Anatomy Lecture Exam 1 Fun Stuff
What type of Connective Tissue forms Ligaments?
Dense Regular Connective Tissue.
A 15-year old girl is riding her bike when a car hits her suddenly. MRI shows that her spinal cord is displaced to the left side. What lateral extensions of the pia mater are torn in her injury?
Denticulate Ligament
A key feature of the Lumbar Vertebrae is: A) Mamillary Process B) Transverse Process C) Accessory Process D) Transverse Foraminae E) A and C F) A and B
E) A and C Both the Mamillary Process and the Accessory process are key features of Lumbar Vertebrae
Intervertebral Disks for which kind of joint? A) Intervertebral B) Symphysis C) Secondary Cartilaginous D) Primary Cartilaginous E) B and C
E) B and C Secondary Cartilaginous or Symphysis
What are the two types of Sudoriferous Glands?
Eccrine (Merocrine) and Apocrine
The Essential Movers for Elevating and Depressing the Scapula are:
Elevating: Descending Trapezius Depressing: Gravity
What type of bone ossification begins with a Hyaline Cartilage template and Involves the Invasion of Blood vessels into the developing structure?
Endochondral Ossification
Where is Epidural Anesthesia delivered into (What "Space?"
Epidural
A 25-year old male is thrown from a bull in a rodeo event. Blood would be detected in which space if the internal vertebral venous plexus was injured?
Epidural Space
What structure identifies where the lengthwise growth of a long bone occurs?
Epiphyseal plate/Growth Plate
The Cuticle of the nail is called the:
Eponychium
What does the Superior Costal Facet of a Thoracic Vertebra articulate with?
Head of corresponding rib
Sebaceous glands secrete oil by what type of secretion?
Holocrine
What type of bone ossificattion begins with mesenchymal cells and involves the formation of blood vessels as the structure develops?
Intramembranous
A 15-year-old female is injured after she dives into a shallow pool. This causes bilateral fracture of both the anterior and posterior arches without injury to the transverse ligament What is the name of this injury and does it result in Spinal Cord Injury?
Jefferson (Burst) Fracture. It does not necessarily result in Spinal Cord Injury.
What are the primary cells of the Stratum Granulosum?
Keratinocytes. This is the layer where the cells stop dividing and start producing keratin. It is also where the cells die prior to reaching the Stratum Corneum
Where does the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1 or L1-2 IV disk
From what region of the spinal cord does the Superficial Fibular nerve originate?
L4-S1
From what region of the spinal cord does the common fibular nerve originate?
L4-S2
From what region of the spinal cord does the Deep Fibular Nerve originate?
L5-S2
An IV disc herniation at L4-5 would likely affect which spinal nerve?
L5.
Where is the Common Fibular Nerve located along the leg?
Laterally
The Valgus test assess injury to the...
MCL
What structure in the Dermis allows us to feel light tough?
Meissner's Corpuscle
The McMurray test assess injury to the...
Menisci on the side of rotation
From what embryonic structure is the Nucleus Pulosus derived?
Notochord
A 46-year old female has been diagnosed with advanced stage breast cancer that has metastasized between her sixth and seventh cervical vertebrae and sixth and seventh thoracic vertebrae. In both instances the cancer is disrupting the opening between these vertebrae through which the spinal nerves pass. What is the opening between the vertebrae through which the spinal nerves pass and what spinal nerves would be affected in this case?
Opening: IV foramen Spinal Nerves C7 and T6 would be affected.
The Tibial Sag test assess injury to the...
PCL
What structure in the Dermis allows us to feel deep pressure and Vibration?
Pacinian Corpuscle
Which layer of the Dermis is highly vascularized, has touch/pain receptors, and produces your fingerprints?
Papillary Layer
The two major layers of the Dermis are the:
Papillary Layer and Reticular Layer
The Essential Movers for protracting and retracting the Scapula are:
Protraction: Serratus Anterior Retraction: Middle Trapezius
What type of neuron is associated with the dorsal root ganglia?
Pseudounipolar Neuron
Which layer of the Dermis is filled with Collagen, Elastin Fibers, Dense Irregular Connective Tissue, and contains larger blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerve fibers?
Reticular Layer
What opening in the sacrum is used to deliver Caudal Anesthesia?
Sacral Hiatus
This muscle flexes, abducts, and laterally rotates the thigh at the hip and flexes and medially rotates the leg at the knee. These movements may be performed when crossing the leg such that the ankle lies on the knee of the opposite lower limb.
Sartorius
A patient with a deep knife wound in the buttocks walks with a waddling gait that is characterized by the pelvis falling toward one side at each step. What nerve is likely injured?
Superior Gluteal Nerve
The Latissimus Dorsi is innervated by which nerve?
Thoracodorsal (C6-8)
What bone landmark would a clinician press on to help diagnose Osgood-Schlatter disease?
Tibial Tuberosity
What muscles are innervated by the Deep Fibular Nerve?
Tibialis Anterior Extensor Digitorum Longus Extensor Hallicis Longus Fibularis Tertius
The Essential Movers for Upwards and Downwards Rotation of the Scapula are:
Upwards: Descending Trapezius, Serratus Anterior Downwards: Latissimus Dorsi
Which spinal roots are associated with the brachial plexus? a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1 b. C6, C7, C8, T1 and T2 c. C8, T1, T2, T3, and T4 d. C4, C5, C6, C7 and T1 e. C2, C3, C4,C5, and C6
a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
Jim experiences dislocation of the shoulder with Hill-Sacks lesion. Hill-Sacks is an injury of ____ a. The posterolateral humerus, posterior to the greatest tubercle of the humerus b. The inferior glenoid labrum c. The acromioclavicular joint d. The corocoid process of scapula e. The head of the humerus
a. The posterolateral humerus, posterior to the greatest tubercle of the humerus
What "canal" does the femoral artery pass through? a. adductor canal b. femoral canal c. quadriceps canal d. abductor canal e. tibial canal
a. adductor canal
Muscles innervated by the radial nerve include which of the following a. externsor digitorum b. palmaris longus c. flexor carpi ulnaris d. palmar interossei e. pronator teres
a. externsor digitorum
What nerve innervates all of the extensor muscles of the posterior compartment of the forearm. Select one: a. radial n. b. median n. c. musculocutaneous n. d. ulnar n. e. axillary n.
a. radial n.
What muscles of the hand are responsible for abduction of the digits 2-4 in the hand? a. palmar interossei m. b. dorsal interossei m. c. lumbrical m. d. thenar mm.
b. dorsal interossei m. PAD (Palmar aDduct) DAB (Dorsal aBduct)
This ligament extents from lamina above to lamina below and consists of an abundance of elastic connective tissue fibers, which gives it its name. a. anterior longitudinal ligament b. ligamentum flavum c. nuchal ligament d. interspinous ligament e. posterior longitudinal ligament
b. ligamentum flavum
What nerve passes through the carpal tunnel? a. musculocutaneous n. b. median n. c. axillary n. d. ulnar n. e. radial n.
b. median n
What transversospinalis muscles of the back span 1-2 vertebrae? a. multifidus muscles b. rotatores muscles c. splenius muscle d. spinalis muscle e. semispinalis muscle
b. rotatores muscles
What ligament is part of the deltoid ligaments that attach the medial malleolus to the tarsal bones? a. posterior talofibular ligament b. tibiocalcaneal ligament c. calcaneofibular ligament d. interosseous membrane e. anterior talofibular ligament
b. tibiocalcaneal ligament
The stratum corneum of the nail, root, which extends over the exposed nail, is called the a. Cerumen b. Lunula c. Eponychium d. Hyponychium
c. Eponychium
To test for hamstring tendinitis a clinician would press on the this common proximal attachment of the hamstring muscles. a. anterior superior iliac spine b. ischial spine c. ischial tuberosity d. inferior anterior iliac spine e. pubic symphysis
c. ischial tuberosity
The common fibular (peroneal) nerve typically originates from which spinal cord region? a. S1-S4 b. L5-S3 c. L1-L3 d. L4-S2
d. L4-S2
Which embryonic structure gives rise to the vertebrae a. Myotome b. Dermatome c. Notochord d. Schlerotome e. Vertebral placode
d. Schlerotome
What muscle is the primary or essential muscle that elevates the scapula? a. pectoralis major m. b. middle part of trapezius m. c. serratus anterior m. d. descending part of trapezius m. e. inferior part of trapezius m.
d. descending part of trapezius m.
Which of the muscles listed is found in the anterior compartment of the leg? a. gastrocnemius m. b. fibularis brevis m. c. flexor hallicus longus m. d. fibularis tertius m. e. fibularis longus m.
d. fibularis tertius m.
Injury to which nerve would result in retraction of the scapula? Select one: a. spinal accessory nerve b. dorsal scapular nerve c. medial pectoral nerve d. long thoracic nerve e. thoracodorsal nerve
d. long thoracic nerve
Spondylolysis involves a break in the ____ a. Dens b. Spinous process c. Anterior ligament of spine d. Ligamentum flavum e. Pars interarticularis
e. Pars interarticularis
A positive tibial sag test typically indicates injury to the a. Anterior cruciate ligament b. Lateral collateral ligament c. Medial collateral ligament d. Menisci e. Posterior cruciate ligament
e. Posterior cruciate ligament
What bone(s) form the proximal medial border of the carpal tunnel? a. hamate, capitate and trapezoid b. tubercle of the scaphoid c. hook of the hamate d. lunate e. triquetrum
e. triquetrum
Select the muscles from the list that would be affected if an injury occured to the musculocutaneous nerve a. Biceps brachii m. b. Triceps brachii m. c. Brachioradialis m. d. Brachialis m. e. Coracobrachialis m. f. a and c are correct g. b and c are correct h. a, d, and e are correct i. b, c and d are correct
h. a, d, and e are correct
The pale crescent area of the nail is called the:
lunula
Which vertebrae have bifid spinous processes? A) Cervical B) Lumbar C) Thoracic D) Sacral E) A and B
A) Cervical
The Transverse foramina is a key feature of the: A) Cervical Vertebrae B) Lumbar Vertebrae C) Atlas D) Axis
A) Cervical Vertebrae Both Atlas and Axis do have transverse foraminae, but it isn't a unique feature to either.
The Lachman test assesses injury to the...
ACL
The Drawer test assess injury to...
ACL and PCL
Which artery, vein, and nerve are in the anterior compartment of the leg?
Anterior Tibial Artery Anterior Tibial Vein Deep Fibular Nerve
A patient is diagnosed with hydrocephalus resulting from a decrease in the absorption of CSF. What structures help to absorb CSF?
Arachnoid Villi
Which vertebral curves are secondary?
Cervical, Lumbar
The ONLY long bone to form via Intramembranous Ossification and has NO medullary cavity is the...
Clavicle
A car struck your patient the day before his visit. Radiographic images indicate a non-displaced fracture of the left fibular neck. Deep tendon reflexes of the quadriceps and calcaneal tendons are normal, and there is no damage to the knee or ankle [This could happen, but would be uncommon. Such injuries would typically also involve damage to other parts of the lower limb anatomy. The intent here is to keep this case simple.]. You notice the following: Sensory deficits include distal anterolateral leg and dorsum of foot and between toes 1 and 2. Motor deficits include weakness in plantar flexion and eversion and inversion of foot, weakness in dorsiflexion and extension of toes 1-5. You note a waddling and swinging gait that includes high stepping. What nerves (branches) are affected in this case?
Common Peroneal Nerve
What Spinal Nerve Roots make up the Axillary Nerve?
C5-6
What Spinal roots help to form the Radial Nerve?
C5-7
The Trapezius is innervated by which nerve?
CN XI (Motor) C3-4 (Pain/Proprioception)
Mr. N. is a 29-year-old male patient who had recently had a biopsy of enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Mr. N. is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. He presents with ipsilateral weakness when asked to elevate his shoulders against resistance. Which nerve is injured? A) Thoracodorsal B) CN XI C) Dorsal Scapular D) Suboccipital
B) CN XI
Proper Closure of the Neural Tube depends upon the expression of this protein: A) Occludin B) Cadherin C) Claudin D) Please call the Paramedics because I just had flashback to the Patho test and am having a panic attack.
B) Cadherin
Afferent information is typically sent to the spinal cord via the ______ a. Lateral root b. Dorsal root c. Medial root d. Ventral root e. Anterior root
B) Dorsal Root
Mr. M. is a 24-year-old male patient who presents with the following after being injured by a knife wound in a bar fight: scapula is displaced laterally and posteriorly from the thoracic wall. What nerve is injured and what Muscle is paralyzed? A) CN XI; Trapezius B) Long Thoracic Nerve; Serratus Anterior C) Axillary Nerve; Deltoid D) None of these
B) Long thoracic nerve; Serratus Anterior
21. A 14-year old boy has a congenital defect that prevents him from retracting his scapulae. What muscle of the back and its corresponding nerve is affected? A) Trapezius; CN XI B) Rhomboid Major/Minor; Dorsal Scapular Nerve C) Latissimus Dorsi; Thoracodorsal Nerve D) Levator Scapulae; Dorsal Scapular Nerve
B) Rhomboid Major/Minor; Dorsal Scapular Nerve
The presence of a meningocele or a meningomylocele is indicative of: A) Spina Bifida Occulta B) Spina Bifida Cystica C) Meningitis D) Cauda Equina Syndromoe
B) Spina Bifida Cystica
Which layer of the epidermis is found only is Thick Skin? A) Stratum Corneum B) Stratum Lucidum C) Stratum Granulosum D) Stratum Spinosum E) Stratum Germinativum
B) Stratum Lucidum
What muscles are innervated by the Superficial Fibular Nerve?
Fibularis Longus Fibularis Brevis
The Zygapophysial Joints are made by: A) The femur and the Acetabulum B) Mamillary Processes of the lumbar vertebrae C) Articular Processes in the vertebral column D) Transverse processes in the Thoracic vertebrae
C) Articular Processes of the Vertebral Column
The intervertebral disc is composed of this type of cartilage a. Hyaline cartilage b. Elastic cartilage c. Fibrocartilage
C) Fibrocartilage
Spinal nerves and vessels travel through the: A) Vertebral Foramen B) Foramen Magnum C) Intervertebral Foramen
C) Intervertebral Foramen
Which levels are a lumbar puncture performed? A) T12-L1, L1-L2, L3-L4 B) L1-2, L2-3. L3-4 C) L3-4, L4-5, L5-S1 D) Any level below L1
C) L3-4, L4-5, L5-S1
Langerhans Cells are which type of cell? A) Neutrophil B) Monocyte C) Macrophage D) Keratinocyte
C) Macrophage
Mrs. K. is a 63-year-old female patient. She has been diagnosed with breast cancer had has had a double mastectomy and removal of right and left side axillary lymph nodes. Mrs. K. has difficulty pulling herself up from a seated position. Which nerve is injured and which muscle is affected? A) Long Thoracic; Serratus Anterior B) Axillary; Deltoid C) Thoracodorsal; Latissimus Dorsi D) CN XI; Trapezius
C) Thoracodorsal; Latissimus Dorsi
The Lumbar spine is in what position during a lumbar puncture?
Flexed
Mrs. B. is a 41-year-old female patient. She has been diagnosed with a right high ankle sprain. A cast is placed on her right lower leg and foot; she is given crutches, and told not to bear weight on her injury for 4 weeks. During the beginning of the fourth week following treatment of her right high ankle sprain Mrs. B's shoulders begin to "flatten" in appearance. Mrs. B. also complains of a loss sensation on the lateral side of the proximal part of her arms. What nerve is injured and which muscle is affected? A) Long Thoracic; Serratus Anterior B) CN XI; Trapezius C) Thoracodorsal; Latissimus Dorsi D) Axillary; Deltoid
D) Axillary; Deltoid
Which cells in the epidermis respond to touch? A) Melanocytes B) Langerhaans Cells C) Keratinocytes D) Merkel Cells
D) Merkel cells.
What main parts of the neuron are found in the Gray Matter?
Somas and Dendrites
What is the difference between a Sprain and a Strain?
Sprain: Stretched/Torn ligament Strain: Stretched/Torn muscle/tendon.
Dermal Papillae are tiny mounds which increase the area of the basal lamina and strengthen the attachment between the epidermis and the dermis. They are found in which layer of the epidermis?
Stratum Germinativum
Where are Merkel cells found in the Epidermis?
Stratum Germinativum
Where are Langerhans Cells found?
Stratum Spinosum
Which layer of the epidermis is also called "the spiny layer"?
Stratum Spinosum
What does the Inferior Costal Facet of a Thoracic Vertebra articulate with?
Subadjacent rib
Where is Spinal Anesthesia delivered into? (IE what "space?"
Subarachnoid space
The deep fibular nerve innervates the gastrocnemius muscle a. True b. False
False
The deepest layer of the epidermis is the stratum granulosum a. True b. False
False
True or False: There is an IV disk between C1 and C2
False
True or False: The gastrocnemius is innervated by the Superficial Fibular Nerve.
False, it is innervated by the Tibial Nerve
Intervertebral disc herniation of L4/L5 disc would most immediately affect spinal nerve L4. True False
False.
True or False: C1 has an Odontoid process.
False: Axis, or C2, has the Odontoid process
True or False: The vertebral artery, vertebral veins, and autonomic nerves travel through the transverse foraminae of all cervical vertebrae.
False: They do not travel through the C7 transverse Foramen
The Annulus Fibrosis is made up of what type of Cartilage?
Fibrocartilage
Injury occurs at the dorsal roots of the spinal cord. Would this result in motor or sensory deficits?
Sensory
What is the main function of Menisci and what type of Cartilage forms them?
Shock Absorption ; Fibrocartilage
Where is Red Bone Marrow found?
The space between trabeculae in spongy bone
Injury to the brachial artery requires ligation of this artery. Ligation should be done inferior to the profunda brachii artery. True False
True
Lumbar puncture may be performed between the L4 and L5 vertebrae a. True b. False
True
The extensor hallucis longus muscle is found in the anterior compartment of the leg a. True b. False
True
The radial nerve carries sensory information from the hand. True False
True
The teres minor is part of the rotator cuff muscles a. True b. False
True
True or False: C1 does not have a body
True