ATP Unit 3 - CFR Part 121
The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is A. 100 hours. B. 120 hours. C. 300 hours.
A. 100 hours.
For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes? A. 15,000 feet. B. 16,000 feet. C. 14,000 feet.
A. 15,000 feet.
For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for A. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. B. 10 percent of the passenger for 1.5 hours. C. each passenger for 30 minutes.
A. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers.
A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within A. 5 seconds. B. 10 seconds. C. 15 seconds.
A. 5 seconds.
A pilot in command operating under 14 CFR Part 121 must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months.
A. 6 calendar months.
The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may schedule a pilot in a two-pilot crew without a rest period is A. 8 hours. B. 10 hours. C. 12 hours.
A. 8 hours.
How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet? A. A minimum of 2-hours' supply. B. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. C. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.
A. A minimum of 2-hours' supply.
Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A. Certificate holder's Operations Specifications. B. International Aeronautical Information Manual. C. International Notices to Airmen.
A. Certificate holder's Operations Specifications.
If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed? A. For taxi, takeoff and landing. B. Only for takeoff and landing. C. During taxi, takeoff, landing and after ditching.
A. For taxi, takeoff and landing.
Which minimum level of RFFS do you need when filing an alternate using 180 minutes ETOPS rule? A. ICAO Category 4. B. ICAO Category 3. C. ICAO Category 2.
A. ICAO Category 4.
What it the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A. Seven. B. Six. C. Five.
A. Seven.
An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? A. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. B. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. C. Survival kit for each passenger.
A. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
When a pilot plans a flight using GPS NAVAIDs, which rule applies? A. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B. The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds. C. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDs, to a suitable airport and land anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.
A. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.
What are the line check requirements for a domestic air carrier pilot in command under 60 years of age? A. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C. The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
A. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons? A. Two. B. Four. C. Three.
A. Two.
How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried? A. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. B. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. C. Two; one located near or accessible to the flight crew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.
A. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin.
A crewmember who has served a second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-700), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which training program? A. Upgrade training. B. Recurrent training. C. Initial training.
A. Upgrade training.
An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. VOR. B. VOR and ILS. C. VOR and DME.
A. VOR.
When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. VOR. B. ADF. C. VOR and DME.
A. VOR.
Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each A. aircraft occupant. B. seat on the aircraft. C. passenger seat, plus 10 percent.
A. aircraft occupant.
The "age 65 rule" of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to A. any required pilot crewmember. B. any flight crewmember. C. the pilot in command only.
A. any required pilot crewmember.
An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flight crew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A. at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform flight engineer duties. B. one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C. one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform flight engineer duties.
A. at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.
An aircarrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A. conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. B. carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo." C. conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather.
A. conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route.
What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for A. each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude. B. 30 percent of the passengers. C. 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.
A. each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.
A cockpit voice recorder must be operated A. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. B. from the start of the before starting engines checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown. C. when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.
A. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight.
An example of an air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in part 121 is flight time as an SIC A. in part 121 operations. B. in part 91, subpart K operations. C. in part 135 operations.
A. in part 121 operations.
Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large, turbine-powered airplane A. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. B. may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. C. may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
A. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.
Duty and rest period rules for domestic air carrier operations require that a flight crewmember A. not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B. not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C. be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.
A. not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.
The South Polar region includes A. the entire area south of 60° S latitude. B. the entire area south of 70° S latitude. C. the entire area north of 70° S latitude and south of 60° S latitude.
A. the entire area south of 60° S latitude.
What effective runway length is required for a turbo-jet powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be slippery at the ETA? A. 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C. 115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.
B. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.
Which is the maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier airman may be aloft in any 30 consecutive days, as a member of a flight crew that consists of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember? A. 100 hours. B. 120 hours. C. 300 hours.
B. 120 hours.
The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of A. 10,000 feet within 4 minutes. B. 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. C. 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.
B. 14,000 feet within 4 minutes.
The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in command in a two-pilot crew for a flag air carrier is A. 35 hours. B. 32 hours. C. 30 hours.
B. 32 hours.
ETOPS entry points mean the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than A. 90 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having 2 engines. B. 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having 2 engines. C. 207 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having more than 2 engines.
B. 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having 2 engines.
A supplemental air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew, for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. 6 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 10 hours.
B. 8 hours.
Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment? A. International Flight Information Manual. B. Air Carrier's Operations Specifications. C. Airplane Flight Manual.
B. Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.
Which emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations? A. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. B. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required life raft. C. A self-bouyant, water resistant, portable, survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each required life raft.
B. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required life raft.
If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. The second-in-command only. B. Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C. Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
B. Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
Which rule applies to the use of cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A. All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. C. All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.
B. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased.
Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A. At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C. At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.
B. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience? A. At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B. At least one full stop landing must be made. C. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest approach minimums authorized for the certificate holder.
B. At least one full stop landing must be made.
If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document required under 14 CFR Part 121 dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. A Master Minimum Equipment List for the airplane. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Original dispatch release.
B. Certificate holder's manual.
Which 14 CFR Part 121 required document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.
B. Certificate holder's manual.
What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station? A. FL 240. B. FL 250. C. Above FL 250.
B. FL 250.
What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard? A. Five. B. Four. C. Three.
B. Four.
When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. Five. B. Four. C. Three.
B. Four.
When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer? A. 80,000 pounds. B. More than 80,000 pounds. C. 300,000 pounds.
B. More than 80,000 pounds.
When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat? A. When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. B. Only during the en route flight. C. During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.
B. Only during the en route flight.
What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A. Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airfield and land. B. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. C. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.
B. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event.
An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? A. Survival kit for each passenger. B. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. C. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
B. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.
B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.
An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A. Four. B. Three. C. Two.
B. Three.
For which of these aircraft is the "clearway" for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations? A. Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August 30, 1959. B. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958. C. U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.
B. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958.
When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped? A. For flights at or above FL180. B. Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required. C. In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations.
B. Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required.
For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system, A. a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded date must be erased to get a valid test. B. a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased. C. a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.
B. a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.
For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for A. all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. B. all aircraft occupants. C. all passenger seats.
B. all aircraft occupants.
Federal aviation regulations require that interior emergency lights must A. operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. B. be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment. C. be armed or turned on during landing taxiing and all flight operations.
B. be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment.
Required aeronautical data for the approval of ETOPS routes beyond 180 minutes or operations in the North and South Polar areas must include A. runways for diversion operations and maintenance facilities. B. facilities at each airport or in the immediate area sufficient to protect the passengers from the elements and to see to their welfare. C. pertinent NOTAMs.
B. facilities at each airport or in the immediate area sufficient to protect the passengers from the elements and to see to their welfare.
An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it A. has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. B. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. C. weighs more than 12,500 pounds.
B. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers.
Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin A. may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. B. must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. C. must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.
B. must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin.
The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A. pilot in command and chief pilot. B. pilot in command and director of operations. C. pilot in command and flight follower.
B. pilot in command and director of operations.
Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS A. preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook. B. pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signature Person. C. pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.
B. pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signature Person.
In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is A. encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. B. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. C. required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.
B. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.
If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL410, the other pilot A. and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. B. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. C. must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.
B. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen.
The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplanes must be armed or turned on during A. taxiing, takeoff, cruise and landing. B. taxiing, takeoff and landing. C. takeoff, cruise and landing.
B. taxiing, takeoff and landing.
The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A. difference training. B. transition training. C. upgrade training.
B. transition training.
A flag carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight crewmember, for no more than A. 8 hours during any 12 consecutive hours. B. 10 hours during any 12 consecutive hours. C. 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.
C. 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.
A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations? A. A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each life raft. B. A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life perserver. C. A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.
C. A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.
Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. International Flight Information Manual. C. Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.
C. Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.
What is required when listing an ETOPS Alternate Airport greater then 180 minutes? A. The aircraft must have a total of four engines. B. The aircraft must be equipped with three pilot crew members. C. Airlines are responsible for providing a passenger recovery plan that includes safe retrieval without undue delay.
C. Airlines are responsible for providing a passenger recovery plan that includes safe retrieval without undue delay.
Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121? A. Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. B. Number of passenger cabin occupants. C. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
C. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane? A. A large airplane. B. A turbojet airplane. C. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.
C. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.
An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? A. A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. B. Survival kit for each passenger. C. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.
C. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.
Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A. AIRINC. B. Any FSS. C. Appropriate dispatch office.
C. Appropriate dispatch office.
What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121? A. All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses. B. All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane. C. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.
C. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.
While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. B. Airborne radar. C. DME.
C. DME.
If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2010 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A. January 2011. B. November 2010. C. December 2011.
C. December 2011.
Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane? A. All emergency equipment must be readily accessible to the passengers. B. Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. C. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.
C. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.
The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects such as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operating above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250.
C. FL 250.
A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above A. FL200. B. FL240. C. FL250.
C. FL250.
If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with a quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask? A. FL200. B. FL300. C. FL250.
C. FL250.
For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by A. ICAO Category 3, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. B. ICAO Category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. C. ICAO Category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes.
C. ICAO Category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes.
Which minimum level of RFFS do you need when filing an alternate using the beyond-180 minutes ETOPS rule? A. ICAO Category 4. B. ICAO Category 5. C. ICAO Category 7.
C. ICAO Category 7.
Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations? A. If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B. If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C. If required by the airplane's type certificate.
C. If required by the airplane's type certificate.
When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required abord the aircraft? A. One for each passenger seat. B. One for each passenger seat, plus 10 percent. C. One for each occupant of the aircraft.
C. One for each occupant of the aircraft.
Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger carrying airplane? A. The most forward location in the passenger cabin. B. In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. C. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.
C. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.
How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity or 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried? A. Two; one located near or accessible to the flight crew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. B. Two; one at the forward end and one in the center of the passenger cabin. C. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.
C. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.
The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted privileges or an ATP certificate who also holds an aircraft type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as A. a PIC for a part 121 supplemental air carrier. B. a PIC for a part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as a part 121 SIC. C. a SIC for a part 121 air carrier.
C. a SIC for a part 121 air carrier.
Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes A. of FL260. B. of FL250. C. above FL250.
C. above FL250.
The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which 14 CFR Part 121 operations are conducted. B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position. C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A. one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B. the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.
C. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.
The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder.
C. certificate holder.
The North Polar Area (of operations) means the A. entire area north of 60° N latitude. B. entire area north of 70° N latitude. C. entire area north of 78° N latitude.
C. entire area north of 78° N latitude.
If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A. when able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route. B. in VFR conditions. C. in day VFR conditions.
C. in day VFR conditions.
The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A. upgrade training. B. transition training. C. initial training.
C. initial training.
If there is a required emergency exit located in the flight crew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must A. unlocked during takeoff and landing. B. locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. C. latched open during takeoff and landing.
C. latched open during takeoff and landing.
You are traveling deadhead to or from a duty assignment. How does this affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is A. considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. B. considered part of the rest period for flight crewmembers. C. not considered to be part of a rest period.
C. not considered to be part of a rest period.
A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when A. operations are conducted IFR of VFR on top. B. operations are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore. C. the airplane's position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of time of more than 1 hour.
C. the airplane's position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of time of more than 1 hour.
