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Pseudomonas

On sheep blood agar Haemophilus influenzae may exhibit satellite formation around all but which of the following organisms:

Surface antigen

Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B: Core antigen Surface antigen e antigen Delta antigen

Escherichia

Which one of the following organisms is typically urease negative

Western blot

A confirmatory test for HIV in patients who are positive by ELISA is the: Latex agglutination Western blot Thin layer chromatography ELISA

CD 4+ cells

A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility to infection: CD 4+ cells CD 8+ cells HIV antibodies HIV antigens

False positive reaction

A positive RPR test and a negative FTA-ABS test is most likely the result of: Primary syphilis Secondary syphilis Latent syphilis False positive reaction

Small Intestines

Adult Ascaris lumbricoides worms live in the: Please select the single best answer Lungs Liver Small Intestines Large Intestines

Epstein-Barr virus infection

Atypical (reactive) lymphocytes in peripheral blood smear are seen during Herpes simplex virus infection Epstein-Barr virus infection Bacterial meningitis Acute leukemia

Cerebral abscess

CSF lymphocytosis is associated with all of the following except: Cerebral abscess Viral meningitis Chronic fungal meningitis Chronic tuberculous meningitis

P.aeruginosa

Colonies on blood agar and MacConkey are 24 hour growth form a wound culture. The appearance of the colonies on Mac agar rules out the following species:

Bacitracin sensitivity

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are best characterized by which of the following: Positive CAMP test Optochin sensitivity Bile esculin-hydrolysis Bacitracin sensitivity

Hepadna virus - hepatitis Arbovirus - Encepahilitis Parovirus - Fifth disease Paramyovirus - measles/mumps

Hepadnavirus Hepatitis Arbovirus Fifth disease Parvovirus Measles-mumps Paramyxovirus Encepahilitis

Visualize capsule

India Ink is used to: Visualize flagella Visualize shape Visualize capsule Visualize cytoplasm

Proteus

The indole test may be used to differentiate members of which of the following species: Proteus Salmonella Shigella Klebsiella

Minimum inhibitory concentration

MIC is an acronym for: Maximum inhibitory concentration Minimum inhibitory concentration Microbial inhibition concentration Microbial incubation curve

Penicillin

MacConkey agar contains all of the following except

Trophozoites

The iodine prep is most helpful to identify which of the following parasitic stages: Larvae Eggs Cysts Trophozoites

False

Rocky mountain spotted fever is almost always geographically restricted to the Rocky mountain region True or False

Streptococcus pneumoniae

The most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis in older adults is:

Mycobacteria

The most likely organism to be cultured on the Lowenstein-Jensen agar slant illustrated here would be: Cryptococcus Chlamydia Mycobacteria Listeria

Neisseria

The oixdase test is used to presumptively identify: Escherichia Enterobacter Serratia Neisseria

Bacterial meningitis (many nuetrophils)

The predominant cells seen on the CSF smear

hydrogen Sulfide production

The selective medium XLD is seen in this illustration. What is the significance of the black colonies

Voges-Proskauer test

Which one of the following tests would be positive in the presence of Klebsiella: Methyl red test Coagulase test CAMP test Voges-Proskauer test

Epstein-Barr Virus

Which one of the following viruses requires a complex lymphoblastoid cell culture, and is rarely if ever diagnosed by culture:

S.epidermidis ATCC 25833

Which is not one of the standard QC organisms used for weekly testing of antimicrobial disks?

Salmonella

Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae produces Hydrogen Sulfide? Klebsiella Escherichia Salmonella Yersinia

Anti-Hbe

Which of the following antibody will generally first be found about 12 weeks after the onset of acute Hepatitis B: HBsAg HBeAg Anti-Hbe Anti-HBs

Monitoring course of treatment

Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDRL tests: Diagnostic of active syphilis Diagnostic of latent syphilis Diagnostic of neuro-syphilis Monitoring course of treatment

HBe Ag

Which of the following hepatitis antigens is most directly linked to transmission of HBV: HBs Ag HBc Ag HBe Ag HBV Ag

Chicken Pox

Which of the following is caused by a viral infection? a) Botulism b) Salmonellosis c) Anthrax d) Chicken Pox

Infectious mononucleosis

Which of the following is least likely to stimulate the production of reactive lymphocytes: HIV Cytomegalovirus Infectious mononucleosis Toxoplasmosis

Icosahedral symmetry

Which of the following is not a structural component of a typical virion: Nucleoprotein core Capsid shell Lipid envelope Icosahedral symmetry

Oxidase positive

Which of the following is not true about members of the Enterobacteriaceae: Gram-negative Oxidase positive Reduce nitrate to nitrite Ferment glucose

Cysteine-blood agar

Which of the following media would you use to isolate Francisella tularensis: Sheep-blood agar Lowenstein-Jensen media Bordet-Gengou media Cysteine-blood agar

Vibrio

Which of the following organisms are gram negative: Bacillus Vibrio Staphylococcus Nocardia

Clostridium

Which of the following organisms are gram positive: Bacteroides Francisella Clostridium Pseudomonas

Clostridium

Which of the following organisms are gram positive: Neisseria Brucella Clostridium Pseudomonas

Bacillus anthracis

Which of the following organisms are gram-positive? Neisseria gonorrhoeae Brucella species Bacillus anthracis Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Rickettsia

Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular parasite: Proteus Escherichia Klebsiella Rickettsia

Borrelia

Which of the following organisms is best visualized by use of a darkfield microscope: Please select the single best answer Campylobacter Entamoeba Borrelia Streptococcus

Bacteroides

Which of the following organisms is not an aerobic organism: Francisella Bacteroides Pseudomonas Escherichia

EIA or indirect immunofluorescence

Which of the following serological tests would be used for the diagnosis of Q-fever: Select the single best answer Weil-Felix test Quelling test EIA or indirect immunofluorescence Cold agglutinin test

Urine

Which of the following specimens is the most sensitive for detecting active CMV infection: Blood Urine Stool Sputum

Throat swab

Which of the following specimens would not be considered suitable for anaerobic culture: Drainage from a puncture wound Throat swab Drainage from abdomen Blood culture

M Antigen

Which of the following substances produced by Group A Streptococci is responsible for producing type specific immunity: Streptolysin O Streptolysin S M Antigen T Antigen

Direct fluorescent antibody test

Which of the following tests would be used to directly document the presence of a specific organism in a clinical specimen: ELISA test Hemagglutination test Hemagglutination inhibition test Direct fluorescent antibody test

VDRL

Which of the following tests would you employ to examine a CSF for syphilis: RPR VDRL Both Neither

-70

Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of viral cultures: 4 -20 -70 ROOM TEMP

Group A Streptococcus

Which one of the following organisms is sensitive to bacitracin: Group A Streptococcus Group B Streptococcus Group D Streptococcus Staphylococci

It is best diagnosed by culture of the organism

Which one of the following statements about Coxiella burnetti is not true: Select the single best answer It causes Q fever It has a worldwide distribution It is an obligate intracellular parasite It is best diagnosed by culture of the organism

It is safe, with minimal side effects.

Which one of the following statements about the Hepatitis B vaccine is correct? It is not effective in the majority of cases. It is safe, with minimal side effects. Your employer may charge you a reasonable fee to provide it. It consists of a single shot given in the buttocks.

RPR titer

Which one of the following tests should be used to monitor a patient's response to treatment for syphilis: TPI titer RPR titer TPHA titer FTA-ABS titer