Amt 214 stage 1 exam
To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to
035 degrees and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from...
1,200 ft AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft MSL.
When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?
10 degrees to 12 degrees.
The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of
10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.
(Refer to area 6.) How long is the longest runway at Sacramento Mather airport (MHR)?
11,300 ft.
To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set. the OBS to
180 degrees and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately.
2 miles.
The radius of uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally...
20 NM.
Unless otherwise authorized by or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AG within 4NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is
200 knots.
What is maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
200 knots.
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
(Refer to point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at
3,823 feet MSL.
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the
360 radial.
You have received a VFR clearance to enter the San Francisco Class B airspace at 8,500 ft. What are the VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements in the Class B airspace?
3SM visibility and clear of clouds.
When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to
4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to
4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility?
5 SM.
(Refer to point 5.) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (area 5) is
700 feet AGL.
(Refer to point 8) The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is
700 feet AGL.
(Refer to Area 4.) You plan to depart on a day VFR flight from the Firebaugh (F34) airport. What is the floor of controlled airspace above this airport?
700 feet above the airport.
For IFR operations off established airways, ROUTE OF FLIGHT portion of an IFR flight plan should list VOR navigational aids which are no more than
80 miles apart.
(Refer to point 4.) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation?
827 feet.
What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 ft. AGL?
A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.
(Refer to point 2.) Borges-Clarksburg Airport is
A nonpublic use airport
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C. C. and E airspace are shown in blue.
What must be pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?
Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.
Why should all pilots understand how to cancel entries made on a GPS?
Because heavy workloads and turbulence can increase data entry errors.
Reliance on GPS units
Can cause pilots to lose proficiency in performing manual calculations of time, distance, and heading.
When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of
Class D airspace.
What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at the airport is not in operation?
Class D, which then becomes Class E.
(Refer to area 2.) How could you receive a weather update while in your aircraft on the ground at Fresno handler Executive airport (FCH)? Correct!
Contact Rancho Murieta radio on 122.55 or call (800) 992-7433
What procedure could a pilot use to navigate under VFR from one point to another when ground references are not visible.
Dead reckoning
What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway from runway.
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
You are planning a VFR west bound flight departing the FRESNO CHANDLER EXECUTIVE (FCH) airport and you will be passing through the active Lemoore C and A MOAs. What action should you take?
Exercise extreme caution while in the boundaries of the MOA.
(Refer to area 2.) While en route over Fresno Chandler Executive airport (FCH), your airborne radar shows unforecast thunderstorms 20 mi. ahead. Who should you contact for more information about the weather along your route of flight?
Flight Service Station (FSS) on 122.55
Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiever?
Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.
You are preflight planning in the morning before and afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?"
In the Chart Supplements U.S.
Which of the following best describes a destination sign?
Indicates the direction to the takeoff runway.
Which statement is true about isogonic lines?
Isogonic lines are lines of equal variation.
(Refer to Area 2.) What is indicated by the star next to the "L" in the airport information box for MADERA (MAE) airport north of area 2?
Lighting limitations exist.
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude.
Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Wiley Post during the hours when the tower is not in operation.
Monitor airport traffic and announce position and intentions on 126.9. MHz.
Which is true regarding the flight operations in Class A airspace?
Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
Which button/feature provides information on the closest airport at any given time?
Nearest
(Refer to Area 8.) The traffic pattern altitude at the Auburn (AUN) airport is 1,000 feet AGL. May you practice landings under VFR when the AWOS is reporting a ground a ground visibility of 2 miles.
No, the reported ground visibility must be at least 3 miles.
Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?
Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
Past the point where the point touched down.
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance?
Pilot-in-command.
What is a consideration when using a hand-held GPS for VFR navigation?
Position accuracy may degrade without notification.
Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite, without an operating control tower, within Class C airspace area?
Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.
When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff and landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1sm
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 degrees of that radial with a FROM indication.
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
What should you expect when you are told that LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination airport?
That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway.
(Refer to Area 6.) What is the purpose of the star that follows the CT-120.65 in the information box for Sacramento Mather (MHR) Airport?
That the control tower has limited hours of operation.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
(Refer to area 2.) What does the maximum elevation figure (MEF) 16 represent?
The highest elevation within this quadrant including terrain and other vertical obstacles, is 1,600 ft. MSL.
Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in the Class B airspace?
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.
Chose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.
The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.
Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?
The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
With is true with respect to vortex circulation?
The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
Why does the FAA maintain a VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON)?
To support navigation of non-DME/DME equipped RNAV aircraft in the event of GPS outage.
With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, which airspace requires the appropriate Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment installed?
Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport.
You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds with your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace?
You must remain outside the Class B airspace until the controller gives you a specific clearance.
(Refer to point 1.) This thin black shaded line is most likely
a military training route.
Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly...
above the flight path of the large aircraft.
If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the
aircraft may be operated at that speed.
Once a pilot-in-command accepts a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance, the clearance must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless
an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs.
True course measurements on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint the course because the
angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point.
The commercial pilot operating as the pilot in command of an aircraft may accept or decline a land and hold short clearance (LAHSO)
any time.
(Refer to Area 2.) When departing the RIO LINDA (L36) Airport to the northwest at an altitude of 1,000 feet AGL, you
are not required to contact any ATC facilities if you do not enter the Class C Airspace.
Given:Location: Madera Airport (MAE) Altitude: 1,000. ft. AGL Position: 7 NM north of Madera (MAE) Time: 3 p.m. local Flight visibility: 1 SM You are departing VFR approaching Madera Airport for a landing from the north. You
are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of the Class E airspace and may continue for landing.
At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not report, takeoff and landings under special VFR are
authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet aircraft, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flight path until able to turn clear of its wake.
(Refer to point 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
(Refer to point 7.) The. floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is
both 700 feet and 1,200 feel AGL.
To avoid landing at the wrong airport or runway, pilots should
consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements.
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the "taxiway directional sign" indicates...
destination and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
Effective navigation by means of GPS includes
determining the current status of all databases.
When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flight, it is important to...
exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.
What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is...
headed away from you.
"Runway Holding Position Markings" on taxiways...
identify where aircraft are supposed to stop when not cleared to proceed onto the runway.
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should
make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
The upper limits of Class D airspace are depicted...
on the sectional chart in feet MSL.
The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates...
runway with displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
The runway holding position sign is located on...
runways that intersect other runways.
The primary purpose of the direct-to button is to
show the quickest way to fly to any given point.
(Refer to point 2.) The 16 indicates
the maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle.
Alert Areas are special use airspace depicted within magenta lines on a sectional charts in which
there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous.
Traffic patterns in effect at Wiley Post are
to the left on Runways 35R, 35L, and 31; to the right on runways 17L, 17R, and 13.
What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder...
with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omni bearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read
within 6 degrees of the selected radial.
