Acute exam 2 Neuro week 4&5 practice questions

The nurse assesses a client who has meningitis. Which sign(s) and symptom(s) would the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) a. Photophobia b. Decreased level of consciousness c. Severe headache d. Fever and chills e. Bradycardia

- Photophobia - Decreased level of consciousness - Severe headache - Fever and chills All of the choices except for bradycardia are key features of meningitis. Tachycardia is more likely than bradycardia due to the infectious process and fever

After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the his understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of his injury? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner." b. "I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury." c. "Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before." d. "I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection." e. "I should be able to have an erection with stimulation."

- "Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before." -."I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection." -"I should be able to have an erection with stimulation." Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the client's partner will not get an infection.

A nurse cares for older clients who have traumatic brain injury. What does the nurse understand about this population? (Select all that apply.) a. Admission can overwhelm the coping mechanisms for older clients. b. Alcohol is typically involved in most traumatic brain injuries for this age-group. c. These clients are more susceptible to systemic and wound infections. d. Other medical conditions can complicate treatment for these clients. e. Very few traumatic brain injuries occur in this age-group.

- Admission can overwhelm the coping mechanisms for older clients - These clients are more susceptible to systemic and wound infections. - Other medical conditions can complicate treatment for these clients.

Based on the known risk factors for stroke, which health promotion practices would the nurse teach a client to promote heart health and prevent strokes? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure control b. Aspirin use c. Smoking cessation d. Low carbohydrate diet e. Cholesterol management f. Increased red wine consumption

- Blood pressure control -Aspirin use - smoking cessation - cholesterol management The evidence-based health promotion practices include blood pressure control, aspirin use, smoking cessation, and cholesterol management. There is no consensus on which diet is best to promote heart health and red wine does not protect the heart or prevent strokes

A client is admitted with a confirmed left middle cerebral artery occlusion. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Ataxia b. Dysphagia c. Aphasia d. Apraxia e. Hemiparesis/hemiplegia f. Ptosis

- Dysphagia - Aphasia - Apraxia - Hemiparesis/hemiplegia - Ptosis All of these assessment findings are common in clients who have a stroke caused by an occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery with the exception of ataxia (most often present in clients who have cerebellar strokes). This artery supplies the majority of the left side of the brain where motor, sensory, speech, and language centers are located.

A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which assessment findings would the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation

- Heart rate of 34 beats/min - Urine output less than 30 mL/hr - Decreased level of consciousness Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from the implantation of a vagal nerve-stimulation device. For which signs and symptoms would the nurse assess as common complications of this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Bleeding b. Infection c. Hoarseness d. Dysphagia e. Seizures

- Hoarseness - Dysphagia Complications of surgery to implant a vagal nerve-stimulation device include hoarseness (most common), dyspnea, neck pain, and dysphagia. The device is tunneled under the skin with an electrode connected to the vagus nerve to control simple or complex partial seizures. Bleeding is not a common complication of this procedure, and infection would not occur during the recovery period.

The nurse is caring for a client with increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) following a stroke. Which evidence-based nursing actions are indicated for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyperoxygenate the client before and after suctioning. b. Avoid sudden or extreme hip or neck flexion. c. Provide oxygen to maintain an SaO2 of 95% or greater. d. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times. e. Avoid clustering care nursing activities and procedures. f. Provide environmental stimulation to improve cognition.

- Hyperoxygenate the client before and after suctioning. - Avoid sudden or extreme hip or neck flexion. -Provide oxygen to maintain an SaO2 of 95% or greater -Avoid clustering care nursing activities and procedures. These precautions help prevent further increases in ICP. Clustering nursing activities and procedures and providing stimulation can increase ICP and should be avoided

A nurse is discharging a client from the emergency department who has a mild traumatic brain injury. What information obtained from the client represents a possible barrier to self-management? (Select all that apply.) a. Does not want to purchase a thermometer. b. Is allergic to acetaminophen. c. Laughing, says "Strenuous? What's that?" d. Lives alone and is new in town with no friends. e. Plans to have a beer and go to bed once home.

- Is allergic to acetaminophen. - Lives alone and is new in town with no friends. -Plans to have a beer and go to bed once home. Clients who have mild traumatic brain injuries should take acetaminophen for headache. An allergy to this drug may mean that the patient takes aspirin or ibuprofen, which should be avoided. The patient needs neurologic checks every 1 to 2 hours, and this client does not seem to have anyone available who can do that. Alcohol needs to be avoided for at least 24 hours. A thermometer is not needed. The patient laughing at strenuous activity probably does not engage in any kind of strenuous activity, but the nurse should confirm this.

A nurse assesses cerebrospinal fluid leaking onto a client's surgical dressing. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Place the client in a flat position. b. Monitor vital signs for hypotension. c. Utilize a bedside commode. d. Assess for abdominal distension. e. Report the leak to the surgeon.

- Place the client in a flat position. - Report the leak to the surgeon. If cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is leaking from a surgical wound, the nurse would place the client in a flat position and contact the surgeon for repair of the leak. Hypotension and abdominal distension are not complications of CSF leakage.

The nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which clients would the nurse identify as at risk for secondary seizures? (Select all that apply.) a. A 26-year-old woman with a left temporal brain tumor b. A 38-year-old male client in an alcohol withdrawal program c. A 42-year-old football player with a traumatic brain injury d. A 66-year-old female client with multiple sclerosis e. A 72-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

-. A 26-year-old woman with a left temporal brain tumor - A 38-year-old male client in an alcohol withdrawal program - A 42-year-old football player with a traumatic brain injury Clients at risk for secondary seizures include those with a brain lesion from a tumor or trauma, and those who are experiencing a metabolic disorder, acute alcohol withdrawal, electrolyte disturbances, and high fever. Clients with a history of stroke, heart disease, and substance abuse are also at risk. Clients with multiple sclerosis or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are not at risk for secondary seizures

A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Remove the vest for client bathing. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the patient's oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown.

-Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. -Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown. The nurse would assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins. The nurse would also assess the client's chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest. The vest is not removed for bathing and the pins are not intentionally loosened.

The nurse assesses a client who has Parkinson disease. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse recognize as a key feature of this disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Flexed trunk b. Long, extended steps c. Slow movements d. Uncontrolled drooling e. Tachycardia

-Flexed trunk -slow movements -uncontrolled drooling Key features of Parkinson disease include a flexed trunk, slow and hesitant steps, bradykinesia, and uncontrolled drooling. Tachycardia is not a key feature of this disease.

A nurse assesses a client with a brain tumor. Which newly identified assessment findings would alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 b. Decerebrate posturing c. Reactive pupils d. Uninhibited speech e. Decreasing level of consciousness

-Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 - Decerebrate posturing -Decreasing level of consciousness The nurse would urgently communicate changes in a patient's neurologic status, including a decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale score; abnormal flexion or extension; changes in cognition or level of consciousness; and pinpointed, dilated, and nonreactive pupils.

The nurse plans care for a client with epilepsy who is admitted to the hospital. Which interventions would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all thatapply.) a. Have suction equipment with an airway at the bedside. b. Place a padded tongue blade at the bedside. c. Permit only clear oral fluids. d. Have oxygen administration set at the bedside. e. Maintain the client on strict bedrest. f. Ensure that the client has IV access.

-Have suction equipment with an airway at the bedside. -Have oxygen administration set at the bedside. - Ensure that the client has IV access Oxygen and suctioning equipment with an airway must be readily available. If the client does not have an IV access, insert a saline lock, especially for those clients who are at significant risk for generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The saline lock provides ready access if IV drug therapy must be given to stop the seizure. Padded tongue blades may pose a danger to the client or nurse during a seizure and would not be used. Dietary restrictions and strict bedrest are not interventions associated with epilepsy

The nurse would recognize which signs and symptoms as consistent with brainstem tumors? (Select all that apply.) a. Hearing loss b. Facial pain c. Nystagmus d. Vomiting e. Hemiparesis

-Hearing loss - Facial pain - Nystagmus Hearing loss (CN VIII), facial pain (CN V), and nystagmus (CN III, IV, and VI) all are indicative of a brainstem tumor because these cranial nerves originate in the brainstem. Vomiting and hemiparesis are more indicative of cerebral tumors.

An 84-year-old client who is usually alert and oriented experiences an acute cognitive decline. Which of the following factors would the nurse anticipate as contributing to this neurologic change? (Select all that apply.) a. Chronic hearing loss b. Infection c. Drug toxicity d. Dementia e. Hypoxia f. Aging

-Infection -Drug toxicity - Dementia Acute client conditions that occur in older adults often cause acute confusion and associated emotional behaviors. Infection, drug toxicity, and hypoxia are all acute health problems that can contribute to the client's cognitive decline. Aging does not cause changes in cognition. If the client had dementia, he or she would not be alert and oriented. Having a chronic hearing loss is not a change in the client's condition.

A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the client's hips and sacrum. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Reposition the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair several times a day. e. Apply a pressure-reducing mattress.

-Reposition the client off of the reddened areas. -Apply a pressure-reducing mattress.

The nurse assesses a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) for signs and symptoms consistent with this injury. What signs and symptoms does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Sensitivity to light and sound b. Reports "feeling foggy" c. Unconscious for an hour after injury d. Elevated temperature e. Widened pulse pressure

-Sensitivity to light and sound - Reports "feeling foggy" A mild TBI would possibly lead to sensitivity to light and sound and a feeling of mental fogginess. The patient would have been unconscious for less than 30 minutes. An elevated temperature is not related. A widened pulse pressure is indicative of increased intracranial pressure, not a mild TBI.

A nurse assesses an older client. Which assessment findings would the nurse identify as normal changes in the nervous system related to aging? (Select all that apply.) a. Long-term memory loss b. Slower processing time c. Increased sensory perception d. Decreased risk for infection e. Change in sleep patterns

-Slower processing time -Change in sleep patterns Normal changes in the nervous system related to aging include recent memory loss, slower processing time, decreased sensory perception, an increased risk for infection, changes in sleep patterns, changes in perception of pain, and altered balance and/or decreased coordination.

A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data would the nurse obtain to assess the client's coping strategies? (Select all that apply.) a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies

-Spiritual beliefs -Family support -Level of independence -Previous coping strategies Information about the client's preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments would be obtained. Determine the client's level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the client's spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping

A nurse prepares to provide perineal care to a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which personal protective equipment would the nurse wear? (Select all that apply.) a. Particulate respirator b. Isolation gown c. Shoe covers d. Surgical mask e. Gloves

-Surgical mask -Gloves Meningococcal meningitis is spread via saliva and droplets, and Droplet Precautions are necessary. Caregivers would wear a surgical mask when within 6 feet (1.8 m) of the client and would continue to use Standard Precautions, including gloves. A particulate respirator, an isolation gown, and shoe covers are not necessary for Droplet Precautions.

A client has a brain tumor and is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The spouse questions the use of the drug, saying that the client does not have a seizure disorder. What response by the nurse is correct? a. "Increased pressure from the tumor can cause seizures." b. "Preventing febrile seizures with a tumor is important." c. "Seizures always occur in clients with brain tumors." d. "This drug is used to sedate with a brain tumor."

a Brain tumors can lead to seizures as a complication. The nurse would explain this to the spouse. Preventing febrile seizures is not related to a tumor. Seizures are possible but do not always occur in clients with brain tumors. This drug is not used for sedation.

A nurse assesses a client who has a nasal fracture. The client reports constant nasal drainage, a headache, and difficulty with vision. What action would the nurse take next? a. Collect the nasal drainage on a piece of filter paper. b. Encourage the client to blow his or her nose. c. Perform a test focused on a neurologic examination. d. Palpate the nose, face, and neck.

a The client with nasal drainage after facial trauma could have a skull fracture resulting in leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). CSF can be differentiated from regular drainage by the fact that it forms a halo when dripped on filter paper and tests positive for glucose. The other actions would be appropriate but are not as high a priority as assessing for CSF. A CSF leak would increase the patient's risk for infection.

A client is in the clinic for a follow-up visit after a moderate traumatic brain injury. The patient's spouse is very frustrated, stating that the patient's personality has changed and the situation is very difficult. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Explain that personality changes are common following brain injuries. b. Ask the client why he or she is acting out and behaving differently. c. Refer the client and spouse to a head injury support group. d. Tell the spouse that this is expected and he or she will have to learn to cope.

a Personality and behavior often change permanently after head injury. The nurse will explain this to the spouse. Asking the client about his or her behavior isn't useful because the patient probably cannot help it. A referral might be a good idea, but the nurse needs to do something in addition to just referring the couple. Telling the spouse to learn to cope belittles his or her concerns and feelings

A nurse prepares a client for lumbar puncture (LP). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to contact the primary health care provider? a. Shingles infection on the client's back b. Client is claustrophobic c. Absence of intravenous access d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

a An LP would not be performed if the client has a skin infection at or near the puncture site because of the risk of cerebrospinal fluid infection. A nurse would want to notify the primary health care provider if shingles were identified on the client's back. If a client has shortness of breath when lying flat, the LP can be adapted to meet the client's needs. Claustrophobia, absence of IV access, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea have no impact on whether an LP can be performed.

A male client was admitted with a left-sided stroke this morning. The assistive personnel asks about meeting the client's nutritional needs. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "He is NPO until the speech-language pathologist performs a swallowing evaluation." b. "You may give him a full-liquid diet, but please avoid solid foods until he gets stronger." c. "Just be sure to add some thickener in his liquids to prevent choking and aspiration." d. "Be sure to sit him up when you are feeding him to make him feel morenatural."

a Any client who has or is suspected of having a stroke should have nothing by mouth until he or she is evaluated for any swallowing problem by the speech-language pathologist (SLP). If dysphagia is present, the SLP makes specific recommendations for the client's plan of care which all staff members must follow to prevent choking and aspiration/aspiration pneumonia.

A nurse obtains a focused health history for a client who is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which question would the nurse ask? a. "Do you live in a crowded residence?" b. "When was your last tetanus vaccination?" c. "Have you had any viral infections recently?" d. "Have you traveled out of the country in the last month?"

a Bacterial meningitis tends to occur in multiple outbreaks. It is most likely to occur in areas of high-density population, such as college dormitories, prisons, and military barracks. A tetanus vaccination would not place the client at increased risk for meningitis or protect the client from meningitis. A viral infection would not lead to bacterial meningitis but could lead to viral meningitis. Simply knowing if the client traveled out of the country does not provide enough information

A nurse assesses a client recovering from a cerebral angiography via the right femoral artery. Which assessment would the nurse complete? a. Palpate bilateral lower extremity pulses. b. Obtain orthostatic blood pressure readings. c. Perform a funduscopic examination. d. Assess the gag reflex prior to eating.

a Cerebral angiography is performed by threading a catheter through the femoral or brachial artery. The extremity is kept immobilized after the procedure. The nurse checks the extremity for adequate circulation by noting skin color and temperature, presence and quality of pulses distal to the injection site, and capillary refill. Clients usually are on bedrest; therefore, orthostatic blood pressure readings cannot be performed. The funduscopic (eye) examination would not be affected by cerebral angiography. The client is not given general anesthesia; therefore, the client's gag reflex would not be compromised.

A nurse teaches assistive personnel (AP) about how to care for a client with Parkinson disease. Which statement would the nurse include as part of this teaching? a. "Allow the client to be as independent as possible with activities." b. "Assist the client with frequent and meticulous oral care." c. "Assess the client's ability to eat and swallow before each meal." d. "Schedule appointments early in the morning to ensure rest in the afternoon."

a Clients with Parkinson disease do not move as quickly and can have functional problems. The client would be encouraged to be as independent as possible and provided time to perform activities without rushing. Although oral care is important for all clients, instructing the UAP to provide frequent and meticulous oral is not a priority for this client. This statement would be a priority if the client was immune-compromised or NPO. The nurse would assess the client's ability to eat and swallow; this would not be delegated. Appointments and activities would not be scheduled early in the morning because this may cause the client to be rushed and discourage the client from wanting to participate in activities of daily living.

The nurse is teaching a family caregiver about how best to communicate with the client who has been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease. Which statement by the caregiver indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will avoid communicating with the client to prevent agitation." b. "I should use simple, short sentences and one-step instructions." c. "I can try to use gestures or pictures to communicate with the client." d. "I will limit the number of choices I provide for the client."

a Communication with the client is important to provide cognitive stimulation. Using short simple sentences, using gestures and pictures, and limiting choices provided for the client will help promote communication

A client who had therapeutic hypothermia after a traumatic brain injury is slowly rewarmed to a normal core temperature. For which assessment finding would the nurse monitor during the rewarming process? a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. Loss of consciousness c. Nausea and vomiting d. Fever

a Due to fluid and electrolyte changes that typically occur during the rewarming process, the nurse monitors for cardiac dysrhythmias. The other findings are not common during this process

The nurse is caring for a 60-year-old female client who sustained a thoracic spinal cord injury 10 years ago. For which potential complication will the nurse assess during this client's care? a. Fracture b. Malabsorption c. Delirium d. Anemia

a Older adults who have impaired mobility due to a health problem or injury are at risk for complications of immobility, such as osteoporosis (bone loss) which leads to fracture. Being an older woman increases that risk due to loss of estrogen to protect bone loss. The other choices are not problems of immobility. Delirium is possible but is more common in clients over 70 years of age

A client is admitted with a sudden decline in level of consciousness. What is the nursing action at this time? a. Assess the client for hypoglycemia and hypoxia. b. Place the client on his or her side. c. Prepare for administration of a fibrinolytic agent. d. Start a continuous IV heparin sodium infusion

a The cause of a sudden decline in level of consciousness may or may not be related to a neurologic health problem. Therefore, the client must be evaluated for other common causes, especially hypoglycemia and hypoxia. Placing the client on his or her side may be helpful to prevent aspiration in case the client experiences vomiting, but the clinical situation does not indicate that the client has nausea or vomiting. Administering either an anticoagulant like heparin or a fibrinolytic agent assumes that the client has an acute ischemic stroke, which has not been confirmed through imaging tests

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of cerebellar stroke. What intervention is most appropriate to include on the client's plan of care? a. Ambulate only with a gait belt. b. Encourage double swallowing. c. Monitor lung sounds after eating. d. Perform post void residuals.

a The client who has a cerebellar stroke would be expected to have ataxia, an abnormal gait. For the client's safety, he or she should have assistance and use a gait belt when ambulating. Ataxia is not related to swallowing, aspiration, or voiding

After teaching a client with a high thoracic spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. "I'll use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while I'm awake." b. "I'll drink thinned fluids to prevent choking." c. "I'll take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing." d. "I'll position myself on my right side so I don't aspirate."

a The client with a cervical or high thoracic spinal cord injury typically has weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and helps prevent atelectasis and other respiratory problems. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client would be encouraged to cough and clear secretions, and placed in high-Fowler position to prevent aspiration.

The nurse observes a client with late-stage Alzheimer disease eat breakfast. Afterward the client states, "I am hungry and want breakfast." What is the nurse's best response? a. "I see you are still hungry. I will get you some toast." b. "You ate your breakfast 30 minutes ago." c. "It appears you are confused this morning." d. "Your family will be here soon. Let's get you dressed."

a Use of validation therapy with clients who have late-stage Alzheimer disease involves acknowledgment of the client's feelings and concerns. This technique has proved more effective in later stages of the disease because reality orientation only increases agitation. The other statements do not validate the client's concerns.

A nurse is providing community screening for risk factors associated with stroke. Which person would the nurse identify as being at the highest risk for a stroke? a. A 27-year-old heavy-cocaine user. b. A 30-year-old who drinks a beer a day. c. A 40-year-old who uses seasonal antihistamines. d. A 65-year-old who is active and on no medications.

a Heavy drug use, particularly cocaine, is a risk factor for stroke. Heavy alcohol use is also a risk factor, but one beer a day is not considered heavy drinking. Antihistamines may contain phenylpropanolamine, which also increases the risk for stroke, but this person uses them seasonally and there is no information that they are abused or used heavily. The 65 year old has only age as a risk factor

The nurse is preparing for discharge of a client who had a carotid artery angioplasty with stenting to prevent a stroke. For which signs and symptoms with the nurse teach the family to report to the primary health care provider immediately? (Select all that apply.) a. Muscle weakness b. Hoarseness c. Acute confusion d. Mild neck discomfort e. Severe headache f. Dysphagia

all of the above Muscle weakness, acute confusion, severe headache, and dysphagia are all signs and symptoms that could indicate that a stroke occurred. Hoarseness and severe neck pain and swelling may occur as a result of the interventional radiologic procedure

The nurse is assessing a client who has symptoms of stroke. What are the leading causes of a stroke for which the nurse would assess for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Heavy alcohol intake b. Diabetes mellitus c. Elevated cholesterol d. Obesity e. Smoking f. Hypertension

all of the above The leading causes of stroke include all of these factors.

A nurse is caring for a group of stroke patients. Which clients would the nurse consider referring to a mental health provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Female client who exhibits extreme emotional lability b. Male client with an initial National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale score of 38 c. Female client with mild forgetfulness and a history of depression d. Male client who has a past hospitalization for a suicide attempt e. Male client who is unable to walk or eat 3 weeks poststroke

all of the above Patients most at risk for poststroke depression are those with a previous history of depression, severe stroke (NIH Stroke Scale score of 38 is severe), and poststroke physical or cognitive impairment.

When assessing a client who had a traumatic brain injury, the nurse notes that the client is drowsy but easily aroused. What level of consciousness will the nurse document to describe this client's current level of consciousness? a. Alert b. Lethargic c. Stuporous d. Comatose

b The client is categorized as being lethargic because he or she can be easily aroused even though drowsy. The nurse would carefully monitor the client to determine any decrease in the level of consciousness (LOC).

A client who had a complete spinal cord injury at level L5-S1 is admitted with a sacral pressure injury. What other assessment finding will the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Quadriplegia b. Flaccid bowel c. Spastic bladder d. Tetraparesis

b A low-level complete spinal cord injury (SCI) is a lower motor neuron injury because the reflect arc is damaged. Therefore, the client would be expected to have paraplegia and a flaccid bowel and bladder. Quadriplegia and tetraparesis are seen in clients with cervical or high thoracic SCIs.

A client is receiving IV alteplase and reports a sudden severe headache. What is the nurse's first action? a. Perform a comprehensive pain assessment. b. Discontinue the infusion of the drug. c. Conduct a neurologic assessment. d. Administer an antihypertensive drug

b A severe headache may indicate that the client's blood pressure has markedly increased and, therefore, the drug should be stopped immediately as the first action. The nurse would then perform the appropriate assessments and possibly administer an antihypertensive medication.

The nurse cares for a client with middle-stage (moderate) Alzheimer disease. The client's caregiver states, "She is always wandering off. What can I do to manage this restless behavior?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "This is a sign of fatigue. The client would benefit from a daily nap." b. "Engage the client in scheduled activities throughout the day." c. "It sounds like this is difficult for you. I will consult the social worker." d. "The provider can prescribe a mild sedative for restlessness."

b Several strategies may be used to cope with restlessness and wandering. One strategy is to engage the client in structured activities. Another is to take the client for frequent walks. Daily naps and a mild sedative will not be as effective in the management of restless behavior. Consulting the social worker does not address the caregiver's concern

A client with early-stage Alzheimer disease is admitted to the hospital with chest pain. Which nursing action is most appropriate to manage this client's dementia? a. Provide animal-assisted therapy as needed. b. Ensure a structured and consistent environment. c. Assist the client with activities of daily living (ADLs). d. Use validation therapy when communicating with the client.

b The client who has early Alzheimer disease (AD) does not require assistance with ADLs or validation therapy. While animal-assisted therapy may be helpful, some health care agencies do not allow this intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to provide a structured and consistent environment while the client is hospitalized to prevent worsening of the client's symptoms.

The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about care for a male client diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke and left-sided weakness. Which statement by the AP indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching? a. "I will use "yes" and "no" questions when communicating with the client." b. "I will remind the client frequently to not get out of bed without help." c. "I will offer a urinal every hour to the client due to incontinence." d. "I will feed the client slowly using soft or pureed foods."

b The client who has left-sided weakness has likely had a right-sided stroke in the brain. Clients who have strokes on the right side of the brain tend to be very impulsive and exhibit poor judgment. Therefore, to keep the client safe, the staff will need to remind the client to stay in bed unless he has assistance to prevent falling. There is no evidence in the clinical situation that the client has aphasia (which is less common in those with right-sided strokes), difficulty swallowing, or urinary incontinence

A nurse assesses a patient who is recovering from a lumbar puncture (LP). Which complication of this procedure would alert the nurse to urgently contact the primary health care provider? a. Weak pedal pulses b. Nausea and vomiting c. Increased thirst d. Hives on the chest

b The nurse would immediately contact the provider if the client experiences a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, photophobia, or a change in level of consciousness after an LP, which are all signs of increased intracranial pressure. Weak pedal pulses, increased thirst, and hives are not complications of an LP.

A client is in the emergency department reporting a brief episode during which he was dizzy, unable to speak, and felt numbness in his left leg. Currently the client's neurologic examination is normal. About what drug would the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. Alteplase b. Clopidogrel c. Heparin sodium d. Mannitol

b This client's signs and symptoms are consistent with a transient ischemic attack, and the client would likely be prescribed aspirin or clopidogrel to prevent platelet aggregation on discharge. Alteplase is used for ischemic stroke. Heparin and mannitol are not used for this condition

A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which prescribed medication would the nurse anticipate to prepare for administration? a. Atenolol b. Lorazepam c. Phenytoin d. Lisinopril

b Initially, intravenous lorazepam or diazepam is administered to stop motor movements. This is followed by the administration of phenytoin. Atenolol, a beta blocker, and lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, are not administered for seizure activity. These drugs are typically administered for hypertension and heart failure.

A nurse assesses a client with a brain tumor. The client opens his eyes when the nurse calls his name, mumbles in response to questions, and follows simple commands. How would the nurse document this client's assessment using the Glasgow Coma Scale shown below? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14

c The client opens his eyes to speech (Eye Opening: To sound = 3), mumbles in response to questions (Verbal Response: Inappropriate words = 3), and follows simple commands (Motor Response: Obeys commands = 6). Therefore, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 3 + 3 + 6 = 12.

The nurse is teaching a group of college students about the importance of preventing meningitis. Which health promotion activity is the most appropriate for preventing this disease? a. Eating a well-balanced diet that is high in protein b. Having an annual physical examination c. Obtaining the recommended meningitis vaccination and boosters d. Identifying signs and symptoms for early treatment

c CDC-recommended vaccinations and boosters are available for prevention of a number of diseases including meningococcal meningitis. While the other activities are appropriate for general health promotion, they are not specific to meningitis prevention

The nurse is teaching the daughter of a client who has middle-stage Alzheimer disease. The daughter asks, "Will the sertraline my mother is taking improve her dementia?" How would the nurse respond about the purpose of the drug? a. "It will allow your mother to live independently for several more years." b. "It is used to halt the advancement of Alzheimer disease but will not cure it." c. "It will not improve her dementia but can help control emotional responses." d. "It is used to improve short-term memory but will not improve problemsolving."

c Drug therapy is not effective for treating dementia or halting the advancement of Alzheimer disease. However, certain psychoactive drugs may help suppress emotional disturbances and manage depression, psychoses, or anxiety. Drug therapy will not allow the client with middle-stage dementia to safely live independently.

A client experiences impaired swallowing after a stroke and has worked with speech- language pathology on eating. What nursing assessment best indicates that the expected outcome for this problem has been met? a. Chooses preferred items from the menu. b. Eats 75 to 100% of all meals and snacks. c. Has clear lung sounds on auscultation. d. Gains 2 lb (1 kg) after 1 week.

c Impaired swallowing can lead to aspiration and then aspiration pneumonia, so the expected outcome for this problem is to experience no aspiration. Clear lung sounds is the best indicator that aspiration has not occurred. Choosing menu items is not related to this problem. Eating meals does not indicate that the client is not still aspirating. A weight gain indicates improved nutrition but still does not show a lack of aspiration.

The nurse teaches an 80-year-old client with diminished peripheral sensation. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Place soft rugs in your bathroom to decrease pain in your feet." b. "Bathe in warm water to increase your circulation." c. "Look at the placement of your feet when walking." d. "Walk barefoot to decrease pressure injuries from your shoes."

c Older clients with decreased sensation are at risk of injury from the inability to sense changes in terrain when walking. To compensate for this loss, the client is instructed to look at the placement of his or her feet when walking. Throw rugs can slip and increase fall risk. Bath water that is too warm places the client at risk for thermal injury.

A client is admitted with a traumatic brain injury. What is the nurse's priority assessment? a. Complete neurologic assessment b. Comprehensive pain assessment c. Airway and breathing assessment d. Functional assessment

c Although the client has a brain injury, the most important assessment is to assess the client's ABCs, which includes airway, breathing, and circulation. The other assessments are performed later after the client is stabilized.

The nurse teaches assistive personnel (AP) about how to care for a client with early-stage Alzheimer disease. Which statement would the nurse include? a. "If she is confused, play along and pretend that everything is okay." b. "Remove the clock from her room so that she doesn't get confused." c. "Reorient the client to the day, time, and environment with each contact." d. "Use validation therapy to recognize and acknowledge the client's concerns

c Clients who have early-stage Alzheimer disease would be reoriented frequently to person, place, and time. The AP would reorient the client and not encourage the client's delusions. The room would have a clock and white board with the current date written on it. Validation therapy is used with late-stage Alzheimer disease

A nurse plans care for a 77-year-old client who is experiencing age-related peripheral sensory perception changes. Which intervention would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Provide a call button that requires only minimal pressure to activate. b. Write the date on the client's white board to promote orientation. c. Ensure that the path to the bathroom is free from clutter. d. Encourage the client to season food to stimulate nutritional intake.

c Dementia and confusion are not common phenomena in older adults. However, physical impairment related to illness can be expected. Providing opportunities for hazard-free ambulation will maintain strength and mobility (and ensure safety). Providing a call button, providing the date, and seasoning food do not address the client's impaired sensory perception.

A client who is experiencing a traumatic brain injury has increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). What drug will the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for this client? a. Phenytoin b. Lorazepam c. Mannitol d. Morphine

c Increased intracranial pressure is often the result of cerebral edema as a result of traumatic brain injury. Therefore, as osmotic diuretic such as mannitol or a loop diuretic like furosemide is administered. The other drugs are not appropriate to manage increasing ICP.

A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, "I don't understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better." How would the nurse respond? a. "If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, I'll let your primary health care provider know." b. "Rehabilitation programs have helped many patients with your injury. You should give it a chance." c. "The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability." d. "When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first."

c Participation in rehabilitation programs has many purposes, including prevention of disability, maintenance of functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this client's needs.

A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The client's blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. After raising the head of the bed, what action would the nurse take next? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Recheck the client's blood pressure. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker.

c The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury such as s stroke. The other actions are not appropriate for this complication.

The nurse is preparing a client for discharge from the emergency department after experiencing a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Before discharge, which factor would the nurse identify as placing the client at high risk for a stroke? a. Age greater than or equal to 75 b. Blood pressure greater than or equal to 160/95 c. Unilateral weakness during a TIA d. TIA symptoms lasting less than a minute

c The client who has a TIA is at risk for a stroke is he or she has one-sided (unilateral) weakness during a TIA. Risk factors also include an age greater than or equal to 60, blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 (either or both systolic and diastolic), and/or a long duration of TIA symptoms. One minute is not a very long time for symptoms to occur.

The nurse witnesses a client begin to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of consciousness. What action would the nurse take first? a. Start fluids via a large-bore catheter. b. Administer IV push diazepam. c. Turn the client's head to the side. d. Prepare to intubate the client.

c The nurse would turn the client's head to the side to prevent aspiration and allow drainage of secretions. Anticonvulsants are administered on a routine basis if a seizure is sustained. If the seizure is sustained (status epilepticus), the client must be intubated and would be administered oxygen, 0.9% sodium chloride, and IV push lorazepam or diazepam

A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interprofessional health team member would the nurse collaborate to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager

c The occupational therapist instructs the patient in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with other issues.

A nurse asks a client to take deep breaths during an electroencephalography. The client asks, "Why are you asking me to do this?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Hyperventilation causes vascular dilation of cerebral arteries, which decreases electoral activity in the brain." b. "Deep breathing helps you to relax and allows the electroencephalograph to obtain a better waveform." c. "Hyperventilation causes cerebral vasoconstriction and increases the likelihood of seizure activity." d. "Deep breathing will help you to blow off carbon dioxide and decreases intracranial pressures."

c Hyperventilation produces cerebral vasoconstriction and alkalosis, which increase the likelihood of seizure activity. The client is asked to breathe deeply 20 times for 3 minutes. The other responses are not accurate

The nurse is collaborating with the occupational therapist to assist a client with a complete cervical spinal cord injury to transfer from the bed to the wheelchair. What ambulatory aid would be most appropriate for the client to meet this outcome? a. Rolling walker b. Quad cane c. Adjustable crutches d. Sliding board

d A client who has a complete cervical spinal cord injury is unable to use any extremity except for parts of the hands and possibly the lower arms. Therefore, the client would be unable to use any of these ambulatory aids except for a sliding board, also known as a slider, which provides a "bridge" between the bed and a chair. The client uses his or her arms in a locked position to support the body while moving slowly across the board.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a probable traumatic brain injury. Which assessment finding would be the priority for the nurse to report to the primary health care provider? a. Mild temporal headache b. Pupils equal and react to light c. Alert and oriented x 3 d. Decreasing level of consciousness

d A decreasing level of consciousness is the first sign of increasing intracranial pressure, a potentially severe and possibly fatal complication of a traumatic brain injury (TBI). A mild headache would be expected for a client having a TBI. Equal reactive pupils and being alert and oriented are normal assessment findings.

After teaching the wife of a client who has Parkinson disease, the nurse assesses the wife's understanding. Which statement by the client's wife indicates that she correctly understands changes associated with this disease? a. "His masklike face makes it difficult to communicate, so I will use a whiteboard." b. "He should not socialize outside of the house due to uncontrollable drooling." c. "This disease is associated with anxiety causing increased perspiration." d. "He may have trouble chewing, so I will offer bite-sized portions."

d Because chewing and swallowing can be problematic, small frequent meals and a supplement are better for meeting the client's nutritional needs. A masklike face and drooling are common in clients with Parkinson disease. The client would be encouraged to continue to socialize and communicate as normally as possible. The wife should understand that the client's masklike face can be misinterpreted and additional time may be needed for the client to communicate with her or others. Excessive perspiration is also common in clients with Parkinson disease and is associated with the autonomic nervous system's response

The nurse plans care for a client with Parkinson disease. Which intervention would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Restrain the client to prevent falling. b. Ensure that the client uses incentive spirometry. c. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques. d. Keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees or greater

d Elevation of the head of the bed will help prevent aspiration. The other options will not prevent aspiration, which is the greatest respiratory complication of Parkinson disease, nor do these interventions address any of the complications of Parkinson disease. Pursed-lip breathing increases exhalation of carbon dioxide; incentive spirometry expands the lungs. The client should not be restrained to prevent falls. Other less restrictive interventions should be used to maintain client safety

The nurse assesses a client with a history of epilepsy who experiences stiffening of the muscles of the arms and legs, followed by an immediate loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities. How would the nurse document this type of seizure? a. Atonic b. Myoclonic c. Absence d. Tonic-clonic

d Seizure activity that begins with stiffening of the arms and legs, followed by loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities, is characteristic of a tonic-clonic seizure. An atonic seizure presents as a sudden loss of muscle tone followed by postictal confusion. A myoclonic seizure presents with a brief jerking or stiffening of extremities that may occur singly or in groups. Absence seizures present with automatisms, and the client is unaware of his or her environment.

The nurse is caring for four clients with traumatic brain injuries. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client with amnesia for the incident b. Client who has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 c. Client with a PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg and on a ventilator d. Client who has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C)

d A fever is a poor prognostic indicator in patients with brain injuries. The nurse should see this client first. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12, a PaCO2 of 36, and amnesia for the incident are all either expected or positive findings

The nurse is preparing to administer IV alteplase for a client diagnosed with an acute ischemic stroke. Which statement is correct about the administration of this drug? a. The recommended time for drug administration is within 90 minutes after admission to the emergency department. b. The drug is given in a bolus over the first 3 minutes followed by a continuous infusion. c. The maximum dosage of the drug, including the bolus, is 120 mg intravenously. d. The drug is not given to clients who are already on anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy.

d Alteplase is a thrombolytic which dissolves clots and can cause bleeding as an adverse effect. Clients who are already taking an anticoagulant or antiplatelet agent are at risk for bleeding and therefore they are not candidates for alteplase therapy.

A client diagnosed with Parkinson disease will be starting ropinirole for symptom control. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "This drug should help decrease my tremors and help me move better." b. "I need to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness or falls." c. "I should take the drug at the same time each day for the best effect." d. "I know the drug will probably make help me prevent constipation."

d Although ropinirole is a dopamine agonist and mimics dopamine to promote movement, it does not work to prevent constipation. This class of drugs can cause orthostatic hypotension and should be taken at the same time every day

The nurse prepares to discharge a client with early to moderate Alzheimer disease. Which statement to maintain client safety would the nurse include in the discharge teaching for the caregiver? a. "Provide periods of exercise and rest for the client." b. "Place a padded throw rug at the bedside." c. "Provide a highly stimulating environment." d. "Install safety locks on all outside doors."

d Clients with early to moderate Alzheimer disease have a tendency to wander, especially at night. If possible, alarms would be installed on all outside doors to alert family members if the client leaves. At a minimum, all outside doors should have safety locks installed to prevent the client from going outdoors unsupervised. The client would be allowed to exercise within his or her limits, but this action does not ensure his or her safety. Throw rugs are a slip and fall hazard and would be removed. A highly stimulating environment would likely increase the client's confusion.

After teaching a client who is diagnosed with new-onset epilepsy and prescribed phenytoin, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "To prevent complications, I will drink at least 2 L of water daily." b. "This medication will stop me from getting an aura before a seizure." c. "I will not drive a motor vehicle while taking this medication." d. "Even when my seizures stop, I will continue to take this drug."

d Discontinuing antiepileptic drugs can lead to the recurrence of seizures or status epilepticus. The client does not need to drink more water and can drive while taking this medication. The drug will not stop an aura before a seizure

The primary health care provider prescribes donepezil for a client diagnosed with early-stage Alzheimer disease. What teaching about this drug will the nurse provide for the client's family caregiver? a. "Monitor the client's temperature because the drug can cause a low grade fever." b. "Observe the client for nausea and vomiting to determine drug tolerance." c. "Donepezil will prevent the client's dementia from progressing asusual." d. "Report any client dizziness or falls because the drug can cause bradycardia."

d Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor that may temporarily slow cognitive decline for some clients but does not alter the course of the disease. The family caregiver would want to monitor the client's heart rate and report any incidence of dizziness or falls because the drug can cause bradycardia. It does not typically cause fever or nausea/vomiting.

A nurse receives a hand-off report on a female client who had a left-sided stroke with homonymous hemianopsia. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for this client? a. Assess for bladder and bowel retention and/or incontinence. b. Listen to the client's lungs after eating or drinking for diminished breath sounds. c. Support the client's left side when sitting in a chair or in bed. d. Remind the client to move her head from side to side to increaseher visual field.

d Homonymous hemianopsia is blindness on the same side of both eyes. The client must turn his or her head to see the entire visual field. This condition is not related to bladder function, difficulty swallowing, or lack of trunk control.

A client with a severe traumatic brain injury has an organ donor card in his wallet. Which nursing action is appropriate? a. Request a directive form the client's primary health care provider. b. Ask the family if they agree to organ donation for the client. c. Wait until brain death is determined before acting on organ donation. d. Contact the local organ procurement organization as soon as possible.

d The appropriate nursing action is to respect the client's desire to be an organ donor and contact the local organ procurement organization even if family members do not agree. In most agencies, the primary health care provider does not have to write an order or directive to approve the organ donation. Family consent is not required.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a hemorrhagic stroke. Which assessment finding is the earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) for this client? a. Projectile vomiting b. Dilated and nonreactive pupils c. Severe hypertension d. Decreased level of consciousness

d The earliest sign of increasing ICP is decreased level of consciousness. The other signs occur later

The nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. What action would the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy d. Evaluate respiratory status.

d The first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise due to interference with diaphragmatic innervation. The other actions would be performed after airway and breathing are assessed

The nurse is taking a history from a daughter about her father's onset of stroke signs and symptoms. Which statement by the daughter indicates that the client likely had an embolic stroke? a. Client's symptoms occurred slowly over several hours. b. Client because increasingly lethargic and drowsy. c. Client reported severe headache before other symptoms. d. Client has a long history of atrial fibrillation.

d The major cause of embolic strokes is a history of heart disease, especially atrial fibrillation. Most clients who have an embolic stroke have acute sudden neurologic symptoms but stay alert rather than lethargic. Decreasing level of consciousness and severe headache are more common in clients who have hemorrhagic strokes

After teaching a client newly diagnosed with epilepsy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will wear my medical alert bracelet at all times." b. "While taking my medications, I will not drink any alcoholic beverages." c. "I will tell my doctor about my prescription and over-the-counter medications." d. "If I am nauseated, I will not take my epilepsy medication."

d The nurse must emphasize that antiepileptic drugs must be taken even if the client is nauseated. Discontinuing the medication can predispose the client to seizure activity and status epilepticus. The client should not drink alcohol while taking seizure medications. The client should wear a medical alert bracelet and should make the primary health care provider aware of all drugs he or she is taking to prevent complications of polypharmacy

A client with a stroke is being evaluated for fibrinolytic therapy. What information from the client or family is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Loss of bladder control b. Other medical conditions c. Progression of symptoms d. Time of symptom onset

d The time limit for initiating fibrinolytic therapy for a stroke is 3 to 4.5 hours, so the exact time of symptom onset is the most important information for this client. The other information is not as critical.