Auditing, Ch6 multiple choice questions

Which of the following best describes what is meant by the term "fraud risk factor"? (1) Factors that, when present, indicate that risk exists. (2) Factors often observed in circumstances where frauds have occurred. (3) Factors that, when present, require modification of planned audit procedures. (4) Weaknesses in internal control identified during an audit.

(2) Fraud risk factors are factors that have been observed in circumstances in which fraud has occurred. The fraud risk factors were identified by researchers and practitioners through analyses of many past frauds. Yet, none of the factors was always present in the various individual cases included in the analyses. Answer (1) is incorrect because in any particular circumstance, the existence of a fraud risk factor may or may not indicate that in that circumstance the risk of fraud is high. Answer (3) is incorrect because the existence of a fraud risk factor may not require modification of planned audit procedures (e.g., the audit plan may already have audit procedures that consider the factor). Answer (4) is incorrect because a fraud risk factor may or may not be a significant deficiency.

Three conditions generally are present when fraud occurs. Select the one below that is not one of those conditions. (1) Incentive or pressure. (2) Opportunity. (3) Supervisory position. (4) Attitude.

(3) AICPA AU-C 240 (PCAOB AS 2401) outlines the three functions generally necessary for fraud as (1) incentive or pressure, (2) opportunity, and (3) attitude. Being in a supervisory position is not one of those conditions, although it may provide the individual an opportunity to commit fraud.

Which of the following should not normally be included in the engagement letter for an audit? (1) A description of the responsibilities of client personnel to provide assistance. (2) An indication of the amount of the audit fee. (3) A description of the limitations of an audit. (4) A listing of the client's branch offices selected for testing.

(4) Management should not be informed about which branches were selected for testing at all or at least not until just before testing is to be done.

The audit committee of a company must be made up of: (1) Representatives from the client's management, investors, suppliers, and customers. (2) The audit partner, the chief financial officer, the legal counsel, and at least one outsider. (3) Representatives of the major equity interests, such as preferred and common stockholders. (4) Members of the board of directors who are not officers or employees

(4) Members of the audit committee should be independent of management. Therefore, the individuals should be board members who are not employees or officers, and who have no relationship with management that might impair their objectivity.

l. Which of the following is most likely to be an overall response to fraud risks identified in an audit? (1) Supervise members of the audit team less closely and rely more upon judgment. (2) Use less predictable audit procedures. (3) Use only certified public accountants on the engagement. ( 4) Place increased emphasis on the audit of objective transactions rather than subjective transactions.

2) Less predictable audit procedures are likely to be used when fraud risks are high. SAS 99 also suggest that the auditors have increased skepticism, assign more skilled staff, and consider further management's selection and application of accounting principles.

In planning and performing an audit, auditors are concerned about risk factors for two distinct types of fraud: fraudulent financial reporting and misappropriation of assets. Which of the following is a risk factor for misappropriation of assets? (1) Generous performance-based compensation systems. (2) Management preoccupation with increased financial performance. (3) An unreliable accounting system. (4) Strained relationships between management and the auditors

(3) An unreliable accounting system provides an opportunity for an individual to misappropriate assets. The other items create risks of fraudulent financial reporting.

Which of the following elements underlies the application of generally accepted auditing standards, particularly the standards of fieldwork and reporting? (1) Adequate disclosure. (2) Quality control. (3) Materiality and audit risk. (4) Client acceptance.

(3) Materiality and audit risk underlie the application of generally accepted auditing standard in that so many audit decisions are affected by the amount used as a materiality measure and the level of audit risk assumed on the engagement.

Which portion of an audit is least likely to be completed before the balance sheet date? (1) Tests of controls. (2) Issuance of an engagement letter. (3) Substantive procedures. (4) Assessment of control risk.

(3) Substantive procedures substantiate the account balances as of the balance sheet date and therefore cannot be completed prior to that date. The other items pertain to the operation of the system during the year under audit and could be completed in the interim period.

The primary objective of tests of details of transactions performed as substantive procedures is to: (1) Comply with generally accepted auditing standards. (2) Attain assurance about the reliability of the accounting system. (3) Detect material misstatements in the financial statements. (4) Evaluate whether management's policies and procedures are operating effectively.

(3) The objective of tests of details of transactions performed as substantive procedures is to detect material misstatements in the financial statements as transactions are tested to determine whether they have been properly recorded.

As one step in testing sales transactions, a CPA traces a random sample of sales journal entries to debits in the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger. This test provides evidence as to whether: (1) Each recorded sale represents a bona fide transaction. (2) All sales have been recorded in the sales journal. (3) All debit entries in the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger are properly supported by sales journal entries. (4) Recorded sales have been properly posted to customer accounts.

(4) Because entries in the sales journal represent recorded sales, tracing entries from it to debits in the accounts receivable ledger provides evidence on whether recorded sales have been properly posted to customer accounts.

Which of the following should the auditors obtain from the predecessor auditors before accepting an audit engagement? (1) Analysis of balance sheet accounts. (2) Analysis of income statement accounts. (3) All matters of continuing accounting significance. (4) Facts that might bear on the integrity of management.

(4) Before accepting an engagement the possible successor should ask questions about the integrity of management, disagreements with management, and the reasons for the change in auditors. All of the other replies are incorrect because they represent information that the successor may wish to obtain after accepting the engagement

The risk that the auditors will conclude, based on substantive procedures, that a material misstatement does not exist in an account balance when, in fact, such misstatement does exist is referred to as (1) Business risk. (2) Engagement risk. (3) Control risk. (4) Detection risk.

(4) Detection risk is the risk that the auditor will conclude, based on substantive procedures, that a material misstatement does not exist in an account balance, when, in fact, such misstatement does exist.