Anatomy Spring Final
A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by A) conversion of creatine phosphate B) anaerobic respiration C) aerobic respiration D) glycolysis E) heat loss
aerobic respiration
The ectoderms forms which of the following? A) muscle B) all lymphatic structures C) all cardiovascular system D) the thymus, thyroid gland, and pancreas E) all neural tissues
all neural tissues
Sensory receptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called A) thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors C) proprioceptors D) nociceptors E) chemoreceptors
baroreceptors
Marissa is an avid marathon runner, and she trains incessantly. She has slimmed down so that she is now underweight for her height and has very little fat tissue. One would expect Marissa to A) have heavy menstrual flow B) ovulate continuously C) be amenorrheic (have no monthly menstrual flow) D) have painful mentrual cramps E) show elevated levels of FSH
be amenorrheic (have no monthly menstrual flow)
__________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells. A) pigmented B) amacrine C) bipolar D) horizontal E) choroid
bipolar
Humans are most sensitive to which taste? A) sweet B) bitter C) sour D) salty E) umami
bitter
The hollow cavity within the blastocyst is the _________. A) gastrula B) morula C) blastocoele D) yolk sac E) amnion
blastocoele
In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases A) acetylcholine B) sodium ions C) potassium ions D) calcium ions E) acetylcholinesterase
calcium ions
Muscle cells A) actively lengthen B) generate compression C) possess a mechanism that regulates the tension amount by changing the number of contracting sarcomeres D) vary tension production based on the amount of sodium ions bound to actin E) can only contract
can only contract
To become active, motile, and fully functional, sperm cells must undergo the process of ________. A) emission B) capacitation C) mitosis D) meiosis I E) fertilization
capacitation
Active muscles generate A) heat and oxygen B) blood and sodium C) sodium and oxygen D) oxygen and carbon dioxide E) carbon dioxide and heat
carbon dioxide and heat
Which of the following is characteristic of cardiac muscle? A) cardiac muscle cells are striated B) cardiac muscles cells achieve tetany with every contraction C) cardiac muscle fibers are multicucleated D) cardiac muscle fibers are faster than skeletal muscle E) Neurons that innervate cardiac muscle tissue are under voluntary control
cardiac muscle cells are striated
The lens focuses the visual image on the photoreceptors by A) moving up and down B) moving in and out C) changing shape D) opening and closing E) dilating and constricting
changing shape
Neurons in the respiratory centers of the brain that respond to pH are examples of ________. A) baroreceptors B) nociceptors C) thermoreceptors D) mechanoreceptors E) chemoreceptors
chemoreceptors
Olfactory receptors are examples of A) pain receptors B) thermoreceptors C) mechanoreceptors D) chemoreceptors E) proprioceptors
chemoreceptors
The morula stage occurs during which process? A) embryogenesis B) placentation C) gastrulation D) implantation E) cleavage
cleavage
The hearing receptors are located in the A) ampulla B) cochlear duct C) utricle D) saccule E) semicircular canals
cochlear duct
Regarding lactation and the mammary glands, which statement is true? A) colostrum contains more proteins than breast milk B) an expectant mother's mammary glands begin producing colostrum by the end of the second month of pregnancy C) as colostrum production increases, the mammary glands convert to milk D) colostrum, unlike milk, contains large quantities of lysozymes E) colostrum has much more fat than breast milk
colostrum contains more proteins than breast mlik
The fibrous layer of the eye A) consists of the sclera and the cornea B) contains the intrinsic muscles C) regulates the amount of light entering the eye D) consists of the iris, ciliary body, and choroid E) consists of the retina
consists of the sclera and the cornea
The transparent anterior portion of the eye is called the ___________. A) cornea B) retina C) conjunctiva D) lens E) choroid
cornea
The _______ ligaments of the knee cross each other as they attach the tibia to the femur. A) patellar B) collateral C) femoral D) cruciate E) posterior
cruciate
The stage of labor during which the fetus begins to shift toward the cervical canal is the A) emergence stage B) dilation stage C) placental stage D) expulsion stage E) fetal stage
dilation stage
Oogenesis begins A) by age 5 B) at puberty C) by age 10 D) at birth E) during embryonic development
during embryonic development
If an X-carrying sperm fertilizes an egg, the resulting zygote will be _______ A) either male or female B) male only C) female only D) nonviable E) both male and female
female only
The anterior cavity is A) hollow B) filled with aqueous humor C) filled by the vitreous body D) filled with perilymph E) filled with endolymph
filled with aqueous humor
The ______ are finger-like projections at the end of the uterine tube. A) internal os B) isthmus C) infundibulum D) fimbriae E) uterine glands
fimbriae
Which statement is correct? A) for distant vision, the ciliary muscle is relaxed and the lens are rounded B) for close vision, the ciliary muscle is relaxed and the lens is flattened C) for distant vision, the ciliary muscle is contracted and the lens is flattended D) the closer the light source, the shorter the focal distance E) for close vision, the ciliary muscle is contracted and the lens is rounded
for close vision, the ciliary muscle is contracted and the lens is rounded
The increase in FSH that occurs by day 5 of the ovarian cycle triggers A) formation of a tertiary follicle B) menstruation C) ovulation D) menopause E) pregnancy
formation of a teritiary follicle
How many spermatids are produced after the completion of meiosis II during spermatogenesis? A) one B) two C) four D) six E) eight
four
The highest concentration of cones is in the _______. A) fibrous layer B) blind spot C) choroid D) optic disc E) fovea centralis
fovea centralis
Regarding the visual pathway, axons from the entire population of which cells converge on the optic disc and proceed as the optic nerve? A) amacrine cells B) rods and cones C) bipolar cells D) ganglion cells E) horizontal cells
ganglion cells
_________ is the period of intrauterine development. A) gestation B) amphimixis C) fertilization D) gastrulation E) implantation
gestation
During moderate activity, which of the following is true regarding muscle metabolism? A) the ATP produced is used to build energy reserves of ATP and glycogen B) most ATP is produced through glycolysis, with lactate and hydrogen ions as byproducts C) glucose and fatty acids are catabolized D) mitochondrial activity provides about one-third of the ATP consumed E) mitochondrial are not involved
glucose and fatty acids are catabolized
Which of the following extrinsic eye muscles is responsible for enabling the eye to roll, look up, and look laterally? A) inferior rectus B) superior oblique C) inferior oblique D) superior rectus E) medial rectus
inferior oblique
Which of the following extrinsic eye muscles is responsible for the eye looking down? A) lateral rectus B) inferior oblique C) inferior rectus D) medial rectus E) superior rectus
inferior rectus
The portion of the eye that contains blood vessels, pigmented cells, loose connective tissue. and intrinsic muscle fibers is the A) conjunctiva B) cornea C) iris D) pupil E) canthus
iris
"Anaerobic endurance" A) is used during long, slow athletic activities B) is exemplified by contractions of fast muscle fibers C) is determined by the availability of carbohydrates, lipids, or amino acids for breakdown D) is the length of time a muscle can continue to contract while supported by mitochondrial activities E) does not promote muscle hypertrophy
is exemplified by contractions of fast muscle fibers
Which of the following occurs when glycolysis produces pyruvate faster than it can be used by the mitochondria? A) pyruvate levels drop in the cytoplasm B) lactic acid is produced C) pyruvate is converted to sucrose D) lactic acid dissociates into a water molecule and hydrogen E) oxygen is produced
lactic acid is produced
During pregnancy, A) maternal repiratory rate decreases B) maternal blood volume decreases C) maternal nutrient requirements decrease significantly D) a women's glomerular filtration rate decreases by 20 percent E) materanl tidal volume increases
maternal tidal volume increases
During activities requiring aerobic endurance, A) glycogen and glycolysis are the primary sources of reserve energy B) amino acids are not broken down C) most of the muscles energy is produced in mitochondria D) fatigue occurs in a few minutes E) muscle hypertrophy often occurs
most of the muscles energy is produced in mitochondria
The primary functions of _________ is exemplified when bones function as levers. A) support B) protection C) movement D) storage E) blood cell production
movement
The mesoderm forms (the) A) muscle B) epidermis C) neural tissues D) mucous epithelium of nasal passageways E) pituitary gland and adrenal medullae
muscle
The less-moveable end of a skeletal muscle is the A) insertion B) belly C) origin D) proximal end E) distal end
origin
The female gonad is called a(n) A) vestibule B) fallopian tube C) vagina D) clitoris E) ovary
ovary
The additional oxygen required during the recovery period to restore the normal pre-exertion levels is called the A) oxygen debt B) refractory oxygen amount C) anaerobic oxygen threshold D) aerobic oxygen threshold E) aerobic oxygen conversion
oxygen debt
Nociceptos are sensitive to A) pain B) light touch C) vibration D) osmotic pressure E) blood pressue
pain
Temperature sensations are relayed along the same pathways that carry sensations of A) pressure B) low frequency vibration C) body position D) pH E) pain
pain
The conscious awareness of a sensation is called A) reception B) perception C) proprioception D) adaptation E) desensitization
perception
The movement of the stapes at the oval window establishes pressure waves in the A) endolymph of the scala vestibuli B) ampullae C) perilymph of the scala tympani D) endolymph of the cochlear duct E) perilymph of the scala vestibuli
perilymph of the scala vestibuli
The layer of visceral peritoneum of the uterine wall is called the _________. A) isthmus B) endometrium C) perimetrium D) myometrium E) internal os
perimetrium
A sheath of connective tissue surrounding a bundle of striated muscle fibers is called A) endomysium B) perimysium C) sarcolemma D) epimysium E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
perimysium
Spermatozoa are moved along the ductus deferens by A) hydrostatic force B) ciliary action C) peristaltic contractions D) suction E) guide cells
peristaltic contractions
The last stage of labor is A) dilation stage B) expulsion stage C) placental stage D) decidual stage E) neonate stage
placental stage
Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of slow fibers? A) slow muscle tissue has a much less extensive network of capillaries than does typical fast muscle tissue B) resting slow muscle fibers contain oxygen reserves C) slow muscle tissue has a lower oxygen supply than does a fast muscle tissue D) slow muscle fibers contain fewer mitochondria than do fast muscle fibers E) slow muscle fibers contain myoglobin, a globular protien, which binds sodium
resting slow muscle fibers contain oxygen reserves
Slender, tightly coiled tubules originate at the seminiferous tubules and form a maze of passageways called the A) epididymis B) ductus deferens C) rete testis D) efferent ducts E) ejaculatory ducts
rete testis
The portion of the eye that contains blood vessels, pigment cells, loose connective tissue, and intrinsic muscle fibers is the A) conjunctiva B) cornea C) iris D) pupil E) canthus
retina
Which of the following is part of the inner layer of the wall of the eye? A) lateral rectus muscle B) iris C) retina D) sclera E) conjunctiva
retina
Visual pigments are derivatives of A) rhodopsin B) the vitreous body C) the aqueous humor D) vitamin K E) vitamin E
rhodospin
The photoreceptors of the retina are called A) bipolar cells B) horizontal cells C) amacrine cells D) ganglion cells E) rods and cones
rods and cones
The ovary does not release a mature gamete. Instead, a ______ is released. A) oocyte B) oogonia C) primary oocyte D) secondary oocyte E) zygote
secondary oocyte
Sperm production occurs in the A) ductus deferens B) seminiferous tubules C) epididymis D) seminal vesicles E) rete testis
seminiferous tubules
The aging process is called A) neonate stage B) puberty C) senescence D) adolescence E) weaning
senescence
The fading of a dominant odor some time after one enters a room is example of experiencing A) sensory adaptation B) damage to receptors C) sensory deprivation D) a change in concentration of the odor E) proprioception
sensory adaptation
Which extraembryonic membrane is an important site of blood cell production? A) placenta B) yolk sac C) amnion D) allantois E) chorion
yolk sac
Myofibrils are made primarily of A) actin and myosin B) epimysium C) ATP and ADP D) troponin E) tropomyosin
actin and myosin
The striated appearance of skeletal muscle results from A) the transverse tubule pattern B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum C) cisternae placement D) actin and myosin arrangement E) the perimysium arrangement
actin and myosin arrangement
The _______ contains vesicles filled with acetylcholine. A) axon terminal B) motor end plate C) neuromuscular junction D) synaptic cleft E) transeverse tubule
axon terminal
Which joint type can preform rotation movements? A) hinge B) ball- and- socket C) saddle D) condyloid E) ellipsoidal
ball- and- socket
What is defined as a small pocket of connective tissue containing synovial fluid, which reduces friction in a joint and acts as a shock absorber? A) meniscus B) fat pad C) articular cartilage D) articular capsule E) bursa
bursa
Small channels, called ______, radiate through the matrix of bone. A) canaliculi B) lacunae C) lamellae D) perforating canals E) haversian canals
canaliculi
During which phase is the stimulus frequency so high that the relaxation phase is eliminated? A) complete tetanus B) a twitch C) incomplete tetanus D) recovery E) recruitment
complete tetanus
The special movement of the thumb that allows it to grasp an object and hold onto it is called A) rotation B) opposition C) circumduction D) eversion E) retraction
opposition
During the process of _______, an existing tissue is replaced with bone. A) blood cell production B) calcification C) resorption D) ossification E) osteolysis
ossification
Bone- forming cells are called A) osteoclasts B) osteocytes C) osteons D) ossification centers E) osteoblasts
osteoblasts
A single stimulus-contraction-relaxation sequence in a muscle fiber is known as a(n) A) incomplete tetanus B) latent period C) complete tetanus D) summation E) twitch
twitch
Rickets is a condition marked by a softening and bending of bones that occurs in growing children as a result of ______ deficiency. A) vitamin a B) vitamin D3 C) growth hormone D)vitamin c E) thyroid hormone
vitamin d3
A movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is A) abduction B) flexion C) extension D) rotation E) adduction
abduction
Which of the following is one of the steps that end a contraction? A) sarcoplasmic reticulum absorbs sodium ions B) acetylcholine binds to receptors on the sarcolemma C) calcium ions bind to troponin D) acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase E) an action potential spreads across the entire surface of the muscle fibers
acetylcholine is broken down by acetycholinesterase
When a calcium ion binds to troponin, A) active sites on actin are exposed B) active sites on myosin are exposed C) actin heads will bind to myosin D) muscle relaxation occurs E) acetylcholine is released
active sites on actin are exposed
A movement torward the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is termed A) inversion B) abduction C) adduction D) flexion E) extension
adduction
Pads of _______ are often found around the edges of diarthrosis joints to provide protection for the articular cartilages. A) connective tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) synovial fluid D) fibrocartilage E) adipose tissue
adipose tissue
One role of the fontanels is to A) allow for the change in shape of the skull during childbirth B) serve as ossification centers for the facial bones C) serve as the final bony plates of the skull D) lighten the weight of the skull bones E) enclose the vertebral column
allow for the change in shape of the skull during childbirth
The presence of _______ strongly indicates that the long bone is still growing. A) an epiphyseal plate B) an articular cartilage C) an epiphyseal line D) an epiphysis E) trabeculae
an epiphyseal plate
The anterior connection between the two pubic bones is A) diarthrosis B) an example of a symphysis C) a condylar joint D) actually comprised of three separate joints E) diarthrotic and an example of a symphysis
an example of a symphysis
An increase in the diameter of growing bone is termed _____ growth. A) epiphyseal B) endochondral C) intramembranous D) appositional E) ossification
appositional
Which of the following primary functions of the skeletal system applies to the role of bone marrow? A) support B) storage C) protection D) blood cell production E) movement
blood cell production
Red bone marrow functions in the formation of A) adipose tissue B) new bone C) blood cells D) osteoblasts E) osteocytes
blood cells
The enzyme acetycholinesterase causes acetylcholine to A) break down B) synthesize C) bond to actin D) be secreted E) form cross- bridges
break down
A muscle _______ contains a sarcolemma, sarcoplasm, myofilaments, and myofibrils. A) fiber B) intercalated disc C) T-tubule D) myofibril E) motor end plate
fiber
Movement in the anterior-posterior plane that decreases the angle between articulating bones is which movement? A) flexion B) hyperextension C) elevation D) retractionh E) protraction
flexion
Dorsiflexion involves________ at the ankle joint and ________ of the foot. A) flexion; elevation of the sole B) extension; elevation of the heel C) flexion; elevation of the heel D) extension; flexion of the sole E) adduction; flexion of the heel
flexion; elevation of the sole
A joint flattened or slightly curved articulating surfaces is called a ______ joint. A) hinge B) saddle C) gliding D) pivot E) condylar
gliding
The intervertebral articulations are classified as ______ joints. A) syndesmosis and pivot B) hinge C) synchondrosis D) gliding and symphysis E) synovial and syndesmosis
gliding and symphysis
The area between Z lines is the A) sarcolemma B) sarcomere C) sarcoplasmic reticulum D) myofibril E) myofilament
sarcomere
The skeletal muscle store calcium ions in the terminal cisternae of the A) sarcolemma B) sarcomere C) sarcosome D) sarcoplasmic reticulum E) sarcoplasm
sarcoplasmic reticulum
The _______ joint is the most frequently dislocated joint of the body as it provides an excellent demonstration of the principle that stability must be sacrificed to obtain mobility. A) knee B) hip C) elbow D) shoulder E) intervertebral
shoulder
Which joints permits the greatest range of motion of any joint in the body? A) hip B) shoulder C) elbow D) knee E) ankle
shoulder
Which of the following joints is located between the spinal vertebrae? A) pivot B) symphysis C) gomphosis D) hinge E) synchondrosis
symphysis
Acetycholinesterase if found within the ________. A) nucleus B) sarcolemma C) myofibril D) sarcomere E) synaptic cleft
synaptic cleft
A fibrous joint in which the bones are held together by a ligamentous connection is a A) syndesmosis B) suture C) symphysis D) diarthrosis E) synarthrosis
syndesmosis
Which of the following joints permits slight movement? A) gomphsis B) suture C) syndesmosis D) sychondrosis E) synovial
syndesmosis
Why is the elbow joint considered to extremely stable? A) its relatively loose joint capsule permits an extensive range of motion B) it has especially large and numerous bursae C) powerful muscles originating on the trunk, shoulder girdle, and humerus cover the joint capsule D) the bony surfaces of the humerus and ulna interlock E) a rotator cuff is associated with the joint
the bony surfaces of the humerus and ulna interlock
Regarding a skeletal muscle fiber, wherever a T- tubule encircles a myofibril, the tubule is tightly bound to A) the nucleus B) the sarcolemma C) the endomysium D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum E) thick filaments
the sarcoplasmic
What is the function of the transverse tubule? A) the storage of calcium ions B) to transmit electrical impulses to the cells interior C) to store sodium ions D) to allow cross-bridge attachment E) to produce myofibrils
to transmit electrical impulses to the cell's interior
Spongy bone is made up of a network of bony rods or plates called A) trabeculae B) osteons C) lamellae D) canaliculi E) perforating canals
trabeculae
Tropomyosin strands are held in position by which of the following? A) actin molecules B) myosin molecules C) troponin molecules D) ATP molecules E) calcium ions
troponin molecules
Perforating canals A) are arranged parallel to the long axis of the central canal B) are always associated with osteons in cancellous bone C) provide passageways for linking the blood vessels of the central canals with those of the periosteum and marrow cavity D) occur in growing juvenile bone, but are obliterated in adult bone E) are arranged in concentric layers around the central canal
provide passageways for linking the blood vessels of the central canals with those of the periosteum and marrow cavity
Regarding X-linked traits, if a father with normal color vision mates with a heterozygous mother, what percentage of the daughters will have normal color vision? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
100%
State five developments during each trimester of embryonic development
1st- nervous system developing 250 neurons running per min twitching body veins thicker than hair appearance is being determined 2nd- developed liver two kidneys less than three inches long bones hardening grasping reflex 3rd- lungs last organ to form air sacks remained closed brain creating memory fimilar with mom's voice BIRTH
The following is a list of structures of the male reproductive tract. 1. ductus 2. urethra 3. ejaculatory duct 4. epididymis The correct order in which spermatozoa pass through these structures from the testes to the penis is A) 1,3,4,2 B) 4,3,1,2 C) 4,1,2,3 D) 4,1,3,2 E) 1,4,3,2
4,1,3,2
Rigor mortis occurs at death due to a lack of A) cAMP B) DNA C) RNA D) ATP E) tRNA
ATP
If the parents are AA and aa, the offspring are all expected to be A) sterile B) Aa C) AA D) aa E) either AA or aa
Aa
As in males, __________ from the hypothalamus regulates reproductive function in females; however; its levels change throughout the ovarian cycle. A) LH B) estrogen C) FSH D) progesterone E) GnRH
GnRH
Roughly twelve days after ovulation, the corpus luteum becomes nonfunctional and hypothalamic production of _______ increases. A) FSH B) progesterone C) estrogen D) LH E) GnRH
GnRH
A massive release, or surge, of ______ from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland triggers ovulation. A) gonadotropin B) FSH C) LH D) estrogen E) progesterone
LH
Mary wants to enter a marathon and consults you as to what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her?
Marathons require aerobic endurance. Mary would want to develop her slow fibers for long-term endurance. She would achieve this by engaging in activities that involve long-term mild to moderately intense workouts involving mostly leg and postural muscles, such as jogging, biking, swimming, and core exercises. Repeated long-term stimulation will help the slow fibers develop more mitochondria and a higher concentration of aerobic enzymes as well as slightly increase the size and strength of the muscles (hypertrophy).
Mary has just finished pitching a fast-pitch softball game. What joint is most likely to be sore, and why?
Pitching a softball repeatedly requires the shoulder's ball-and-socket joint to sustain a great deal of circumductive forces. The shoulder is most likely to be sore as a result of these repeated forced circumductions and the friction and tension associated with them.
Joe and Jane desperately want to have children, and although they have tried for two years, they have not been successful. Finally, they both agree to consult a specialist, and it turns out that Joe suffers from oligospermia (a low sperm count). He doesn't understand why this would interfere with his ability to have children since he remembers from biology class that "it only takes one sperm to fertilize an egg". What should the specialist tell him?
The male releases millions of sperm cells into a women upon sexual intercourse, but yet only one sperm makes it in order to fertilize an egg. So having lower sperm counts will decrease your chances of having a sperm achieve fertilization.
Genes that appear on the X chromosome are said to be A) X-linked B) autosomal recessive C) heterozygous D) homologous E) lethal
X-linked
Loss of lens of transparency is referred to as A) a cataract B) glaucoma C) myopia D) accommodation E) corneal scarrings
a cataract
A blastocyst is A) an extraembryonic membrane that forms blood vessels B) a solid ball of cells C) a hollow ball of cells D) a portion of the placenta E) the membrane that forms the urinary bladder
a hollow ball of cells
Choose the correct statement regarding motor units A) muscle fibers at each motor unit are not mingled with those of other motor units B) during a sustained contraction, all motor units are activated simultaneously C) a motor neuron may control two or three muscle fibers of the eye D) when muscles contract for sustained periods, maximal tension is maintained E) most motor neurons control fewer than five muscle fibers
a motor neuron may control two or three muscle fibers of the eye
Changing the shape of the lens to keep the focal length constant is a process called A) nearsightedness B) farsightedness C) myopia D) astigmatism E) accommodation
accomodation
Which of the following is a stimulus for contraction in the skeletal muscle? A) epinephrine B) thyroid hormone C) testosterone D) parathyroid hormone E) acetylcholine
acetycholine
The period of sexual and physical maturation is A) infancy B) childhood C) senescence D) adolescence E) neonatal period
adolescence
Cessation of the normal adult menstrual cycle for six months or more is termed A) dysfunction B) amenorrhea C) menarche D) puberty E) dysmenorrhea
amenorrhea
The extraembryonic membrane that contains fluid that surrounds and cushions the developing embryo and fetus is known as the A) yolk sak B) amnion C) allantois D) chorion E) uterus
amnion
Swellings in the semicircular canals are called A) otoliths B) ampullae C) maculae D) spiral organs E) basilar membranes
ampullae
The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the A) saccules B) ampullae C) cristae D) utricles E) both saccules and utricules
ampullae
In adult males, the testes secrete A) estrogen B) androgens C) FH and GnRH D) progesterone E) LSH and FH
androgens
The interstitial cells of the testes secrete which reproductive hormones? A) androgens B) FSH C) estrogens D) GnRH E) progestins
androgens
Spermatogenesis begins A) at puberty B) during embryogenesis C) at birth D) at age 3 E) at age 7
at puberty
A blind spot in the retina occurs A) at the fovea B) where ganglion cells synapse with bipolar cells C) at the optic disc D) where rod cells are clustered to dorm the macula E) where amacrine cells are located
at the optic disc
In humans, the 22 pairs of chromosomes, which contain most of the genes that affect somatic characteristics such as hair color and skin pigmentation, are called A) alleles B) heterozygous chromosomes C) homologous chromosomes D) autosomal chromosomes E) homozygous chromosomes
autosomal chromosomes
Regarding hormones and body temperature, which statement is true? A) body temperature does not fluctuate during the monthly hormonal fluctuations B) during the luteal phase, when estrogen is the dominant hormone, the resting body temperature is 0.3 C lower than it is during the follicular phase C) during the follicular phase, when estrogen is the dominant hormone, the resting body temperature is 0.5 C higher than it is during the luteal phase D) during the follicular phase, when estrogen is the dominant hormone, the resting body temperature is 0.3 C lower than it is during the luteal phase E) during the luteal phase when progesterone is the dominant hormone, the resting body temperature is 0.8 C higher than it is during the follicular phase
during the follicular phase, when estrogen is the dominant hormone, the resting body temperature is 0.3 C lower than it is during the luteal phase
Normal eye focusing is termed A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) emmetropia E) refraction
emmetropia
The inner lining of the uterus is called the ______. A) myometrium B) internal os C) perimetrium D) endometrium E) cervix
endometrium
Maturing spermatozoa are stored primarily in the A) seminiferous tubules B) straight tubules C) lobules D) interstital areas E) epididymis
epididymis
The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics is A) estrogen B) progesterone C) LH D) FSH E) gonadotropin
estrogen
Menopause is accompanied by a decline in _______ A) GnRH and estrogen B) progesterone and FSH C) FSH and LH D) LH and progesterone E) estrogen and progesterone
estrogen and progesterone
Just prior to menses, A) ovulation occurs B) a new uterine lining is formed C) secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium D) estrogen and progesterone levels drop E) the corpus luteum is formed
estrogen and progesterone levels frop
Sperm cannot accomplish fertilization until they A) have been exposed to the conditions in the uterine tube B) undergo activation C) lose their acrosome D) are in the vagina for three days E) are within the uretha of the female
have been exposed to the conditions in the uterine tube
Fast fibers A) have loosely packed myofibrils B) have a high concentration of myoglobin C) have many mitochondria D) have high glycogen reserves E) are about half the diameter of slow fibers
have high glycogen reserves
Skeletal muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that these muscle fibers A) lack of plasma membrane B) have many nuclei C) are very small D) lack mitochondria E) contain endoplasmic reticulum
have many nuclei
The vitreous body A) contains the lens B) helps to stabilize the eye shape C) contains the blood vessels that nourish the retina D) is located between the lens and the iris E) is found in the posterior chamber
helps to stabilize the eye shape
The presence of _______ in blood or urine is a reliable indication of pregnancy. A) estrogen B) progesterone C) human placental lactogen D) human chorionic gonadotropin E) relaxin
human chorionic gonadotropin
A person suffering from _________ can see distant objects more clearly than those that are close. A) myopia B) hyperopia C) glaucoma D) emmetropia E) cataractus
hyperopia
The term used to describe muscular growth in response to usage is A) multiple sclerosis B) muscular dystrophy C) atrophy D) hypertrophy E) myopathy
hypertrophy
Which process begins as the surface of the blastocyte next to the inner cell mass adheres to the uterine lining? A) oocyte activation B) placentation C) embryogenesis D) implantation E) blastocyst formation
implantation
Fertilization of the ovum usually occurs A) within one hour of ovulation B) as much as three to four days following ovulation C) in the ovary D) in the upper1/3 of the uterine tube E) in the uterus
in the upper 1/3 of the uterine tube
Which statement regarding "heat loss" is true? A) muscle activity does not generate heat B) shivering in a cold environment results in higher levels of heat loss C) when skeletal muscles are contracting at peak levels, body temperature drops D) heat loss is reduced when blood flow to the skin increases E) muscle contractions plan an important role in the mainteanance of normal body temperature
muscle contractions plan an important role in the maintenance of normal body temperature
Nearsightedness is more properly called A) emmetropia B) myopia C) retinal detachment D) hyperopia E) glaucoma
myopia
The period from birth to the end of the first month is known as A) senescence B) neonatal period C) infancy D) childhood E) embryogenesis
neonatal period
Capacitation A) is stimulated by a substance secreted by the epididymis B) immobilizes sperm C) is responsible for the physical maturation of sperm D) occurs only within the male reproductive tract E) occurs after spermatozoa mix with secretions of the seminal glands
occurs after the spermatozoa mix with secretions of the seminal glands
The mechanism of gustatory reception seems to parallel that of A) light receptors B) mechanoreceptors C) olfactory receptors D) nociceptors E) baroreceptors
olfactory receptors
The process of oogenesis produces _________ viable ovum/ova. A) one B) two C) three D) four E) eight
one
Sperm carry A) only one X sex chromosome, exclusively B) only one Y sex chromosome, exclusively C) no sex chromosomes D) two Y sex chromosomes E) one X or one Y sex chromosome
one X or one Y sex chromosome
Ova carry A) one X sex chromosome B) XX sex chromosomes C) YY sex chromosomes D) XO sex chromosomes E) one Y sex chromosomes
one X sex chromosomes
Olfactory glands A) contain the neural receptors for the sense of smell B) form the basement membrane of the olfactory epithelium C) are sensitive to aromatic molecules in the air D) produce a pigmented mucus that covers the olfactory epithelium E) form structures called olfactory bulbs
produce a pigmented mucus that covers the olfactory epithelium
What is the function of the gonads? A) secrete fluids into the reproductive system ducts or other excretory ducts B) connect the uterus with the exterior C) receive and transport the gamates D) produce the gametes and hormones E) enclose and support the embryo
produce the gametes and hormones
The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle continues until rising ________ levels mark the arrival of the secretory phase, A) GnRH B) FSH C) LH D) estrogen E) progesterone
progesterone
Sensory receptors that monitor the position of joints is called A) nociceptors B) chemoreceptors C) thermoreceptors D) baroreceptors E) proprioceptors
proprioceptors
The ciliary muscle helps to A) control the amount of light reaching the retina B) pull the lens into a more rounded shape C) control the production of aqueous humor D) move the eyeball E) produce the vitreous body
pull the lens into a more rounded shape
Muscles comprising the quadriceps group include the A) semitendinosus, biceps femoris, rectus feformis, and vastus medialis B) rectus femoris, tibialis anterior, soleus. and adductor longus C) peroneus, gastrocnemius, vastus intermedius, and rectus femoris D) iliopsoas, gracilis, adductor magnus, biceps femoris, and graeilis E) rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis
rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis
Which of the following is true about red muscles? A) red muscles are slower than white muscles B) red muscles have fewer mitochondria than white muscles C) red muscles have fibers of greater diameter than those of white muscles D) red muscles contain less myoglobin than white muscles E) red muscles fatigue quickly
red muscles are slower than white muscles
There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to a different color wavelength of light. These cones are designated A) red, yellow, and blue B) red, blue, and green C) red, green, and yellow D) yellow, green, and blue E) red, yellow, and indigo
red, blue, and green
Which is the most common form of color blindness? A) blue-yellow B) green-yellow C) yellow-orange D) blue-red E) red-green
red-green
The perception of the pain coming from parts of the body that are not actually stimulated is called A) preferential pain B) recalcitrant pain C) actual pain D) referred pain E) slow pain
referred pain
The frequency of a sound is indicated to the nervous system by the A) frequency of hair cell vibration in the spiral organ B) number of rows of hair cells that are stimulated in the spiral organ C) region of the basilar membrane of the spiral organ that is stimulated D) movement of the perilymph in the cochlear duct E) frequency of vibration of the tectorial membrane of the spiral organ
region of the basilar membrane of the spiral organ that is stimulated
Which of the following is a hormone secreted by both the placenta and the corpus luteum during pregnancy, and functions in suppressing the release of oxytocin? A) progesterone B) human chorionic gonadotropin C) relaxin D) placental prolactin E) estrogen
relaxin
Which of the following is an effect of aging on the muscular system? A) tolerance for excercize B) skeletal muscles become more elastic C) sketelal muscle fibers become smaller in diamter D) muscle fibers contain more myoglobin E) scar tissue formation does not occur
skeletal muscle fibers become smaller in diameter
Which statement regarding skeletal muscle is true? A) skeletal muscles are directly, but nor indirectly, attached to bones B) skeletal muscles do not contain connective tissue C) skeletal muscles do not maintain body temperature D) skeletal muscles do not contain nervous tissue E) skeletal muscles contain blood vessels
skeletal muscles contain blood vessels
A person whose genetic makeup makes him or her a better marathon runner than a superior probably has more ______ in his or her leg muscles. A) fast fibers B) intemediate fibers C) slow fibers D) dark fibers E) red fibers
slow fibers
Which type of scenario is most likely? A) small motor units are recruited first B) large motor units are recruited first C) intermediate-sized motor units are recruited first D) all motor units are recruited simultaneously E) the brain chooses motor units randomly
small motor units are recruited first
Nonstraited, involuntary muscle is A) cardiac B) red skeletal C) smooth D) white skeletal E) intermediate skeletal
smooth
In spermiogenesis, the small, relatively unspecialized gametes that physically mature are called A) spermatogonia B) secondary spermatocytes C) spermatids D) spermatozoa E) nurse cells
spermatids
_________ are produced at the end of the meiotic divisions in the seminiferous tubules. A) spermatogonia B) primary spermatocytes C) spermatids D) secondary spermatocytes E) spermatozoa
spermatids
Undifferentiated spermatogenic stem cells are called A) spermatogonia B) spermatids C) primary spermatocytes D) secondary spermatocytes E) sperm
spermatogonia
The physical maturation of sperm is called _________. A) meiosis I B) oogenesis C) spermatogonia mitosis D) spermiogenesis E) tetrad formation
spermiogenesis
Which of the following results from endodermal contributions? A) all cardiovascular components B) brain and spinal cord C) dermis and hypodermis D) stem cells that produce gametes E) nephrons
stem cells that produce gametes
The role of the pituitary LH in males is to A) stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone B) stimulate the sustentacular cells to produce inhibin C) initiate sperm production in the testes D) develop and maintain secondary sex chacteristics E) influence sexual behaviors and sex drive
stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone
Movement of the sensory receptors in the ampullae of the semicircular canals A) produces sound B) allow us to hear sounds C) stimulates the receptor cells, alerting us to rotational movement D) stimulates the receptor cells to a change in body position with respect to gravity E) allow us to percieve linear acceleration
stimulates the receptor cells, alerting us to rotational movement
Creatine phosphate serves to A) cause the decomposition of ATP B) supply energy to synthesize ATP C) decompose ADP D) synthesize ADP E) synthesize glucose
supply energy to synthesize ATP
Gustation refers to a special sense of A) balance B) touch C) equilibrium D) vision E) taste
taste
Each gustatory cell extends a ________ into the surrounding fluids through a narrow taste pore. A) taste bud B) pailla C) taste hair D) basal cell E) neuron
taste hair
The structure that overlies the spiral organ, and which is firmly attached to the walls of the cochlear duct, is the A) basilar membrane B) tectorial membrane C) endolymph D) malleus E) vestibular duct
tectorial membrane
The primary organ of the male reproductive system is the A) prostate B) testes C) bulbo-urethral glands D) epididymis E) glans
testes
The hormone responsible for initiating a male's sexual maturation and appearance of secondary sex characteristics is A) testosterone B) ICSH C) FSH D) LH E) gonadotropin
testosterone
The most important androgen is _______. A) progesterone B) GnRH C) estrogen D) prostaglandin E) testosterone
testosterone
Which statement regarding sensory reception is correct? A) the larger the receptive field, the better is one's ability to localize a stimulus B) the CNS can tell the difference between a "true" sensation and a "false" one C) output from higher centers can dampen receptor sensitivity D) the CNS interprets the nature of sensory information entirely on the basis of the area of the brain stimulated E) in general, the stronger the stimulus, the lower the frequency of action potentials
the CNS interprets the nature of sensory information entirely on the basis of the area of the brain stimulated
Which of the following is a major hormonal event at the onset of puberty? A) the hypothalamus decreases its production of GnRH B) circulating levels of FSH decreases rapidly C) ovarian cells become less sensitive to FSH D) testicular cells become less sensitive to LH and FSH E) the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland become more sensitive to GnRH
the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland become more sensitive to GnRH
Choose the correct statement regarding semen A) the fluid component of semen is a mixture of glandular secretions with a distinct ionic and nutrient composition B) seminal fluid contains a prostatic enzyme, which functions in liquefying clotted semen C) of the total volume of seminal fluid, the prostate contributes about 60 percent D) seminal fluid contains an abundant amount of a waxy material called smegma E) a normal sperm count ranges from 5 million to 15 million spermatozoa per milliliter of semen
the fluid component of semen is a mixture of glandular secretions with a distinct ionic and nutrient composition
Which statement regarding isometric contractions is true? A) tension rises during a contraction B) the skeletal muscle's length changes C) the tension produced never exceeds the load D) tension remains at a constant level until relaxation occurs E) examples are walking and running
the tension produced never exceeds the load
When labor begins, the fetal pituitary gland secretes _________, which may be the actual trigger for the onset of labor. A) prolactin B) hGG C) oxytocin D) growth E) thyroxine
thyroxine
The purpose of the Human Genome Project (HGP) is to A) identify alleles for research B) transcribe the full set of genetic material in human chromosomes C) discover new methods for fingerprinting D) create a "master race" E) study human development
transcribe the full set of genetic material in human chromosomes
The most common viable chromosome abnormality is A) fragile X- syndrome B) trisomy 21 C) turner's syndrome D) klinefelter's syndrome E) a translocation defect
trisomy 21
During active-site exposure, calcium ions bind to which of the following? A) actin B) the sarcolemma C) troponin D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum E) myosin
troponin
Each testis is wrapped in a dense fibrous capsule called the A) rete testes B) tunica albuginea C) septa D) ductus deferens E) dartos muscle
tunica albuginea
Sound energy is converted into mechanical movements by the A) auditory vessicles B) cochlea C) oval window D) round window E) tympanic membrane
tympanic membrane
The ossicles connect the A) tmpanic membrane to the oval window B) tympanic membrane to the round window C) oval window to the round window D) cochlea to the tympanic membrane E) cochlea to the oval window
tympanic membrane to the oval window
The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the A) vagina B) uterine tube C) ovary D) uterus E) cervix
uterus
Which structure of the eye contains blood vessels and lymphatic vessels? A) retina B) fibrous layer C) sclera D) vasular layer E) neural layer
vascular layer
Receptors in the ______ provide sensations of gravity and linear acceleration. A) cochlea B) semicircular canals C) auditory ossicles D) vestibule E) internal acoustic meatus
vestibule
The following are major steps in the process of endochondral ossification: 1. Bone forms at the diaphysis surface 2. Secondary ossification centers form the epiphyses 3. chondrocytes enlarge and calcify 4. osteoclasts create a marrow cavity 5. blood vessels invade the inner cartilage and new osteoblasts form spongy bone at a primary ossification center The correct order of these events are?
3,1,5,4,2
Which of the following occurs in intramembranous ossification? A) hyaline cartilage model forms B) periosteum forms a collar around the cartilage C) fibrous connective tissue is converted to bone tissue, which first resembles spongy bone D) as the bone enlarges, osteoclasts break down some of the spongy bone and create a marrow cavity E) ossification centers are formed as blood vessels and osteoblasts enters the center of the epiphyses
Fibrous connective tissue is converted to bone tissue, which first resembles spongy bone
Why might a person suffering from osteoporosis benefit from increased calcium ingestion?
In osteoporosis, a decrease in the calcium content of bones leads to bones that are weak and brittle. Increased calcium ingestion raises blood calcium levels and triggers osteoblasts to form new bone. This new formation of bone can help diminish the bone decrease due to overactive osteoclasts.
Which of the following is an example of the skeletal system's primary function of providing structural support? A) calcium salts are found in the bone B) bones change the magnitude and direction of the forces generated by skeletal muscles C) red marrow fills the internal cavities of many bones D) the skull encloses the brain E) individual bones provide a framework for the attachment of soft tissues and organs
Individual bones provide a framework for the attachment of soft tissues and organs
When playing a contact sport, which injury would you expect to occur more frequently: a dislocated shoulder or a dislocated hip? Why?
Shoulder dislocations would occur more frequently than hip dislocations because the shoulder is a more mobile joint. Because of its mobility, the shoulder joint is not bound tightly by ligaments or other structures and is easier to dislocate when excessive forces are applied. The hip joint, although mobile, is stabilized by four heavy ligaments; bones fit together snugly in the joint. The synovial capsule of the hip joint is larger than the shoulder, and the range of motion is not as great. These factors contribute to the joint being more stable and less easily dislocated.
The hormone calcitonin functions to A) stimulate osteoclast activity B) stimulate the absorption of calcium and phosphate ions in the digestive tract C) depress calcium levels in body fluids D) depress osteoblast activity E) elevate calcium levels in body fluids
depress osteoblast activity
The shaft of a long bone is called the A) epiphysis B) trabecula C) canaliculus D) diaphysis E) lamellae
diaphysis
Which of the following associations is most accurate? A) synarthroses; slightly moveable B) amphiarthroses; freely moveable C) diarthrosis; synchondroses D) diarthrosis; synovial E) amphiarthroses; gomphoses
diathrosis; synovial
When one closes the mouth, the movement is called ________. A) depression B) elevation C) retraction D) protraction E) flexion
elevation
The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with A) periosteum B) endosteum C) lacunae D) lamellae E) osteon
endosteum
a layer of collagen fibers that surrounds an entire muscle is called A) endomysium B) perimysium C) sarcolemma D) sarcomere E) epimysium
epimysium
______ is a movement that occurs in the anterior-posterior plane and increases the angle between the articulating bones. A) eversion B) flexion C) elevation D) reposition E) extension
extension
Typical movements at a hinge joint include A) extension and gliding B) rotation and inversion C) gliding and pronation D) flexion and rotation E) extension and flexion
extension and flexion
Regarding muscle fiber elongation, A) many active mechanisms exist for muscle fiber elongation B) muscle contraction is passive; whereas, elongation is active C) opposing muscle movements are not a factor D) gravity may help lengthen a muscle fiber elongation E) elastic forces are generated where a muscle fiber elongates
gravity may help lengthen a muscle fiber elongation
Which of the following occurs when tension production rises to a peak and very brief periods of relaxation occur? A) resting period B) latency C) tension plateau D) incomplete tetanus E) complete tetanus
incomplete tetanus
A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole inward is termed A) eversion B) protraction C) dorsiflexion D) plantar flexion E) inversion
inversion
The structure that surrounds a diathrotic joint is called a(n) A) meniscus B) joint capsule C) synovial membrane D) bursa E) alveolus
joint capsule
The fibular collateral ligament is part of which joint? A) elbow B) hip C) shoulder D) knee E) ankle
knee
Narrow sheets of calcified matrix are referred to as A) osteons B) canaliculi C) lamellae D) osteoclasts E) central canals
lamellae
Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during the _____ phase of contraction. A) latent B) contraction C) twitch D) relaxation E) recovery
latent
Found outside or inside a joint capsule, structures that join to bone are called A) tendons B) bursae C) menisci D) ligaments E) alveoli
ligaments
Two hormones that work together to elevate calcium levels in the body are _____ and ______. A) parathyroid hormone; calcitroil B) vitamin A; vitamin c C) parathyroid hormone; calcitonin D) growth hormone; calcitonin E) vitamin D3; growth hormone
parathyroid hormone; calcitroil
Muscle fascicles are separated by A) endomysium B) perimysium C) epimysium D) sarcolemma E) periosteum
perimysium
The connective tissue covering the outer surface of a bone is (the) A) matrix B) osteon C) periosteum D) endosteum E) articular cartilage
periosteum
In anatomical position, when the palm is moved to face posteriorly, the movement of the wrist and hand is called A) extension B) protraction C) reposition D) pronation E) supination
pronation
A compound fracture A) is caused by an underlying pathology B) results in bone projecting through the skin C) is a type of incomplete fracture D) is also known as a closed fracture E) is completely internal
results in the bone projecting through the skin
Which of the following statements describes how muscles help maintain homeostasis? A) the contractions of the skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move elements of the skeleton B) skeletal muscles are responsible for guarding the openings of the digestive and urinary tracts C) skeletal muscles are responsible for pumping action of the heart D) skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs E) skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature
skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature
As a skeletal muscle contraction is initiated, acetylcholine binding alters the motor end plate membrane's permeability to A) acetylcholinesterase B) sodium ions C) calcium ions D) chloride ions E) potassium ions
sodium ions
Skull bones are joined by the tight connections called A) symphyses B) sutures C) syndesmoses D) gomphoses E) synchondroses
sutures
The process of depositing calcium salts into a tissue other than bone is called A) ossification B) remodeling C) resorption D) osteolysis E) calcification
calcification
Which of the following accounts for almost two-thirds of the mass of the bone tissue? A) cells B) protein fiberss C) calcium phosphate D) osteons E) polysaccharides
calcium phosphate
Moving the arm in a loop is an example in which angular movement? A) flexion B) adduction C) extension D) circumduction E) gliding
circumduction
The organic component of the matrix, which makes up around one-third if the mass of the bone, is dominated by A) calcium phosphate B) collagen fibers C) calcium carbonate D) calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate E) dendritic fibers
collagen fibers
Which type of synovial joint is described as an oval articular face nestling within a depression on the opposing surface? A) saddle B) pivot C) condylar D) ball-and- socket E) gliding
condylar
Osseous tissue is classified as which of the following? A) neural tissue B) nonstriated muscle tissue C) connective tissue D) epithelial tissue E) striated muscle tissue
connective tissue
Which structural feature of the knee functions in limiting the anterior and posterior movement of the femur? A) cruciate ligaments B) menisci C) bursae D) patellar ligament E) collateral ligaments
cruciate ligaments
Which of the following is a function of synovial fluid? A) decrease friction within joint B) increase osmotic pressure C) increase friction within joint D) remove waste products E) protect bone
decrease friction within joint
A joint that binds each tooth within a bony socket is called a A) suture B) gomphosis C) synchondrosis D) synostosis E) symphysis
gomphosis
The bones of the limbs are classified as A) short bones B) long bones C) flat bones D) sesamoid bones E) irregular bones
long bones
Regulatory functions of the skeletal system include A) maintaining the normal concentration of calcium and phosphate ions in the body B) absorbing the shock of unexpected rapid body movements C) facilitating transmission of nerve impulses D) cushioning abdominal organs such as kidneys E) contracting muscles
maintaining the normal concentration of calcium and phosphate ions in the body
Fibrous cartilage discs that act as shock absorbers in joints are called A) menisci B) bursae C) tendons D) invertebral discs E) synovial capsules
menisci
Which of the following occurs as a result of motor units in a particular muscle being always active, even though their contractions do not produce enough movement to cause contraction? A) treppe B)tetany C) muscle tone D) fatigue E) a twitch
muscle tone
The skeletal muscle structures that actively shorten and are responsible for muscle fiber contraction are called A) sarcolemma B) sarcomeres C) transverse tubules D) myotubes E) myofibrils
myofibrils
After death, rigor mortis lasts until A) ATP is produced B) T-tubules recapture calcium ions C) sodium ions are released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) sarcomeres lengthen E) myofilaments are broken down
myofilaments are broken down
Immature, active bone cells that produce new bone matrix are termed
osteoblasts
Bone cells capable of dissolving the bony matrix are termed A) chondrocytes B) osteons C) osteoclasts D) osteocytes E) osteoblasts
osteocytes
Which of the following is found only in compact bone?
osteons
In the skeletal system, compact bone is usually located A) where stresses come from a limited range of direction B) where stresses arrive from many directions C) only in a narrow ring around the diaphysis of long bones D) in direct contact with articular cartilages E) where bones are not heavily stressed
where stresses come from a limited range of directions