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Pseudomonas
On sheep blood agar Haemophilus influenzae may exhibit satellite formation around all but which of the following organisms:
Surface antigen
Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B: Core antigen Surface antigen e antigen Delta antigen
Escherichia
Which one of the following organisms is typically urease negative
Western blot
A confirmatory test for HIV in patients who are positive by ELISA is the: Latex agglutination Western blot Thin layer chromatography ELISA
CD 4+ cells
A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility to infection: CD 4+ cells CD 8+ cells HIV antibodies HIV antigens
False positive reaction
A positive RPR test and a negative FTA-ABS test is most likely the result of: Primary syphilis Secondary syphilis Latent syphilis False positive reaction
Small Intestines
Adult Ascaris lumbricoides worms live in the: Please select the single best answer Lungs Liver Small Intestines Large Intestines
Epstein-Barr virus infection
Atypical (reactive) lymphocytes in peripheral blood smear are seen during Herpes simplex virus infection Epstein-Barr virus infection Bacterial meningitis Acute leukemia
Cerebral abscess
CSF lymphocytosis is associated with all of the following except: Cerebral abscess Viral meningitis Chronic fungal meningitis Chronic tuberculous meningitis
P.aeruginosa
Colonies on blood agar and MacConkey are 24 hour growth form a wound culture. The appearance of the colonies on Mac agar rules out the following species:
Bacitracin sensitivity
Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are best characterized by which of the following: Positive CAMP test Optochin sensitivity Bile esculin-hydrolysis Bacitracin sensitivity
Hepadna virus - hepatitis Arbovirus - Encepahilitis Parovirus - Fifth disease Paramyovirus - measles/mumps
Hepadnavirus Hepatitis Arbovirus Fifth disease Parvovirus Measles-mumps Paramyxovirus Encepahilitis
Visualize capsule
India Ink is used to: Visualize flagella Visualize shape Visualize capsule Visualize cytoplasm
Proteus
The indole test may be used to differentiate members of which of the following species: Proteus Salmonella Shigella Klebsiella
Minimum inhibitory concentration
MIC is an acronym for: Maximum inhibitory concentration Minimum inhibitory concentration Microbial inhibition concentration Microbial incubation curve
Penicillin
MacConkey agar contains all of the following except
Trophozoites
The iodine prep is most helpful to identify which of the following parasitic stages: Larvae Eggs Cysts Trophozoites
False
Rocky mountain spotted fever is almost always geographically restricted to the Rocky mountain region True or False
Streptococcus pneumoniae
The most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis in older adults is:
Mycobacteria
The most likely organism to be cultured on the Lowenstein-Jensen agar slant illustrated here would be: Cryptococcus Chlamydia Mycobacteria Listeria
Neisseria
The oixdase test is used to presumptively identify: Escherichia Enterobacter Serratia Neisseria
Bacterial meningitis (many nuetrophils)
The predominant cells seen on the CSF smear
hydrogen Sulfide production
The selective medium XLD is seen in this illustration. What is the significance of the black colonies
Voges-Proskauer test
Which one of the following tests would be positive in the presence of Klebsiella: Methyl red test Coagulase test CAMP test Voges-Proskauer test
Epstein-Barr Virus
Which one of the following viruses requires a complex lymphoblastoid cell culture, and is rarely if ever diagnosed by culture:
S.epidermidis ATCC 25833
Which is not one of the standard QC organisms used for weekly testing of antimicrobial disks?
Salmonella
Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae produces Hydrogen Sulfide? Klebsiella Escherichia Salmonella Yersinia
Anti-Hbe
Which of the following antibody will generally first be found about 12 weeks after the onset of acute Hepatitis B: HBsAg HBeAg Anti-Hbe Anti-HBs
Monitoring course of treatment
Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDRL tests: Diagnostic of active syphilis Diagnostic of latent syphilis Diagnostic of neuro-syphilis Monitoring course of treatment
HBe Ag
Which of the following hepatitis antigens is most directly linked to transmission of HBV: HBs Ag HBc Ag HBe Ag HBV Ag
Chicken Pox
Which of the following is caused by a viral infection? a) Botulism b) Salmonellosis c) Anthrax d) Chicken Pox
Infectious mononucleosis
Which of the following is least likely to stimulate the production of reactive lymphocytes: HIV Cytomegalovirus Infectious mononucleosis Toxoplasmosis
Icosahedral symmetry
Which of the following is not a structural component of a typical virion: Nucleoprotein core Capsid shell Lipid envelope Icosahedral symmetry
Oxidase positive
Which of the following is not true about members of the Enterobacteriaceae: Gram-negative Oxidase positive Reduce nitrate to nitrite Ferment glucose
Cysteine-blood agar
Which of the following media would you use to isolate Francisella tularensis: Sheep-blood agar Lowenstein-Jensen media Bordet-Gengou media Cysteine-blood agar
Vibrio
Which of the following organisms are gram negative: Bacillus Vibrio Staphylococcus Nocardia
Clostridium
Which of the following organisms are gram positive: Bacteroides Francisella Clostridium Pseudomonas
Clostridium
Which of the following organisms are gram positive: Neisseria Brucella Clostridium Pseudomonas
Bacillus anthracis
Which of the following organisms are gram-positive? Neisseria gonorrhoeae Brucella species Bacillus anthracis Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Rickettsia
Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular parasite: Proteus Escherichia Klebsiella Rickettsia
Borrelia
Which of the following organisms is best visualized by use of a darkfield microscope: Please select the single best answer Campylobacter Entamoeba Borrelia Streptococcus
Bacteroides
Which of the following organisms is not an aerobic organism: Francisella Bacteroides Pseudomonas Escherichia
EIA or indirect immunofluorescence
Which of the following serological tests would be used for the diagnosis of Q-fever: Select the single best answer Weil-Felix test Quelling test EIA or indirect immunofluorescence Cold agglutinin test
Urine
Which of the following specimens is the most sensitive for detecting active CMV infection: Blood Urine Stool Sputum
Throat swab
Which of the following specimens would not be considered suitable for anaerobic culture: Drainage from a puncture wound Throat swab Drainage from abdomen Blood culture
M Antigen
Which of the following substances produced by Group A Streptococci is responsible for producing type specific immunity: Streptolysin O Streptolysin S M Antigen T Antigen
Direct fluorescent antibody test
Which of the following tests would be used to directly document the presence of a specific organism in a clinical specimen: ELISA test Hemagglutination test Hemagglutination inhibition test Direct fluorescent antibody test
VDRL
Which of the following tests would you employ to examine a CSF for syphilis: RPR VDRL Both Neither
-70
Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of viral cultures: 4 -20 -70 ROOM TEMP
Group A Streptococcus
Which one of the following organisms is sensitive to bacitracin: Group A Streptococcus Group B Streptococcus Group D Streptococcus Staphylococci
It is best diagnosed by culture of the organism
Which one of the following statements about Coxiella burnetti is not true: Select the single best answer It causes Q fever It has a worldwide distribution It is an obligate intracellular parasite It is best diagnosed by culture of the organism
It is safe, with minimal side effects.
Which one of the following statements about the Hepatitis B vaccine is correct? It is not effective in the majority of cases. It is safe, with minimal side effects. Your employer may charge you a reasonable fee to provide it. It consists of a single shot given in the buttocks.
RPR titer
Which one of the following tests should be used to monitor a patient's response to treatment for syphilis: TPI titer RPR titer TPHA titer FTA-ABS titer
