closed eruption technique

"a. Length of root"

Which of the following is least likely to relapse/most stable? a. Curve of Spee b. Rotations c. Deep bite

"a. Leveling the Curve of Spee (correct) Most likely to relapse = Rotations > deep bite > COS (Stability in deep bite pts is more favorable in growing individuals)

" Def. of functional occlusal plane"

"a. Line thru occlusal surface of 1st molar and premolars "

" What is the best way to tell if a tooth is ankylosed?" a. Looking at the bone level compared to adjacent teeth b. Tapping on it, listening to the way it sounds compared to others c. Luxating it

"a. Looking at the bone level compared to adjacent teeth (correct)

Which genioplasty techniques is considered the current best approach for chin augmentation: a. Lower border osteotomy b. Silicon implants c. Porous hydroxylapatite implants d. Bone grafts

"a. Lower border osteotomy*

Which of the following are responsible for familial dental anomalies, agenesis a. MSX1 b. PAX9 c. A and B d. None of the above

"a. MSX1 b. PAX9 c. A and B (correct) "

Which of the following is FALSE a. Males show more maxillary incisors and more mandibular incisors at rest and on smile than do females. b. In orthodontic smile analysis, we usually evaluate the posed smile on the basis of amount of incisor and gingival display and the transverse dimension of the smile. c. Some amount of gingival display is esthetic and youthful in appearance d. Lack of gingival display is not as attractive as complete tooth display

"a. Males show more maxillary incisors and more mandibular incisors at rest and on smile than do females. (correct) " ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 98

What describes growth of the condyle? mandible displaces ___ & ______

"a. Mandible displaces down & forward" " ""ABO 2008 comments after question states: ( that it pushes mandible down and forward is false... condyles contribute horizontal """"pushing""""; there are other components of growth that cause the vertical """"pushing"""") Does condylar growth only contribute to forward displacement of mandible and not downward displacement?"" Proffit 4th ed. pg 46: - body of mandible grows horizontally in length via APPOSITION AT POSTERIOR BORDER OF RAMUS - ramus grows vertically in height via ENDOCHONDRIAL REPLACEMENT AT C the condyle accompanied by surface remodeling - Conceptually, it is correct to view the mandible as being translated downward and forward, while at the same time increasing in size by growing upward and backward. The translation occurs largely as the bone moves downward and forward along with soft tissues in which it is embedded."

" Effect of cervical HG:"

"a. Mandible rotates backward b. Palatal plane tipping c. Both (correct) "

What is the least stable surgical movement? a. Mandibular advancement b. Mandibular setback c. Maxillary downfracture d. Maxillary expansion

"a. Mandibular advancement b. Mandibular setback c. Maxillary downfracture d. Maxillary expansion If I had to pick 1 I would do maxilla wide, but muy importante indicated md set back is more problematic?? (Proffit 705)"

At birth the crowns of which primary teeth have been calcified? a. Mandibular incisors b. Mandibular 1st molars c. Maxillary canine d. Maxillary 1st molars

"a. Mandibular incisors (correct) b. Mandibular 1st molars c. Maxillary canine d. Maxillary 1st molars" timmys-mandibular incisors have been calcified at birth. -False (started but not completed till 1.5mon).

" What is the significance of a long posterior cranial base? (S-Ba)" "a. Mandibular retrognathism b. Anterior x-bite c. Maxillary retrognathism d. All of the above

"a. Mandibular retrognathism class 2 " "Proffit 4th ed pg214: Enlow's counterpart analysis - anterior cranial base lengthening assoc w/ enlargement of nasomax. complex in anterior direction - spheno-occipital synchondrosis/complex growth assoc. w/ enlargement of nasopharynx and ramus"

Limits of surgical procedures? (Proffit p. 675)

"a. Max impaction: anterior limit = 9-10mm b. Maxillary advancement = 7-8 mm (9-10mm) c. Maxillary expansion = 5-6 mm (9-10mm) d. Mandibular advancement = 9-10 mm e. Mandibular setback = 10 mm"

which of the following participates in the formation of the ala of the nose? "a. Medial nasal process b. Lateral nasal process c. Premaxilla"

"a. Medial nasal process b. Lateral nasal process (correct) c. Premaxilla" No refernce

On a PA ceph, if the patient does not have a mandibular asymmetry, which structure is NOT bilateral? a. Menton b. A point c. pterygomaxillary fissure (PTM)

"a. Menton (correct) "Jacobsen Pg 268 - doesn't list a-point as a midline structure Menton = most inferior point of the mandibular symphysis, in the midsagittal plane. (midsagittal) A point = midsaggital on lateral ceph only (not PA) PTM = bilateral, inverted teardrop-shaped radiolucency (most inferior point of the fissure)"

TMJ pain can be caused by a. Myositis b. Trauma c. Dental problems d. Intracapsular problems e. All of the above f. None of the above

"a. Myositis b. Trauma c. Dental problems d. Intracapsular problems e. All of the above *

Which of the following is formed by mesoderm? a. Nails b. Skin c. Hair d. Cementum

"a. Nails b. Skin c. Hair d. Cementum (correct)" Mesoderm or Ectomesenchyme (comes from Neural Crest) Dentin, PDL, Pulp, Cementum, blood vessels, skeletalmuscular Ectoderm Skin, nail, hair, enamel Dental lamina: origin of the enamel organ

The complications of single tooth implants include: a. Narrow alveolar bone b. Poor crown/ root ratio c. Cervical bone loss d. Need for bone augmentation e. All the above

"a. Narrow alveolar bone b. Poor crown/ root ratio c. Cervical bone loss d. Need for bone augmentation e. All the above * "

TMJ problems in the general population: a. Occur the same or more than in the orthodontically treated population b. Occur more in females than males c. Are often stress related with accompanying muscle spasms and trismus d. Are usually due to pathology or derangements e. All of the above

"a. Occur the same or more than in the orthodontically treated population b. Occur more in females than males c. Are often stress related with accompanying muscle spasms and trismus d. Are usually due to pathology or derangements e. All of the above * "

" Calcification of the upper and lower third molars" "a. Occurs at the same time b. Varies greatly c. Is related to calcification of the other teeth "

"a. Occurs at the same time b. Varies greatly (correct) c. Is related to calcification of the other teeth "

What are the characteristics of an Ameloblastoma? a. Occurs in the third molar area b. High recurrence after removal c. Usually occurs after age 20 d. All of the above

"a. Occurs in the third molar area b. High recurrence after removal c. Usually occurs after age 20 d. All of the above (correct)"

Articulation of the _____________ with C1 (atlas) permits the rotation of the head a. odontoid process (dens) b. C3 c. C4

"a. Odontoid process (Dens)"

Why is there a greater break down of bone in patients with gingival inflammation? "a. Osteoporosis b. Higher prostaglandin levels c. Higher phosphatase levels"

"a. Osteoporosis b. Higher prostaglandin levels (correct) c. Higher phosphatase levels"

The fifth cranial nerve (trigeminal) or branch thereof passes through all the foramen listed below except: a. Ovale b. Rotundum c. Spinosum d. Mandibular e. Lacerum

"a. Ovale b. Rotundum c. Spinosum d. Mandibular e. Lacerum (correct)" No reference MORS - foramens for CN5

When a person goes from centric occlusion to centric relation, which of the following is true? a. Overbite decreases b. Overjet increases c. Vertical dimension increases d. All of the above e. None of the above

"a. Overbite decreases b. Overjet increases c. Vertical dimension increases d. All of the above (correct)

** Maximum expansion of maxilla is limited by?

"a. Pterygoid Plate"

" How is the sphenoid bone form?" "a. Partly by endochondral bone formation b. Entirely by endochondral bone formation c. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation "

"a. Partly by endochondral bone formation * Intramembranous § Frontal, Maxilla, Parietal, Palatine, Lacrimal, Zygomatic, Nasal, Vomer o Purely endochondral- mnemonics: HE IS In "endo" § Hyoid, Ethmoid, Incus, Stapes, Inferior concha o Mixed - mnemonics: Ma MOST "mix" § Malleus, Mandible, Occipital, Sphenoid, Temporal

" How is the sphenoid bone form?" "a. Partly by endochondral bone formation b. Entirely by endochondral bone formation c. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation

"a. Partly by endochondral bone formation * b. Entirely by endochondral bone formation c. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation "

Pt said that pain started from right TMJ down to masetter area then across midline to left angle of the mandible. What do you suspect? a. Physchogenic pain b. Myosistitis c. Internal derangement

"a. Physchogenic pain *

What is NOT a feature of Apert's? a. Premature suture closure b. fusion of phalanges c. mx hypoplasia d. mental retardation e. all of the above

"a. Premature suture closure (OF CORONAL SUTURE) b. fusion of phalanges c. mx hypoplasia d. mental retardation e. all of the above (correct)" "ABO breakdown pg 8 - mental retardation is the only debatable of all answers All of these are true" BUSCHANGS NOTES SAY MENTAL DEFICITS ASSOC WITH SYNOSTOSIS

The gold standard for evaluating clinical procedures in orthodontics is: a. Randomized clinical trial. b. Case reports. c. Retrospective study, inclusion based only on pretreatment characteristics. d. None of the above

"a. Randomized clinical trial. (correct)

The best measure of the limits of a sample are a. Range b. Standard Deviation c. Mean d. Specificity

"a. Range (correct) spread of extremes, limits

" How does mandible grow AP?" "a. Resorption of ______ ramus, apposition of _______ ramus"

"a. Resorption of anterior ramus, apposition of posterior ramus"

During a 1 year period treatment of a female pt, she's shifting to the right w/an open bite on the right getting worse. What is the cause? a. Resorption of the right condyle or hyperplasia of the left condyle b. Resorption of the left condyle or hyperplasia of the right condyle

"a. Resorption of the right condyle or hyperplasia of the left condyle

Which of the following is the ability to detect a disease if the disease is present? a. Sensitivity b. Plausibility c. Variance d. Specificity

"a. Sensitivity (correct)

What is the best method to measure mandibular growth changes? a. Serial superimpositions (longitudinal method) b. Cephs of parents c. Ceph at one point in time (metric method) d. Implant study (structural method)

"a. Serial superimpositions (longitudinal method) (correct)

In Paget's disease which of the following lab tests are elevated? a. Serum Alkaline phosphatase b. WBC count c. PTT d. Serum glucose

"a. Serum Alkaline phosphatase * note: hypophosphatasia = deficiency in alkaline phosphatase

** If you want to counteract the distal tipping of max. molar w/high pull headgear, what should you do to length & position of outer bow?" a. Shorter and more gingival b. Longer and more occlusal c. Nothing

"a. Shorter and more gingival (correct) "

What is the major difference between Apert's and Crouzon's syndromes? a. Slant of the eyes b. Syndactyly c. One is Class II and the other is Class III d. None of the above

"a. Slant of the eyes b. Syndactyly * (IS SEEN IN APERTS) c. One is Class II and the other is Class III d. None of the above"

ncusf you buy a new ceph machine, but it's 5 mm greater distance between object and film-what happens? (15.5 cm instead of 15.0cm) "a. Slightly enlarged b. Significantly enlarged c. No change

"a. Slightly enlarged *

Mandibular intercanine width changes from primary to permanent dentition: "a. Slightly increases b. Significantly increases c. Slightly decreases"

"a. Slightly increases (correct) "Profit 4th ed. pg. 99: A slight increase in the width of the dental arch across the canines. As growth continues, the teeth erupt not only upward but also slightly outward. This increase is small, about 2 mm on the average, but it does contribute to the resolution of early crowding of the incisors. Proffit 4th ed. pg. 100 Fig 3-40 also states a ""slight"" increase Moorees & Reed, J. dent. Res. January-February 1965: Showed ~1.75mm increase in Mand intercanine width from primary to permanent dentition."

Know Strength vs Springiness: a. Strength = Stiffness x Range b. Springiness = 1/Stiffness

"a. Strength = Stiffness x Range b. Springiness = 1/Stiffness" "Proffit 4th ed page 360 Pg. 360 ""For orthodontic purposes, three major properties of beam materials are critical in defining their clinical usefulness: strength, stiffness (or its inverse, springiness), and range."" Pg 361 ""Strength = Stiffness x Range"""

The etiologic agent of the majority of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis cases is: a. Streptococcus Aureus b. Staphylococcus Aureus c. Staphylococcus epedemitis d. All of the above

"a. Streptococcus Aureus (correct) NOTE: OsteomyeLitis --> STAPHlococcus aureus

" Sialolith"

"a. Submandibular gland (correct)" No reference

" Active stabilization of teeth is:" a. The ability of the PDL to generate a force contributing to the equilibrium situation. b. Why lower incisors continue to move labially under tongue pressure. c. What sets the threshold of orthodontic forces at 2-3 gm/cm². d. Prevention of orthodontic treatment relapse using active removable appliances

"a. The ability of the PDL to generate a force contributing to the equilibrium situation.(correct) "V: PDL also provides active stabilization against prolonged forces of light magnitude, perhaps up to 5-10 g/cm2 PDL stabilizes your teeth preventing them from moving from P w soft tissue,tongue,cheeks, etc forces.

When a tooth is ankylosed, the amount of the ridge defect depends mainly upon:

"a. The amount of facial growth after ankylosis (correct)

Often in the treatment of a Cl II case in a nongrowing pt with upper premolar extractions, which of the below are possible outcomes? a. The maxillary first molars are meant to be left with a small amount of mesial rotation b. There is a small space between the canine and the premolar meant to be left c. The maxillary first molar occludes with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar

"a. The maxillary first molars are meant to be left with a small amount of mesial rotation (correct)

Incisor liability refers to: a. The space needed for the maxillary incisors b. The proclination of the maxillary incisors c. The retroclination of the maxillary incisors

"a. The space needed for the maxillary incisors (correct) the difference in the size of the primary and permanent incisors

What is gemination? a. The upper 1/3 of the crown is notched, one pulp chamber b. The pulp chamber is obliterated c. The roots are short

"a. The upper 1/3 of the crown is notched, one pulp chamber (correct) "Gemination: one root, one pulp, two crowns Fusion: two roots, two pulp, one crown "

** The impaction of mandibular third molars after orthodontic treatment is associated with:" a. The vertical component of growth b. Higher than usual mandibular plane angles c. Excessively large ascending rami d. Short mandibular bodies e. All of the above

"a. The vertical component of growth b. Higher than usual mandibular plane angles c. Excessively large ascending rami d. Short mandibular bodies e. All of the above (correct) "

Which is a correct statement regarding inplant research if using it for anchorage? a. There is no movement of the implant b. There was slight movement (<.1 microns/yr) c. There is little movement d. There is moderate movement

"a. There is no movement of the implant

" In utilizing, which appraisal is a determination of the relationship between the maxilla and the mandible?" a. Wits b. SNA c. Facial Axis (Ba-Pt-Gn) d. E-line

"a. Witts "

Undermining resorption is NOT associated with the following (choose all that apply): "a. frontal resorption b. physiologic tooth movement c. clear free cell zone

"a. frontal resorption (correct) b. physiologic tooth movement (correct) c. clear free cell zone" "ABO breakdown: frontal resorption =response to light continuous force "

What are some effects of a clefted soft palate? a. Hypernasal speech b. Snoring c. All of the above d. None of the above

"a. hypernasal speech b. Snoring c. All of the above (correct)

** Open lock, pain on palpation

"a. posterior capsulitis. Not sure about this ? b/c pt has click/lock history, opening <27mm, I put ant displacement w/out reduction b. Closed lock--associated with the inability of the condyle to slide under the displaced meniscus when the patient tries to open the mouth beyond a certain point c. Open lock-- associated with the inability of the condyle to slide back under the meniscus when trying to close the mouth. (correct)"

Which of the following is NOT seen in Down's syndrome? a. premature eruption of teeth b. slanting epicanthial folds c. trisomy 21

"a. premature eruption of teeth (correct) - they have delayed tooth eruption"

when can orthodontic treatment be initiated in a tooth that received apexification a. simultaneously b. wait for 2 yrs

"a. simultaneously (correct) Article "Ortho and endo tx of traumatized teeth", Steiner

Which of the following is not a growth SITE: a. synostoses b. synchondrosis c. syndesmosis d. synarthrosis

"a. synostoses (answer) b. synchondrosis c. syndesmosis d. synarthrosis" "Proffit 4th ed. pg.53: Growth centers: epiphyseal plates, synchondrosis, nasal septum Growth sites: any area where growth occurs (sutures, condyle) synarthrosis: broad category for any connective tissue joint that permits little/no movement (sutures of the cranial vault and gomphosis (PDL) syndesmosis: fibrous joint; partially mobile (ex. wrist, ankle, growing skull bones) synchondrosis: hyalin cartilaginous joint; ex: bones of the cranial base and epiphyseal plates in long bones; it is a growth center synostoses: fusion of 2 bones (found in adult skull) sphenooccipital is a growth center that drives the majority of growth in the cranial base sphenooccipital synchondrosis (closes last - 15-20) intersphenoidal synchondrosis (closes first - at birth) sphenoethmoidal synchondrosis (closes second - 7-8 yrs)"

Which is not a growth CENTER in the craniofacial complex? a. synostosis b. synchondrosis c. syndesmosis

"a. synostosis (correct) Proffit 4th ed. pg.53: Growth centers: epiphyseal plates, synchondrosis, nasal septum Growth sites: any area where growth occurs (sutures, condyle) "

?? One millimeter (1mm) increase in intermolar width results in approximately:

"a.1 mm increase in arch perimeter (for intercanine) b.2 mm increase in arch perimeter (none) c.0.25 mm increase in arch perimeter * (correct if mandibular molars, 0.7mm for maxillary) d.none of the above ** .5mm increase in arch perimeter for interpremolar " No reference

Which statement regarding allergic reactions associated w/ ortho appliances is true: a.They are almost always caused by Latex or Nickel. b.These allergic reactions are never life threatening. c.Only 5% of the US population shows some skin reaction to Nickel. d.All children with skin allergy to Nickel will show a mucosal response to orthodontic appliances.

"a.They are almost always caused by Latex or Nickel. (correct)

Neural crest problems assoc with" a. Treacher Collins (Mandibulofacial dysostosis) b. Hemifacial microsomial c. both d. neither

"a.Treacher Collins b. Hemifacial microsomial c. both (correct)" " Proffit 4th ed pg 74 Altered neural crest development also has been implicated in mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins syndrome) and hemifacial microsomia."

What shows the rotational growth of the mandible? "a.bending of canal and condylar neck angle b.increase in vertical dimension c.increase in the length of the mandible

"a.bending of canal and condylar neck angle (correct) article #54: The seven signs are related to the following features: (1) inclination of the condylar head, (2) curvature of the mandibular canal, (3) shape of the lower border of the mandible, (4) inclination of the symphysis, (5) interincisal angle, (6) intcrprcmolar or intermolar angles, and (7) anterior lower face height.

" How many chromosomes are there in a somatic cell?" a. 23 b. 1 c. 46 d. 47

"c. 46 "

Development of the body of the mandible involves: a. Reichert's cartilage b. A complete cartilage model c. Intramembranous bone formation d. All of the above e. None of the above

"c. intramembranous bone formation"

Prostaglandins are associated with all of the following except: a. IFN-gamma b. IL-1 c. neocytokines d. TNF-alpha

"c. neocytokines" note: il-1 is a cytokine

" Which tooth is lowest in the mandible at age 8?" a. Lateral incisor b. First bicuspid c. Second bicuspid d. Canine

"c. second bicuspid "

The most common oral manifestation of HIV infection is: a. Loss of alveolar bone b. Loosening of teeth c. Candidiasis d. Hairy leukoplakia

"candidiasis "

How many branches does the facial nerve have a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

"d. 5 (correct)" temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical ("Two Zebras Bit My Crack") ten zebras bit my cock

In an adult, a rescue breath (CPR) is given every: a. 2 seconds b. 3 seconds c. 4 seconds d. 5 seconds e. 10 seconds

"d. 5 seconds"

?? Which of the following is not a bilateral structure: a. A point b. Opisthion c. Porion d. Orbitale

"opisthion From muy importante: Is A point bilateral?? --> not necessary a midline structure, he deepest part can be on either side " "A point is not an actual anatomic structure (its mainly on x-rays) therefore we believe that opisthion is a better answer for this question (they didn't specify a specific ceph) "

If a TMD patient has pain that starts in the right TMJ area and they describe that it extends to the left anterior portion of the mandible:

"this is probably psychosocial in origin. (we think that normally, TMJ pain radiates up and back, and doesn't cross the midline)"

Young (10y/o) patient with tongue thrust, 0mm OB/OJ. How do you treat?

-Do Nothing (Unless lip seal exercises are an answer choice)

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: In a hand-wrist x-ray, when does sesamoid bone appear?

11.2 yrs females 12.3 yrs males SMI #4

What is a clinical sign of idiopathic resorption of condyle?

Anterior open bite Other signs: -decreased ramus height; -progressive mand retrusion

CBCT: increase in voxel size, increases magnification. An increase in voxel size, increases resolution T/T T/F F/T F/F

F/F confirmed by aras! inc voxel size = dec in resolution "Dr. Hatcher: - Voxel size effects resolution and accuracy NOT the magnification. There is no significant magnification in CBCT or CT scans. - Decreased voxel size, decreased field of view, increased scan time = increased resolution. CBCT generally has small voxel size. "

BUQ: Ricketts analysis found which 2 planes to be almost parallel?

FH Palatal plane

What 2 lines make up the facial angle?

FH (porion to orbitale) and Nasion-Pog (facial plane)

bone responsible for complex growth or shifting growth or soemthing

Lacrimal (no one knows the q but the ans is for sure lacrimal)

BU CEPH Q: Sassouni ceph analysis the 4 planes in a well balanced face converge posteriorly at what point?

O or center point

What is Rickett's E-line? measures from ____ to _____

Soft tissue Po to tip of nose

BUSCHANG GROWTH Q's: Compared to adolescent growth, adult growth is characterized by greater facial skeletal growth, 2facial soft tissue growth, or similar amounts of facial and skeletal growth?

Soft tissue growth

T/F X-rays do not affect all tissues equally

T developing tooth buds/salivary glands are oral tissues MOST SENSITIVE TO RADITATION

Hemifacial microsomia occurs during 1st trimester. It usually cause complete agenesis of condyle on affected side. T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/F

When treating a cl II malocclusion it is favorable to decrease the SN-MP angle, because it will prevent long term relapse. T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/F

The anterior clinoid is a sagittal suture. The anterior clinoid is the posterior part of the lesser wing of the ethmoid bone a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true and the second false. d. The first statement is false and the second true.

T/F c. The first statement is true and the second false.(correct) " The anterior clinoid is part of the sphenoid bone

In digital photography, use 8 bit, there are 256 shades of gray. This is ok bc human eye can only distinguish 40 shades T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/F Second statement is false, bc human eye can only distinguish 16 shades (not 40)

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: innervation of the TMJ is by the auriculotemporal nerve which is a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/T

Place TAD distal to canine for molar protraction. Pilot hole is more stable in mandibular bone.

T/T " Article ""Critical factors for the success of orthodontic mini-implants: A systematic review,"" Chen: ""self-drilling (no pilot hole) mini-implants at the posterior and inferior aspects of the mandible were not recommended because they have been reported to have a high breakage rate."" . . . implies that a pilot hole is recommended in mandible. mand has denser bone than max, so need to lower insertion torque via pilot hole for TAD stability in mand"

Facemask tx is contraindicated if upper incisors are proclined. Greater dental effects are seen in facemask tx of adolescent pt T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/T see above

No o ties on perio because o ties have been found with more plaque.

TRUE

What has the most friction in a SS slot? a. TMA b. SS c. Niti

a. TMA order most --> least friction TMA > NiTi >SS

Which of the following changes from 8-18 yrs: a. Facial angle b Facial axis c. Broadbent registration point d. Y axis

a. Facial angle (correct) "Breakdown Facial Axis: from Ricketts (angular measurement Nasion-Basion plane and the Foramen Rotundum to Gnathion (PTM to GN) plane. PTM is the apex of the teardrop (near the PNS). Avg 90. You grow along your facial axis. Facial Angle: FH to N-Pg (increases with time) Dimensions that do not change: - mx transverse"

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Gardner's? a. Facial clefts b. Colon polyps c. Supernumerary teeth d. Multiple osteomas

a. Facial clefts (correct)

Functional appliances do all EXCEPT: a. HG effect on Max b. dec SNA c. inc SNB d. steepen occlusal plane

a. HG effect on Max - transitory effect ONLY (NOT PERM) b. dec SNA - transitory effect ONLY (NOT PERM) c. inc SNB d. steepen occlusal plane

Which ratio is used to see the relationship between the lower incisors and the chin?" a. Holdaway ratio b. Ricketts ratio c. Bolton ratio d. Jarabak ratio

a. Holdaway ratio (correct) L1 - N-B/Pg - N-B (holdaway ratio) used in Steiner analysis

Which of the following is indicative of velopharyngeal insufficiency (VPI)? a. Hypernasal speech b. Snoring c. Sleep Apnea d. All of the above e. None of the above

a. Hypernasality

** What can manifest itself as myositis? a. Osteosarcoma b. Condensing osteitis c. Osteomyelitis

a. Osteosarcoma (per wonderful Andrew explanation) c. osteomyelitis*

What is the primary cause of TMD? a. Parafunctional habits b. Muscle spasms c. No known cause d. A & B

a. Parafunctional habits (**CHECK?? Aras in class said parafunctional habits in her q, but one of the ans choices wasn't muscle spasms which they say in Timmys)

Which of the following is the correct description of intensifying screens? a. Thicker phosphor layer result in faster screens b. Thinner phosphor layer result in more unsharpness

a. Thicker phosphor layer result in faster screens " thus an intensifying screen will minimize the exposure time. Fast screens - thick layer, and relatively large crystals used, maximum speed is attained but with some sacrifice in definition

The T-test is used for what?

a. To compare the results of two different treatments (correct) comparing 2 means Nominal vs scale data

BUQ: facial axis of Ricketts determines?

direction of mandibular growth PTM to Gn is used as y-axis

What percentage of openbites self-correct? a. 20% b. 80% c. 100%

b. 80%(correct)" "Skeletal morphologic features of anterior open bite" Cangialosi

" If a lower incisor to GoGn changed from 105 to 95, how many mm of mand. space is necessary?" a. 10mm b. 8mm c. 6mm d. 4mm

b. 8mm *Need 1mm space (per side) for 2.5 degrees uprighting —>total 2mm space for 2.5 degree retraction

When 300 grams of force is applied for 3 mos to titanium implants for anchorage in animals, they are successful approx what % of time? a. 99 % b. 94 % c. 72 % d. 58 % e. 30 %

b. 94 %

Teeth that have been treated endodontically, prior to the start of orthodontic treatment will display: a. A greater tendency for root resorption b. A lesser tendency for root resorption c. No predictable pattern of root resorption

b. A lesser tendency for root resorption

What are the articular surfaces of the TMJ lined by? a. Synovial fluid b. A thin synovial membrane c. TMJ ligament

b. A thin synovial membrane

" Abdominal thrusts on a child should be performed" a. Above the navel and above the sternum b. Above the navel and below the sternum c. Below the navel and above the sternum d. Below the navel and below the sternum

b. Above the navel and below the sternum (correct) Infant <1yo lower 1/3 of sternum

" Oligodontia refers to the: " a. Absence of all teeth. b. Absence of many but not all teeth. c. Absence of only few teeth. d. None of the above.

b. Absence of many but not all teeth oligodontia = absence of 6 or more teeth Hypodontia = absence of LESS than 6 teeth anodontia = complete absence of teeth

What does the odontoid process consist of? a. C1 b. C2 c. both

b. C2 The first vertebra ("atlas") supports and balances the head. It has practically no body or spine and appears as a bony ring with two transverse processes. On its upper surface, the atlas has two kidney-shaped facets that unite with the occipital condyles of the skull. The second vertebra is the "axis," which bears a tooth-like "odontoid process" on its body. This process projects upward and lies in the ring of the atlas. As the head is turned from side to side, the atlas pivots around the odontoid process.

BUQ: Post ortho treatment the patients mandible looks smaller on the ceph. What happened? "a. Patient moved b. Change in object to film distance c. Patient rotated head

b. Change in object to film distance (correct)

What is the result of a distal step relationship in the primary dentition with no mandibular growth? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. None of the above

b. Class II

Wormian bones are seen in which of the following: a. Paget's diease b. Cleidocranial dysplasia c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

b. Cleidocranial dysplasia (correct) c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta (correct) (COW = CLEIDO, OSTEO IMPERFECTA = WORMIAN) " "Textbook ""Human malformations and related anomalies,"" Stevenson and Hall: -Wormian bones = extra irregularly shaped bones w/in a suture (usually found in lambdoid, sagittal, and coronal sutures) -Syndromes w/ wormian bones: cleidocranial dysplasia, osteogenesis imperfecta, Downs syndrome, hypophosphatasia, hypothyroidism, ricketts, cretinism, minky pinky "

Which of the following wires has the MOST resistance to deformation a. A-Niti b. Copper Niti c. TMA d. Multi-strand e. SS

b. Copper Niti (correct) SS has the LEAST resistance to deformation " " "Article ""Review of contemporary AW"" Kusy: ""copper additions increase its strength and reduce the energy lost"" The Textbook of Orthodontics by Singh (Google Book) pg 334: Copper NiTi: 1. more resistant to permanent deformation 2. better springback as compared to other NiTi alloys 3. More constant forces exerted over small activations"

" In a penicillin allergic pt with a medical history of previous Rheumatic fever, the premedication of choice would be:" a. Pen VK b. Erythromycin c. Amoxicillin

b. Erythromycin (correct) " "JADA, Vol. 139 http://jada.ada.org January 2008: - only need to premedicate a pt with Rh fever if they have one of the four criteria listed in discussion of row 20. - ""Patients who take an oral penicillin for secondary prevention of rheumatic fever or for other purposes are likely to have viridans group streptococci in their oral cavity that are relatively resistant to penicillin or amoxicillin. In such cases, the provider should select either clindamycin, azithromycin or clarithromycin for IE prophylaxis for a dental procedure, but only for patients shown in Box 3. Because of possible cross-resistance of viridans group streptococci with cephalosporins, this class of antibiotics should be avoided. "

" What is the best treatment for an impacted maxillary central incisor?" a. Extract it b. Expose it and perform the closed eruption technique c. Expose it and allow it to come in on its own

b. Expose it and perform the closed eruption technique (correct)

" A patient has a 2 mm gingival discrepancy of the upper central incisors and the incisal edges. If the upper right central incisors gingival margin is more apical than that of the canine what should you do?" a. Build up the edges b. Extrude the incisor c. Intrude the canine d. Nothing

b. Extrude the incisor (correct)

The major limitation of the Wits analysis is: a. Unreliability of using the functional occlusal plane in open-bite cases. b. Failure of distinguishing between skeletal and dento-alveolar discrepancies. c. Lack of normative data for various ethnic groups. d. None of the above.

b. Failure of distinguishing between skeletal and dento-alveolar discrepancies.(correct) Normative data based on WELL DEFINED SAMPLE --> MCNAMARA " Wits is dependent on the pitch of the occl plane. The inclination of the occl plane will effect the measurements rendered by Wits. So 2 given patients, A point and B point could be in the same AP position, but if the occl planes are very different have contrasting wits appraisal. Therefore the dental effect is not taken into account.

Recent research shows the mean shear bond strength of bracket adhesive using Fluoride-releasing etching gel is significantly higher than when using a non-fluoridated gel? a. True b. False

b. False

RPE is used, it is necessary to take radiographs to check that the midpalatal suture has split: a. True b. False

b. False (correct)"

A radiolucency appears inside the pulp canal and is expanding. The patient has pain in this tooth. What is it and how should it be treated? a. External resorption and endodontic therapy should be initiated b. Internal resorption and endodontic therapy should be initiated c. External resorption and orthodontic treatment should stop immediately d. Internal resorption and orthodontic treatment should stop immediately

b. Internal resorption and endodontic therapy should be initiated (Correct)

Compared to a standard stainless steel wire, a NiTi wire possesses: a. Higher load/deflection ratio, greater springback and higher formability. b. Lower load/deflection ratio, greater springback and lower formability. c. Lower load/deflection ratio, lower springback and lower formability. d. Higher load/deflection ratio, greater springback and lower formability

b. Lower load/deflection ratio, greater springback and lower formability. (correct) " "Proffit 4th ed pg 361-362 ""Nitinol exceptionally springy and quite strong but has poor formability"" ""A-NiTi has a considerably flatter load-deflection curve and greater springback than M-NiTi, which in turn has much more springback than steel."" "

w/ RPE. What happens to A-point? a. Stays the same b. Moves forward slightly c. Moves backward slightly

b. Moves forward slightly *

Wits analysis uses which plane for reference? a. Frankfort b. Occlusal c. SN d. Palatal

b. Occlusal (correct)

Periodontal disease is caused from all but which of the following? a. Biologic width impingement b. Occlusion c. Poor OH d. Increase in virulent oral flora

b. Occlusion

Absence of 6 teeth would be termed? a. Hypodontia b. Oligodontia c. Anodontia d. None of the above

b. Oligodontia

What is most likely to have permanent deformation a. Twist-flex b. Stainless steel

b. Stainless steel (Correct)" "Twist-flex (Ormco): 3 strand twisted SS wire; moderately light forces and is used for initial leveling and alignment. Proffit 4th ed pg 370: ""Another way to obtain a better combination of springiness and strength is to combine two or more strands of a small, and therefore springy, wire. Two 10 mil steel wires in tandem, for instance, could withstand twice the load as a single strand before permanently deforming"" "

"The point which any permanent deformation is first observed in an elastic material upon receiving a load is: " a. The ultimate tensile strength. b. The proportional limit. c. The range. d. Springiness

b. The proportional limit. (correct) "Proffit 4th ed pg 360: ""The most conservative measure is the proportional limit, the point at which any permanent deformation is first observed."" "

Which of the following is true about Ameloblastomas? a. They fluctuate in size b. They are radiopaque c. They do not frequently metastasize

b. They are radiopaque - they are multilocular radioLUCENCIES (MACHO) c. They do not frequently metastasize (correct)"

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Meckels cartilage becomes part of? a. Greater Cornu of the hyoid b. Thyroid cartilage c. Malleus

c. Malleus

What does Hep B Ag mean? a. pt not infectious b. potentially infectious c. cannot be infected w/ Hep

b. potentially infectious (correct)

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Is phonologic development better, worse or the same in cleft palate patients operated at 6 months of age that patients operated at 12 months of age?

better

" What are common and stable reference lines when tracing successive cephs?" a. Nasion-B point b. Nasion -A point c. Frankfort horizontal d. Facial Axis

c. Frankfort horizontal (porion -orbitale) "

" Where do you superimpose to know changes in maxillary dentition?" a- PP b- internal cortical outline c- vertical legs of key ridges and best fit on internal cortical outline

c- vertical legs of key ridges and best fit on internal cortical outline "a. Palate (arrow was pointing at the palate on the lateral ceph)"

Recent studies according to Profitt indicate that late mandibular incisor crowding is due to: a. Pressure from erupting third molars b. Failure to extract third molars c. Late mandibular growth d. All of the above

c. . Late mandibular growth

Which of the following combos are likely to result in a skeletal Cl II at the end of growth: "1. Normal Maxillary and mandibular lengths with a long cranial base. 2. Excessive maxillary lengths, normal mandibular length and a normal cranial base. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 & 2 d. None of the above

c. 1 &2 "

What is the incidence of Cleft Palate? "a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 500 c. 1 in 750 d. 1 in 1500

c. 1 in 750 (correct)

Which of the following approaches to relieve myofacial pain symptoms be attempted last: a. Reducing the amount of patients stress. b. Reducing the amount of reaction to stress. c. Alteration of occlusal relationships d. Occlusal splint therapy.

c. Alteration of occlusal relationships (correct)

An experimental situation was given in which the researcher wanted to determine the effects of three continuous variables on a fourth variable. Which statistical test would you use here? a. Chi-square b. T-test c. Analysis of variance

c. Analysis of variance * "

What are some characteristics of a skeletal open bite? a. A tall person b. Antegonial notching and a low mandibular plane angle c. Antegonial notching and a high mandibular plane angle d. Antegonial notching and a high Wits

c. Antegonial notching and a high mandibular plane angle (correct)

Which of the following is not a risk factor for root resoption? a. Endodontically treated tooth b. Long, thin roots c. Gender

c. Gender (correct)" Aras - could be A & C a. Endodontically treated tooth

Three walled defect, what will happen if start orthodontics? a. Nothing b. Get better c. Get worse

c. Get worse * "

Which procedure would you perform for a hyperdivergent patient with a long anterior face height? a. 2 jaw, maxillary downgraft and mandibular advancement b. 2 jaw, maxillary 3 piece and mandibular advancement c. At least maxillary impaction

c. At least maxillary impaction *"

Perception of pain in the TMJ usually is accociated with which of the following nerves? a. Lesser occipital b. Transverse cervical c. Auriculotemporal d. Buccal e. Great auricular

c. Auriculotemporal *

CHECK?? Patient with caries and radiopacity in lower right molar?" a. Hypercementosis b. Malignant sclerosis c. Benign sclerosis

c. Benign sclerosis** - original ans says this a.Hypercementosis - an excessive formation of cementum on the roots of one or more teeth. seen in patients with Pagets Dx "

Neural crest cells, what's NOT true? a. migrate throughout body b. develop at time of neural tube closing c. form ameloblast d. form odontoblast e. have pigmented cells

c. form ameloblast

BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Which of the following causes the metabolism and the BMR to increase a) adrenocorticotropic hormone b) growth hormone c) parathyroid hormone d) thyroid hormone

d) thyroid hormone - thyroxine

Filters are used in the XR beam to? "a. Reduce film density b. Correct the XR beam size c. Reduce the exposure time d. Remove low energy XR's e. Increase contrast

d. . Remove low energy XR's

Which cusp of the maxillary 1st molar occludes on the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular 2nd molar in an ideal centric occlusion? a. Mesobuccal b. Distobuccal c. Mesolingual d. Distolingual

d. Distolingual (correct)"

Which of the following is least likely to influence the anteroposterior position of the maxillary incisors? a. Size of the apical base b. Tongue-buccinator mechanism c. Being a concert clarinetist d. Congenital absence of third molars e. Continuing growth of the anterior cranial base

d. Congenital absence of third molars

The oral tissues most sensitive to x-radiation are? a. Muscles of mastication b. Gingival c. Fifth nerve d. Developing tooth buds and salivary glands

d. Developing tooth buds and salivary glands * "

Micrognathia is a common feature in which of the following syndromes: a. Paget's disease of bone b. Ectodermal dysplasia c. Fibrous dysplasia d. Pierre Robins

d. Pierre Robins

What is the insertion of ant & posterior digastrics?

hyoid bone (at junction of lesser horn/cornu and body)

Key ridge is what bone a. zygomatic process of maxilla b. maxillary process of zygoma c. both d. neither

zygomatic process of maxilla

Best prognosis for autotransplantation when... ½ root ⅔ root ¾ root

¾ root- Proffit 458 "⅔-¾"

T/F I line is a soft tissue/esthetic line

not a soft tissue false

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: what does electromyography test?

number + activity of motor units

Which dimension completes growth first, second, third?

"Transverse 1st A-P 2nd Vertical 3rd"

Tetracycline staining of bone around implant showed a higher density of mineral and higher turnover rate

T/T

The presence of gingival papilla is inversely proportional to the distance of the contact point to the bone crest. The distance needs to be 5mm or less for papilla to fill embrasure. T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/T

What is the bacteria that causes periodontal disease? a. Stapholococcus areus b. Streptococcus albicans c. Porphyromonas gingivalis

c. Porphyromonas gingivalis * "

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: In an 8 or 9 year old boy, how much growth (in years) is left for his mandible?

8 yrs of major growth PHV ~14 yr for boys and u will have 2-3 yrs AFTER PHV is still meaningful/clinically sig growth that we can take advantage of.

The estimated healing time for an implant in the maxilla is? a. 1-2 months b. 3-4 months c. 4-6 months d. 6-8 months

d. 6-8 months (correct)" Mandible is 4-6mo

Properties of an ideal wire material for ortho include (high/low) Strength (high/low) Stiffness (high/low) Formability (high/low) Range

o High strength o Low stiffness o High formability o High range

** Which procedure does not use hinge axis

a. SARPE

• A helice is placed in the wire when leveling -->

where the wire will not easily bend & Area of the largest bending moment(correct) "

Is computerized VTO accurate?

yes

What is the correlation coefficient when two variables are linearly related? a. 0 b. 1 c. 10 d. 100

"B. 1 "

Which of the following structures do NOT appear radiolucent on a radiograph? a. Median palatine suture b. Anterior nasal spine c. Mandibular canal

"B. ANTERIOR NASAL SPINE (appears RO) " No reference

" Minimum number of lobes to make a tooth? "

"a. 4"

Which of the following is FALSE: a. After an extensive review of the literature, Seligman and Pullinger concluded that published research suggests a limited role for intercuspal occlusal factors in the cause of TMD. b. It is not important for orthodontics to identify and document findings related to TMJ and mandibular function, since there is little association between orthodontic treatment and TMD. c. If painful symptoms arise during orthodontics, therapy may have to be modified d. Orthodontic mechanotherapy produces gradual changes in an environment that is generally quite adaptive.

"a. After an extensive review of the literature, Seligman and Pullinger concluded that published research suggests a limited role for intercuspal occlusal factors in the cause of TMD. b. It is not important for orthodontics to identify and document findings related to TMJ and mandibular function, since there is little association between orthodontic treatment and TMD. (correct - this is FALSE) c. If painful symptoms arise during orthodontics, therapy may have to be modified d. Orthodontic mechanotherapy produces gradual changes in an environment that is generally quite adaptive. " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 82 - General Comments 2nd paragraph Answers A-D are all word for word except answer B. The paragraph states: ""However, as pointed out by Greene and others, a prudent orthodontist should identify and document findings related to the TMJ and mandibular function"""

Heterogeneity of an orthodontic study sample can relate to: a. Age and gender. b. Ethnic origin. c. Demographic characteristics. d. All of the above.

"a. Age and gender. b. Ethnic origin. c. Demographic characteristics. d. All of the above. (correct)"

The presurgical orthodontics preparation of an 18 YO male with Class III mandibular prognathism requires: a. Alignment and leveling of the arches b. Expansion of the upper and lower arches c. Decompensation of the dental arches d. Lingual tipping of the lower incisor teeth i. a and b ii. c and d iii. a and c iv. a and d

"a. Alignment and leveling of the arches c. Decompensation of the dental arches iii. a and c *

What is the best statistical measure to predict the mandibular growth based on 3 variables: a. Analysis of Variance aka ANOVA b. Correlation c. Student t-test d. Chi-square

"a. Analysis of Variance aka ANOVA (correct) "remembered from stat class Statistical Tests for data types: ANOVA = Nominal (multiple groups) vs. Scale Chi squared = Nominal vs Nominal T-test = Nominal vs. Scale Linear Regression (Pearson's correlation) = Scale vs Scale"

A muscle which inserts (origin) on the mandible is the: "a. Anterior belly of the digastric b. Posterior belly of the digastric c. Hyoglossus d. Thyrohyoid

"a. Anterior belly of the digastric (correct) b. Posterior belly of the digastric c. Hyoglossus d. Thyrohyoid e. Superior belly of the omohyoid" The anterior belly of the digastric is the only answer choice here that attaches to the mandible, however, the symphysis is technically an origin not an insertion.

"In a patient that started with significant lower crowding, when you remove the retention, what happens to arch length? what happens to arch perimeter? "

"a. Arch length and arch perimeter decreases"

Which Niti wire gives a soft gradual force? a. Austenitic Niti b. Martensitic Niti

"a. Austenitic niti (correct) " "ABO article #27a - Pseudoelasticity and thermoelasticity of Nickel-titanium alloys: A clinically oriented review. Part I: Temperature transitional ranges - Pg. 592 ""Austenite presents a higher modulus of elasticity that results in a greater stiffness of the wire. In Austenitic alloys, the formation of SIM [stress-induced martensite] will guarantee the presence of the superelastic behavior necessary for the relase of light and continuous forces."""

"When NiTi is activated it goes from? a. Austenitic to martensitic b. Martensitic to austenitic

"a. Austenitic to martensitic (correct) stress induced " Proffit 4th ed pg 363: see figures 10-6 and 10-7

" What prevents attaining an ideal Angle Cl I posterior occlusion?" a. Axial inclination of the canine b. Excessive mandibular lingual torque c. Excessive maxillary buccal torque d. Steep premolar cusps e. Procumbent maxillary incisors

"a. Axial inclination of the canine (correct)

What prevents attaining an ideal Angle Cl I posterior occlusion? a. Axial inclination of the canine b. Excessive mandibular lingual torque c. Excessive maxillary buccal torque d. Steep premolar cusps e. Procumbent maxillary incisors

"a. Axial inclination of the canine (correct) Aras says if bolton discrepancy is an option pick this first

" How to adjust cervical pull HG to get translation?" a. Bend outer bow up b. Bend outer bow down

"a. Bend outer bow up (correct) (so it goes thru CoR of molar)

Which of the following are true for teeth with perio involvement? a. Can be caused by ortho treatment b. Has periods of remission and exacerbation c. Bacteria can be transmitted from one patient to the other d. All of the above e. None of the above

"a. Can be caused by ortho treatment b. Has periods of remission and exacerbation c. Bacteria can be transmitted from one patient to the other d. All of the above *

Teratogens are: a. Chemicals and other agents capable of producing genetic defects. b. Functional and environmental agents capable of producing genetic defects. c. Genetic code disturbances capable of producing genetic defects. d. None of the above

"a. Chemicals and other agents capable of producing genetic defects. (correct)

Which is true if you provide a lingual force and lingual root torque to a maxillary incisor depending on the M/F ratio? a. Crown tip b. Root tip c. Bodily movement d. All of the above

"a. Crown tip b. Root tip c. Bodily movement d. All of the above (correct)"

When is condylar hypoplasia most common? a. Early childhood b. Early adult- late adolescent c. Late adult

"a. Early childhood b. Early adult- late adolescent * c. Late adult " Board breakdown says early childhood...

" What did not originate from ectoderm?" "a. Enamel b. Dentin c. Cementum d. Hair e. Nails i. a and b ii. b and c iii. d and e

"a. Enamel b. Dentin c. Cementum d. Hair e. Nails i. a and b ii. b and c (correct0 - dentin and cementum are NOT iii. d and e "

" The hammock ligament is related to" "a. Eruption b. The TMJ c. The digastrics

"a. Eruption (correct) " There is a periodontal ligament that usually surrounds the tooth and at the tip of the root it widens. This is often referred to as the "hammock ligament". The hammock ligament is the primary entrance that the nerve tissue and blood vessels must go through in order to supply the dental pulp located inside of the tooth

"What is Youngs Modulus of Elasticity? + "In tension or bending, the elastic modulus is often called ......

"a. Expressed in the stress and strain curve, deflection and stiffness, Slope of stress and strain curve to which stiffness and springiness are proportional" + "In tension or bending, the elastic modulus is often called "Young's modulus" "Article ""Review of contemporary archwires"" Kusy: elastic modulus - An engineering property of a material that equals the ratio of stress to strain, when deformation is totally elastic. In tension or bending the elastic modulus is often called ""Young's modulus."" (low modulus of elasticity = low stiffness and high springiness) "

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: What is the facial artery a branch of?

"a. External carotid artery (correct)

" Cooperation is more likely to be a problem in a patient with" a. External motivation for seeking treatment. b. High degree of parental control. c. Multi-cultural background. d. Any of the above

"a. External motivation for seeking treatment.(correct)

What is the most likely cause of loss of a tooth following autotransplantation? a. External resorption b. Internal resorption c. Ankylosis

"a. External resorption (correct)

How do you treat a vertical root fracture? a. Extract b. Root Canal Therapy c. RCT & Crown d. Nothing

"a. Extract (correct)

If you are preparing for a mandibular advancement which is the best treatment? a. Extract lower 1st PM's b. Extract lower 2nd PM's c. Extract upper 1st PM's d. Extract lower incisor

"a. Extract lower 1st PM's *

" Ricketts" measures degree of retrusion or protrusion of the lower jaw using what value?

"a. FH - N-PG (facial angle)"

BUQ: On a ceph you are asked if you use machine porion instead of anatomic porion what will change?

"a. FMA and y-axis increases (Correct)" Buschang- MPA increases Machine porion will always be inferior and anterior on the ceph than anatomical porion

Which of the following increases with time? a. Facial angle b. FMA

"a. Facial angle (correct)

" Elevation of alkaline phosphatase occurs during growth of bone in children:" "a. Following major bone fractures b. During diseases followed by bone destruction c. Increases in osteoblastic activity d. All of the above "

"a. Following major bone fractures b. During diseases followed by bone destruction c. Increases in osteoblastic activity d. All of the above (correct) " alkaline phosphatase is a major function in mineralization NOTE: ELEVATED ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE IN ADULTS SEEN IN PAGETS DISEASE

" Resorption of the anterior border of the ramus allows for what kind of growth?" "a. Increase in mandibular corpus length b. Allows for vertical growth c. Decrease in ramal height d. Allows for tuberosity growth

"a. Increase in mandibular corpus length (correct) "

Orthodontic PREsurgical treatment of Class III malocclusions often consist of:

"a. Labial movement of the mandibular incisors b. Lingual movement of the maxillary incisors d. a and b * "

" What is the most common cause of mandibular anterior crowding?" a. Late mandibular growth b. Poor orthodontics c. Third molars erupting d. None of the above

"a. Late mandibular growth (correct)

A patient with a severely retrognathic mandible will undergo surgery to advance her mandible, which of the following are true? a. Masticatory efficiency will increase b. No change in masticatory efficiency c. Bite force will increase

"a. Masticatory efficiency will increase* ((chewing efficiency will increase)

" Post-natal incremental changes in the face are:" a. Most in height b. Most in width c. Least in width d. Greatest in width i. a and c ii. b and c iii. c and d iv. a and d

"a. Most in height b. Most in width c. Least in width d. Greatest in width i. a and c (correct) ii. b and c iii. c and d iv. a and d "

The peak height velocity curve indicates: "a. Number of centimeters (inches) grown per year b. Height in centimeters (inches) per year c. Growth in the neurocranium d. Weight in grams per year e. Calcification of the epiphyseal plates

"a. Number of centimeters (inches) grown per year (correct)

Which bone ossifies upon termination of growth in the distal phalanges? "a. Palatal bone b. Sesamoid bone c. Occipital bone d. Femur bone

"a. Palatal bone b. Sesamoid bone (correct) c. Occipital bone d. Femur bone " "Article #71. ""Radiographical Evaluation of Skeletal Maturation"" Fishman Ossification of the sesamoid bone occurs approx 1 year before the adolescent growth spurt Ossification of the distal phalanges at SMI (skeletal maturation index) 4 is followed by: SMI 5 - capping of the distal phalanx of the third finger SMI 6 - Capping of the middle phalanx of the third finger SMI 7 - Capping of the middle phalanx of the fifth finger SMI 8 - FUSION OF THE DISTAL PHALANX OF THE THIRD FINGER SMI 9 - Fusion of the PROXIMAL phalanx of the third finger SMI 10 - Fusion of the MIDDLE phalanx of the third finger SMI 11 - Fusion of the Radius Peak growth velocity occurs around SMI 6/7"

What radiographs should be submitted to ABO for a patient over 18 years? a. Pano plus bitewings b. CBCT scan c. FMX d. Pano

"a. Pano plus bitewings b. CBCT scan c. FMX (correct) d. Pano" "ABO article #5 - Radiographic and periodontal requirements of the american board of orthodontics "

How should a patient be positioned for taking a cephalometric XR? a. Patient staring at a distant point in the horizon (Natural head position) b. Alert feeding position c. Chin parallel to the floor d. None of the above

"a. Patient staring at a distant point in the horizon (Natural head position) *

The temporalis muscle acts as a: "a. Periosteal matrix b. Capsular matrix c. Neurocranial matrix d. Orofacial matrix e. Genetic matrix upon the coronoid

"a. Periosteal (correct) Board Breakdown: as part of the periosteal matrix of functional matrix theory, the temporalis attachment to bone influences the bone's size and shape

Trigeminal nerve originates? a. pons b. medulla

"a. Pons (correct) "Nerve cells originate in the trigeminal neucleus which runs through the midbrain, pons and medulla (wikipedia) (nucleus is a collection of cell bodies in the CNS - ganglion is collection of nerve cell bodies in the PNS) The pons is essentially where the nerve branches off from the CNS"

BUQ: What is the name of the midline point at the most inferior point of the maxillary alveolus? a. Supradentale (prosthion) b. Subdentale c. Labialdentale

"a. Supradentale (prosthion) (correct) b. Subdentale c. Labialdentale "

" What causes the metabolic rate to increase?" a. Thyroid b. Growth Hormone c. All the above d. None of the above

"a. Thyroid b. Growth Hormone c. All the above (correct)

What is the most common cause of mandibular asymmetry in children a. Trauma b. Genetics

"a. Trauma"

A problem of a missing papilla between teeth is probably due to? a. Unfavorable root position b. Crown shape c. Perio bone loss d. All of the above e. None of the above

"a. Unfavorable root position b. Crown shape c. Perio bone loss d. All of the above (correct)

" When extracting maxillary first bi's only and leaving the molars in Class II...." a. also leave the maxillary first molars mesially rotated b. tip the maxillary first molar crowns mesially c. do not close all the extraction space d. also extract the mandibular first bi's

"a. also leave the maxillary first molars mesially rotated (correct)

Who establishes standard of care? a. dental associations b. courthouses

"a. dental associations (correct) "ABO breakdown pg 18 FYI, ABO 2008 - correct answer given is ""courts"""

Circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy (CSF) is more successful in ________ heals in __-__ days

"a. is more successful in maxilla (correct) b. heals in 7-10 days. (correct)" "A long-term prospective evaluation of the circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy in alleviating orthodontic relapse," Edwards:

" Maximum rate of facial growth occurs" slightly after peak growth in ......

"a. slightly after peak growth in statural height." Facial growth occurs slightly after peak growth in statural height." • Facial growth is likely to be at the time final height was attained in females, and continues after in males • The facial growth curve parallels à the somatic growth curve most closely

Which of the following tissues does NOT grow interstitially? a. Muscle b. Bone c. Nerve d. Connective tissue

"b. bone" 1.Bone growth by apposition only (intramembranous or endochondral) a.Bone does NOT grow interstitially 2.Intramembranous bone formation comes from condensation of mesenchyme

" The incidence of open bite malocclusions in post-pubertal age groups:" a. Increases b. Decreases c. Stays the same d. All of the above

"b. decreases "

Children with which of the following conditions have the greatest tendency toward delayed eruption of teeth: a. Autism b. Down's syndrome c. Cerebral palsy d. A seizure disorder

"b. downs"

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: How much sex difference in mandibular size is there before adolescence?

1-2 mm

Canine impactions % incidence of mx impacted canines % bilateral ___ palatal, ___ facial more common females or males

1-2% incidence of mx impacted canines o 8% bilateral o 2/3 are palatal, 1/3 are facial o 2x more common in females

Space between the implant and the adjacent tooth should be at least ___mm for proper healing and to ensure adequate space for the development of a papilla

1mm

less than __mm between implant and tooth leads to black triangle

1mm "To avoid black triangle, IPR or cosmetic bond or diverge roots " "Article, "Interdisciplinary Management of Single-Tooth Implants," Spear, Kokich - space between the implant and the adjacent tooth should be at least 1 mm for proper healing and to ensure adequate space for the development of a papilla. - must move the apices of the teeth apart to provide adequate space for the surgeon to position the implant between the roots of the teeth."

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: What is the expected height increase after onset of menarche:

4-10cm

When placing an implant, the head of the fixture should be how many mm apical to the desired gingival margin?

4mm

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: how many MAJOR cartilages are in the inferior part of nasal bone?

5 large cartilages 7-8 total

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: cranium consist of __ bones?

8

% Canines that bilateral impacted?

8% If you're looking for what percentage of CANINES are bilaterally impacted - it's 8% This is found in ABO #42 - Bishara article: Impacted maxillary canines (a review)"

" Subgingival irrigation of orthodontically banded first molars w/ either a solution of chlorhexidine or isotonic saline solution produces a:" a. Virtual cessation of gingival papillary bleeding b. Limited effect on gingival papillary bleeding c. Greater effect with chlorhexidine than with isotonic saline d. Greater effect with isotonic saline than with chlorhexidine

??CHECK some say a. Virtual cessation of gingival papillary bleeding others say c. Greater effect with chlorhexidine than with isotonic saline (correct)

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: What is the deciduous eruption pattern??

A, B, D, C, E A's -8 mo md; 10 mo mx E's -27 mo md; 29 mo mx

3-One wall defect : A- extrusion 2 mm and shave occlusal surface B- osseous resection and intrude C- membrane D- graft.

A- extrusion 2 mm and shave occlusal surface

Q: 9 y.o girl presents with a missing 2nd premolar and deciduous 2nd molar is ankylosed as well as vertical osseous defect with the neighbouring teeth. Which of the below would be best tx option until placement of implant?

Ans: extract and let the other teeth continue their eruption without maintaining the space.

Right side anterior disc displacement without reduction on opening which side will the mandible deviate to? what side has limited lateral mvmt?

Answer: 1. On opening jaw deviates to right 2. Cannot move jaw to left lateral -limited left lateral movement

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Cribiform plate is located in what cranial fossa? anterior middle posterior

Anterior cranial fossa Anterior clinoid process is at the junction of anterior and middle

Which of the following occurs with short Class II elastics: a. Steeper occlusal plane b. No net effect on maxilla c. Flat occlusal plane

Aras says no net effect.... a. Steeper occlusal plane (correct) Flattens max O plane Steepens md O plane DOES open the bite (unlike reg C2 elastics) because there is a more vertical vector of force

Area of contact between two surfaces + friction is due to the interaction of ....

Area of contact between two surfaces + friction is due to the interaction of asperities.

All of the following are seen in Treacher-Collins Syndrome EXCEPT: "A) Malar hypoplasia B) Mandibular prognathism C) Maxillary retrognathism D) Downward slanting palpebral fissures

B) Mandibular prognathism (correct)

Pt is shifting whats the next diagnostic step? A. Check midline B. Flat plane splint

B. Flat plane splint

The sensory nerve of the buccinator muscle comes from: A. Facial nerve B. V3 of trigeminal C. V2 of trigeminal

B. V3 of trigeminal (sensory) Motor to buccinator is buccal branch of facial nerve

Closed eruption of UR1, 10 yrs old girl:

Begin orthodontics, refer for closed eruption

Sagittal split osteotomy for mandibular advancement are often associated with:

Condylar sagging and post-surgical trismus *

Which of the following effects does the lip bumper have on mandibular teeth?

Controlled lower incisor tipping with the center of rotation at the apex

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: What are the indicators of maturity:?

Dental age, chronological age, skeletal age Height age, sexual age, psychological age

TMD is primary reason for ortho tx. Ortho tx causes TMD a. True, True b. True, False c. False, True d. False, False

F/F "Proffit 4th ed pg 17: - orthodontics as the primary treatment for TMD is almost never indicated Article ""Orthodontics and temporomandibular disorder:A meta-analysis,"" Kim: - data does not indicate that traditional orthodontic treatment increased prevalence of TMD Article "The risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview," Sadowsky: - Ortho tx during adolescence does not increase or decrease risks of developing TMD later in life "

Geniculate ganglion is what nerve CN5 CN6 CN7 CN9

Facial Nerve (CN7) (contains cell bodies for taste to anterior 2/3s of tongue) " Wikipedia enters the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus (intimately close to the inner ear), then forms the geniculate nucleus prior to entering the facial canal, emerges from the stylomastoid foramen and passes through the parotid gland, where it divides into five major branches. Though it passes through the parotid gland, it does not innervate the gland (This is the responsibility of cranial nerve IX, the glossopharyngeal nerve). "

BUQ: what happens to the facial angle and madnibular plane angle as a a person ages?

Facial angle increases Mandibular plane angle decreases

BU CEPH Q: downs analysis, what is the measurement for AP position of the mandible?

Facial angle or depth; N-pg/FH

What innervates taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? a. Lingual nerve b. Facial nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. none of the above

Facial n. (CN7) (specifically, it is the chorda tympani branch)

What is peak velocity age (PVK) ?"

PHV is the maximum speed at the height of the adolescent growth curve

If u see "predict" in statistics question pick --> if u see "association" --> 3 things -->

Predict --> regression association --> correlation 3 things --> ANOVA

What percent of adults in the US have periodontal disease (per NHANES)? Aras: Regular periodontitis ___% Severe perio: __%

Regular Periodontitis 46% Severe perio: 8.9%

Gorelick states 50% have decalcification. Wait 2-3 months after debond before applying fluoride

T/T

What is the cause of a midline diastema?

Tooth size arch length discrepancy TSALD

What cranial nerve comes from Semilunar ganglion? a. trigeminal b. opthlamic c. facial d. glossopharygeal

Trigeminal nerve CN5 - Gasserian ganglion and semilunar ganglion are other names for trigeminal ganglion"

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: In growing patients, full time retention is needed until most growth is completed? (T/F):

True

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Is it true that the orbital axis evolved towards the midline leading to a relative decrease of nose breadth?

True

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: T/F genioglossus muscle responsible for tongue thrusting?

True

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: it is usu not possible (very difficult) to palpate the lateral pterygoid muscle?

True

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: contraction of R lateral Pterygoid will swing chin to the left T/F

True

You can fix a 1-wall defect with orthodontics o If mesially tipped- o If super erupted-

You can fix a 1-wall defect with orthodontics o If mesially tipped- upright and extrude* o If super erupted- intrude and level CEJ to adjacent teeth

Center of resistance of mx

above the premolar roots

BUSCHANG GROWTH QS: Do the cranial and frontozygomaticsutures fuse before or after 15 years of age?

after

How long does it take for the root apex to be completely formed after tooth eruption?

c. 2-3 years (correct) EXCEPT FOR 1ST MOLARS WHICH TAKE 4+ YEARS

What is the treatment of a tooth with a sulcus depth of 5mm and uneven gingival margins with adjacent teeth? a. Apical repositioning b. Distal wedge c. Gingivectomy

c. Gingivectomy (correct)"

" Based on bone density, which teeth are the best for anchorage?" a. Maxillary second molars b. Maxillary first molars c. Mandibular first molars

c. Mandibular first molars (correct) "

" The most common error in cephalometric tracing is what?" "a. Poor films b. Magnification c. Proper identification of landmarks

c. Proper identification of landmarks (correct) "

The palate grows down by: a. Apposition on the lingual b. Sutural c. All of the above d. None of the above

c. all of the above

When eval radiographically which teeth show greatest variation relative to the onset of mineralization of the crowns of permanent teeth? "a. Maxillary canines b. Mandibular second molars c. Mandibular second premolars d. Maxillary lateral incisors e. Maxillary first molars

c. mand 2nd PMs

The normal eruptive force of a tooth has been estimated at? a. 75-100 grams b. 50-75 grams c. 25-30 grams d. 2-10 grams

d. 2-10 grams (correct)"

Most likely cause of tooth loss after autotransplantation? a. external resorption b. internal resorption

external resorption Another complication related to autotransplantation --> 2 sources that Proffit sited said "pulp obliteration" (Paulsen 1995, Bauss 2003)

The type of resorption associated with autotransplantation is

external resorption Another complication related to autotransplantation --> 2 sources that Proffit sited said "pulp obliteration" (Paulsen 1995, Bauss 2003)

Phenytoin assoc w/

gingival hyperplasia

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: SKULL ID

id these u can see articular tubercle on the pic on left

What is true about hyalinization? whats there whats not?

it occurs in the areas of undermining resorption -Hyalinization (F-MON) fibroblast, macrophage, OC, neutrophils CELL FREE ZONE

where is the ala of the nose formed from? a. medial nasal process b. lateral nasal process

lateral nasal process

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: line that cross the orbit in a PA ceph. (superior part of orbit)

lesser wing of sphenoidm

CaOH teeth →

subject to fracture

Patient presents with toneue thrust. OB 0 and OJ 0. what would be an appropriate treatment? a. Myofunctional tongue therapy b.Crib appliance c.No treatment d.Speech Therapy

""c.No treatment (correct) **UNLESS LIP SEAL EXERCISES ARE A CHOICE**

union of two separately developing tooth germs; 2 roots, 2 pulp, 1 crown a. Gemination b. Fusion

"-fusion: union of two separately developing tooth germs; 2 roots, 2 pulp, 1 crown -gemination: incomplete division of 1 tooth germ; 1 root, 1 pulp, 2 crowns Proffit p138 Occasionally, tooth buds may fuse or geminate (partially split) during their development. Fusion results in teeth with separate pulp chambers joined at the dentin, whereas gemination results in teeth with a common pulp chamber. If the other central and both lateral incisors are present, a bifurcated central incisor is the result of either gemination or, less probably, fusion with a supernumerary incisor. On the other hand, if the lateral incisor on the affected side is missing, the problem probably is fusion of the central and lateral incisor buds. Normal occlusion, of course, is all but impossible in the presence of geminated, fused or otherwise malformed teeth "

" Strengths of a template cephalometric analysis include all of the following, except" a. Easy use of age-related standards. b. Quick overall impression of dentofacial structures. c. Non-utilization of linear measurements. d. Readily integration for computer use

". "c. Non-utilization of linear measurements. Profitt Template Analysis: Based on average cephalometric tracing for a given group, generated by averaging coordinates. The resulting averages are called a templates. Schematic templates show the changing position of selected landmarks with age on a single template. Lay on point nasion and shows u how it will tend to grow over time. Anatomically Complete templates include one for one for each age, and are useful for visual comparison. Analysis is based on a series of superimpositions of the template over the tracing of the patient. Quickly provides an overall impression of the relationships of the patient's Dentofacial structures, which may be overlooked when focusing on a series of numbers. Greater emphasis on the clinician's individual assessment about abnormality, and a corresponding de-emphasis of specific criteria.

In one of the studies done as part of the NIDR contract on the long-term effects of orthodontic treatment, Sadowsky and BeGole compared subjects who where treated with full fixed appliances as adolescents approximately 20 years previously, with a similar group of adults with untreated malocclusions. Subsequently, Sadowsky and Polsen contrasted the findings from other studies in which subjects who received orthodontic treatment a minimum of 10 years previously were compared with 111 adults with untreated malocclusions. Non-extraction and extraction cases were represented. Which of the following best describe their findings? a. The findings were very different in both studies. One of them showed a significant difference between treated and untreated patients. b. The first study showed 75% of joint sounds in the treated patients c. There were no statistically differences between treated and untreated subjects in either of the studies. d. Untreated subjects showed a higher prevalence of TMD symptoms

". c. There were no statistically differences between treated and untreated subjects in either of the studies. (Correct) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 79 ""The findings were very similar in both studies with the prevalence of symptoms varying between 15% to 21% and 29% to 42% for signs (joint sounds), there being no statistically significant differences between treated and untreated subjects in either of the studies. The conclusion from the above two studies was that orthodontic treatment performed during adolescence did not generally increase or decrease the risk of developing TMD later in life"""

" Congenital absence of teeth results from disturbances during which stages of tooth formation:" "1. Initiation stage 2. Proliferation stage 3. Bell stage 4. Calcification stage A- 1 & 2 only B-1 & 4only C-2 & 3 only D-1,2,3 & 4 "

"1. Initiation stage 2. Proliferation stage A- 1 & 2 only(correct)

Which are effects of facemask therapy? A. maxillary skeletal protraction B. forward movement of maxillary dentition C. set back of bony menton D. increase facial height (extrusion of upper molar limits use in Cl.III with vertical facial excess) E. lingual tipping of the lower incisors F. all of the above

"A. maxillary skeletal protraction B. forward movement of maxillary dentition C. set back of bony menton D. increase facial height (extrusion of upper molar limits use in Cl.III with vertical facial excess) E. lingual tipping of the lower incisors F. all of the above (correct)" article "Maxillary development revisited: relevance of the orthopaedic treatment of class III malocclusions," Delaire

Which of the following landmarks is NOT recognizable in periapical radiographs of the mandible: a. External oblique ridge b. Coronoid process c. Mylohyoid ridge d. Mental foramen

"B. coronoid process

Nocturnal bruxism not associated with occlusal interferences, but is associated with high anxiety and stress T/T T/F F/T F/F

"T/T "Okeson pg.44 ""it has likewise been demonstrated that the occlusal contact pattern of the teeth does not influence nocturnal bruxism"" ""At one time in dentistry, a widely held belief was that malocclusion caused nocturnal bruxism.However, well-controlled studies have suggested that the occlusal condition exerts little influence on nocturnal muscle activity. Levels of emotional stress appear to have greater influence. It has been repeatedly demonstrated that occlusal appliances decrease the level of nocturnal muscle activity, at least in the short term."" (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 428). ""Several types of parafunctional activities are notable; however, clenching and bruxism seem to be the most significant and can be either diurnal or nocturnal. 1. Diurnal activity may be more closely related to an altered occlusal condition, to an increased level of emotional stress, or both. Because diurnal activity can usually be brought to the patient's level of awareness, often it is managed well with patient education and cognitive-awareness strategies. 2. Nocturnal bruxism, however, seems to be different. It appears to be influenced less by tooth contacts and more by emotional stress levels and sleep patterns.Because of these differences, nocturnal bruxism responds poorly to patient education, relaxation and biofeedback techniques, and occlusal alterations. In many cases it can be effectively reduced (at least for short periods of time) with occlusal appliance therapy.49-51,80 The mechanism by which occlusal appliances reduce bruxism is not clear."" (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 384). "

Studies show that 50% elasticity of powerchains is lost within a.1 day b.3 days c. 5 days d. 7 days

"a. 1 day " "p211 Nanda Biomechanics (Ch10) Hershey and Reynolds"" compared three commercially available elastomeric chains and found a 60% loss after four weeks. Fifty percent of the loss in force was after the very first day. -Effects of prestretching on force degradation of synthetic elastomeric chains AJODO 2005 "Previous studies have shown that it might lose 50% to 70% of its initial force during the first day of load application and 10% more by 3 weeks, and retain only 30% to 40% of the original force after 4 weeks.""

A) Contemporary research shows that tongue thrust swallow in early permanent dentition is more an adaptation to the openbite than the cause of it. B) Elimination of the tongue interference often leads to a spontaneous correction of the openbite in this age group. "

"a. 1st statement is correct, 2nd statement false.(correct) b. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is correct. c. Both statements are correct. d. Both statements are false. "

What percentage of young kids w/ anterior open bite do we have to treat? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80%"

"a. 20% bc 80% self correct

At what age does brain have the most number of neurons? "a. 3 mo. After conception b. Birth (they think this is correct?) c. 2-3 years d. 8-9 years " Birth is correct

"a. 3 mo. After conception b. Birth (they think this is correct?) c. 2-3 years d. 8-9 years " Birth is correct

" In complete nasal obstruction, there's an immediate change of head posture measured by an increase in craniofacial angle of about: " a. 5 degrees b. 15 degrees c. 25 degrees d. 50 degrees

"a. 5 degrees (correct) For instance, when the nose is completely blocked, usually there is an immediate change of about 5 degrees in the craniovertebral angle Figure 5.40 Data from an experiment with dental students, showing the immediate change in head posture when the nostrils are totally blocked: The head tips back about 5 degrees, increasing the separation of the jaws. When the obstruction is relieved, head posture returns to its original position.

How many microns of enamel removed when etch 15 seconds with 37% phosphoric acid? a. 8-10 microns b. 12-16 microns c. 16-18 microns d. none of the above

"a. 8-10 (correct) 30 secs: 16-18 microns of E lost 15 secs = 8-10 microns of E lost

Which of the following allows application of constant force a. A-NiTi b. M-NiTi

"a. A-NiTi (correct) "Proffit 4th ed. pg. 363: ""over a considerable range of deflection, the force produced by A NiTi hardly varies. This means that an initial arch wire would exert about the same force whether it were deflected a relatively small or a large distance"" Article #27b. ""The initial activation force required for austenitic NiTi can be 3 times greater than the force required to deflect a classic work-hardened martensitic wire. However, once the SIM is formed, the horizontal plateau appears and the alloy "absorbs" any additional load stress and releases it in constant amounts during the deactivation phase."""

Most rapid somatic growth occurs: "a. Birth to 2 yrs b. 4-7 yrs c. 7-9 yrs d. 12-15 yrs"

"a. Birth to 2 yrs (correct) **If conception to birth is there pick that ** if its not pick birth to 2yo

When do you not have to level the curve of spee pre-surgically? a. Brachyfacial b. Short lower facial height c. Deep bite d. all of the above

"a. Brachyfacial b. Short lower facial height c. Deep bite d. all of the above * " "Proffit 4th ed. pg 711. ""The guideline is that extrusion generally is done more easily postsurgically" In this case you would level the COS post surgically in brachycephalic patients

Ideal situations for serial extraction: a. Class I molars b. Moderate OJ/OB c. Severe crowding - 10mm or more d. Slight protrusion e. All of the above

"a. Class I molars b. Moderate OJ/OB c. Severe crowding - 10mm or more d. Slight protrusion e. All of the above (correct)"

In the primary dentition, a terminal plane occlusion usually turns into... a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III

"a. Class I*

If you know the value of X and with which test you can find out the value of Y: a. Coefficient of variance b. Regression

"a. Coefficient of variance (a measure of dispersion of a probability distribution - ratio of standard dev to mean) b. Regression * can be used for prediction, inference, hypothesis testing, and modeling of causal relationships. (correct)"

On an articulator, change in the anterior-posterior is controlled by what? a. Condylar inclination b. Bennett angle c. Either angle

"a. Condylar angulation (correct)

Treatment of joint dysfunction usually requires: a. Condylar repositioning b. Mandibular appliance which is flat or indented for position c. Maxillary appliance which is flat or indented for position d. All of the above

"a. Condylar repositioning b. Mandibular appliance which is flat or indented for position c. Maxillary appliance which is flat or indented for position d. All of the above * "

** Which aspect of the anatomical cranial structures limits RME expansion?

"a. Coronoid process of mandible * "RPE-- zygomatic buttress (resistance) coronoid (limit)

What are the 2 sequela of having inadequate lingual crown torque on mandibular molars?

"a. Creates crossbites b. Elongation of lingual cusps c. All of the above (correct)

What causes black triangles? a. Crown shape b. Bone loss c. Root position d. All the above

"a. Crown shape b. Bone loss c. Root position d. All the above (correct)"

" In order to distalize a maxillary right molar with an asymmetric headgear you must? " a. Cut the left side short b. Cut the right side short

"a. Cut the left side short (correct) right sd longer outer bow

What are some possible problems associated with implants?

"a. Dehiscence b. Unfavorable crown/root ratio c. All of the above * d. None of the above "

With a high-pull headgear, to achieve clockwise movement of molar, where should the line of force action be with reference to the center of resistance? a. Distal b. Mesial c. Above d. Below

"a. Distal (correct) "Proffit pg. 530 Center of resistance mx: above premolar roots Center of resistance upper molar: Midroot area A force above the CR of the molar will result in distal root movement (aka bodily movement). Forces below CR of the molar causes distal crown tipping. Unless the line of force is through the CR of the maxilla, you get rotation of the jaw itself. Nanda 1997 edition CH7, pg 129-130, fig 7-28 See 4th diagram, which illustrates long outerbow bent down with force distal to CRes Too much missing from the question (Dr. R) - but the way it is the best answer might be A. (long arm bent down with upward pull) If its a short arm parallel to the inner bow would have distal root rotation long arm parallel to the inner bow would have mesial root rotation"

" Patient with impacted canines 3mm above mucogingival junction, what should you do?" a. Expose using closed eruption technique b. Bracket and graft later c. Bracket and bring into arch d. Nothing

"a. Expose using closed eruption technique (correct)

" Attachment of superior head of the lateral pterygoid" from what bone to the TMJ? a. greater wing of sphenoid b. lesser wing of sphenoid c. temporal bone d. maxilla

"a. From the sphenoid (greater wing) to disc of TMJ" "Superior head origin: greater wing of sphenoid Inferior head origin: lateral surface of lateral ptyregoid plate Insertion: pterygoid fovea under the condylar process of the mandible and TMJ"

" A patient wants longer crowns of the upper incisors, labial sulcus is 4 mm, what will you do?" a. Gingivectomy b. Gingivectomy and osseous surgery c. Extrude incisors

"a. Gingivectomy (correct)

If you have a 5mm deep probing depth on buccal surface of molar and it does not go through furcation what do you do? a. Guided Tissue Regeneration b. Osseous recontouring c. Nothing d. Hemisection

"a. Guided Tissue Regeneration (correct)

What type of bone can you not use for ridge augmentation? a. Hydroxyapetite b. FDDB freeze dried bone allograft c. Hip graft

"a. Hydroxyapetite (correct)

Cranial nerve XII is called a. Hypoglossal b. Glossopharyngeal c. Accessory d. Mandibular

"a. Hypoglossal (correct) oh, oh,oh,to touch and feel (a) Virgin girls vagina ah heaven

Children with which of the following conditions have the greatest tendency towards delayed eruption of the teeth? a. Hypothyroidism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism e. None of the above

"a. Hypothyroidism *

Which is NOT found in cleft palates? "a. Impacted centrals b. Rotated incisors c. Missing laterals d. Posterior crossbite"

"a. Impacted centrals (correct) b. Rotated incisors c. Missing laterals d. Posterior crossbite"

In a straight wire appliance, adding labial root torque in the segment of the wire engaged in maxillary incisors brackets will cause an: a. Intrusion force on the incisors and extrusion force on the posterior teeth. b. Extrusion force on the incisors and intrusion force on the posterior teeth. c. Intrusion force on incisors and posterior teeth. d. Extrusion force on incisors and posterior teeth.

"a. Intrusion force on the incisors and extrusion force on the posterior teeth. (correct)

Which of the following describes gingival recession when it occurs in adults? a. It occurs approximately 68% of the time b. It occurs in the mandibular teeth more than in the maxillary c. It occurs more symmetrically than asymmetrically d. All of the above

"a. It occurs approximately 68% of the time b. It occurs in the mandibular teeth more than in the maxillary c. It occurs more symmetrically than asymmetrically d. All of the above * "

What loses most resolution? a. JPEG b. Lossless JPEG c. TIFF b. Lead JPEG

"a. JPEG (correct) - unless GIF is an answer " Jacobsen pg. 56 - Image compression and google search Note: c. TIFF (saves most info)

TMD pt with open lock. When she moves laterally to the left she get a loud pop. Which joint and is it anterior or posterior disc displacement? a. Left condyle, posterior displacement b. Right condyle, anterior displacement

"a. Left condyle, posterior displacement (correct) "Okeson Ch10 Pg:353 Imaging of the TMJ in the open lock position has demonstrated that the disc is posterior to the condyle. The loud pop is the left condyle being reduced into the socket. Spontaneous dislocation (i.e., open lock) represents a hyperextension of the TMJ resulting in a condition that fixes the joint in the open position, preventing any translation. This condition is clinically referred to as an open lock because the patient cannot close the mouth. Like subluxation, it can occur in any joint that is forced open beyond the normal restrictions provided by the ligaments. It occurs most often in joints with anatomic features that produce subluxation. When the condyle is in the full forward translatory position, the disc is rotated to its fullest posterior extent on the condyle and firm contact exists between it, the condyle, and the articular eminence. In this position the strong retracting force of the superior retrodiscal lamina, along with the lack of activity of the superior lateral pterygoid, prevents the disc from being anteriorly displaced. The superior lateral pterygoid normally does not become active until the turn around phase of the closing cycle. If for some reason it becomes active early (during the most forward translatory position), its forward pull may overcome the superior retrodiscal lamina and the disc will be pulled through the anterior disc space, resulting in a spontaneous anterior dislocation (Fig. 10-18). This premature activity of the muscle can occur during a yawn or when the muscles are fatigued from maintaining the mouth open for a long time. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. pp. 352 - 353). "

" In order to produce a counterclockwise rotation of the maxilla w/ a high pull headgear the force must be ____to the center of resistance?" a. Mesial b. Distal c. Occlusal d. Gingival

"a. Mesial (correct)

Pain associated with orthodontic treatment is: a. More commonly found when heavy forces are used. b. Increased by repetitive chewing. c. Typically persistent until the next activation. d. Of unknown source.

"a. More commonly found when heavy forces are used. (correct)

Post surgical alterations in the position of the hyoid bone following correction of mandibular prognathism include: a. No significant changes in A-P position of the hyoid bone in relation to the anterior pharyngeal wall b. Hyoid bone was directed downward but not backward c. Physiologic adaptations occurred to insure maintenance of the airway d. All of the above e. None of the above

"a. No significant changes in A-P position of the hyoid bone in relation to the anterior pharyngeal wall b. Hyoid bone was directed downward but not backward c. Physiologic adaptations occurred to insure maintenance of the airway d. All of the above *

" Most common odontogenic tumor" a. odontoma b. cementoma c. ameloblastoma

"a. Odontoma (70%, average age - 14, unerupted teeth)(correct) b. Cementoma (AA women middle age, radiolucent around opaque lesion, vital teeth) c. Ameloblastoma (10%, radiolucent, age 30-50, likely to recur) "

A type III furcation is detected before orthodontic treatment what do you do? a. Open flap curettage b. Intrude the tooth c. Bone graft d. Membrane regeneration

"a. Open flap curettage * Class (2 &) 3 Mx arch --> root amputation in DB root Class 3 Md --> 1) Open flap curettage to create through and through furcation for ease of cleaning, 2) hemisecting, or 3) extraction and implant (membrane tx doesn't produce satisfactory result)

How do you fix a one wall defect?

"a. Orthodontics" if medially tipped ==> swing root fwd, erupt tooth, O reduction

How can the maxilla be overimpacted? a. Poor Planning b. lack of boney contact c. increased masticatory function d. all of the above

"a. Poor Planning b. lack of boney contact c. increased masticatory function d. all of the above*"

** A patient has prolonged history of internal derangement with no joint sounds. Patient developed pain in the TMJ area: a. Posterior capsulitis b. Disc derangement without reduction c. Disc derangment with reduction

"a. Posterior capsulitis (correct) " "the thinking is that pain requires some type of inflammation (people can live pain free with derangements) The entire TMJ is surrounded and encompassed by the capsular ligament (Fig. 1-18). The fibers of the capsular ligament are attached superiorly to the temporal bone along the borders of the articular surfaces of the mandibular fossa and articular eminence. Inferiorly, the fibers of the capsular ligament attach to the neck of the condyle. The capsular ligament acts to resist any medial, lateral, or inferior forces that tend to separate or dislocate the articular surfaces. A significant function of the capsular ligament is to encompass the joint, thus retaining the synovial fluid. The capsular ligament is well innervated and provides proprioceptive feedback regarding position and movement of the joint. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 14). When the capsular ligament becomes inflamed, the condition is called capsulitis. It usually presents clinically as tenderness when the lateral pole of the condyle is palpated. Capsulitis produces pain even in the static joint position, but joint movement generally increases the pain. Although a number of causes can contribute to capsulitis, the most common is macrotrauma (especially an open-mouth injury). Thus whenever the capsular ligament is abruptly elongated and an inflammatory response is detected, it is likely that trauma will be found in the patient's history. Capsulitis can also develop secondary to adjacent tissue breakdown and inflammation. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 225). -Without reduction = disc is displaced in incorrect position at all times; usually no sound produced and limited mouth opening -With reduction = disc slides into and out of its normal position as jaw opens and closes; pop/click sound is produced after 30mm of opening "

When doing a maxillary impaction, what factors are taken into consideration? a. Resting lip/tooth b. Full smile lip tooth c. All of the above d. None of the above

"a. Resting lip/tooth b. Full smile lip tooth c. All of the above * d. None of the above"

Hypothyroidism in a growing child exhibits? a. Retardation of growth of long bones b. Mental retardation c. Late in eruption of dentition d. All of the above

"a. Retardation of growth of long bones b. Mental retardation c. Late in eruption of dentition d. All of the above *"

When you see a double border to the mandible, which side is lower to distortion? (assuming the patients head is positioned properly) a. Right b. Left c. Neither d. Both

"a. Right (correct)

In a standard lateral cephalogram, which side of the mandibular border is lower and more magnified? a. right b. Left c. Depends on the asymmetry d. None of the above

"a. Right * " right side will be positioned further from film and thus will appear more magnified (increased object:film distance)

A patient who develops an open bite and slow shifting of the mandible to the right has? **CHOOSE 2** a. Right condylar resorption (anterior) b. Left condylar resorption c. Right condylar hyperplasia d. Left condylar hyperplasia (posterior)

"a. Right condylar resorption * (anterior) d. Left condylar hyperplasia * (posterior)"

Patient has antegonial notch on ceph, how do you know if right or left side when the notch is on the inferior border of the mandible? a. Right side will be magnified b. Left side will be magnified c. You won't

"a. Right side will be magnified (correct)

Trauma to incisors and tooth fracture down to alveolar crest, you want to extrude it. What factors should be considered? a. Root length b. Root shape c. Root canal width d. Inclination of root relative to crown e. Amount of alveolar crest f. All the above

"a. Root length b. Root shape c. Root canal width d. Inclination of root relative to crown e. Amount of alveolar crest f. All the above (Correct) " "Proffit 4th ed. - Pg. 352 ""On occasion, it is desirable to elongate the root of a fractured tooth, to enable its use as a prosthetic abutment without crown-lengthening surgery. If heavy forces are used to extrude a tooth quickly, a relative loss of attachment may occur, but this deliberately nonphysiologic extrusion is at best traumatic and at worst can lead to ankylosis and/or resorption. Physiologic extrusion or intrusion that brings the alveolar bone along with the tooth, followed by surgical recontouring of gingiva and bone, is preferable."" Proffit 4th ed. - Pg. 458 ""Immediately following a traumatic injury, teeth that have not been irreparably damaged usually are repositioned with finger pressure and stabilized (with a light wire or nylon filament) for 7 to 10 days. At this point, the teeth usually exhibit physiologic mobility, and the prognosis is better if they are not splinted any longer. If the teeth are not in ideal positions and orthodontic treatment to reposition them is indicated, it should begin at that time, using light force. Prior to treatment, multiple radiographs at numerous vertical and horizontal angulations should be obtained to rule out vertical, and horizontal root fractures that may make it impossible to save the tooth or teeth"" Proffit 4th ed. - Pg. 645 ""The distance the tooth should be extruded is determined by three things: (1) the location of the defect (fracture line, root perforation, etc.); (2) space to place the margin of the restoration so that it is not at the base of the gingival sulcus (typically, 1 mm is needed); and (3) an allowance for the biological width of the gingival attachment (about 2 mm)...The crown-to-root ratio at the end of treatment should be 1 : 1 or better. A tooth with a poorer ratio can be maintained only by splinting it to adjacent teeth."" ""In general, extrusion can be as rapid as 1 mm per week without damage to the PDL, so 3 to 6 weeks is sufficient for almost any patient. Too much force, and too rapid a rate of movement, runs the risk of tissue damage and ankylosis."" Proffit 4th ed. - Pg 664 ""When tooth structure has been lost all the way to beyond the normal contact point, the tooth becomes abnormally narrow, and restoration of the lost crown width as well as height is important. The orthodontic positioning obviously should provide adequate space for the appropriate addition of the restorative material. The ideal position may or may not be in the center of the space mesio-distally-this would depend on whether the most esthetic restoration would be produced by symmetric addition on each side of the tooth, or whether a larger build-up on one side would be better."" ""If only a small amount of tooth structure has been lost, as for instance if the incisal edge of one incisor has been fractured, it may be possible to smooth the fractured area and elongate the damaged tooth so that the incisal edges line up. The result, however, will be uneven gingival margins-which means that elongation of a fractured tooth must be done with caution, and with consideration of the extent to which the gingival margins are exposed when the patient smiles. Before acceptably esthetic composite resin build-ups of anterior teeth were available, orthodontic elongation of fractured teeth was a more acceptable treatment approach than it is at present. Now, more than 1-2 mm of elongation rarely is a good plan unless the patient never exposes the gingiva."" "

The paranasal sinus which lies directly beneath the sella turcica is the? a. Sphenoid b. Maxillary c. Posterior ethmoidal d. Frontal

"a. Sphenoid sinus (correct) " "ABO breakdown: -sphenoid drains into superior nasal meatus -ethmoid, frontal, maxillary, temporal drain into middle meatus"

Calcification of what is associated with Eagle's syndrome? a. Stylohyoid ligament b. Sphenomandibular c. Lateral pterygoid d. Digastric

"a. Stylohyoid ligament *

On a lateral ceph, what is elongated in Eagle's Syndrome? a. Styloid process b. Coronoid process c. Tuberosity d. Symphysis

"a. Styloid process *

What should the interface between an implant and bone be? a. Such that the implant does not move relative to adjacent bone b. Such that it acts like a pdl c. Such that it absorbs the shock of mastication

"a. Such that the implant does not move relative to adjacent bone *

Which growth sites are not in cranium? a. Syndesmoses b. Periosteum c. Synchondroses d. Synostoses

"a. Syndesmoses - Joint by 2 ligaments (correct) b. Periosteum c. Synchondroses - Union of 2 bones by hyaline cartilage d. Synostoses - Early closure of sutures"

NSAIDs inhibit production of prostaglandins. This causes an increase in threshold to pain causing analgesia. a. T/T b. T/F c. F/T d. F/F

"a. T/T**

"Prevalence tells us what?

"a. The amount of disease at any given time* b. Number of cases / number of persons*" "Prevalence tells us what? the total number of cases of the disease in the population at a given time, or the total number of cases in the population, divided by the number of individuals in the population"

" What happens to the facial angle and the mandibular plane angle as a person ages?" a. The facial angle increases and the mandibular plane angle decreases b. The facial angle decreases and the mandibular plane angle increases c. The facial angle decreases and the mandibular plane angle decreases d. The facial angle increases and the mandibular plane angle increases

"a. The facial angle increases and the mandibular plane angle decreases (correct) " Vertical dimension decreases as you age, rotating the mandible forward

" The relationship of a bacteremia to infective endocarditis depends on:" a. The magnitude of the bacteremia b. The virulence of the organism c. The resistance of the host d. All of the above e. None of the above

"a. The magnitude of the bacteremia b. The virulence of the organism c. The resistance of the host d. All of the above (correct)

The facial growth curve parallels most closely: a. The neural growth curve b. The somatic growth curve c. The fatty growth curve d. The lymphoid growth curve e. The pubertal growth curve

"a. The neural growth curve b. The somatic growth curve (correct) c. The fatty growth curve d. The lymphoid growth curve e. The pubertal growth curve"

In the above study they concluded that: a. The original growth pattern rather than an extraction treatment strategy was the most likely factor responsible for the frequency of TMD reported many years posttreatment. b. Four-premolar extractions should be contraindicated as an orthodontic treatment alternative. c. Fixed appliance treatment causes increased TMD symptoms if use in conjunction with four-premolar extractions. d. A functional appliance in conjunction with four-premolar extractions is detrimental for the TMJ.

"a. The original growth pattern rather than an extraction treatment strategy was the most likely factor responsible for the frequency of TMD reported many years posttreatment. (Correct) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 81 (top of Right column) Word for Word"

Which of the below is the anterior border of the pterygoid plate? a. The posterior part of the pterygomaxillary fissure b. The anterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture

"a. The posterior part of the pterygomaxillary fissure (correct) the pterygomaxillary fissure formed by the divergence of the maxilla from the pterygoid process of the sphenoid

Smith and Freer examined 87 patients who received full fixed appliances during adolescence, approximately two-thirds involving extractions, and who were an average of 52 months after retention and compared with the untreated control group of 28 subjects. Which of the following was NOT a finding reported by this study a. There was no significant difference in the rate of soft clicks between the two groups. b. There was no significant difference in the rate of hard clicks between the two groups. c. There was a higher rate of soft clicks in the postorthodontic group. d. There was no significant association between orthodontic treatment and occlusal or TMJ dysfunction.

"a. There was no significant difference in the rate of soft clicks between the two groups. (correct) this was NOT A FINDING 3 BELOW ARE TRUE FINDINGS b. There was no significant difference in the rate of hard clicks between the two groups. c. There was a higher rate of soft clicks in the postorthodontic group. d. There was no significant association between orthodontic treatment and occlusal or TMJ dysfunction. " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 80-81 ""Their results rejected the hypothesis of a significant association between orthodontic treatment and occlusal or TMJ dysfunction. The one exception was the finding of a higher rate of soft clicks in the post-orthodontic group (64% compared with 36%)."" "

Which of the following canine movements would be ideally achieved w/ a force of 35-60gm: a. Tipping, rotation, extrusion b. Tipping, intrusion , extrusion c. Tipping, translation, extrusion d. Extrusion, intrusion , rotation

"a. Tipping, rotation, extrusion (correct) RET

According to reviews of database at University of North Carolina, deviation of the chin in pts w/deficient or excessive mand growth is: "a. To the right side in 90% of the cases b. To the left side in 90% of the cases c. Present in all cases d. Hardly ever present

"a. To the right side in 90% of the cases b. To the left side in 90% of the cases (correct) c. Present in all cases d. Hardly ever present " (P687)

" Movement of bony segments in space, without any internal or localized changes, is called:" a. Translation b. Conduction c. Transformation d. Does not occur "

"a. Translation (correct) assoc with capsular & macro skeleton

When maxillary expansion is carried out without crossbite, which of the following is correct? a. Transverse expansion of the maxillary arch b. Transverse expansion the mandibular arch c. Significant increase in the mandibular arch to correct 3-4 mm of crowding d. The expansion in the mandibular arch is insignificant e. a f. a,b g. a,b,c h. d

"a. Transverse expansion of the maxillary arch b. Transverse expansion the mandibular arch c. Significant increase in the mandibular arch to correct 3-4 mm of crowding g. a,b,c (crrect) " Article #58

** Which syndrome has a problem with neural crest cell migration and under-formation of the Mx and Md? a. Treacher Collins b. Hemifacial microsomial c. both d. neither

"a. Treacher Collins - mutation of TCOF1 gene on chromosome 5q32-q33.1 (correct) "Proffitt 4th ed pg 74 - both have problems with neural crest cells, but T.C. is listed as underdevelopment of max and mand, whereas Hemifacial microsomia is listed as unilateral with lateral and lower part of face (ramus) underdeveloped"

** NEED TO CHECK 2ND STATMENT THAT ITS TRUE COULDNT FIND IT IN PROFITT OR GRABER** Thermal debond of brackets is an alternative to usual technique. Ceramic brackets debonded by thermal means, both more time & a higher temp are required than for debonding of SS brackets, assuming a two paste adhesive system used. a. True b. False

"a. True (correct) "Proffit 4th edition pg 419 ""Quite effective and reduces the chance of enamel damage. Rarely used now due to risk of pulpal damage"""

AIDS patient shows all of the following a. Weight loss b. Kaposis sarcoma c. Lymphadenopathy d. All of the above

"a. Weight loss b. Kaposis sarcoma c. Lymphadenopathy" "all of these seem correct http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmedhealth/PMH0001620/ : ""Common symptoms are: •Chills •Fevers •Sweats (particularly at night) •Swollen lymph glands •Weakness •Weight loss Common with CD4 count below 350 cells/mm3: •Herpes simplex virus •Tuberculosis •Oral or vaginal thrush •Herpes zoster (shingles) •Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma •Kaposi's sarcoma"" And it just keeps getting worse as the CD4 goes down. Man AIDS sucks"

Best time for an implant: a. When growth has ceased b. Boys after 18-19 years of age c. Girls after 16 years

"a. When growth has ceased (correct)

" Which dimension of infants most closely resembles adults?" a. Width b. Depth c. Height

"a. Width (correct) b. Depth c. Height "

What is the largest in an infant? a. Width of head b. Depth of head c. Vertical size of head"

"a. Width of head

Which dimension finishes growing first? "a. Width/breadth b. Depth c. Vertical"

"a. Width/breadth (correct) b. Depth c. Vertical" transverse --> AP --> vertical

Is there more of a risk of bone loss and periodontal disease if the roots are not parallel and are too close? a. Yes b. No

"a. Yes (correct)

A patient had a horizontal root fracture at the apex 5 years ago, no treatment was done, and there are no symptoms a. You can begin ortho treatment right away b. You should have endo done and then commence ortho treatment c. You should do endo, and an apicoectomy and then commence ortho treatment d. You should do nothing

"a. You can begin ortho treatment right away *

The radiopacity that frequently obliterates the apices of maxillary molars when using bisecting principle of intra-oral radiography is the: a. Zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla b. Orbital process of the zygomatic bone c. Palatine bone and the zygoma d. Maxillary sinus

"a. Zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla (correct)

Which suture is NOT at the posterior border of the maxillary tuberosity?" a. Zygomatico b. Pterygo c. Palatine d. Sphenoid e. None of the above

"a. Zygomatico (probably correct) b. Pterygo c. Palatine d. Sphenoid e. None of the above (correct)? " see above - pterygomaxillary suture/fissure (also known as pterygopalatine) is located at posterior border of max tuberosity, so answer A is the most incorrect

What is the best structure for superimposition of cranial base: a. anterior clinoid, cribiform plate, and greater wing of sphenoid b. Lesser wing

"a. anterior clinoid, cribiform plate, and greater wing of sphenoid (correct) " "Article ""Comparison of hand-traced and computerized cephalograms,"" Roden-Johnson: Register on sella with the best fit on the anterior cranial base bony structures (planum sphenoidum, cribriform plate, greater wing of the sphenoid) to assess overall growth and treatment changes. Graber (2000) pg. 214 & Graber (2005) pg. 245: Through the systematic study ... the most stable osseous structures in the anterior cranial base of growing children and adolescents were defined anatomically (Figure 3-38, A). This research established that the three most stable osseous landmarks for superimposition of cephalometric radiographs are (1) the anterior curvature of the sella turcica, (2) the cribriform plate, and (3) the internal curvature of the frontal bone (Figure 3-38, B). In effect, this research established the gold standard for reliable superimposition on the anterior cranial base"

"Which of the following is a correct statement: " "a. apposition is seen on anterior border of chin b. apposition on lower anterior border of mandible at pogonion (correct) c. resorption seen at posterior symphysis"

"a. apposition is seen on anterior border of chin b. apposition on lower anterior border of mandible at pogonion (correct) c. resorption seen at posterior symphysis" "all of these are false only slight apposition at lingual of symphysis only apparent growth of the chin by resorption at B point Bjork ABO article #54 (p587, 597) ""thickening of symphysis takes place by apposition on its posterior surface...on its lower border there is likewise apposition, which contributes to increase in height of the symphysis"" ""periosteal apposition below the symphysis is extended posteriorly, to the anterior part of the lower border of the mandible, and when it is marked this area is characteristically rounded"" ""In vertical condylar growth, the pronounced apposition below the symphysis and the anterior part of the mandible produces an anterior rounding, with a thick cortical layer"" Profitt p113 ""At one time, it was thought that this occurred primarily by addition of bone to the chin, but that is incorrect. Although small amounts of bone are added, the change in the contour of the chin itself occurs largely because the area just abovet he chin, between it and the base of the alveolar process is a resorptive area"" ""Subsequent to the deciduous dentition period of childhood growth, however, the alveolar bone on the labial side in the forward part of the arch undergoes a reversal to become resorptive, and the opposite lingual side becomes uniformly depository. This change occurs in conjunction with the unique lingual direction of incisor movement in the child's mandible. From this time, the chin begins to take on a progressively more prominent form; the mental protuberance continues to remodel anteriorly, while the alveolar bone above it remodels posteriorly until the lower permanent incisors reach their definitive positions."" (Enlow, Donald H.. Essentials of Facial Growth. Enlow Hans, 07/1996. p. 232). SABURO KURIHARA, DONALD H. ENLOW and ROSALBA D. RANGEL (1980) Remodeling Reversals in Anterior Parts Of the Human Mandible and Maxilla. The Angle Orthodontist: April 1980, Vol. 50, No. 2, pp. 98-106."

Which of the following imaging methods is best for perforated disc? a. arthrography b. arthoscropy c. mri d. ct

"a. arthrography (correct) "Jacobsen text p. 236; ABO Breakdown: Arthrogram - inject dye; internal derrangements, ADD MRI - best for TMJ soft tissues (disc, ligaments, muscle, internal disc derangement) CT - best for bone/hard tissues Tomogram - osseous parts of TMJ Transcranial XR - lateral pole of condyle; least reliable for condylar shape"

Which of the following meds is used to temporarily decrease salivary flow for bonding, and what is its contraindication for use? a. banthine, glaucoma b. probanthine, high intracranial pressure c. epinephrine, glaucoma d. phenylephrine, glaucoma

"a. banthine, glaucoma (correct) " "Graber, Current Principles and Techniques textbook (2000) pg. 560: Anti-sialagogues - competitive antagonists of muscarinic actions of acetylcholine; block attachment of Ac to salivarHy gland receptors and saliva is not produced 1. Pro-Banthine (Propantheline bromide): sublingual injection; no longer advised if patients can take oral form. 2. Banthine (Methantheline bromide): oral tablets (50 mg per 100 lb [ 45 kg] body weight) in a sugar-free drink, 15 minutes before bonding 3. Atropine Sulfate (Sal-Tropine) antimuscarinic and anticholinergic"

"According to Moss functional matrix theory, bone translation occurs due to the following? What results in displacement of cranial bones causing sutural growth?" a. capsular matrix b. periosteal matrix c. both

"a. capsular matrix (correct) Controversial 21. Functional matrix question-- whats involved in translation? A. Capsular B. Periosteal C. Macroskeletal D. Capsular and macroskeletal: ANSWER What causes translation? → capsular Capsular growth causes macroskeletal units to translate. whats "Involved" pick both. IF "what causes translation" → CAPSULAR "http://www.journals.elsevierhealth.com/periodicals/ajorth/article/0002-9416(69)90209-7/abstract The morphogenetic role of two types of functional matrix-periosteal and capsular—in craniofacial growth is examined. The term growth is defined inclusively to include the changes in size and shape as well as changes in spatial position in time. The periosteal matrices are responsible for transformative growth, the changes in size and shape. The capsular matrices are responsible for translative growth, the changes in position. The role of oronasopharyngeal functioning spaces as competent, primary, morphogenetic agencies is detailed. The volumetric expansion of these capsular functional matrices is capable of accurate quantitative description."

Increased root proximity of the lower anterior teeth

"a. causes perio problems/bone loss**

Shingles is related to: a. chicken pox b. HSV c. small pox

"a. chicken pox" see above

Class II elastics do all of the following except: a. close the bite b. move the maxilla back c. erupt the molars (lower) and incisors (upper) d. position the lower jaw forward e. tip the occlusal Plane

"a. close the bite (correct) b. move the maxilla back c. erupt the molars (lower) and incisors (upper) d. position the lower jaw forward e. tip the occlusal Plane"

Most magnification is seen with the following: "a. increased film to midsagittal plane b. increased anode to patient distance

"a. increased film to midsagittal plane (correct) """Bilateral structures close to the midsagittal plane demonstrate less discrepancy in size when compared with bilateral structures farther away from the midsagittal plane. Structures close to the midsagittal plane (e.g., the clinoid processes and inferior turbinates) should be nearly superimposed."" (White, Stuart C.. Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation, 5th Edition. Mosby, 122003. pp. 211 - 212). Jacobson text (p34, 2nd edition): ""The degree of magnification is determined by the ratio of the distance from the xray source ot the object and the distance from the xray source to film. The larger the distance from the object being imaged to the film plane, the greater the magnification. To minimize this effect, the distance from the x-ray source to the midsagittal plane of the patient's head in ceph units should be 5 feet"" "

the foramen that borders the petrous portion of the temporal bone: "a. lacerum b. jugular c. spinosum d. rotundum e. ovale

"a. lacerum (true) "The foramen lacerum (lacerated or torn foramen) is not part of the crescent of foramina. This ragged foramen lies posterolateral to the hypophysial fossa and is an artifact of a dried cranium. In life, it is closed by a cartilage plate. Only some meningeal arterial branches and small veins are transmitted vertically through the cartilage, completely traversing this foramen. The internal carotid artery and its accompanying sympathetic and venous plexuses pass across the superior aspect of the cartilage (i.e., pass over the foramen), and some nerves traverse it horizontally, passing to a foramen in its anterior boundary. Extending posteriorly and laterally from the foramen lacerum is a narrow groove for the greater petrosal nerve on the anterosuperior surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone. There is also a small groove for the lesser petrosal nerve. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 901). At the base of the petrous ridge of the temporal bone is the jugular foramen, which transmits several cranial nerves in addition to the sigmoid sinus that exits the cranium as the IJV. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 901). foramen lacerum - borders petrous portion of temporal bone and sphenoid bone jugular foramen - borders petrous portion of temporal bone and occipital bone"

"Cleft lip formed by failure of fusion of the following/ Bilateral cleft lip occurs from lack of fusion of what?" a. medial nasal and maxillary process b. medial nasal and lateral nasal

"a. medial nasal and maxillary process (correct) "Proffit 4th ed pg 74: Clefting of the lip occurs because of a failure of fusion between the median and lateral nasal processes and the maxillary prominence, which normally occurs in humans during the sixth week of development. At least theoretically a midline cleft of the upper lip could develop because of a split within the median nasal process, but this almost never occurs. Instead, clefts of the lip occur lateral to the midline on either or both sides (Figure 3-7). Since the fusion of these processes during primary palate formation creates not only the lip but the area of the alveolar ridge containing the central and lateral incisors, it is likely that a notch in the alve olar process will accompany a cleft lip even if there is no cleft of the secondary palate. "

Where are the primate spaces? a. mesial of maxillary canine and distal of mandibular canine b. distal of maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors c. distal of maxillary and mandibular canines d. mesial of maxillary lateral incisors and distal of mandibular canine

"a. mesial of maxillary canine and distal of mandibular canine * MUDL mesial of upper distal of lower

Hypertelorism is seen in: a. Midline Cleft b. Oroocular Cleft

"a. midline cleft" "Breakdown pg 7 Midline cleft causes hypertelorism Oroocular cleft (aka oblique lateral cleft or orbitomaxillary) causes hypotelorism (failure of fusion of maxillary process with the lateral nasal)"

Studies show that osseointgerated TADs show: a. no movement b. slight movement (0.1 micron/yr)

"a. no movement (correct)

You notice a patient that is 9 years old with a space between the incisors. This condition is: a. Normal b. Caused by the frenum c. The ugly duckling stage d. Pathologic

"a. normal"

BUQ: According to Ricketts, the Frankfort Horizontal most closely parallels a. Palatal plane b. SN c. Occlusal Plane d. Mandibular Plane

"a. palatal plane

" Which bone is purely intramembranous?" "a. parietal and frontal b. ethmoid c. temporal

"a. parietal and frontal (correct) " "Intramembranous- Frontal, Parietal, Nasal, Lacrimal, Zygomatic, Vomer, Palantine, Maxilla HE IS In "endo" Purely Endochondral- Incus, Stapes, Ethmoid, Inferior Concha, Hyoid Ma MOST are mixed Mixed- Maleus, Temporal, Spenoid, Mandible, Occipital"

What is most common type of salivary gland tumor? a. pleomorphic adenoma b. mucoepidermoid carcinoma c. Warthin's d. clear cell carcinoma

"a. pleomorphic adenoma (correct) "Dr. Kahn Pathology Lecture: - most common salivary tumor in mouth; benign, but can turn into malignancy called Ex-pleomporphic adenoma; age 40s; - most to least common site: Parotid > posterior lateral hard palate > submandibular > upper lip > buccal mucosa - Pleomorphic Adenoma occurs 80-90% of salivary gland tumors. - mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the 2nd most common salivary tumor and the 1st most common malignant salivary tumor - adenoid cystic carcinoma is second most common malignant salivary gland tumor"

Which are NOT effects of Twin block? a. significant horizontal maxillary movement b. maxillary proclination c. mandibular retroinclination d.all of the above

"a. significant horizontal maxillary movement b. maxillary proclination c. mandibular retroinclination d.all of the above (correct)" "Article: ""Herbst v. T Block"" Schaefer et al: - U6 horizontal/maxillary molars were near their original sagittal position - labial inclination of the maxillary incisors (U1 to vertical point A and U1 horizontal) was reduced significantly -mandibular incisors tipped labially (L1 to mandibular plane, L1 horizontal) "

From which bone does the medial pterygoid muscle arise from the pterygoid fossa? a. Sphenoid b. Ethmoid c. Temporal d. Nasal

"a. sphenoid " "Origin of superficial head: tuberosity of maxilla Origin of deep head: that's what she said... medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate and palatine bone Insertion: Medial surface of ramus and angle of mandible"

After maxillary down fracture. What happens to growth? a. the maxilla continues to grow vertically as normal b. the maxilla can still grow horzontally c. the maxilla can still grow both vertically and horizontally

"a. the maxilla continues to grow vertically as normal "also worded as a ""maxillary impaction"" rather than ""maxillary down fracture"" depending on the source ""Considerations for Orthognathic Surgery During Growth Part 2"" Wolford AJODO 2001 pg 105: ""The LeFort 1 osteotomy, will inhibit further AP maxillary growth while allowing vertical mx growth to continue."" ""Mandibular growth continues normally after mx surgery and so a Class 3 relationship can develop"" ""A high condylectomy will arrest AP mandibular growth however with all other md surgeries you can expect the same rate of growth as the pt presented presurgically."" Know Wolford articles"

"When a round stainless steel wire is used as a fingerspring, doubling the length of the wire decreases the force it delivers to: " a. ½ as much b. ¼ as much c. 1/6 as much d. 1/8 as much

"a. ½ as much (correct) " "Proffit 4th ed pg 370 2x Length = 1/2 strength, 8x springiness, 4x range "

50% of expansion is achieved with a lip bumper in:

"a.50% of expansion 100 days (correct) (90% over 300 days) "ABO article #59- (Murphy) A longitudinal study of incremental expansion using a mandibular lip bumper 50% of total arch length expansion in the first 100 days, 40% in the next 200 days, (90% over 300 days) and 10% after 300 days"

Early extraction of mandibular primary canine will lead to all of the following EXCEPT: a) correction of a midline shift b) Increased OB c) Increase OJ d) Lingual tipping of Md inc e) Distal drift of Md inc

"a.correction of midline shift from muy imp Ref: Treatment instituted later, after considerable shift, removal of the remaining canine will not correct the midline.... The incisors have also had more time to collapse lingually. Bilateral spontaneous early loss of the primary canines leads to a bilateral loss of arch perimeter and a deepening of the bite

When replacing a lateral incisor with a canine, which of the following is NOT important a) Color and size of opposite lateral b) Color and size of opposite canine c) Posterior occlusion on opposite side d) Posterior occlusion on same side

"b) Color and size of opposite canine (correct) " "Possibly in Kokich (regarding posterior occlusion being important) Opposite lateral is important because you want the canine substitution to match the lateral the posterior occlusion on the opposite side isn't as important as the posterior occlusion on the same side but it still matters more than the color and size of the opposite canine Textbook: McNamara, Chapter 25 Managing Orthodontic Restorative treatment for the Adolescent Patient: Three criteria should be evaluated for canine substitution: 1. Occlusion or malocclusion must be appropriate. The ideal situation for canine substitution is a patient with a Class II molar relationship, minimal crowding of the mandibular teeth, and acceptable facial profile. 2. Anterior tooth-size relationship. When canines are substituted for lateral incisors, maxillary anterior tooth size excess is created. The widths of the maxillary six anterior teeth often must be reduced in size to create the correct overbite and overjet relationships. A diagnostic wax set- up is necessary. 3. Length. shape, and color of the maxillary canine crowns. If canines are substituted for lateral incisors, their gingival margins must be positioned more incisally relative to the central incisors, because the crown lengths of lateral incisors typically are shorter than central incisors. Therefore. the canine must be erupted, and their cusps must be equilibrated. If the shape of the canine cusp is unusually long and pointed, it could be impossible to reduce the cusp enough to simulate the incisal edge of a lateral incisor "

Space discrepancies of up to ___ mm can usually be resolved without extraction of some teeth other than third molars? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 c. 8

"b. 4"

"168. What is the ideal percentage of the lower facial height?" a. 45% b. 55% c. 35% d. 65%

"b. 55% "

If a lower incisor to GoGn changed from 105 to 95, how many mm of mand. space is necessary? a. 10mm b. 8mm c. 6mm d. 4mm

"b. 8mm *Need 1mm space (per side) for 2.5 degrees uprighting —>total 2mm space for 2.5 degree retraction

What is not a desirable side effect after maxillary impaction surgery? a. Nasal tip rises b. Alar base widens c. Nasal tip drops d. Alar base narrows

"b. Alar base widens isn't it also a. Nasal tip rises (NLA increases) too **

When wire is increased in length, the load deflection rate a. Increases b. Decreases c. Stays the same d. None of the above

"b. Decreases (correct) " Increased length = increased springiness = decreased load deflection rate

Larsson and Ronnerman studied adolescent patients who were treated orthodontically 10 years previously, 18 of whom had fixed appliances and 5 whom had functional appliance (activator). In 31% of the subjects mild dysfunction was recorded clinically and only one subject (4%) had severe dysfunction according to the Helkimo index. In comparing their results with other published epidemiologic studies, they concluded that: a. Extensive orthodontic treatment caused severe dysfunction of the TMD. b. Extensive orthodontic treatment can be performed without the fear of creating complications of TM dysfunction. c. Functional appliances can cause severe dysfunction of the TMD. d. There were no differences in symptoms between the subjects that were treated with fixed appliances compared with the ones treated with fixed appliances.

"b. Extensive orthodontic treatment can be performed without the fear of creating complications of TM dysfunction. (Correct) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 79 ""In comparing their results with other published epidemiologic studies, they concluded that extensive orthodontic treatment can be performed without fear of creating complications of TM dysfunction. They suggested that orthodontic therapy may possibly prevent TMD."""

" All the following are current recommendations for safer debonding of ceramic brackets, except:" a. Selecting brackets with mechanical retention between the base and the adhesive. b. Inducing an asymmetric torquing stress on the bracket. c. Using a laser to weaken the adhesive. d. Concentrating the force at the bracket-adhesive interface.

"b. Inducing an asymmetric torquing stress on the bracket.(correct) " "Profitt 4th ed. page 419. There should be a shearing effect not torquing."

According to Bailey et al., a surgical treatment that has less than 20% chance of significant posttreatment change and almost no chance of major posttreatment change is considered: a. Highly stable b. Stable c. Stable if modified d. Problematic

"b. Stable " "ABO Article #17 - Bailey - Stability and predictability of orthognathic surgery - Page 273 HIGHLY STABLE - less than a 10% chance of significant posttreatment change STABLE - less than a 20% chance of significant post-treatment change and almost no chance of major posttreatment change STABLE IF MODIFIED IN A SPECIFIC WAY - eg. rigid internal fixation (RIF) after surgery PROBLEMATIC - a considerable probability of major posttreatment change."

Which of the following should be used in a patient with a Nickel allergy a.NiTi b.TMA c.SS d.Elgiloy - chrome cobalt

"b. TMA " "Proffit pg 361 & 365 SS and Elgiloy have 8% nickel TMA only does not contain nickel, only titanium and molybdenum"

" Which of the below is the posterior border of the maxillary tuberosity?" a. The posterior part of the pterygomaxillary fissure b. The anterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture

"b. The anterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture (correct) " see above

BUQ: " Which of the following remains relatively constant with age? " a. Facial angle b. Y-axis c. MPA d. All of the above

"b. Y-axis * (S-Gn/FH) defines mand growth direction" & Facial axis stable B: SNA remains constant w age, what's another angle that is constant w age? Y-Axis

" Paroramic radiographs are least useful in demonstrating which of the following:" a. Supernumerary teeth b. Arch perimeter deficiencies c. Congentially missing teeth d. Axial inclination of teeth e. Apical development of permanent teeth

"b. arch perimeter deficiency

A newly employed personnel should have Hep. B shots made available to him/her: a. After six months of work b. As soon as possible c. Never

"b. as soon as possible" Note on muy importante-q states there is no vaccine for hepC

Which is most closely associated with opisthion?" a. Bolton b. Basion c. Condylion d. Occipital condyle

"b. basion (anterior point on foramen magnum) Bolton point is much closer to opisthion than any of the others listed"

What would you do to the kVp or mA to visualize a root fracture? a. Increase kVp b. Decrease kVp c. Increase mA d. Decrease mA

"b. decrease kvp" Decreasing kVp creates fewer shades of gray and allows for fracture to be visualized. SE From article: Effect of different exposure settings on the diagnosis of vertical root fractures on cone-beam computed tomography images Sandra Mehralizadeh The results of the present study showed that the best views for the detection of simulated VRFs on CBCT images in axial views are achieved with the mA max/ kVp min exposure setting. Also, the patient radiation dose can be reduced by minimizing the kVp.

The articular disc is composed of which type of tissue? a. Elastic b. Fibrous c. Cartilaginous d. Hyaline

"b. fibrous (fibrocartilage) "

Where does the petrous portion (of temporal bone) lie on a PA ceph radiograph?" a. Upper 1/3 of orbit b. Inferior 1/3 of orbit c. Roof of orbit d. Floor of orbit

"b. inferior 1/3 of the orbit " (or if asked upper vs lower 1/2 put lower 1/2 of orbit)

**?? What two bones meet at Articulare? a. zygomatic bone b. mandible c. sphenoid d. temporal e. occipital bone

"b. mandible (correct) e. occipital bone (correct)" Jackobson and Kula textbook says occipital bone (bc posterior CB & condyle intersection)

Geographic Tongue is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a. fissured tongue b. more common in males c. show munro abscesses histologically d. psoriasis

"b. more common in males (correct) " Geographic tongue is 3xfemales > males. Munro abscesses is intraepithelial abscess seen in psoriasis.

" Which structure is most likely to grow into a person's twenties?" a. Chin b. Nose c. Maxilla d. Mandible

"b. nose "

Not including CBCT, what is the downfall to digital? a. operating costs b.resolution

"b. resolution (correct)" digital has LESS resolution see above

BUSCHANG ANATOMY Q: Pt w/a paralyzed rt lateral pterygoid muscle is instructed to open his mouth wide. Which direction will the mandible deviate on opening? a. To the left b. To the right c. Straight (no deviation) d. None of the above

"b. to the right "

Correlation between tooth size and dental arch form is: a. Very close b. Very poor c. Off by one year

"b. very poor"

Exam of a mixed dentition malocclusion reveals an abnormal resorption pattern of the primary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, incompletely formed roots of permanent teeth & macroglossia. Which of the following etiological factors is probable cause of the condition: a. Addision's disease b. Hypothyroidism c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Von Recklinghausen's disease e. History of severe febrile disease

"b.HYPOthyroidism "

Hyperdivergent phenotype should be treated early. The phenotype can be diagnosed early. a) First statement is true, second false b) First statement false, second true c) Both true d) Both false

"c) both true" ABO article #31 - (Sankey, Buschang) Early treatment of vertical skeletal dysplasia (Patterns of facial growth are established early in development/ if left untreated the only alternative may be surgery)

"According to Bailey et al., the most stable orthognathic procedure is: a) Mandibular set back b) Mandibular advancement c) Superior reposition of the maxilla d) Maxillary advancement

"c) superior repositioning of maxilla " "ABO Article #17 - Bailey - Stability and predictability of Orthognathic surgery pg 273 Most stable: Maxillary Impaction>mandible forward>maxilla forward Least stable: Maxillary transverse expansion>Maxilla down>Mandible retraction"

On a view of a lateral ceph with the second molars and E's present, how old is the pt? a. 13 years b. 9 years c. 11 years d. 15 years

"c. 11 yo primary E exfoliate 10-12yo

A fractured tooth that has been extruded 4 mm in a 1 month, what is the minimal amount of time it should be stabilized a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 12 months

"c. 6 months "

Esthetically, how much room do you need for an implant? a. 3mm b. 5mm c. 7mm d. 10mm

"c. 7mm"

Which is not one of the four cardinal symptoms of TMJ disorder? a.pain in TMJ b.joint sounds c.ADD d.impaired mobility of joints e.headaches/crepitus

"c. ADD " "p654 proffit, fig 18-24, Okeson pg 161 says TMD symptoms are: pain, joint sounds, limited opening ABO breakdown: - symptom = observed by patient; subjective (pain, headache) - sign = observed by dr.; objective (ADD, locking, condylar dislocation) JADA, Vol 139, No 6, 664. 2008: Four cardinal signs and symptoms of TMD: 1. pain in the TM joints, muscles of mastication and adjacent soft tissue 2. TM joint sounds that occur during mouth opening and closing and moving the lower jaw to either side or forward 3. Tenderness of the TM joints, muscles of mastication and adjacent soft tissues on digital palpation 4. Limitation on opening the mouth and moving the lower jaw to either side or forward. "

"Straightwire appliances are intended to achieve perfect finishing. However, most cases need some adjustment. Also worded from other sources as ""Pre-adjusted appl are designed to give ideal alignment of teeth, but in finishing some adjustment is needed.""" a. First statement true, second false b. First statement false, second true c. Both True d. Both False

"c. Both True (correct) if the wording is intended --> T, if guarantee --> F) " "Proffit 4th ed pg 603 ""If the appliance prescription and bracket positioning were perfect, such adjustments would be unnecessary. Given both the variations in individual tooth anatomy and the modest precision of bracket placement, many cases need some adjustment of tooth positions at this stage."" Pg 410 Proffit - Straight wire prescriptions section: states that in the edgewise appliance they needed to make in-out bends, tipping bends, and torque bends which the straight wire prescription makes virtually unnecessary. (therefore we assume this means that the straight wire appliance is supposed to try to eliminate the need for finishing bends and is designed for perfect finishing) As for the second portion of the question Proffit p.410 also states ""In the contemporary appliance[straightwire appliance], this compensation is built into the base of the bracket itself. This reduces the need for compensating bends but does not eliminate them, because of individual variations in tooth thickness."""

Which of the following is described as a youthful smile? a. Incisal edges appear straight across the smile b. Shorter front teeth c. Longer front teeth that create a line that comes slightly downward in the middle of the smile d. Maxillary teeth that followed the curvature of the upper lip

"c. Longer front teeth that create a line that comes slightly downward in the middle of the smile (correct) " ABO #30 - The importance of incisor positioning in esthetic smile: The smile arc, Page 99

Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by: a. Actinomyces bovis b. Borrelia vincenti c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

"c. Staphylococcus aureus (correct) " "Dr. Kahn: Actinomyces (gram +) cause israeliis? Borrelia causes ANUG Mycobacterium causes TB "

Orthodontic treatment, particularly involving premolar extractions, has also been implicated in producing a posteriorly positioned condyle. Gianelly et al. evaluated condylar position with corrected tomograms before orthodontic treatment in 37 consecutive patients ages 10-18 years and compared them with 30 consecutively treated four premolar extraction cases at the completition of treatment. All patients were treated with fixed appliances. They found that: a. The untreated group showed more distally positioned condyles b. The extraction group showed more distally positioned condyles c. There was no difference in condylar positions between the extraction and the untreated groups d. Extraction therapy appeared to be an iatrogenic cause of distally positioned condyles.

"c. There was no difference in condylar positions between the extraction and the untreated groups (Correct) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Page 81-82 ""It was concluded that extraction therapy did not appear to be an iatrogenic cause of distally positioned condyles. Condylar position tended to be centered on average; however, a wide variation in position was noted. Similar wide variations in normal condylar position has been reported by several authors as discussed by Tallents et al. in a critical review of the literature."""

** Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by: a. Actinomyces bovis b. Borrelia vincenti c. Streptococcus aureus d. Staphyloccus aureus e. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

"d. Staphyloccus aureus * " STEPtococcus aureus --> subacute bacterial endocarditis

When superimposing on the mandible, what do you NOT superimpose on? a. symphysis b. angle of the mandible c. the mandibular canal d. mental foramen

"d. mental foramen (correct) S: Also don't think it should be angle of mandible " "Bjork Article: 4 stable references for superimposition: 1. chin tip 2. inner cortical structure at inferior border of symphysis 3. mandibular canal trabeculae 4. lower contour of molar crypt until roots begin to form"

What is most commonly seen in Hepatitis B? a. Jaundice b. High fever c. Weakness d. No symptoms

"d. no symptoms (correct)" Abdominal pain. Dark urine. Fever. Joint pain. Loss of appetite. Nausea and vomiting. Weakness and fatigue. Yellowing of your skin and the whites of your eyes (jaundice)

Therapeutic radiation for cancer of the oral region may result in which of the following side effects: a. Abnormal growth of the mandible b. Early exfoliation of the primary teeth c. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction d. Osteoradionecrosis e. High palatal vault

"d. osteoradionecrosis "

T/F: Tartar control reduces supragingival calculus by 50%. This is due to the active ingredient pyrophosphate.

"first statement - true (correct) second statement - true (correct)"

"RPE's expand w/ greater expansion anterior or posterior greater expansion superior or inferior

"greater expansion anterior or posterior? greater expansion superior or inferior?" "ABO 2008 question comments says ""It separates in a pyramidal fashion (fans out), wider in the anterior and wider in the inferior dimension."" It expands more anteriorly than posteriorly and more inferiorly than superiorly Proffit p284-285 ""The maxilla opens as if on a hinge,with its apex at the bridge of the nose. The suture also opens on a hinge anteroposteriorly separating more anteriorly than posteriorly"" "

3 Future prediction of root resorption

"length of treatment root shape (Long, thin roots) prior root resorption" "Proffit 4th ed pg 350 "

The distance the tooth should be extruded is determined by 3 things

1) location of the defect (fx line, root perforation etc) o 2) space to place the margin of the restoration (so it's not at the base of ging sulcus) o 3) allow for biological width of 2 mm

Mx PM bracket is off, u want to tip the root of the PM distally. what are 2 option?

1) put bracket more clockwise, 2) place V bend so that wire contacts the bracket on gingival aspect on distal and incisal apect on mesial

Severe generalized root resorption during orthodontic movement is: 1. Of unknown etiology 2. Sometimes induced by hormonal imbalances. 3. Influenced by the type of tooth movement. 4. Not influenced by root or apices morphology. A-1&3 B- 1&2 C- 3&4 D- 2&4

1. Of unknown etiology 2. Sometimes induced by hormonal imbalances. B- 1&2 (correct) **Muy-says just #2** "

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: In an 11 year old male (untreated normal), the mandibular molars are expected to erupt ___ mm over the next two years?

1.5-1.8 mm u have total of 2mm for upper and lower, and u have a little bit MORE eruption of the upper molar than lower molar.

AAO standard for facial pictures (scale of photography) __/__ photo size

1/4 photo size pics: 24-bit (bits/pixel) color-depth, 300-dpi JPEG images w/ medium compression Xray: 8-bit grayscale, 200-dpi JPEG with medium compression

What does the ABO recommend for scale of photography? 1/4 1/8 1/16 1/24

1/4 size

BUSCHANG BOARDS GROWTH Q: at what age is the canine bulge evident?

10 years

Among the population of ortho patients with perio disease, what is the percentage of pts expected to show rapid progression of the disease?

10%

"What is the time that the spheno-occipital synchondrosis unites?

12-13yo girls 14-16yo boys Buschang final 15-18yo " Intersphenoidal closes at birth, Sphenoethmoidal closes at 7-8, Sphenooccipital closes at 15-20.

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: skeleton of face consist of ___ bones?

14 Paired: nasal, max, palatine, lacrimal, zygoma, inf ansal concha Single: vomer, mandible 15 if u include hyoid

BUSCHANG GROWTH QS: Calcification of upper and lower third molar crowns:

14 yo

BUQ: Palatal plane and OP differ by how many degrees? at 6yo at 15yo

15 deg at 6yo 7 deg at 15yo bc O plane changes with age

BUSCHANG GROWTH QS: At what age does the spheno-occipital synchondrosisstop growing?

15-18 years

BUSCHANG GROWTH QS: When do the midpalataland transpalatalsutures stop growing?

15-20yo

"37% phosphoric acid etch, 30 secs: How much enamel loss? a. 8-10 microns b. 12-16 microns c. 16-18 microns d. none of the above

16-18 microns 30 secs: 16-18 microns of E lost 15 secs = 8-10 microns of E lost

what is the abx prophylaxis

2 gram amoxicillan 1 hour before treatment:

Treacher Collins autosomal dominant. If one of the parents and the first child is affected, what is chance next child will be affected? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

50%

At what time during fetal development does CL/CP occur?

6-8weeks in utero " Proffit p73 primary palate Days 28-38 secondary palate Days 42-55"

How many months do you keep [retain] a tooth after extrusion for restorative?

6mo Extrusion can occur at 1mm/wk Extruded teeth held for 6mo before movement "Also under Dx/Analysis/Tx Planning Pg. 647 Proffit - tooth should be stabilized for at 6 weeks but ""retention"" takes 6 months? ""With any technique for forced eruption, the patient must be seen every 1 to 2 weeks to reduce the occlusal surface of the tooth being extruded if this is needed (see Figure 18-17), control inflammation and monitor progress. After active tooth movement has been completed, at least 3 but not more than 6 weeks of stabilization is needed to allow reorganization of the periodontal ligament. If periodontal surgery is needed to recontour the alveolar bone and/or reposition the gingiva, this can be done 1 month after completion of the extrusion. As with molar uprighting, it is better to complete the definitive prosthetic treatment without extensive delay"""

Peak incidence of dental trauma occurs between what ages?

8-10 yo

What % of open bites spontaneously close in pre-pubescent children?

80

How much is SD of + 3

99.7 %

What is the transcranial XR least reliable for viewing? a. Condyle shape b. Glenoid fossa c. Joint space d. Range of motion

?? a. condyle shape (muy doc says this) or d. range of motion (correct) Breakdown states that answer is condylar shape The transcranial projection provides a sagittal view of the lateral aspects of the condyle and temporal component. The image of the condyle, temporal component, and joint space is distorted, and condylar position cannot be reliably determined, particularly if the horizontal beam angle is not individualized for each patient. The transcranial projection is useful for identifying gross osseous changes on the lateral aspect of the joint only, displaced condylar fractures, and range of motion (open views). (White, Stuart C.. Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation, 5th Edition. Mosby, 122003. p. 543). " Shape would be a good answer if Range of motion was not a choice.

ADD W/O REDUCTION. Which way does jaw deviate on opening a. same side b. opposite side

Answer: To the same side (correct) Ipsilateral deviation Contralateral sd limited lateral mvmt

Twin block question: which of the following is true? A. Has longer term mandibular enhancement B. Relieving posterior acrylic increases vertical skeletal growth C. Corrects by dental and skeletal correction D. Acrylic over lower incisors to prevent tipping

Aras says go with C & D for true! Twin block question: A.Has longer term mandibular enhancement - FALSE increase in mandibular length is NOT long term) B.Relieving posterior acrylic increases vertical skeletal growth- TRUE(Acrylic is over upper molars)***this is debated.Some said false C.Corrects by dental and skeletal correction - TRUE D.Acrylic over lower incisors to prevent tipping - TRUE (Acrylic over lower is an option in twin block design)

A shorter horizontal distance measured from Ar to PTM indicates what? a. Maxillary hyperplasia b. Maxillary hypoplasia c. Mandibular hyperplasia d. Mandibular hypoplasia

Aras says retrognathic maxilla over the hypoplastic maxilla b. Maxillary hypoplasia (correct) Admittedly, this is just personal reasoning but essentially PTM corresponds closely with the posterior limit of the maxilla. If the distance between Ar and PTM is short, the maxilla is retruded in relation to the cranial base.

Asperities are:

Areas that actually contact along a wire, roughness, microscopic bumps on wire were it binds "Proffit 4th ed pg 377 The area of contact between two surfaces and friction is due to interaction of asperities. ""Interestingly, friction is independent of the apparent area of contact. this is because all surfaces, no matter how smooth, have irregularities that are large on a molecular scale, and real contact occurs only at a limited number of small spots at the peaks fo the surface irregularities (Figure 10-24). These spots, called asperities, carry all the load between the two surfaces. Even under light loads, local pressure at the asperities may cause appreciable plastic deformation of those small areas. Because of this, the true contact area is to a considerable extent determined by the applied load and is directly proportional to it."" NiTi>TMA>SS"

Which of the following structures is closest to the adenoidal pad? a. Oropharyngeal airway b. Nasopharyngeal airway c. Esophagus d. None the above

B. nasopharyngeal airway Adenoids are enlarged pharyngeal tonsils.

Functional matrix theory. What causes bone growth? A. Capsular B. Periosteal

B. periosteal matrix periosteal matrix = transformation = change in size and shape periosteal matrix is the specific place growth is occurring. eg. temporals is the periosteal matrix for that site/bone

** - anyone wanna pick which is better *shrug* You want to tip the root of a premolar distally. Given the following 2 options 1) rebonding counterclockwise 2) gable bends (bending the wire), which is better?"

Both if an option.

Which is 2 things best to determine direction of mandibular growth from Bjork study?

Curvature of the mandibular canal and inclination of condylar head.

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Does hard tissue profile angle without nose increase in growing children ? How about hard tissue with nose? How about soft tissue profile?

Does hard tissue profile angle without nose increase in growing children ? Yes, it increases bc the mandible is coming fwd more than mx and nasion so the inside angle in figure A is increasing How about hard tissue with nose? it decreases How about soft tissue profile w/o nose? decreases slightly

Which are effects of lip bumper? a. 45-55% incisor proclination b. 35-50% molar distalization and distal tipping c. 5-10% transverse increase in the intercanine and deciduous molar/premolar distances d. all of the above

FROM NEW ARTICLE -IF the question has increase in transverse (arch width), pick increased arch width bc the NEW article states that transverse/width was more prominent (article #57 2019) a. 45-55% lower incisor proclination <- major from OLD ARTICLE b. 35-50% molar distalization and distal tipping c. 5-10% transverse increase in the intercanine and deciduous molar/premolar distances d. all of the above (correct) " "article ""The effects of lip bumper therapy in the mixed dentition,"" Davidovitch: significant differences in mandibular incisor inclination, molar position, arch length, and arch perimeter existed between treated and untreated subjects. "

Clefting of the lip is due to what Failure of fusion of what 2 processes?

Failure of fusion of the medial nasal process and maxillary process

BU CEPH Q: T/F In utilizing the wits analysis, the choice of occlusal plane can alter results. if the functional occlusal plane is used as opposed to the bisected O plane. a higher correlation to the ANB angle is noted

False

BU BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: T/F Individuals who are late in their maturation show larger increments of growth than those individuals who mature early.

False increments - change per year EARLY MATURERS have a greater rate but grow over a shorter period of time

True or false? Controlled type 2 diabetes is a contraindication for ortho

False Controlled type 2 DM is not a contraindication for ortho

TADs are more stable w pilot holes

False Pilot holes make TADs more stable in posterior mandible but not necessary in other areas

Apically repositioned flap for an impacted central located 5mm over CEJ of adjacent central True False

False (should be Closed eruption) CE - If tooth is impacted in the middle of the alveolus or high in the vestibule near the nasal spine {significantly apical to MGJ} APF - If tooth requires more attached gingiva or is displaced lateral to the edentulous area "

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: In normal development, what happens to the arch depth?

Maxillary: changes little Mandible decreases

What is NOT seen in hyalinized areas of the PDL? A. Fibroblasts B. Cementoblasts C. Osteoclasts D. Macrophages E. PMNs

Osteoclasts (If not there do PMNs) Hyalinization (F-MoN) fibroblast, macrophage, OC, neutrophils PMN was not an answer choice

Whats a filter and intensifying screen used for?

Reduce exposure to pt (correct)

Sensitivity is: a. Positive if disease present b. Positive if disease absent

Sensitivity "a. Positive if disease present * "the proportion of true positives of all diseased cases in the population. It is a parameter of the test. True positives/patients with the disease*"

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: How can lateral cephs be used to evaluate if growth remains?

Serial cephs are best; cervical vertebrae can also be used

Digital radiographs versus traditional radiographs Silver halide (traditional) has (better/worse) resolution

Silver halide (traditional) has better resolution. "Article ""A revision of the adult intraoral radiograph protocol for ABO clinical examinations,"" Dykhouse: ""A comparison of conventional intraoral films and digital intraoral radiographs demonstrated that alveolar bone measurements are reproducible in either imaging modality. Hence, either system or both systems can be used to accurately evaluate crestal bone levels"" Jacobsen pg. Ch.5: disadvantages of digital = cost, training, accuracy, security and stability of files"

Multiple T/F: The oral temperature changes dramatically when consuming hot or cold beverages but studies have shown that oral temperature is approximately 35-37 degrees C. T/T T/F F/T F/F

T/T

Perio patients should have steel ties, and they have more bacterial concentration in gingival plaque

T/T

Which type of file has the least amount info lost? a. JPEG b.Lead JPEG c. TIFF d. RAW

TIFF (saves the most/loses the least)

What wire can you use with a nickel sensitive patient?

TMA ABO article #67 says "Stabilized beta-phase titanium alloys contain about 80% titanium. In addition, they include 11.5% molybdenum, 6% zirconium, and 4.5% tin.

TMA has ____x the deflection and range of SS M-Niti has ___x the range as SS

TMA has 2x (double) the deflection and range as SS M-Niti 4x range SS a. True (correct) "Pg 365 Proffit Table 10-3, pg. 362-363 TMA has double the range of SS. SS has Triple the stiffness of TMA Range is the distance that a wire will bend elastically before permanent deformation occurs (Breakdown) Range is the linear measurement of deflection until plastic deformation occurs (range and deflection are pretty much synonymous) Force = stress (y-axis), Strain = Deflection (x-axis) Stiffness is the slope of the line Proportioanl limit - the point at which the first plastic deformation occurs Yield strength = 0.1% of plastic deformation (comes after the proportional limit) Strength = stiffness x range "

Steel ligatures are better in adult orthodontic patients because elastomeric chains harbor several microorganisms

TRUE "Proffit 4th edition pg. 658 (we are assuming the question meant ""adult ortho pts w/ perio dz) ""Self-ligating brackets or steel ligatures are preferred for periodontally involved patients rather than elastomeric rings to retain orthodontic archwires, because patients with elastomeric rings have higher levels of microorganisms in gingival plaque."""

Both functional appliance pts and surgical pts showed stable results over time True False

TRUE article "Long-term comparison of treatment outcome and stability of Class II patients treated with functional appliances versus bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy," Berger

BU CEPH Q: which measure used to determine mandibular growth direction

Y-AXIS

BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Are condyles and sutures GROWTH SITES?

YES Condyle is a growth site - bc its endochondral u may think it is A growth CENTER (but its not) bc it doesn't exert any pressure + if u move it to another site it resorbs and doesn't grow

Multiple T/F: Two questions on apexification and can you move the tooth?

Yes, you can move teeth orthodontically during apexification.

What touches the anterior and posterior of the ptyregomaxillary fissure? which 2 bones? a. Maxilla b. Sphenoid c. Temporal d. Zygomatic

a & b Maxilla and Sphenopid maxillary tuberosity borders the anterior part of fissure and lateral pterygoid plate borders the posterior part of fissure "http://www.emory.edu/ANATOMY/AnatomyManual/fossae.html: Pterygomaxillary fissure lies anterior to lateral ptyregoid plate and posterior to maxilla. At its base is a fossa, the pterygopalatine fossa, and an opening, the sphenopalatine foremen. The pterygopalatine fossa is a place where several pathways converge: The sphenopalatine foremen, the pterygoid canal, greater palatine foremen, and the inferior orbital fissure all communicate with it directly."

Attempting to move a pulpally involved tooth, however, is likely to cause

a flare-up of the periapical condition. There is no contraindication to the orthodontic movement of endodontically treated teeth.

Early skeletal open bite trt - which is most effective?? a) VPC (Vertical pull chin cup) b) HGH c) Bite blocks

a) VPC bc Chincup redirects condylar growth (1) more vertical growth (2) Less posterior growth For early trt to be successful, it must effectively deal with the etiology of the problem and the resulting mandibular skeletal dysmorphology. Of the various treatment approaches, including HPHG, extractions and bite blocks, the vertical chin cups holds the greatest potential for mand skeletal modification.

" What happens to the MPA when downward growth of the maxilla plus tooth eruption is greater than growth of the ramus?" "a. It increases b. It decreases c. It stays the same

a) it increases " "Prediction of mandibular growth rotation evaluated from a longitudinal implant sample"Skieller

60) Class 3 finish: take out lower premolars - what is T/F - a) you'll have balancing interferences b) you have risk of supraeruption the 2nd molars

a) you'll have balancing interferences (False, may have been in another document) b) you have risk of supraeruption the 2nd molars (T)

What ceph measurements are used in the ABO discrepancy index: (select all that apply) "a. ANB b. SN/MP c. FMA d. IMPA

a. ANB (correct) b. SN-MP (correct) c. FMA is NOT USED d. IMPA (correct)

Which one of the following analgesics acts centrally rather than as a prostaglandin inhibitor: a. Acetaminophen b. Aspirin c. Ibuprofen d. None of the above

a. Acetaminophen (correct)

What is NOT formed from the median nasal process?

a. Ala of the nose (correct) Ala of the nose is formed from the lateral nasal process

For distraction osteogenesis

a. Allow 5-7 days before 1st activation

What should you change when you use a double film packet for a periapical radiograph? a. Increase the mA, but not the kVp b. Decrease the mA, and increase the kVp c. Decrease the kVp, but not the mA d. Do nothing

a. Increase the mA, but not the kVp (Per Aras)

Transcranial XR's are for viewing what structure?

a. Lateral pole of the condyle *

" What is the origin of the medial pterygoid muscle?" a. Lateral pterygoid plate of Sphenoid b. Condyle c. Ramus d. None of the above

a. Lateral pterygoid plate of Sphenoid (correct)

Root fracture 1 mm below CEJ, what is primary thing to look at

a. Length of root (correct)

Most stable position in head:

a. Look into mirror or distant object (correct) see above

"Ifyou bond ceramic brackets on anterior 3-3 and stainless steel brackets on posteriors, what would you expect?"

a. Loss of anchorage (true) "Article #86 ""When using sliding mechanics, the relatively rough surfaces of the ceramic slot significantly increases frictional resistance when compared with stainless steel brackets. A decrease in the efficiency of canine retraction was estimated at 25% to 30% when ceramic and stainless steel brackets were compared"""

What is affected the most by extreme values? a. Mean b. Median

a. Mean

40 yo African American Female patient has multiple radiolucencies apical to #23-25 (anterior mandible). All teeth tested vital with no reported pain. What is the diagnosis?

a. Periapical cemento dysplasia (correct) PCOD

For NiTi what gives it its special properties?

a. Phase transformation "(knowing definition of phase transformation helps) Proffit 4th edition pg. 362: ""NiTi alloys have two remarkable properties that are unique in dentistry: shape memory and superelasticity. Both shape memory and superelasticity are related to phase transitions within NiTi alloy between the martensitic and austenitic forms that occur at a relatively low transition temperature. "

** A sudden change in occlusion, open bite and pain (parafunction), internal derangement are associated with a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthritis c. The psyche

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

** Bisphosphonates cause all of the following except: a. diminished osteoblast activity b. inhibits tooth movement c. osteoradionecrosis d. reduced wound healing e. increased mineral density

a. diminished osteoblast activity or c. osteoradionecrosis* (According to Aras) " "checked (forces osteoclasts into apoptosis) ABO article #3 Medication Effects on Rate of Orthodontic Tooth Movement Pg. 343 Proffit; Increase tooth movement: Vitamin D, PTH, Thyroxin, Corticosteroids, eicosanoids; Decrease tooth movement: Estrogen (probably), Bisphosphonates (definitely), dietary Calcium, NSAIDs; No effect: Acetaminophen"

What is the significance of a long posterior cranial base? (S-Ba) a.Mandibular retrognathism b.Anterior x-bite c.Maxillary retrognathism d.All of the above

a.Mandibular retrognathism

The cranial base develops by endochondral bone formation by: a.Proliferation at the ______________

a.Proliferation at the synchondroses (aka endochondral)

Where does the facial nerve (CN7) exit the skull? a. Stylomastoid foramen b. Foramen Magnum c. Ovale d. Rotundum e. Lacerum

a.Stylomastoid foramen (correct) see above

Using a cervical pull head gear, where would you place outer bow to prevent distal tipping of the crown?

above CR molar (gingivally) + long outer bow bent up gingivally (above molar CR) so force is distal to CR (will get counterclockwise moment)

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Which craniofacial bones are the result of intramembranous formation?

all are IM EXCEPT the endochondral ones - condyle, nasal septum and cranial base (except portions of sphenoid wings)

A force is applied to the crown of a tooth (Moment of the force is MF), and a counterbalancing moment is generated by a couple within the bracket (Moment of the couple is MC), the resulting tooth movement is a controlled tipping when: a. MC/MF = 0 b. 0 < MC/MF < 1 c. MC/MF = 1 d. MC/MF > 1

b. 0 < MC/MF < 1 (correct) a. MC/MF = 0 - uncontrolled tipping b. 0 < MC/MF < 1 - controlled tipping c. MC/MF = 1 - translation/bodily mvmt d. MC/MF > 1 torque

BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: " In an 11 YO male, the lower facial height is expected to increase?" a. 3 mm/ year b. 1 mm/ year c. 2 mm/ year d. 2.5 mm/ year

b. 1 mm/ year (correct) **1mm/yr good to remember bc a lot of things is that nasion coming fwd/max being displaced fwd also ~1mm/yr*

Lack of cooperation with orthodontic treatment in an adult patient usually stems from: "1. Personal choice of disagreement or poor understanding of the treatment modality. 2. Passive attitude or carelessness. 3. Low tolerance of discomfort. 4. Higher social demands and constraints a. 1,2 & 3 b. 1,3 & 4 c. 2,3 & 4 d. 2 & 3 "

b. 1,3 & 4 (correct) "1. Personal choice of disagreement or poor understanding of the treatment modality. 3. Low tolerance of discomfort. 4. Higher social demands and constraints NOT 2. Passive attitude or carelessness.

Where want the build ups to be on the laterals? a. ½ mesial and ½ distal b. 1/3 mesial and 2/3 distal c. 2/3 mesial and 1/3 distal d. It does not matter

b. 1/3 mesial and 2/3 distal

?? If Chromium-Cobalt alloys are not heat treated, they have? a. Same stiffness as SS b. 1/3 stiffness of SS c. 2/3 stiffness of SS

b. 1/3 stiffness of SS if it IS HEAT TREATED --> STIFFNESS IS THE SAME AS SS but the q is asking if its NOT heat treated?

What percentage of contemporary U.S & northern European population exhibit Cl II malocclusion? a. 0-5% b. 15-20% c. 50-75% d. 75-90%

b. 15-20% (correct)

Mean = 100 Variance = 64, how many standard deviation is 116? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

b. 2

In reality, how far is the CEJ from the alveolar crest? "a. 1 mm b. 2 mm c. 3 mm d. 4 mm"

b. 2mm

To align marginal ridges what kind of bend? a. 1st order b. 2nd order c. 3rd order d. 4th orde

b. 2nd order

when do the two halves of mandibular symphysis fuse? (also called symphyseal suture) a. 3 months before birth b. 3 months after birth c. At 1 year d. At 2 years

b. 3 months after birth (correct) "Journal of Forensic Sciences, 2003 ""Tooth Formation and the Mandibular Symphysis During the First Five Postnatal Months"" ""The mandibular halves were separated at birth. Complete fusion had occurred in the majority of infants aged four months"" ... so 3 months sounds good. "

The duration threshold of a light force capable of producing tooth movement in humans is a. 4-6 minutes /day b. 4-6 hours/day c. 8-12 hours/day d. 18-24 hours/day

b. 4-6 hours/day (correct) Proffit technically says 4-8 hrs for duration of force threshold

" For cranial base superimpositions, what are the landmarks?" a. Sella-nasion on sella b. Anterior clinoid, greater wing of sphenoid, cribiform plate c. Planum sphenoidale, lesser wing, sella

b. Anterior clinoid, greater wing of sphenoid, cribiform plate (correct) " "Article ""Comparison of hand-traced and computerized cephalograms,"" Roden-Johnson: - the internal surface of the frontal bone and the cribriform plate are stable after the age of 6 or 7 years in both the sagittal and vertical planes. The anterior part of sella turcica is by far the most stable over 5 years of age. However, because of the remodeling in the sella turcica region, the reference sella is not regarded as stable until long after puberty. This agrees with Bjork and Skieller, who advocated superimposing the anterior wall of sella turcica, the anterior contours of the middle cranial fossae, the contours of the cribriform plate, and the frontoethmoidal crest. Jacobson 2nd edition. pg.188 Jacobsen 1995 pg 171: for overall growth/displacement, superimpose on S-N registering at Sella"

Patient is a severe bruxer, has pain and crepitation. Which one would you NOT do? a. Flat plane b. Anterior positioning splint c. NSAIDS

b. Anterior positioning splint (correct) CD: Says TMD patient no anterior positioning splint or class 3 elastics Only used anterior position splint to capture anterior displaced "" ABO believes in the flat plane for symptomatic patients. An anterior positioning splint would only be used for a recapturable anteriorly displaced disc (which is highly unlikely in cases of crepitus)

Which of these points is a constructed point: a. Subnasale b. Articulare

b. Articulare (correct)" Ar: point at the junction of the posterior border of the ramus and the inferior border of the posterior cranial base (occipital bone)

How should a patient be positioned for taking a panoramic XR? a. Chin parallel to the floor b. Frankfort horizontal parallel to the floor c. Occlusal plane parallel to the floor d. None of the above

b. Frankfort horizontal parallel to the floor

" In a straight wire bracket what happens to the root of a canine when the slot is engaged?" a. Goes mesially b. Goes distally c. Nothing

b. Goes distally (correct)

Molar has pocket on buccal surface up to furcation, treatment of choice would be? a. Extract b. Tissue regeneration c. Hemisection tooth d. Orthodontically intrude tooth to eliminate pocket

b. Guided Tissue regeneration *

"16 years old boy who is class III. What do you do to stop the class III progression? a. Chin cup b. High condylectomy

b. High condylectomy (correct)" ""A high condylectomy will arrest AP mandibular growth however with all other md surgeries you can expect the same rate of growth as the pt presented presurgically.""

How would you eliminate black triangle between normally shaped central incisors:

b. IPR/ARS (correct)

" What is the most predictable site to get a bone graft from?" a. Ramus b. Iliac crest of the hip c. Chin

b. Iliac crest of the hip (correct)

" Where is ameloblastoma more common?" a. In females and in the angle of the mandible b. In males and in the angle of the mandible

b. In males and in the angle of the mandible (correct) ameLOblastoma = LOW in mandible

What variable do you change if you want to observe changes in the experiment? a. Confounding variables b. Independent variables c. Dependent variables d. None of the above

b. Independent variables (correct)

Where does the petrous portion of temporal bone lie on a PA ceph radiograph? a. Upper 1/3 of orbit b. Inferior 1/3 of orbit c. Roof of orbit d. Floor of the orbit

b. Inferior 1/3 of orbit (Correct) Not positive what they are talking about by "petrous" bone. But the petrous portion of the temporal bone actually appears as a the RO structure just above the inferior border of the orbit on a PA ceph.

Where is palatal expansion more pronounced? a. Inferiorly and posteriorly b. Inferiorly and anteriorly c. Superiorly and posteriorly d. Superiorly and anteriorly

b. Inferiorly and anteriorly * "

" How does a mucocele differ from a true cyst?" "a. It lacks saliva b. It lacks an epithelial lining c. It fluctuates in size "

b. It lacks an epithelial lining (correct)

What is the most important factor for digital cameras when using for intraoral Photography? a. Sensor resolution b. Lighting c. Standardized focal distance

b. Lighting (correct?) "there is debate whether it's resolution or lighting - Jacobsen p. 220: lists 2 things as important for photography: 1. control over magnification/distortion 2. lighting" - Jacobsen p. 220: lists 2 things as important for photography: 1. control over magnification/distortion 2. lighting -Graber: The resolution of a captured image depends on the camera sensor's pixel count; for clinical purposes, sensors in the range of 1.4 million to 1.8 million pixels are sufficient to record subtle facial and intraoral detail Resolutions higher than this may be clinically undesirable because they significantly increase storage requirements without meaningfully improving image quality

Low doses of analgesics w/prostaglandin inhibitors for control pain after orthodontic appts have: a. No inhibiting effect whatsoever on tooth movement. b. Little or no inhibiting effect on tooth movement. c. Mild inhibiting effect on tooth movement. d. Severe inhibiting effect on tooth movement

b. Little or no inhibiting effect on tooth movement. (correct)

BUQ: What is the usual cause of two lines at the mandibular border on ceph? a. Asymmetry b. Magnification c. Incorrect positioning of patient

b. Magnification ** choose this c. Incorrect positioning of patient could be either buschange says

" Which of the following best characterizes a skeletal crossbite?" a. Maxillary molars tipped lingual, mandibular molars tipped buccal b. Maxillary molars tipped buccal, mandibular molars tipped lingual

b. Maxillary molars tipped buccal, mandibular molars tipped lingual (correct) to compensate for the restricted palatal width from skeletal cross bite "

How do you minimize tipping when retracting canines? a. Use narrow bracket b. Maximize intrabracket moment c. Use uprighting spring d. Something else

b. Maximize intrabracket moment (correct) Wider brackets (greater intrabracket distance) reduce moment force needed (less interbracket distance) increases stiffness and decreases range

Where must the force be to produce a counter clockwise rotation of the maxilla with high pull headgear? a. Distal to the center of resistance b. Mesial to the center of resistance c. Through the center of resistance

b. Mesial to the center of resistance (correct)

" Orthodontic traction to pull an unerupted tooth toward the line of the arch should begin:" a. No later than 48h after surgical exposure. b. No later than 2-3 weeks after surgical exposure. c. No later than 2-3 months after surgical exposure. d. At anytime post-surgically.

b. No later than 2-3 weeks after surgical exposure.(correct)

Dibbets and van der Weele reported the findings from their prospective longitudinal study in the Netherlands over 15-year period. Removable appliances (functional) were used in 39%, fixed appliances (Bedd) in 44%, and chin cups in 17% of cases. A non-extraction approach was used in 34% of cases, four premolars were extracted in 29%, and other extractions in 37%. They evaluated subjectively perceived symptoms, identified as clicking/ crepitation and the radiographic appearance of the condyle. Which of the following is TRUE about this study? a. For the first 10 years there was a significant difference between the three types of treatment with regard to subjective clicking. b. Objective clicking was always more frequent in the four-premolar extraction group at all time points, but the frequency paralleled the other two groups. c. After 15 years, the four-premolar extraction group showed the lowest subjective clicking among all groups. d. Clicking frequency, subjective or objective, was always lower in the four-premolar even before treatment was started

b. Objective clicking was always more frequent in the four-premolar extraction group at all time points, but the frequency paralleled the other two groups. (CORRECT) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 81 (top of Right column) Word for Word"

A 13 year old patient needs an implant of the maxillary incisor, at what time should it be done? a. Immediately following orthodontic treatment b. Once growth is completed c. In two years d. Never

b. Once growth is completed *

Gingival clefting is seen when the following procedure is attempting in adults: a. SARPE b. Orthopedic maxillary expansion c. Surgery

b. Orthopedic maxillary expansion(correct) " Article #7. Surgically assisted rapid palatal expansion. (Suri)

Which of the following would be considered to have a cotton wool appearance? "a. fibrous dysplasia b. Paget's disease c. Eosinophilic granuloma

b. Pagets

Which procedure is rarely necessary when performing a Le Fort I downfracture of the maxilla: a. Removal of bone from the lateral walls of the nose. b. Partial resection of the inferior turbinate c. Shortening the nasal septum d. Removal of bone from the lateral walls of the maxillary sinus

b. Partial resection of the inferior turbinate**

In which of the following syndromes is cyanosis common at birth? a. Ehlers-Danlos b. Pierre-Robin c. Cleidocranial Dysplasia d. Achondroplasia

b. Pierre-Robin (correct) " The Pierre Robin sequence (Pierre Robin anomalad) (Figure 1-5) is a well-recognized presentation characterized by CP, mandibular micrognathia, and glossoptosis (airway obstruction caused by lower, posterior displacement of the tongue). The Pierre Robin sequence may occur as an isolated phenomenon, or it may be associated with a wide variety of syndromes or other anomalies. It has been theorized that constraint of mandibular growth in utero results in failure of the tongue to descend, thus preventing fusion of the palatal shelves. (Neville, Brad W.. Oral & Maxillofacial Pathology, 2nd Edition. W.B. Saunders Company, 012002. p. 4).

First sign of permanent deformation is known as what?

b. Proportional limit (correct) c. Elastic limit (correct) "Proffit 4th ed pg 360: ""Although there is a slight difference in the engineering definition of the term elastic limit, it is essentially the same point, and elastic and proportional limit may be used interchangeably"" "

Osteopetrosis (aka marble bone disease and Albers-Schonberg disease) appears on the XR as: a. Radiolucency b. Radioopacity c. Honeycomb appearance d. Ground glass appearance

b. Radioopacity (correct) increased RO

What does root proximity cause? a. Inadequate papilla b. Reduces bone level c. Root length

b. Reduces bone level "Kokich article ""Managing Tx for the Ortho Pt with Perio Problems:"" -Areas of root proximity are difficult for the patient to clean and restrict the hygienist during periodontal maintenance ABO Breakdown pg. 17: - 2-3mm root separation will provide adequate bone and embrasure space for perio health"

Soft tissue responses after a double jaw surgical procedure, when compared with a single jaw a. Show greater changes in double jaw surgery, with more fullness of the lips b. Show fewer changes in single jaw surgery, due to less movement c. Show similar changes, except in the lower lip and chin. d. Show a greater reduction in the upper and lower lip with the double jaw surgical procedure

b. Show fewer changes in single jaw surgery, due to less movement *

"Heat treated elgiloy has the same stiffness as ? a. NiTi b. Stainless Steel c. TMA d. Copper NiTi

b. Stainless Steel (correct) " "Proffit 4th ed pg 361 and ABO Breakdown: ""The heat treatment increases strength significantly. After heat treatment, the softest Elgiloy becomes equivalent to regular stainless steel"" Article, ""Review of contemporary archwires,"" Kusy: ""In addition to having similar stiffness characteristics as stainless steel, {Elgiloy} was capable of having its strength, and more importantly its formability, modified by heat treatment. This so-called precipitation hardening heat treatment increased the ultimate strength and resilience of these archwires without changing the stiffness"" "

In the definition of CR, more agreement lies in the following: a. Superior position position b. Superior anterior position c. No exact position

b. Superior anterior position (Correct) "" "The complete definition of the most orthopedically stable joint position therefore is when the condyles are in their most superoanterior position in the articular fossae, resting against the posterior slopes of the articular with the discs properly interposed. The condyles assume this position when all of the elevator muscles are activated with no occlusal influences. Therefore this position is considered to be the most musculoskeletally stable (MS) position of the mandible. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 113). "

" The use of zinc phosphate cements for ortho purposes differs from its use in restorative dentistry in that: " a. The liquid for orthodontic purposes contains less free phosphoric acid. b. The cement for orthodontic purposes is mixed thicker. c. Mixing techniques for orthodontic purposes do not use a frozen slab. d. Little bare metal not coated with cement is tolerated on interior surfaces of an orthodontic band.

b. The cement for orthodontic purposes is mixed thicker.

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: The muscle to protrude the mandible is? (3 total but 1 major) a. The internal pterygoid b. The lateral pterygoid c. The hyoglossus d. All of the above

b. The lateral pterygoid (correct) <- major muscle lateral ptergoid + medial pterygoid + masseter "Wikipedia: The primary function of the lateral pterygoid muscle is to pull the coronoid process anteriorly, forcing the condylar process out of the mandibular fossa along the articular eminence to protrude the mandible. A concerted effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles acts in helping lower the mandible and open the jaw whereas unilateral action of a lateral pterygoid produces contralateral excursion (a form of mastication), usually performed in concert with the medial pterygoids. Unlike the other three muscles of mastication, the lateral pterygoid is the only muscle of mastication that assists in depressing the mandible (opening the jaw). At the beginning of this action it is assisted by the digastric, mylohyoid and geniohyoid muscles."

BUSCHANG ANATOMY Q: Patient complains that food accumulates in the vestibule of mouth during chewing. This symptom is consistent with the diagnosis of a lesion in: a. the mandibular division of trigeminal nerve b. a branch of the facial nerve c. the glossopharyngeal d. the accessory nerve e. the hypoglossal

b. a branch of the facial nerve (correct) Buccinator muscle compresses cheek and is innervated by buccal branch of CN VII

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: the all of none law of muscle contraction means? a. all of the muscle contracts or none of the muscle contracts b. all of the muscle fiber contracts or none of muscle fiber contracts

b. all of the muscle fiber contracts or none of muscle fiber contracts

PTH and Thyroxin a. inhibit tooth movement b. enhance tooth movement

b. enhance tooth movement (correct)" ABO Article #3 - "Medication effects on rate of orthodontic tooth movement" pg 21 PTH increases orthodontic tooth movement (OTM) (PTH increases serum Ca levels), pg. 22 Thyroxine (T4) - a significant increase in the rate of OTM was found. (Thyroxine increases cell metabolism and affects intestinal calcium absorption (reduces it))

TMJ is different from other joints by: a. presence of a meniscus b. fibrous CT in disc instead of hyaline

b. fibrous CT in disc in stead of hyaline (correct)" "The surfaces of the condyle and fossa are made up of dense fibrous connective tissues supported by a small area of undifferentiated mesenchyme and growth cartilage, which is not visible radiographically. The surface seen is actually subarticular bone. The articular disc, likewise, is composed of dense fibrous connective tissue, which also is not visible on standard radiographs. The articular surfaces of the mandibular condyle and fossa are composed of four distinct layers or zones (Fig. 1-15): (1) articular, (2) proliferative, (3) fibrocartilaginous, and (4) calcified cartilage. The most superficial layer is called the articular zone. It is found adjacent to the joint cavity and forms the outermost functional surface. Unlike most other synovial joints, this articular layer is made of dense fibrous connective tissue rather than hyaline cartilage. (Okeson, Jeffrey P.. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th Edition. Mosby, 012003. p. 11). "

Surgical removal of tonsil and adenoid tissue in a 13 YO female with long face syndrome: "a. Is excellent timing b. Is too late to aid in correction c. Is too early d. None of the above

b. is too late

"Where are chest compressions given when performing CPR in an adult? Where do you put your hands for CPR?" a. lower third of sternum b. lower half of sternum c. middle third of sternum d. between sternum and navel

b. lower half of sternum (correct) " "http://www.emts911.com/cpr_chart.htm http://www.peppsite.com/docs/26540_prc17_prc18.pdf Infants <1 yr old: lower 1/3 of sternum would work For everyone else you need to be at lower 1/2 to avoid breaking off their xyphoid and stabbing them."

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Where does growth occur in order to make room for the maxillary molars? "a. Alveolar process b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Ramus d. All of the above

b. max tuberosity **Modelling of the mx tuberosity; For mandible its - Resorption of ant ramus in mandible**

Why do patients with active periodontitis have more bone loss with Ortho treatment? a.There is more bone turn-over b.Osteoblast can not function in an inflammatory environment. c.Osteoclast activity is increased

b.Osteoblast can not function in an inflammatory environment. (correct) c.Osteoclast activity is increased (correct)

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: The muscles of facial expression develop from: a.First brachial arch b.Second brachial arch c.Both arches d.None of the above

b.Second brachial arch (correct) Smile = second BA "S" arch

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: What technique are you using when you tell a patient " if this hurts too much you need to raise your hand"?

behavioral modification

"There is little point in articulator mount of ortho casts for preadolescent & early adolescent pts b/c: Statement 1: The contours of the TMJ are not fully developed yet. Statement 2:. Mature canine function is not reached yet. T/T T/F F/T F/F

both true

Advantages of intraoral periapical radiographs over panoramics in ortho diagnostic process include: 1. Better ability to detect root resorption. 2. Better ability to detect carious lesions. 3. Less exposure to radiation. 4. Pathologic lesions, supernumerary and impacted teeth are more easily detected using periapicals. A - 2 & 3 only B - 1& 2 only C - 1, 2 & 3 D - 1, 2,3 & 4

c. 1 &2,3 only IO has the ability to... 1. Better ability to detect root resorption. 2. Better ability to detect carious lesions. over panos 3. Less exposure to radiation. ABO Article #63 Sameshima - ""Assessment of Root Resorption and root shape: Periapical vs Panoramic Films"""

What is the minimum total filtration that is required by an XR machine that can operate in ranges greater than 70 KVP? "a. 1.5 mm of aluminum equivalent b. 5/8 (16 mm) of gypsum c. 2.5 mm of aluminum equivalent d. 1/32 in. (0.8mm) of lead

c. 2.5 mm of aluminum equivalent (correct)

The average force necessary to intrude a mandibular central incisor is? a. 250 grams b. 200 grams c. 20 grams d. 50 grams

c. 20 grams (correct) for EACH mandibular central **IF question stated "Average F necc to intrude mandibular centralS? 40 grams (20 grams for EACH one)

"In an .022 slot size system, the maximal slot size measurements are: " a. 18 x 25 b. 22 x 22 c. 22 x 28 d. 22 x 25 e. 25 x 22 f. 25 x 22

c. 22 x 28 (correct) .018 slot is 18x25

The average force necessary to intrude a maxillary central incisors is? a. 20 grams b. 300 grams c. 25 grams d. 40 grams

c. 25 grams (correct)

" The percentage of growth completed at 10 years of age is :" a. 20 % b. 35 % c. 65 % d. 96 %

c. 65% per Buschang

Pts w/severe nasopharyngeal obstruction who undergo adenoidectomy will go from mouth-open to mouth-closed breathing approx a. 10% of the time b. 50% of the time c. 80% of the time d. Rarely

c. 80% of the time (correct) "

The greatest amount of mandibular arch length measured from the mesial of one molar to the mesial of the other will occur at what age? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12

c. 9 yo bc u have some inc in Arch Perimeter early on, bc inc in IC width and arch width bw 6 and 9yo then after 9-10 yo u start to see decreases bc of the leeway space For maxillary ur max will be around 11yo

" Stationary anchorage refers to: " a. Equal movement of the dental units on both sides of an extraction site toward each other. b. More movement of the dental units on one side of an extraction side than the other. c. Bodily movement of dental units on one side of the extraction site and tipping of dental units on the other side. d. None of the above

c. Bodily movement of dental units on one side of the extraction site and tipping of dental units on the other side. (correct) From proffit Stationary Anchorage: Stationary anchorage refers to the advantage that can be obtained by pitting bodily movement of one group against tipping of another. With a premolar extraction site, the anterior teeth can be tipped lingually while the posterior teeth move bodily. The optimum pressure for the anterior segment will be half as much as if the anterior teeth were retracted bodily. The reaction force distributed over the posterior teeth would be reduced by half, and these teeth would move half as much. Bc tipping req less F than bodily mvmt. Princ for the begg technique where tip teeth then upright.

A) - There is no contraindication to the orthodontic movement of endodontically treated teeth. B) - Attempting to move a pulpally involved tooth, however, is likely to cause a flare-up of the periapical condition. a. A- 1st statement is correct, 2nd statement false. b. B- 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is correct. c. C- Both statements are correct. d. D- Both statements are false.

c. C- Both statements are correct. (CORRECT) " "Proffit 4th ed - Pg 658 - under Moderate Periodontal Involvement ""Disease control also requires endodontic treatment of any pulpally involved teeth. There is no contraindication to the orthodontic movement of an endodontically treated tooth, so root canal therapy before orthodontics will cause no problems. Attempting to move a pulpally involved tooth, however, is likely to cause a flare-up of the periapical condition."""

A comparison of changes from the teens to the adult indicates: "a. Changes in the facial skeleton equal those in the facial soft tissue profile b. Changes in the facial skeleton are greater than those in the facial soft tissue profile c. Changes in the soft tissue profile are greater than those in the facial skeleton d. There is very minimal change in the soft tissue or facial skeleton"

c. Changes in the soft tissue profile are greater than those in the facial skeleton (correct)

Which of the following are characteristics of adenoid faces EXCEPT? a. High palate and constricted maxillary arch b. Flared incisors c. Class III tendencies d. Open bite

c. Class III tendencies is NOT ADENOID FACES IS ASSOC W/ high palatal vault & constricted maxillary arch, flared incisors, open bite

??CHECK The sagittal split osteotomy is the procedure of choice for the advancement of the mandible. The following complications are often associated with this surgical procedure a. Relapse, posterior open bite and numbness of the tongue b. Numbness of the lower lip, laterognathia and Class III relations c. Condylar sagging and post-surgical trismus d. Numbness of the lower lip, facial paralysis and anterior open bite

c. Condylar sagging and post-surgical trismus *

According to the ABO, which of the following represents the mandibular plane: a. Lower border of mandible to Menton b. Gonion to Menton c. Constructed gonion to Menton

c. Constructed gonion to Menton (correct)" a. Lower border of mandible to Menton (THIS IS DOWNS)

What is the treatment of a three-walled defect? a. Apical repositioning b. Distal wedge c. Guided tissue regeneration

c. Guided tissue regeneration (correct)"

A possible effect of taking high doses of prostaglandin inhibitors during orthodontic tx is: a. Increasing the incident of root resorption. b. Causing periodontal breakdown. c. Impeding orthodontic tooth movement. d. None of the above.

c. Impeding orthodontic tooth movement. (correct)

Gingival grafting is often required before a genioplasty procedure because: a. A genioplasty is often associated with use of Cl II elastics b. A genioplasty often causes labial tipping of the lower incisors c. Incision lines for genioplasty can stress gingival attachment as the healing leads to recession. d. Grafting minimizes post-surgical pull of gingival fibers and guarantees more stability.

c. Incision lines for genioplasty can stress gingival attachment as the healing leads to recession.*

" Skeletal open bite malocclusions usually have:" a. Decreased height of incisors b. Decreased height of maxillary molars c. Increased height of maxillary molars d. None of the above

c. Increased height of maxillary molars (correct)

Soft tissue thickness in females: "a. Increases the same as in males b. Increases less than in males c. Increases more than in males d. None of the above"

c. Increases more than in males (correct)

Parathyroid hormone acts by: "a. Increasing calcium ion concentration in bone b. Decreasing calcium ion concentration in blood c. Increasing calcium ion concentration in extracellular fluids d. None of the above"

c. Increasing calcium ion concentration in extracellular fluids (correct)

BUQ: The major source of error in cephalometrics is? "a. Magnification b. Distortion c. Indentification of landmarks

c. Indentification of landmarks ** "

Nasal septum is usually deviated where? a. Superior 1/2 b. Inferior 1/2 c. Inferior 1/3 d. Superior 1/3

c. Inferior 1/3 (correct)" No reference

Pierre-Robin Syndrome is associated with the following condition: a. Cleidocranial dysplasia b. Basal cell nevus c. Mandibular micrognathia d. Down's syndrome e. Gardner's syndrome

c. Mandibular micrognathia *

In the adult skeletal Class III open bite malocclusion, occlusal, functional and esthetic results can be obtained with a combination of orthodontics and surgery. The most likely surgical procedures applied are: a. Maxillary advancement, posterior intrusion of the maxilla and mandibular advancement b. Mandibular set-back reduction genioplasty c. Maxillary advancement, posterior maxillary intrusion and mandibular set-back

c. Maxillary advancement, posterior maxillary intrusion and mandibular set-back * "

The characteristic oral clinical features of Peutz-Jegher's syndrome is: "a. Macrognathia b. Supernumerary teeth c. Melanin pigmentation of the lips d. Macroglossia e. Constricted palate

c. Melanin pigmentation of the lips *

An adult patient who seeks orthodontic treatment tends to have: a. Less positive self-image than average. b. An average self-image. c. More positive self-image than average.

c. More positive self-image than average.(correct) "

Which of the following has the potential of undergoing "spontaneous" malignant transformation? a. Osteomalacia b. Albright's syndrome c. Paget's disease of bone d. Osteogenesis imperfecta e. Von Recklinghausen's disease of bone "

c. Paget's disease of bone (to osteosarcoma)

" Three pairs of large salivary glands pour their secretions into the oral cavity:" "a. Parotid is the smallest b. Sublingual is the largest c. Parotid is the largest d. Submandibular is the largest

c. Parotid is the largest (correct)

" If a person has a positive TB test what does that mean?" a. Patient is contagious b. Patient is active c. Patient has been exposed

c. Patient has been exposed (correct) "

What is the difference between primary osteons and secondary osteons? a. Primary osteons is woven bone b. Primary bone is fine woven bone c. Primary osteon has ordered osteocytes d. Primary osteons has canaliculi perpendicular to medullary canal

c. Primary osteon has ordered osteocytes when u hear primary osteon they are referring to LAMELLAR bone per buschang. " The adult bone is remodeled to form secondary osteons

With a cervical headgear Kloen type with the bows bent lower than the occlusal plane: a. It would extrude the teeth b. Intrude the molar while distalizing c. Produce a distal movement with extrusion of the crowns by moving the roots to a larger arc

c. Produce a distal movement with extrusion of the crowns by moving the roots to a larger arc (correct)"

A latent image is: "invisible change" a. An image that is very late in its development b. A very light radiographic image c. Produced after exposure but before development d. A very dark radiographic image"

c. Produced after exposure but before development (correct)

A patient comes to you after an auto accident with a shift to the right, what is the cause? a. Trigeminal Neuralgia b. Left condylar fracture c. Right condylar fracture d. Bell's Palsy

c. Right condylar fracture * "

A molar with a perio condition and a furcation involvement of Class III, you intend to upright and intrude it, what happens to the furcation? a. Decreased b. Increased c. Same or not changed d. Gingival recession

c. Same or not changed (correct) ( if you don't have the PDL fibers no bone/ attachment will be in that area)

"The midpoint between the anterior and posterior clinoid process is the :" "a. Sphenoid b. Basion c. Sella Turcica

c. Sella Turcica (correct)"

" If a child swallows a band and is conscious with coughing, the doctor should:" a. Rush the child to the nearest emergency room b. Perform the Heimlich maneuver c. Stay with the patient and encourage coughing d. Watch and wait

c. Stay with the patient and encourage coughing (correct) "

" The major advantage of cephalometric radiographs in treatment of children & adolescents is: (P171)" "a. Evaluation of dentofacial proportions. b. Screening for pathologies. c. Study changes in jaw and tooth position brought about by growth and treatment d. None of the above

c. Study changes in jaw and tooth position brought about by growth and treatment

The safest and preferred site of failure when brackets are removed is: a. The interface between enamel surface and bonding material. b. Within the bonding material itself. c. The interface between brackets surface and bonding material d. Any of the above.

c. The interface between brackets surface and bonding material

One of the major strengths of the McNamara analysis is: a. Any one measurement is not affected by others within the same face. b. The difference in sagittal positions of the jaws is projected to S-N line. c. The normative data are based on a well defined sample. d. None of the above.

c. The normative data are based on a well defined sample. (correct)

The conclusion from the above studies was that a. There was a significant difference in TMD symptoms between orthodontically treated patients and the normal population. b. Treatment performed during adolescence will increase the risk of developing TMD symptoms. c. Treatment performed during adolescence did not generally increase or decrease the risk of developing TMD in later life. d. Patients should be treated in adulthood to decrease the risk of developing TMD symptoms

c. Treatment performed during adolescence did NOT generally increase or decrease the risk of developing TMD in later life. (correct) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 79 See above"

Springback is useful because a. Wire maintains its stiffness b. Wire remains flexible c. Wire is resistant to permanent deformation

c. Wire is resistant to permanent deformation (correct) " Clinically useful springback occurs if the wire is deflected beyond the yield point (as to the point indicated here as "arbitrary clinical loading"), but it no longer returns to its original shape. At the failure point, the wire breaks. It's when wire deflected beyond yield-point till the arbitrary clinical loading point and no longer return to its original shape "Definition/diagram of springback in Proffit pg 361- think C Web defintion: ""tendency to partially return to its original shape because of the elastic recovery of the material"" "

CBCT is better for TMJ than CT, CT has more radiation dosage than CBCT "a. first statement is true, second is false b. first statement is false, second is true c. both true d. both false"

c. both true "Dr. Hatcher: ""CBCT and CT theoretically should be about equal for looking at the TMJ but practically the CBCT is best. The goals of TMJ CT/ CBCT imaging are to show the size, shape, quality and spatial relationships of the osseous components of the TMJs. Neither system allows you to visualize the disc. The CBCT images in an upright position and is better than a supine position in CT. CBCT is a much lower dose than CT"" - From CDA Journal article Jan 2010: ""TMJ positional relationships can be more accurately evaluated (by CBCT) than in a CT examination where the patient is supine. Images generated via CBCT are not distorted and provide good bone density evaluation"""

"Extended curve of wilson and incisors are edge to edge? Edge to edge patient with severe curve of Wilson what are you most likely to see? Maxillary lingual 2nds for curve of Wilson with edge to edge?" a. balancing/non-working interferences b. working interferences c. lack of anterior guidanace and posterior disclusion

c. lack of anterior guidanace and posterior disclusion CANT infer there are posterior non working interferences If pt is edge to edge in the anterior, then they will have no anterior guidance. Therefore, as they protrude, there will likely be no posterior disclusion (lack of the so-called Christianson's Phenomenon). Accentuated curve of wilson, refers to the ManDibular lingual cusps sitting at a more inferior level than the buccal cusps. One would think that this would also mean there is an corresponding excessive Curve of Monson on the Maxillary arch, however as stated this question does not specifically state that so one cannot infer that we would see posterior non-working interferences from MX buccal cusps. Working interferences are also highly unlikely, as someone who has no anterior guidance would also probably be in group function. Therefore, given these options, C is likely the best choice."

All of the following favor canine substitution EXCEPT: a. minimal crowding on lower b. class II molar (with no lower crowding) c. large canines d. low gingival margin on canines w/ no canine eminence

c. large canines (correct)

" Where does part of temporal bone cross orbit on PA ceph?" a. Bisect orbit b. Upper 1/3 of orbit c. Lower 1/3 of orbit d. Floor of orbit

c. lower 1/3 of orbit

The orthognathic surgical procedure most likely to cause post-operative TMJ sounds such as popping or crepitation is: a. Lefort I osteotomy b. Mandibular subapical osteotomy c. Mandibular advancement d. Mandibular set-back e. Mandibular alveolar advancement

c. mandibular advancement

Best method to extract palatally impacted max canines? a. APF b. CE c. open eruption

c. open eruption (correct)" "Article ""Periodontal response to early uncovering,autonomous eruption, and orthodontic alignment of palatally impacted maxillary canines,"" Schmidt, Kokich: -palatally impacted maxillary canines that were surgically exposed, allowed to erupt freely into the palate, and orthodontically aligned have good consequences compared with closed exposure and early traction "

What is NOT a branch of inferior division of glossopharyngeal nerve (CN9)? a. pharynx (pharyngeal) b. lingual c. subclavian d. tympanic

c. subclavian (correct) "

" Which bone is NOT a part of the orbit?" "a. sphenoid b. frontal c. vomer d. maxilla

c. vomer

What suture fuses prematurely in Apert's and Crouzons? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Lamboid d. Frontal

coronal suture (correct) see above "Crouzon's and Apert's syndrome are most commonly characterized by premature fusion of coronal and lamdoid sutures Early fusion of just lamdoid is plagiocephally Coronal fusion results in brachi appearance Sagital suture premature fusion results in dolicofacial appearance Trigonocephaly results from premature fusion of metopic suture Only difference between Apert's and Crouzon's is that Apert's has syndactally Supernumeraries can be seen in Crouzon's and Aperts"

As the face grows, the facial plane rotates_____ due to ______:

counterclockwise Due to bone deposition of nasionand greater growth (rotation/displacement) of the mandible

what is the most stable structure to SI on in the cranial base lesser wing of sphenoid anterior clinoid cribriform plate

cribriform plate clinoid process = never itself is stable its changing with time

** Maxillary incisor retraction during orthodontic treatment leads to: 1. Forward mandibular displacement 2. Distal mandibular displacement 3. Condylar displacement 4. Growth of the nose and chin a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3 c) 4 only d) None of the above

d) None of the above (correct)"

The physician should be concerned if a child's growth pattern is above which of the following: a. 25th percentile b. 50th percentile c. 75th percentile d. 95th percentile

d. 95th percentile (correct)" Proffit 4th Edition pg. 32 A child who falls beyond the range of 97 percent should receive special study and not just accepted as an extreme.

How are the parietal and frontal bones formed? a. Partly by endochondral bone formation b. Partly by intramembranous bone formation c. Entirely by endochondral bone formation d. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation

d. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation (correct)"

An exposed radiographic film should remain in the fixer solution a. As long as it remained in the developer b. Until the film first clears c. For 5 min at 70 degrees F d. For at least 10 minutes

d. For at least 10 minutes (correct)"

Radiographic film emulsion is a. Cellulose acetate b. Sodium thiosulfate c. Hydroquinone d. Gelatin and silver bromide e. Calcium tungstate

d. Gelatin and silver bromide

"According to the review presented in this study [Bailey et al.], which of the followings postsurgical changes is most likely to be observed in Class II patients with mandibular advancements and open bite corrections: a. Condylar resorption b. Increased mandibular length c. Anterior open bite d. Long-term increase in overbite

d. Long-term increase in overbite (correct)" "ABO Article #17 - Bailey - Stability and predictability of orthognathic surgery - Page 276 ""Condylar resorption after mandibular advancement and relapse into anterior open bite have been reported as potential long-term clinical problems. Our long-term data now have placed these concerns in perspective: condylar changes occur in 5%-10% of patients who have surgery to advance the mandible, but a long-term increase in mandibular length (ie, growth at the condyles) is as likely as a decrease because of resorption, and, AFTER OPEN BITE CORRECTION, A LONG-TERM INCREASE IN OVERBITE IS MORE LIKELY THAN RETURN OF OPEN BITE."""

Which of the following is NOT associated with cleidocranial dysostosis? a. Missing clavicles b. Frontal and Parietal bossing c. Many unerupted supernumerary teeth d. Protrusive maxilla

d. Protrusive maxilla * "

After partial anterior diastema closure & space redistribution in adult female, best approach is: a. Remove fixed appliances, place fixed retention, 3 months recall. b. Remove fixed appliances, do composit build-ups, 3 months recall. c. Do composite build-ups, remove fixed appliances, 3 months recall. d. Remove fixed appliances, do composite build-ups, place fixed retention.

d. Remove fixed appliances, do composite build-ups, place fixed retention. (correct)"

Which is an advantage to mand. setback using transoral vertical oblique ramus osteotomy (TOVRO): a. Excellent control of the condylar segments b. Osteosynthesis screws can be employed for fixation c. Early mobilization of the jaw d. Requires relatively less time than a (BSSO) procedure w/ lower incidence of neurosensory changes

d. Requires relatively less time than a (BSSO) procedure w/ lower incidence of neurosensory changes * ?? CHECK

When a patient attempts protrusion of the mandible, the jaw deviates markedly to the right. This would indicate that which of the following muscles is unable to contract? a. Left medial pterygoid b. Right medial pterygoid c. Left lateral pterygoid d. Right lateral pterygoid

d. Right lateral pterygoid * "

Indicators of maturity? a. Dental age, chronological age, skeletal age b. Dental age, peak velocity age, skeletal age c. Dental age, chronological age, peak velocity age d. Skeletal age, chronological age, peak velocity age

d. Skeletal age, chronological age, peak velocity age (correct)"

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: adult swallow pattern? Which of the following does NOT occur when a person swallow? "a. Masseters contract b. Tongue is on the roof of mouth c. The teeth are in occlusion d. Suprahyoid relax

d. Suprahyoid relax (correct)" No reference the suprahhyoids contract!

" The alterations in the adult facial skeleton indicate:" a. Little changes from age 21 b. Deceleration of growth in females continued in the 20's c. The cumulative effect over time was small d. The cumulative effect over time was large

d. The cumulative effect over time was large (correct) "

" The muscle to protrude the tongue is?" a. The temporalis b. The medial pterygoid c. The hyoglossus d. The genioglossus

d. The genioglossus (correct0 " No reference

Panchrz evaluated the effects of the Herbst fixed functional appliance in the treatment of 22 growing patients with Class II, Division 1 malocclusions and reported that: a. The number of subjects with tenderness to palpation decreased during the first three months. b. Twelve months posttreatment the number of subjects with symptoms increased when compared to the number of subjects before treatment. c. There were no symptoms detected before or after treatment. d. The number of subjects with TMD symptoms increased during the first 3 months of treatment but mostly disappeared after appliance removal.

d. The number of subjects with TMD symptoms increased during the first 3 months of treatment but mostly disappeared after appliance removal. (Correct) " "ABO Article #43 - The Risk of orthodontic treatment for producing temporomandibular disorders: A literature overview Cyril Sadowsky, BDS, MS (1999) - Pg 79-80 ""Pancherz evaluated the effects of the Herbst fixed functional appliance in the treatment of 22 growing patients with Class II, Division I malocclusions and reported that the number of subjects with tenderness to palpation doubled during the initial 3 months of treatment. However, after appliance removal, most muscle symptoms disappeared and 12 months posttreatment the number of subjects with symptoms was the same as before treatment."""

Which radiograph would you use to see the maxillary sinuses? a. Tomogram b. Lateral Cephalogram c. Posterior-Anterior Cephalogram d. Waters View

d. Waters View (correct)"

Histologic tetracylcline (tetracycline) studies of implants show that: a. Lamellar bone at interface with slow turnover of bone b. rigid within supporting bone c. composite bone at interface d. composite bone with high turnover rate

d. composite bone with high turnover rate "http://www.angle.org.pinnacle.allenpress.com/doi/pdf/10.1043/0003-3219(1989)059%3C0247:REIFOA%3E2.0.CO;2 pg. 249 (Figure 1) Woven = new bone cancellous = trabecular Lamellar = cortical/compact Angle Orthodontist, 1987, Roberts, Endosseus Implants for Orthodontics and Orthopedics: Polarized light microscopy showed that composite bone (woven bone matrix filled with lamellar bone) was the predominant type of mineralized tissue located <1.0 millimeter from the endosseous interface (Figure 2)."

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Inability to closes the eyelids indicates a possible lesion of which nerve? a. Trochlear b. Abducens c. Occulomotor d. Facial e. Opthalmic

d. facial nerve (CN7) Obicularis oculi muscle closes eyelid and is innervated by temporal and zygomatic brances of CN VII. Patients with facial nerve paralysis (Bell's Palsy) typically complain of acute (24 to 48 hours) unilateral facial weakness with a widening of the palpebral fissure and impaired ability to close the eye.

What is Peak Height Velocity? a. maximal growth spurt from birth to puberty b. birth to 2 years c. conception to birth d. from puberty for up to 24 months after

d. from puberty for up to 24 months after (correct)"

All of the following are formed from the first branchial arch except? a.Malleus b.Maxilla c.Condyle d.Styloid process

d.Styloid process(correct) Other wrong options: Coronoid (UT 2008)" The styloid process is derived from the 2nd branchial arch.

what does NOT pass thru foramen lacerum?

deep and greater petrosal nerves DO pass thru foramen lacerum the others do not

With tall cusps you need to finish with a --->

deeper bite to prevent interferences.

What happens to an open bite pt with anteriorly displaced disc on left side?

deviation to left side upon opening jaw deviates to side w/ internal derrangement

What percentage of impacted canines self-correct if the tip is distal to the middle of the lateral incisor? a. 10 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70 e. 90

e. 90% (correct)" "Bishara "Impacted maxillary canines: A review" Incidence of max canine impactions ranges from approx. 1% to 2% depending on the source. Impactions are twice as common in females (1.2%) as in males (0.51%). 8% of impactions are bilateral Mand. canine impaction incidence is 0.35%. Causes can be general or localized (most common reason) Generalized causes: endocrine deficiencies, febrile diseases, irradiation Localized causes: Tooth size-arch length discrepancies, Prolonged retention or early loss of the dec. canine, Abnormal tooth bud position, Alveolar cleft, Ankylosis, Cystic or neoplastic formation, Dilaceration or the root, Iatrogenic, Idiopathic, Missing lateral or abnormal lateral root 0.71% of children between 10-13 have resorbed permanent incisors due to ectopic eruption of max canine. Clinical signs of impacted canines: Delayed eruption of perm. canine beyond 14-15 y.o., Absence of labial canine bulge, Presence of palatal bulge, Delayed eruption, distal tipping, or migration of lateral incisor Prevention of max 3 impaction: extract the decid. 3 by age 11->91% normalization of perm. cuspid eruption if the crown is distal to the middle of 2. Only 64% normalization if crown is mesial to middle of 2. When to extract perm. 3: Ankylosed, External or internal root resorption, Severely dilacerated root, If impaction is severe (lodged between the roots of the central and lateral incisors), Pathology, Patient doesn't want to attempt to save Palatal impactions occur 66% of time, other 33% are labial 85% of palat. Imp. 3's have sufficient space, whearas labially imp. 3's have sufficient space only 17% of time. "

The mechanism of tooth eruption is best explained on the basis of: a. Hormonal stimulation b. Primary tooth exfoliation c. Programmed cell death at the base of the crypt d. Proliferation of cells at the base of the crypt e. Cellular activity/differential blood flow/pressure in PDL

e. Cellular activity/differential blood flow/pressure in PDL

A study evaluating serial extraction cases at least 10 years out of retention indicated that: a. A more stable result achieved in the serial extraction cases than in cases that had premolars extracted after they fully erupted b. No decrease in post retention intercanine width c. That only 23% of the sample demonstrated clinically unsatisfactory mandibular alignment by the post-retention stage d. All of the above e. None of the above

e. None of the above (correct)"

What is NOT a major cause of malocclusion? a. Drugs b. Habits c. Hereditary d. Endocrine imbalances e. None of the above

e. None of the above (correct)"

CHECK?? What is the force to dislodge an implant? a. 100g b. 250g c. 500g d. 600g e. None of the above

e. None of the above * "

Most TMJ problems are induced by: a. Poor occlusion or malocclusion b. Orthodontic treatment c. Orthodontic treatment with 4 first premolar extraction d. All of the above e. None of the above

e. None of the above *" If referring to primary etiology of TMD? parafunctional habits

"Which of the following wires has the LEAST resistance to deformation a. A-Niti b. Copper Niti c. TMA d. Multi-strand e. SS "

e. SS (correct) " "Proffit 4th ed pg 363: SS has highest stiffness, lowest springiness and therefore less resistant to permanent deformation "

Edward Angle invented all of the following except: a. E-Arch b. Pin and tube c. Ribbon arch d. Edgewise e. Universal

e. Universal (correct) " "Profitt pg 407-408: Angle invented: E-arch Pin and tube ribbon arch Edgewise"

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: contraction of muscle while simulatanously lengthen is called?

eccentric contraction

patient w a vertical root fx?

extract

Moving a molar through an atrophic ridge...what is the most likely outcome?

f. 3mm gingival clefting " "Proffit 4th ed pg 665: ""resorption results in a decrease in the vertical height of the bone, but more importantly, remodeling produces a buccolingual narrowing of the alveolar process as well. When this has happened, closing the extraction space requires a reshaping of the cortical bone that comprises the buccal and lingual plates of the alveolar process. Cortical bone will respond to orthodontic force in most instances, but the response is significantly slower."" - Often it is better judgment to open a partially closed old extraction site and replace the missing tooth with a bridge or implant. - As a general rule, however, it is better to move teeth away from such an area, in preparation for a prosthetic replacement, because of the risk that normal bone formation will not occur as the tooth moves into the defect. "

30% show decalcify when debonding on at least 1 tooth, Usually resolve spontaneously with out fluoride T/T F/F T/F F/T

false/false

Where did hyoid originate (WHAT BRACHIAL ARCH?) 1st 2nd 3rd 4th

from 2nd branchial arch with horns of hyoid derived from branchial arch 3 2nd BA: 1. LeSser horn of the hyoid bone 2. Superior (upper) part of hyoid bone 3RD BRACHIAL ARCH: 1. Greater horn of hyoid bone 2. lower part of body of hyoid bone

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: During growth, there is greater decrease in the mand arch length (or arch depth) than maxillary length due to ___

greater loss of leeway space (in the mandible)

Growth of the condyle ___ & ____

grows Up and back and mandible displaces down and fwd while condyle grows up and back

what kind of Horizontal fracture has the worst prognosis?

horizontal fx cervical 1/3(worst prognosis)

Down's Syndrome prevalence Cleft Palate ONLY prevalence

in US 1 in 800 births. CP prevalence 1 in 750

"In 18/8 Stainless Steel wires: a. Chromium prevents corrosion b. Cobalt adds stiffness c. Titanium adds strength d. Nickel adds flexibility which of the above is true? i. a and b ii. b and c iii. c and d iv. a and d

iv. a and d "a. 18% Chromium prevents corrosion d. 8% Nickel adds flexibility Proffit 4th ed pg 361 and ABO Breakdown

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Very athletic girls experience onset of menstruation...

later than normal, depending on body fat bc u need a certain amt of adipose tissue to begin menstration

superior 1/3 line of the orbit on PA ceph

leSser wing of sphenoid = Superior 1/3

If using a unilateral headgear to correct Cl II molar on the right side, a possible side effect would be crossbite developing on which side? a. Right - buccal crossbite b. Left - lingual crossbite c. Neither d. Both

lingual x-bite on right sd (long outer bow) buccal x-bite on left sd (short outer bow) c. Neither (correct) "Nanda 1997 pg 130: lateral forces are directed toward short outer bow side. in this question, the right side would have the long outer bow (Lingual bite on right sd), so lateral forces should be directed towards the left, which could create a lingual crossbite on the right side and a buccal crossbite on the left. so answer would be NEITHER"

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: know where the Pterygoid attaches and what bone that is a part of?

medial pterygoid origin = pterygoid fossa + medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: When does menarche occur in comparison to PHV?

menarche occurs 0.5 year after PHV get 4-10cm height increase after onset of menarche

Center of resistance of upper molar

mid root area

Which of the following is not associated with Cleidocranial? a. delayed eruption b. missing teeth c. supernumerary teeth d. wormian bones

missing teeth (correct)

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Skull ID malar process

molar area is composed of the maxillary bone medially (paranasal area) + zygomatic bone laterally (cheek bone)

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Relative to the permanent incisors, the primary incisors are more retroclined, more proclined, inclincedthe same, more rotated or crowded?

more retroclined

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: removal of the torus palatinus may result in perforation into which cavity?

nasal cavity

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Teeth present at birth and those erupting between birth and 30 days are called?

neonatal

tongue follows which of scammons curve most?

neural

BUQ: does transferring the FH bw serial ceps create a common reference line? yes no

no

BUQ: what is most closely assoc with Frankfurt horizontal on PA and lateral ceph films (orbital is NOT going to be one of ur ans choices)

summit of condyle & orbitale

The most stable orthognathic procedure is à

superior repositioning of the maxilla (maxillary impaction)

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: most dense bone in cranium?

temporal petrous portion Petrous comes from latin word meaning "stone-like, hard"

"In an open bite patient who is skeletally hyperdivergent -> intervene early; Growth potential of certain characteristics is greater in childhood>adolescence"

true true True mandibular rotation was significantly greater during childhood than adolescence; rotation was particularly marked during the transition from primary → early mixed dentition. (BOARD Q); Treatment should be initiated BEFORE adolescent spurt

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: What is the correlation between tooth size and dental arch form?

very poor

Person yawns with open lock. How is disc displaced? " a. Posterior b. No disc displacement c. Anterior

w/ posterior disc displacement (open lock) it would be posterior

" The position of the mandibular foramen is where?" "a. Above the occlusal plane b. Below the occlusal plane

"a. Above the occlusal plane (correct) b. Below the occlusal plane " No reference

Which of the following is NOT part of branchial arch 1? "a. Coronoid process b. Maxilla c. styloid process

"a. Coronoid process b. Maxilla c. styloid process (correct)" "The first arch (mandibular a.) differentiates into the sphenomandibular and anterior malleolar ligaments, malleus, and incus; the second (hyoid a.) into the stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, lesser horn of the hyoid bone, and cranial part of the hyoid body; the third into the greater horn of the hyoid bone and the caudal part of its body; and the fourth and sixth into the laryngeal cartilages. In the human embryo, the sixth arch is actually the fifth in number but is so named for reasons of comparative anatomy and evolution; it does not appear on the surface. (Dorland, Dorland. Dorland's Illustrated Medical Dictionary, 30th Edition. W.B. Saunders Company, 052003. 1). "

What does not happen in undermining resorption? "a. Hyalinization b. physiologic tooth movement c. resorption in adjacent marrow spaces d. Cell free zone in PDL "

"a. Hyalinization b. physiologic tooth movement * c. resorption in adjacent marrow spaces d. Cell free zone in PDL "

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: What is the lacrimal sac (lacrimal fossa) between? what bones a. Maxilla and lacrimal bones b. Lacrimal and ethmoid bones

"a. Maxilla and lacrimal bones (correct) " a depression in the lacrimal bone and frontal process of maxilla

Most of the osteoclasts present in the PDL are: "a. Of hematogenous origin. b. Derived from stem cells found in the local area. c. Highly differentiated fibroclasts. d. Always associated with an inflammatory condition

"a. Of hematogenous origin. (correct) *OCs come from blood monocytes from hematopoietic cells in bone marrow. —always choose bone marrow NOT blood, onlyblood if bone marrow isn't an option OBs are undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

When a tooth is moved bodily: "a. Osteoblastic activity occurs on the compression side and osteoclastic occurs on the tension side b. Osteoclastic activity occurs on the pressure side and osteoblastic occurs on the tension side

"a. Osteoblastic activity occurs on the compression side and osteoclastic occurs on the tension side b. Osteoclastic activity occurs on the pressure side and osteoblastic occurs on the tension side (correct)"

From where do cells for bone deposition originate? "a. Osteoclasts b. Blood c. Mesenchymal cells d. Chondrocytes

"a. Osteoclasts b. Blood c. Mesenchymal cells (correct) d. Chondrocytes " i.e. osteoblasts FROM CONTROVERSIAL *OCs come from blood monocytes from hematopoietic cells in bone marrow. —always choose bone marrow NOT blood, onlyblood if bone marrow isn't an option OBs are undifferentiated mesenchymal cells Fibroblasts and Osteoblasts come from mesenchymal cells, while ▪ Osteocytes come from osteoblasts formed from osteoprogenitor cells in Periosteum.

A calcific barrier (As a cause of Root Resorption) "a. Type of treatment is most important b. Duration of treatment is more important than type c. Can be prevented with straight wire appliances d. None of the above"

"a. Type of treatment is most important b. Duration of treatment is more important than type (correct) c. Can be prevented with straight wire appliances d. None of the above"

The tension side of tooth movement has what components histologically? "a. Woven bone b. Fibrous tissue c. Both

"a. Woven bone b. Fibrous tissue c. Both (correct)"

" Which of the following structures points at the point where the nerve that innervates the lower lip comes out of the mandible? "

"a. mental foramen at area of premolars on the lateral ceph. (correct)" No reference terminal branches of the IAN exit which provides sensory to the buccal set tissue, chin and lip

"The maxillary and zygomatic bones make up the inferior orbital wall. What other bone makes up the inferior orbital wall? a. palatine b. frontal c. ethmoid d. sphenoid The floor of the orbit is made of processes from 3 bones; the maxillary, the zygomatic, and which other bone?"

"a. palatine bone " "The inferior wall (floor) is formed mainly by the maxilla and partly by the zygomatic and palatine bones. The thin inferior wall is shared by the orbit and maxillary sinus. It slants inferiorly from the apex to the inferior orbital margin. The inferior wall is demarcated from the lateral wall of the orbit by the inferior orbital fissure. (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. p. 958). http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orbit_(anatomy)"

" What muscle draws the corners of the mouth laterally when smiling?" a. Risorius b. Orbicularis oris c. Levator Labialis superioris d. none of the above

"a. risorius Acting together, the main elevators -levator labii superioris alequae nasi, levator labii superioris,and zygomaticus minor - curl the upper lip in smiling and in expressing smugness, contempt or disdain . - Risorius: Inappropriately named: it is not more associated with laughter than any other modiolar muscle. Conversely it participates in numerous facial activities other than laughter. -Zygomaticus Major draws the angle of the mouth upwards and laterally as in laughing.

T/F: Adult bone remodeling due to formation of secondary osteons.

TRUE

which muscle is primarily responsible for smiling? a.zygomaticus major b.risorius

a.zygomaticus major

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Skeleton of face consist of: a. 22 bones b. 14 bones c. 12 bones d. all of the above

b. 14 bones

BUQ Buschang Anatomy Q: Where does the frontal sinus drain? "a. Inferior nasal meatus b. Middle nasal meatus c. Superior nasal meatus d. All of the above

b. Middle nasal meatus Middle == frontal, ethmoid, temporal, maxillary The inferior turbinate, which is larger than the other turbinates, runs parallel to the floor of the nose. The nasolacrimal duct drains tears into the inferior meatus. (This explains why one develops nasal congestion when one cries.) The middle turbinate is located above the inferior turbinate. The anterior (or front) ethmoid cells open into the middle meatus. The term ""frontal recess"" refers ""ante-chamber"" just below the frontal sinus ostium. Therefore, the frontal sinus drains into the middle meatus. The frontal recess contains a variable number of ethmoid cells. The superior turbinate, which is the smallest turbinate, is above the middle turbinate. The posterior (or back) ethmoid cells drain into the superior meatus. The space between the superior turbinate, the septum and the sphenoid sinus front wall is known as the sphenoethmoid recess. The sphenoid drains here. The paranasal sinuses are covered with a special lining (or epithelium). The lining secretes mucus, a complex substance that keeps the nose and sinuses moist. The sinus epithelium is ciliated; that is, each cell on its surface has a cilium, which is a relatively long structure that has the capacity to push sinus mucus. This movement of mucus (which is known as mucociliary clearance) is not random; rather, it is programmed so that the mucus moves along in a specific pattern. The sinus do not 'drain' by gravity-it is an active process."

" What is the smallest bone in the head?" "a. Lacrimal b. Frontal c. Stapes d. Mandible

c. stapes " Wikipedia

A patient with achondroplasia, in which midfacial structures are most affected, is likely to have which of the following malocclusions: a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. None of the above

"c. Class III"

Dislocation of the mandible can occur only in which of the following directions? a. Laterally b. Medially c. Anteriorly d. Posteriorly e. Superiorly

*can occur in all direction* https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK549809/ THIS ARTICLE STATES "Mandible dislocation can occur anterior, posterior, superior, or lateral to the articular eminence. Dislocations can also be classified as acute, chronic, or recurrent"

"Diastema closure of crowns of 2 centrals tipped away from eachother: where is the center of rotation when tipping 2 centrals together with removable appliance?"

Apical 1/3 of root

If you have an open bite patient and elect to treat with high pull HG, what adjustments do you make to the HG?

Bend outer bow down (correct) need long outer bow bent down (below CR of maxilla) so force is distal to CR

**LOOK UP TO CHECK** For surgical instruments that can't be heat sterilized, the method of choice would be:

Cant be heat sterilized --> Ethylene oxide (correct) or Vapor of Hydrogen Peroxide " Ethylene oxide inhibits growth of microorganisms (disinfectant properties) and when present in high concentrations, can completely destroy them. Ethylene oxide is used as a fumigant and disinfecting agent, as a mixture with carbon dioxide (8.5-80% of ethylene oxide), nitrogen or dichlorodifluoromethane (12% ethylene oxide). It is applied for gas-phase sterilization of medical equipment and instruments, packaging materials and clothing, surgical and scientific equipment.

BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Which suture RME does NOT get affected? a) frontomaxillary suture b) zygomaticomaxillary suture c) zygomaticotemporal suture d) premaxillary suture e) all of the above are NOT affected

E) ALL OF THE ABOVE SUTURES THAT ARE AFFECTED (FFIIMN) intermaxillary, internasal, maxillonasal, frontomaxillary, nasomaxillary, and frontonasal sutures SUTURES THAT ARE NOT AFFECTED (ZZPFrontozy) anything w zygomatic + pterygomaxillary frontozygomatic, zygomaticomaxillary, zygomaticotemporal, and pterygomaxillarysuture

BU BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Do early or late maturing children have a higher PHV?

Early u can see the rate of the early maturers (menarche 10-12 line) is GREATER, than the average or late maturers. Bc the late maturers have a longer duration of growth that's why there is not much diff in overall size

When you compare Elgiloy (Chromium Cobalt) with SS

Elgiloy strength and resilience improves/increases when you heat treat it (stiffness stays the same) "Profitt page 361 - see reference from Kusy article above

Endo teeth : have the (same/more/less) resoprtion

Endo teeth have LESS resorption

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Primary causes of all adaptive responses by the skeletal cell genome (based on functional matrix hypothesis) a. enviromental b. epigenetic c. genetic

Epigenetic Extraskeletal factors

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Is it true that bone growth at the mid-palatal suture causes primary bone displacement and is usually not the intramembranous type of bone formation T/T T/F F/T F/F

F/F ALL sutures are responsive, unless u get seperation there is NO bone growth the separation causes the tension, caused by the separation stimulates the bone growth it IS intramembanous bone there (not endochondral)

Historically, which if the best method to study growth changes: (growth CESSATION) vs growth changes in mandible a. Structural method (implants) b.Longitudinal method (serial cephs) c. Metric

Growth changes in mandible = structural method (implats) cessation --> b.Longitudinal method (serial cephs)(correct) "Profitt, pgs 144, 206, 216, 270 Major growth studies (Bolton-Brush, Ontario) etc have used serial cephs. p270 has strongest evidence for choice ""b"". Bjork ABO article #54 provides evidence for choice ""a"" Implants are good for measuring growth rotation. Serial cephs are good for growth changes." 1.Growth CESSATIONa.Serial cephs- 12 months apart 2.10 year longitudinal studya.Serial ceph 3.Mandibular rotations/structural methoda.Implant study 4.Growth POTENTIAL-HAND/WRIST

What appliance wouldn't be good for a deep bite:

HPHG

What appliance wouldn't be good for a deep bite?

HPHG

What is important to look at when restoring teeth with black triangles? a. Width b. Height c. Height/Width Ratio d. Mesiodistal Angulation

Height/Width ratio (correct)"

??Check about BMP Which cell mediators increase prostaglandin production (i.e. activate AA pathway)?

IL-1 and BMP "article ""Effect of Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs on Bone Healing,"" Cottrell; http://www.mdpi.com/1424-8247/3/5/1668/pdf: ""Zhang et al. found that bone marrow cell cultures from COX-2 knockout mice produced less osteoblasts than wild-type mice but that treatment with BMP-2 and prostaglandin E2 could reverse this effect [93]"" "

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: How does palate move down during growth?

Inferior drift due to modeling, but primarily due to displacement

BUQ: Steiner uses the Holdaway Ratio which is ....

L1/N-B : Pg/N-B (holdaway ratio) should be 1:1 distance bw the labial surface of the md incisor to the NB line and the distance from pogonion to NB line should be EQUAL (i.e. 4mm)

"Sx Scenerio: Mx and Md "mild to moderate" crowding", Md retrognathic with dental compensations. Which teeth do you extract? "

L4s (U5s only if max arch needs to be decompensated

"Arachadonic acid pathway produces? "

Leukotriene 6 know something about arachadonic acid

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: Room for the 6's how? Also, the 7's and 8's

Maxillary: tuberosity, Horizontal lengthening of the bony maxillary arch is produced by growth at the maxillary tuberosity, a major "site" of maxilla Mandible: resorption of the anterior ramus

BUQ BUSCHANG GROWTH Q: What happens during intramembranous bone formation?

Process of cellular growth that takes place on the bone surface by secretion of bone matrix directly within connective tissue, without any intermediate cartilage formation Intramembranous bone formation -Three processes least --> most mature woven - composite - lamellar Woven bone -develops directly in uncalcifiedconnective tissue. It is a preliminary type of ossification, haphazard organization of collagen fibers. Later replaced by lamellar bone Lamellar bone -only takes place in mineralized matrix. Osteoblasts form circles and intercellular substance forms around central vessel Bundle bone -bone into which fibers bundles are inserted. Found at insertions of ligaments and tendons (bone around the tooth)

"Anterior belly of digastrics is innervated by trigeminal. Posterior belly is innervated by facial nerve." T,T T,F F,T F,F

True, True. (correct) """Each digastric muscle has two bellies, joined by an intermediate tendon, that descends toward the hyoid. A fibrous sling derived from the pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia allows the tendon to anteriorly and posteriorly as it connects this tendon to the body and greater horn of the hyoid. The difference in nerve supply between the anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscles results from their different embryological origin from the 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches, respectively (Moore and Persaud, 2003). CN V supplies derivatives of the 1st arch, and CN VII supplies those of the 2nd arch."" (Moore, Keith L.. Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 5th Edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 052005. pp. 1066 - 1067)."

Downs Analysis used what point for superimposition?

a. Broadbent registration point (correct) R-point=intersection between the Bolton-nasion line and a perpendicular from sella

" Which bones have air in them?" "a. Ethmoid b. Temporal c. Sphenoid d. Frontal e. All of the above

e. All of the above (correct) " No reference

"A 21 YO female presents with complete absence of the clavicles, a narrow arched palate, and prolonged retention of the primary dentition. The most probable diagnosis is:" a. Osteopetrosis b. Achondroplasia c. Marfan's syndrome d. Pierre-Robin's syndrome e. Cleidocranial dysplasia

e. Cleidocranial dysplasia

of these 3 rank in order best to worst grafts? c. Bone from calvaria d. Bone from rib e. Bone from iliac

iliac > calvarium > rib

Severe root resorption is defined as exceeding ...

exceeding 4mm or 1/3 of original root length (seed in 1%-5% of teeth)