AEMT chapters 1-6
A 79-year-old female is complaining of shortness of breath. When you ask her when this episode began, she does not answer you. You should: Select one: a. speak clearly and repeat the question. b. move closer and speak loudly in her ear. c. ask a different question about her problem. d. immediately ask a family member.
A
A concise and well-organized radio report to the hospital is most beneficial because it: Select one: a. allows the hospital to allocate the appropriate resources. b. facilities the dispatcher's documentation of the event. c. prevents you from being accused of improper patient care. d. prevents an unnecessarily lengthy exchange of information.
A
A patient with an acute dystonic reaction presents with blepharospasm. This means spasm of the: Select one: a. eyelids. b. jaw. c. facial muscles. d. neck muscles.
A
At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The driver of the care is responsive, but reporting neck pain. You should: Select one: a. mark off a danger zone around the care and downed lines. b. don rubber gloves and rapidly extricate the driver. c. remove the wires from the car and continue the extrication. d. ask the driver to carefully get out of the car and walk to the ambulance.
A
En route to the hospital, a diabetic patient regains partial consciousness. He tells you that he feels fine and that he does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: Select one: a. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. b. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. c. tell the patient that once care is started it cannot be stopped. d. cease further treatment and have the patient sign a release.
A
Physical signs that indicate an emotionally disturbed patient may become violent include all of the following, except: Select one: a. large physical stature. b. inability to sit still. c. tense or rigid posture. d. bizarre speech patterns.
A
Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, except: Select one: a. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. b. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital. c. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. d. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient.
A
The destruction of a clot is called: Select one: a. thrombolysis. b. vasculitis. c. thermogenesis. d. thrombophilia.
A
The function of the National Registry of EMTs is to: Select one: a. assess competence through a valid testing process. b. set training standards for each EMS provider level. c. mandate that EMS providers recertify every year. d. provide continuing education for EMS providers.
A
Topographically, the term distal means: Select one: a. away from the trunk. b. toward the body's midline. c. near a point of reference. d. near the trunk.
A
When documenting medical terminology on a patient care form, you should: Select one: a. use only standard medical abbreviations. b. spell the word to the best of your ability. c. use abbreviations unique to your protocols. d. avoid the use of medical abbreviations.
A
When you talk with a patient, you should try to position yourself: Select one: a. at a level lower than the patient's. b. at the patient's head. c. at the patient's feet. d. standing above the patient.
A
Which anatomic plane divides the left and right sides of the body parallel to the midline? Select one: a. Sagittal b. Midsagittal c. Coronal d. Transverse
A
Which of the following circumstances would require a written release of confidential information from the patient? Select one: a. Family members wanting information about an adult patient. b. Information required so that an insurance company can process a claim c. Communication with medical control about patient care issues d. Legally mandated reporting of incidents such as abuse and rape.
A
Which of the following interventions should be able to be performed by all EMS providers, regardless of their level of certification? Select one: a. Hemorrhage control b. Needle chest compression c. Manual defibrillation d. Intravenous therapy
A
Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct? Select one: a. The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects from excess handling. b. The safest type of isolette is one that takes the place of the ambulance stretcher. c. If an isolette is not available, the neonate can safely be transported on the stretcher. d. A freestanding isolette should be used, not one that is secured to the stretcher.
A
Which of the following statements would be most appropriate to make to the family member of a patient who has just died? Select one: a. This must be hard for you to accept. b. Things will get better in time. c. I know exactly what you are experiencing. d. You're not the only one who suffers.
A
While en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, you encounter a flooded road that is impassible. You should: Select one: a. advise the dispatcher to send another ambulance. b. make one attempt to cross the flooded road. c. contact medical control and report your status. d. contact the caller and provide instructions.
A
While treating a responsive and alert patient with a serious illness, your partner starts an IV, but does not explain the procedure to the patient. Your partner's action most accurately constitutes: Select one: a. battery. b. an unethical act. c. gross negligence. d. assault.
A
You are requesting an order to perform an invasive intervention on a critically ill patient from medical control when the radio system suddenly fails. You should: Select one: a. follow standing orders. b. reattempt to contact medical control. c. perform the invasive intervention. d. continue BLS and transport.
A
You must be careful when speaking to the family members about a patient because: Select one: a. the patient may misinterpret what you said. b. the family may sue you for slander. c. they are not a reliable source of information. d. it is a violation of the patient's rights.
A
You respond to the scene of a 16-year-old pregnant woman with abdominal pain. Her friend called EMS because she was concerned. As you begin your assessment, the patient tells you that she feels better and does not want to go to the hospital. You should: Select one: a. explain the consequences of refusal of care. b. contact the patient's parents to obtain consent. c. advise the patient that she cannot refuse care. d. have the patient sign a Refusal for Care form.
A
A young female is experiencing an ectopic pregnancy. This means that the embryo developed: Select one: a. within the uterus. b. outside of the uterus. c. in the retroperitoneum. d. in a fallopian tube.
B
AS an AEMT, you may have to function as an advocate for your patient. This involves: Select one: a. transporting the patient to the hospital of your choice. b. protecting the best interests of the patient. c. determining the patient's primary physician. d. paying for the patient's medical bills.
B
According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA): Select one: a. all health care facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured. b. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay. c. a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after singing in to the emergency department. d. a health care facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his or her condition is not deemed critical.
B
After medical control has ordered you to start an IV and administer normal saline at 125 mL/hr, you should: Select one: a. question the order if it seems inappropriate. b. repeat the order, word for word. c. document the physician's name. d. administer the medication as ordered.
B
An AEMT administers the wrong medication to a patient. This is an example of a(n): Select one: a. rules-based error. b. knowledge-based error. c. administrative error. d. skills-based error.
B
Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is: Select one: a. anterior. b. posterior. c. lateral. d. inferior.
B
Continuous quality improvement (CQI) involves all of the following components, except: Select one: a. remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director. b. negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call. c. periodic review of run reports. d. discussion of needs for improvement.
B
During transport of a patient with a possible fractured arm, you come upon a major car accident involving multiple patients. Your patient is responsive, alert, and has stable vital signs. What should you do? Select one: a. Notify the dispatcher of the major accident once you have arrived at the hospital. b. Radio the dispatcher to send ambulances to the scene and continue transport. c. Ask a bystander to stay with your patient as you and your partner begin triage. d. Quickly triage the patients and wait for other ambulances to arrive at the scene.
B
Even with an EMS certification, your ability to function as an AEMT is governed locally by the: Select one: a. EMS system's chief paramedic. b. EMS system's medical director. c. state health department. d. county health department.
B
If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: Select one: a. allow the solution to evaporate without rubbing your hands together. b. thoroughly wash your hands with water as soon as possible. c. immediately dry the waterless substitute from your hands with a paper towel. d. avoid washing your hands with water because it will deactivate the waterless substitute.
B
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Select one: a. a collapsible undercarriage. b. increased stability due to a wider wheelbase. c. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. d. a weight capacity of up to 650 lb.
B
In order to facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: Select one: a. never become involved in the move, just direct the move. b. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. c. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. d. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear.
B
Pertinent information that is transmitted over the radio to the receiving hospital includes all of the following, except the: Select one: a. patient's primary complaint. b. name and address of the patient. c. patient's response to treatment. d. age and sex of the patient.
B
Prior to applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should: Select one: a. place the patient in a prone position to avoid airway and breathing compromise once restrained and placed onto the stretcher. b. evaluate the patient for potentially correctable cause of combativeness, such as head injury, hypoxia, or hypoglycemia. c. have at least three rescuers present, one for the upper extremities, one for the lower extremities, and one for the head. d. advise the patient that medical restraint is necessary, but can be removed if he or she cooperates with you during transport.
B
Radios that operate at 800 MHz allow for trunking, which is the: Select one: a. only method of communication approved by the FCC. b. ability of multiple agencies to share frequencies. c. ability to use multiple radios when transmitting. d. operation of a dedicated line for emergency use.
B
The ability to communicate from a portable radio to a base station is most effectively enhanced by a: Select one: a. dedicated line. b. repeater. c. UHF transmitter. d. trunking system.
B
The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the: Select one: a. wheeled stretcher. b. basket stretcher. c. stair chair. d. scoop stretcher.
B
The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: a. unnecessarily wasting time. b. injury to you or your patient. c. causing patient anxiety or fear. d. confusion among team members.
B
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer to the midsagittal plane is: Select one: a. midaxillary. b. medial. c. lateral. d. midclavicular.
B
The transfer of patient care officially occurs when you: Select one: a. arrive at the receiving hospital or facility. b. give an oral report to a nurse or physician. c. advise the hospital of the situation via radio. d. complete all documentation regarding the call.
B
When you arrive at an accident scene where a child has been seriously injured, you are unable to locate the child's parents. What type of consent is involved in treating and transporting this child? Select one: a. Informed b. Implied c. Actual d. Expressed
B
Which of the following conditions or injuries would most likely require transfer to a specialty facility? Select one: a. Abdominal pain b. Thermal burns c. Open fracture d. Severe headache
B
Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? Select one: a. "Does your shortness of breath get worse when you lie down?" b. "Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?" c. "Have you been seen by a physician for your abdominal pain?" d. "Do you have a history of heart problems, diabetes, or stroke?"
B
Which of the following scenarios does not involve an ALS skill? Select one: a. Performing CPR and using a manual defibrillator b. Using an AED and performing rescue breathing c. Administering oxygen and starting an IV d. Applying oxygen and injecting a medication
B
Which of the following scenarios is most consistent with abandonment? Select one: a. You give a verbal report to the charge nurse in the emergency department. b. A report is given to a hospital clerk because you must respond to another call. c. A paramedic assumes care of a critical cardiac patient from an AEMT. d. Emergency medical responders provide an AEMT with a patient's vital signs.
B
Which of the following statements regarding EMS research is correct? Select one: a. Research in EMS is usually only performed by the medical director. b. AEMTs will be involved in research typically through gathering data. c. Evidence-based decision making is an ineffective way to improving care. d. The goal of EMS research is to identify interventions that are ineffective.
B
Which of the following statements regarding hearing-impaired patients is correct? Select one: a. Hearing-impaired patients are commonly unaware of their surroundings. b. Family members of hearing-impaired patients often have difficulty coping. c. Elevating your voice when speaking to the patient will facilitate hearing. d. Patients who are hearing-impaired are usually ashamed of their handicap.
B
You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene involving a critically injured patient. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to: Select one: a. contact medical control for guidance. b. provide emergency care to the patient. c. preserve potential evidence. d. wait for a crime scene investigator team.
B
You arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that the fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you should: Select one: a. carefully assess the driver of the truck. b. use binoculars to try to read the placard. c. rapidly extricate the driver from the truck. d. decontaminate the driver of the truck.
B
You have just established an IV on a critically injured patient. As you prepare to dispose of the needle in the appropriate container, you get stuck with the needle. You should: Select one: a. cease patient care and immediately seek medical attention. b. report the incident to your supervisor as soon as possible c. ignore the wound because this was not a significant exposure. d. immerse your wound in water or a sterile saline solution.
B
You respond to a call for an older woman who has fallen. Upon arrival at the scene, you assess the patient, who is responsive and alert to person, place, time, and event. She states that she does not want to go to the hospital; however, her son requests that you take her. What should you do? Select one: a. Honor the son's request and transport the patient to the hospital. b. Ensure the patient is fully aware of the consequences of refusing treatment. c. Contact law enforcement to determine if the patient is mentally competent. d. Treat the patient under the law of implied consent because she is older.
B
A male patient complains of crushing chest pain. Prior to informing an invasive procedure on him, you must: Select one: a. ensure that he is responsive and alert. b. ask him if he has ever had such a procedure. c. explain the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient. d. carefully explain the procedure to the patient's family.
C
A patient has a condition called dextrocardia. This means that: Select one: a. the coronary arteries are abnormally narrowed. b. the coronary arteries are abnormally dilated. c. the heart is on the right side of the chest. d. the heart is abnormally inverted in the chest.
C
After being told of the death of her husband, a middle-aged woman asks, "Why are you lying to me?" What stage of the grieving process is this typical of? Select one: a. Depression b. Anger c. Denial d. Bargaining
C
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: Select one: a. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. b. demand that the patient be quiet and cooperative during transport. c. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. d. reassure your patient everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
C
An unconscious, adequately breathing patient should be placed in the recovery position, which is: Select one: a. semi-sitting. b. supine. c. laterally recumbent. d. prone.
C
Common hazards associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except: Select one: a. decreased oxygen availability. b. high ambient temperatures. c. carbon dioxide deficiency. d. the risk of building collapse.
C
How should five milligrams of a drug be abbreviated? 3Select one: a. 5.0 b. 5.00 c. 5 d. 0.50
C
In most states, a person may be denied certification as an AEMT if he or she: Select one: a. is certified in another state. b. is not a certified firefighter. c. has been convicted of a felony. d. is older than 45 years of age.
C
In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? Select one: a. The AEMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle. b. A significant mechanism of injury is involved. c. The AEMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards. d. A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock.
C
Life-long immunity would most likely occur after a patient is infected with: Select one: a. chickenpox. b. syphilis. c. rubella. d. HIV.
C
The first rule of safe lifting is to: Select one: a. always lift with your palms facing down. b. spread your legs approximately 20 inches apart. c. keep your back in a straight, vertical position. d. keep your back in a slightly curved position.
C
The proper technique for using the power grip is to: Select one: a. hold the handle with your fingers. b. rotate your palms down. c. lift your palms up. d. position your hands about 6 inches apart.
C
The suffix -ostomy means: Select one: a. surgical incision. b. release of pressure. c. surgical creation of a hole. d. drainage from a body cavity.
C
To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: Select one: a. kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level. b. push from the area of your body between the knees and hips. c. avoid pushing the patient with our elbows fully extended. d. push the patient from an overhead position if possible.
C
Under which of the following situations would the AEMT not have a legal duty to act? Select one: a. You are dispatched to a call within your jurisdiction. b. You initiate bleeding control of a man who was shot. c. You are off duty and encounter a man in cardiac arrest. d. Your ambulance responds to the scene of a drowning.
C
Warning signs of stress include which of the following? Select one: a. Increased Appetite b. Increased Sexual Drive c. Indecisiveness d. Willingness to work extra shifts
C
What is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to the wheeled stretcher? Select one: a. Log roll b. Extremity carry c. Draw sheet method d. Direct carry
C
When carrying a patient on a backboard up or down stairs: Select one: a. keep you palms facing down. b. carry the patient head first. c. keep the head end elevated. d. keep the foot end elevated.
C
When documenting a mass-casualty incident (MCI), you should: Select one: a. avoid the use of temporary documentation tools. b. complete a patient care form for every patient. c. follow your local MCI plan for documentation. d. keep a mental note of all patients you encountered.
C
Which of the following best describes the Fowler position? Select one: a. The body is turned onto the left side with the head elevated 6 degrees. b. The body is supine on an incline with the feet higher than the head. c. The back is elevated at a 45 degree angle and the legs are straight or bent. d. The body is supine with both the head and the legs elevated.
C
Which of the following bodily fluids has the least chance of transmitting an infectious disease? Select one: a. Amniotic Fluid b. Cerebrospinal Fluid c. Saliva d. Blood
C
Which of the following components is not required to establish negligence? Select one: a. Duty to act b. Breach of duty c. Abandonment d. Damages occurred
C
Which of the following foods provides the safest, most reliable source for long-term energy production? Select one: a. Chicken b. Fish c. Pasta d. Cheese
C
Which of the following is not a standard licensure requirement for AEMTs? Select one: a. Possession of a valid and current driver's license b. Successful completion of a state-approved AEMT exam c. Completion of an NREMT developed AEMT course d. Proof of immunization against communicable diseases
C
Which of the following is the most effective way of preventing the spread of disease? Select one: a. Always wearing gloves when assessing a patient. b. Taking prophylactic antibiotics after treatment of all patients. c. Thoroughly washing your hands after every patient contact. d. Keeping your immunizations current.
C
While attempting resuscitation of a patient in cardiac arrest, you initiate CPR, defibrillate the patient with an AED, and insert a supraglottic airway device prior to contacting medical control. What does this scenario most accurately describe? Select one: a. Off-line medical control b. Indirect medical control c. Standing orders d. Online medical control
C
While caring for a 40-year-old male with shortness of breath and a history of tuberculosis, the AEMT should place a: Select one: a. HEPA respirator on the patient and a surgical mask on him-or herself. b. surgical mask on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient. c. HEPA respirator on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient. d. surgical mask on him- or herself and a nasal cannula on the patient.
C
You are not covered under the Good Samaritan law if you: Select one: a. do not accept payment for providing care. b. provide good faith care without causing harm. c. perform an act beyond your scope of care. d. avoid acts of willful and gross negligence.
C
You respond to a call for a 15-year-old boy who injured his arm. As you are assessing the child, he tells you that he does not want you to touch him. His mother tells you to begin treatment and transport the child to the hospital if necessary. What should you do? Select one: a. Determine if the child is mentally competent. b. Ask the mother why she wants her son treated and transported. c. Continue your assessment and transport if necessary. d. Advise the mother that you cannot legally treat her child.
C
You respond to a home of a 75-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest. The family states that the patient is terminally ill and has an advance directive; however, they are unable to locate it. How should you manage this situation? Select one: a. Initiate full resuscitative measures and transport promptly. b. Allow the family to locate the document and then decide on further action. c. Begin CPR and contact medical control. d. Honor the family's wishes and call the coroner.
C
A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to: Select one: a. apply a vest-style device before moving the patient. b. extricate the patient with one coordinated move. c. move the patient as quickly as you possibly can. d. maintain stabilization of the spine at all times.
D
A physician authorizes you, via two-way radio, to help a patient administer prescribed nitroglycerin. What type of medical direction is this? Select one: a. Off-line medical control b. Indirect medical control c. Standing order d. Online medical control
D
AEMT training follows National EMS Education Standards, as recommended by the: Select one: a. National Registry of EMTs. b. National Association of EMTs. c. state EMS office of EMS regulatory agency. d. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
D
During your assessment of trauma patient, you note the presence of bilateral femur fractures. This means that: Select one: a. one femur is broken in two places. b. the lateral aspect of one femur is broken. c. one femur is broken. d. both femurs are broken.
D
Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) issues are regulated by the: Select one: a. Department of State Health Services. b. US Veteran's Administration. c. US Department of Transportation. d. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
D
In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by: Select one: a. pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head. b. slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement. c. retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance. d. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot.
D
The prefix name kil/o-refers to: Select one: a. 100,000 b. 100 c. 10,000 d. 1,000
D
Turning the palms upward ________ the forearm. Select one: a. adducts b. pronates c. abducts d. supinates
D
When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the: Select one: a. thigh muscles. b. pelvic girdle. c. spinal column. d. shoulder girdle.
D
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts assault? Select one: a. Telling a violent patient that you may have to restrain him if necessary. b. Taking a patient's blood pressure when they are refusing care. c. Starting an IV without the patient's consent. d. Telling a patient to clam down or you will start an IV.
D
Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct? Select one: a. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. b. Both sides of the patient must be accessible in order for a scoop stretcher to be used. c. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits x-rays while the patient is on it. d. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column.
D
While treating a man with severe chest pain and difficulty breathing, you are presented with a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order by the patient's wife. She tells you that her husband does not want any "heroics." How should you manage this situation? Select one: a. Obtain a signed refusal from the wife and return to service. b. Provide no treatment and transport the patient to the hospital. c. Be prepared to start CPR if the patient develops cardiac arrest. d. Provide supportive care and transport the patient.
D
While triaging patients at a multiple-casualty incident, you encounter a 40-year-old female with an obvious fracture of her right forearm and multiple abrasions to her face and arms. She is responsive and alert and does not appear to have any airway or breathing problems. You not that she is wearing an organ donor bracelet. You should: Select one: a. giver her high-flow oxygen in order to keep her vital organs viable. b. place her in a high-priority treatment category because of her donor status. c. apply a splint to her arm injury and continue triaging to other patients. d. assign her an appropriate triage category and mot to the next patient.
D
You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your most appropriate action? Select one: a. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients. b. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence. c. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients. d. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.
D
You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 lb. Your first action should be to: Select one: a. assess him and then move him to the stretcher with a direct carry. b. request the fire department if one attempt to move him fails. c. encourage the patient to walk himself to the awaiting ambulance. d. request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.
D
You are dispatched for a young male who, according to witnesses, is "not acting right." The patient is found sitting on the ground outside of a grocery store, rocking back and forth. He has blood on his arm from an apparent wound to his wrist. You should: Select one: a. recognize that his movements are purposeful and do not suggest violence. b. ask the patient to stand up so you can assess his balance and coordination. c. quickly make contact with him and control the bleeding from his wrist. d. talk to him as you approach him and control the bleeding from his wrist.
D
Your assessment of a 40-year-old male with an altered mental status (AMS) reveals the obvious odor of alcohol on his breath. When documenting the events of the call, you should state that: Select one: a. alcohol cannot be ruled out as the cause of his AMS. b. the patient's blood alcohol concentration is high. c. the patient appeared to be acutely intoxicated. d. the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient's breath.
D
