bio ch 8,9,10

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An individual with the karyotype 48, XYYY would have how many Barr bodies?

0

Camels have a diploid chromosome number of 70. At prophase II, each cell would contain how many tetrads?

0

A homozygous red-eyed female Drosophila mates with a red-eyed male Drosophila. What proportion of the female offspring will have white eyes?

0%

In a monohybrid cross, how many traits are examined?

1

Ryan has type A blood and is color-blind (an X-linked recessive trait). Which of the following combinations are possible for his parents?

1,3,4,5

If a heterozygous dominant tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of tall:short plants?

1:1

During G1 stage of interphase, a diploid organism contains how many copies of each gene?

2

During prophase II, a diploid organism contains how many copies of each gene?

2

The failure of sister chromatids to separate would result in how many normal gametes?

2

Amy has wavy hair and 6 fingers (an autosomal dominant trait). Wavy hair is inherited through incomplete dominance. Which of the following combinations are possible for her parents?

2 and 4

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell, how many chromosomes are there?

20

Both parents are heterozygous for Tay-Sachs disease (an autosomal recessive disorder). Three children in a row were born with Tay-Sachs disease. What is the chance that a fourth child will have Tay-Sachs disease?

25%

Martha has a widow's peak (dominant trait) and attached earlobes (recessive trait). Martha's dad had a straight hairline and unattached earlobes. If Martha marries a man that is heterozygous for both traits, what is the probability that they will have a child with a widow's peak and attached earlobes?

3/8

Goats have a diploid chromosome number of 60. At prophase I, each cell would have ________ tetrads present, for a total of ________ chromatids.

30;120

Armadillos have a diploid chromosome number of 64. At prophase I, an armadillo's cell would have ________ tetrads present.

32

During prophase I, a diploid organism contains how many copies of each gene?

4

Turner syndrome is associated with which of the following karyotypes?

45, XO

A red-eyed male Drosophila mates with a red-eyed female Drosophila. One of the female's parents had white eyes. What proportion of the male offspring will have white eyes?

50%

Morgan breeds and sells snakes. He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes. Albinism is a recessive trait. His female albino corn snake just produced six offspring. Two displayed normal coloration and four were albino. What is the chance that another offspring produced by the same parents will be albino?

50%

Vitamin-D resistant rickets is a sex-linked dominant trait, which leads to softening of the bones, which can cause fractures and deformities. Rickets is often due to a deficiency of vitamin D; however, with vitamin-D resistant rickets, ingestion of vitamin D is ineffective. Maria's mother is normal and does not display any symptoms of this disease. Maria's father, however, has the disease. Maria marries a man that does not have the disease. What is the probability that they will have a daughter that has the disease?

50%

Vitamin-D resistant rickets is a sex-linked dominant trait, which leads to softening of the bones, which can cause fractures and deformities. Rickets is often due to a deficiency of vitamin D; however, with vitamin-D resistant rickets, ingestion of vitamin D is ineffective. Maria's mother is normal and does not display any symptoms of this disease. Maria's father, however, has the disease. Maria marries a man that does not have the disease. What is the probability that they will have a son that has the disease?

50%

Camels have a diploid chromosome number of 70. At prophase II, each cell would contain how many chromatids?

70

In a dihybrid cross where both parents are heterozygous, the phenotypic ratio is

9;3;3;1

A woman with type AB blood marries a man with type B blood. If they have children, what are all the possible blood types for the children?

AB, BB, AO, and BO

A couple has three children, two of which have blonde hair. The third child and both parents have dark hair. What can be determined about the gene for hair color in this family?

Blonde hair color is an autosomal recessive trait.

Which of the following statements is true? about chromosomes

Chromosomes are classified into two categories: the sex chromosomes that determine gender and autosomes that determine non-gender related traits.

Which of the following is not correct about crossing-over?

Crossing-over is only detectable when it occurs between sister chromatids.

The G2 checkpoint prevents the cell cycle from continuing until

DNA is completely replicated and damage to DNA can be repaired.

Interphase differs from interkinesis because

DNA is duplicated during interphase, but not during interkinesis.

If the parental genotype is EeWw, what are the potential allele combinations that could occur at the end of meiosis?

EW, Ew, eW, and ew

Which of the following is not true with regard to the law of segregation?

Each gamete contains two genes for each trait.

Parents with the dominant phenotype cannot have offspring with the recessive phenotype.

False, because both parents could carry the recessive allele.

Morgan buys a male python from a snake dealer who tells him that the snake carries the albino allele. Morgan mates the snake with an albino female, and four normally pigmented offspring are produced. Morgan rushes back to the snake dealer and demands his money back stating that the male he bought is not heterozygous for the albino allele because all of its offspring had normal pigmentation.

False, because for each offspring, there is a 50% chance that it will have normal pigmentation.

Which of the following is true? about sex linked traits

Females can be heterozygous for sex-linked traits.

What are all possible gametes that can be produced by an individual with the following genotype: FFGg?

Fg, FG

A long-winged Drosophila female with a gray body (heterozygotic for both traits) mates with a black, short-winged male fly (recessive for both traits). The phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 1:1:1:1. What is the genotype of the female fly?

LlGg

Which is not true according to Mendel's law and meiosis?

One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual.

If a true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a tall pea plant of unknown parentage, which of the following is correct?

Some short individuals may appear in the F2 generation.

Which of the following is true about an individual with the chromosomes shown in this figure?

The individual is heterozygous for all traits.

If both parents express a particular trait, but their child does not, what does this indicate about the trait?

The trait is an autosomal dominant trait.

If an individual expresses a dominant disease, which of the following is true?

There is at least a 50% probability that his children will inherit the disease.

The garden pea was a good model for Mendel's genetics experiments. Which of the following is not true regarding this model organism?

There was only one variety of pea available to Mendel.

Which of the following is not true about blood types?

This is an example of a multiple allele trait and an individual can have up to three different alleles.

A man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B can have a baby with blood type O.

True, because A and B are the dominant blood types and both individuals could carry a type O allele.

What does true-breeding mean?

When the plant self-pollinates, all the offspring resemble the parent, and are homozygous for that gene.

Martha has a widow's peak (dominant trait) and attached earlobes (recessive trait). Martha's dad had a straight hairline and unattached earlobes. What is Martha's genotype?

Wwee

A human egg with 22 chromosomes that is fertilized by a normal sperm will result in

a zygote with monosomy

The human life cycle consists of

adults who are diploid and produce haploid gametes; these gametes fuse to produce a diploid zygote which grows into an adult.

The filled-in squares of a Punnett square represent

all possible combinations of gametes based on a cross between the two parents.

Alleles A, B, and C are found on the same chromosome with alleles a, b, and c on the homologous chromosome. If alleles A and C on one homologous chromosome and alleles a and c on the other homologous chromosome are typically inherited together, this suggests that

alleles a and c are closer together than alleles c and b.

alleles are

alternate versions of the same trait.

An individual with Swyer syndrome (46, XY) differs from an individual with Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY) because

an individual with Klinefelter syndrome has a functional SRY gene on his Y chromosome, whereas an individual with Swyer syndrome does not.

You are looking at a cell under a microscope and see what appears to be several "X" structures being pulled to each side of the cell. What stage of meiosis are you looking at?

anaphase I

Which of the following phases results in separation of sister chromatids into daughter chromosomes?

anaphase II and anaphase of mitosis

Which of the following is not a correct match? plant structures

anther - female

It would be possible for a male and a female to have exactly the same ________, but they would have to differ in ________.

autosomes; sex chromosomes

Rick has a high incidence of cancer in his family. Four of the following five statements are preventative measures to avoid cancer. Which of the following is not correct?

avoid a high-fiber, low-sodium diet

Which variable will determine the coat color in Himalayan rabbits?

both the genetics and environment will determine the coat color

Morgan buys a male python from a snake dealer who tells him that the snake carries the albino allele. What is the most effective way for Morgan to verify this statement?

breed the snake with a homozygous recessive albino female

Which of the following is not a function of meiosis?

cause an organism to grow

during meiosis II,

chromosomes line up separately, with sister chromatids facing opposite spindle poles.

A cow with black and white patches is produced from a white bull and a black cow. This is an example of

codominance

Which of the following is a sex-linked recessive disorder?

color blindness

Which of the diagrams best illustrates the appearance of a chromosome or chromosome pair at the end of prophase I?

diagram 2

All but which one of the following results from nondisjunction?

diploidy

Hydrangeas are a flowering plant with large showy blooms. When a plant is grown in aluminum-rich soil, it has blue flowers; if the same plant is transplanted into soil that is lacking aluminum, the flowers produced will be pink. This is an example of

environmental factors

Primroses have white flowers when grown above 32°C but red flowers when grown at 24°C. This interaction between phenotypic expression and environment is an example of

epistasis

A heterozygote for a trait exhibiting incomplete dominance will

exhibit an intermediate phenotype

A blue-eyed, left-handed woman marries a brown-eyed, right-handed man who is heterozygous for both of his traits. If blue eyes and left-handedness are recessive, how many different phenotypes are possible in their children?

four

Which of the following is an example of a phenotype?

freckles

Following meiosis I, the daughter cells are ________; following meiosis II, the daughter cells are ________; and following mitosis, the daughter cells are ________.

haploid; haploid; diploid

Morgan breeds and sells snakes. He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes. Albinism is a recessive trait. His female albino corn snake just produced six offspring. Two displayed normal coloration and four were albino. What do you know about the genotype of the father?

he must be heterozygous

Red-green color blindness is a recessive X-linked trait. If a female is red-green color-blind, which of the following is true?

her father must be color blind

Which feature is found among an autosomal recessive pedigree?

heterozygotes have a normal phenotype

Chromosomes that occur in pairs and code for the same traits are called ________ chromosomes; these do not include the ________ chromosomes, which code for gender.

homologous; sex

Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?

huntington's disease

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

identical alleles - homologous

Which of the following is not a correct match?

identical alleles- heterozygous

If a homozygous black bull is mated with a homozygous white cow and the calf is gray, this would be an example of ________. However, if the calf has black and white spots, this would be an example of ________.

incomplete dominance; codominance

Which of the following processes does not contribute to creating genetic variability in the offspring?

interkinesis

During meiosis, each pair of alleles on the homologous chromosomes sorts independently from all other pairs of alleles. This statement corresponds to

law of independent assortment

Klinefelter syndrome can result from nondisjunction during

meiosis I or II in either parent

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of (lined up in middle)

metaphase

During which stage of meiosis will the pairs of homologous chromosomes line up?

metaphase I

For the figure shown here, indicate the correct stage of meiosis and diploid chromosome number. lined up in middle 2 on each side

metaphase I, 2n=4

If tumor cells have a faulty, nonfunctional proteinase, they will be unable to undergo which of the following processes?

metastasis

The mitotic spindle is composed of ________ and grows from the ________ toward the center of the cell.

microtubules; centrosome

Some multicellular organisms, like the hydra, use asexual reproduction to produce a bud that leads to a new organism. This means that they are using

mitotic division to create new cells that become a new organism.

The failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis is called

nondisjunction

Swyer syndrome (46, XY, female appearance), would most likely result from

normal disjunction during meiosis, but deletion of a portion of the Y chromosome in the male parent.

Cells that do not receive the correct signals to move from G1 into S phase will enter G0 and therefore will

not undergo mitotic division unless it later receives the go-ahead signal.

Cold weather can change what aspect of a Himalayan rabbit?

phenotype

What genetic disorder is associated with the lack of an enzyme necessary for the normal metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine?

phenylketonuria (PKU)

People who suffer from Marfan syndrome have disproportionately long limbs, a weakened aorta, and poor eyesight. All of these characteristics are due to the production of abnormal connective tissue, resulting from a single defective gene. Marfan syndrome is an example of

pleiotropy

Sickle-cell disease is caused by a single mutation in the DNA of a particular gene. A person with this disease has red blood cells that lose their original donut shape and form a sickle shape. People with this disorder suffer from low energy levels, blood clots, and strokes. This is an example of

pleiotropy

Traits that are controlled by several sets or pairs of alleles, such as skin color and height in humans, are the result of what form of inheritance?

polygenic

Skin color is coded for by several different genes which results in a range of skin colors from very dark to very light. This is an example of

polygenic inheritance

In a one-trait testcross, the phenotype that disappears in the F1 generation of a homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive cross is the

recessive trait

What type of disorder is hemophilia classified as?

sex-linked recessive

What type of disorder is muscular dystrophy classified as?

sex-linked recessive

Which genetic disorder is associated with an irregular shape of the red blood cells?

sickle-cell disease

Crossing-over between sister chromatids does not result in recombination of genetic material, while crossing-over between nonsister chromatids does because

sister chromatids have the same alleles, while nonsister chromatids have different ones.

Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome?

tall stature

linked genes

tend to be close together on a single chromosome.

It is essential that germ cells undergo meiosis so that

the number of chromosomes is cut in half in gametes

The outcome of a genetic cross involving eye color and body type is predicted to have a 25%: 25%: 25%: 25% ratio. When bred, the organisms produced offspring with the following ratio 45%: 45%: 3%: 3%. These results are most likely due to

the two genes in question being linked on the same chromosome.

Morgan breeds and sells snakes. He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes. Albinism is a recessive trait. His female albino corn snake just produced six offspring. Two displayed normal coloration and four were albino. What do you know about the genotype of the baby snakes with the normal coloration?

they must be heterozygous

Which of the following human syndromes is a monosomy?

turner syndrome

A tetrad is composed of

two chromosomes with two sister chromatids each.

Unattached earlobes (EE or Ee) are dominant over attached earlobes (ee). A couple both have unattached earlobes. Both notice that one of their parents on both sides have attached earlobes (ee). Therefore, they correctly assume that they are carriers for attached earlobes (Ee). If the couple proceeds to have four children, then

two heterozygous, one homozygous dominant, and one homozygous recessive is a likely outcome, but all heterozygous, or two, three, or all four homozygous is also possible.

On one chromosome, the allele for white eyes is located at loci 12 and the allele for a hairy body is located at loci 16. On a second chromosome, the allele for red eyes is located at loci 15 and the allele for a normal body is located at loci 17. Which allele combination has the greater map distance?

white eyes and hairy body

A male is always homozygous for a trait that is

x-linked

A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that

a cell is probably cancerous

Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell undergoes mitosis and not cytokinesis, this would result in

a cell with two or more nuclei

An oncogene is more likely to lead to cancer than a mutant tumor suppressor gene because

a gain of function mutation in an oncogene need only occur in one allele before it disrupts control of the cell cycle.

A woman inherits a mutant BRCA1 allele from her mother. She has an increased risk of developing breast cancer because

a mutation in her normal BRCA1 allele may lead to cancer, whereas a normal individual would have to acquire two mutations (one in each allele) to develop cancer.

Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. If cells are removed from the middle of the dish, the cells bordering the open space will begin dividing until they have filled the empty space. What does this experiment show?

all answers are valid and correct

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of (pulling apart from middle)

anaphase

For the figure shown here, indicate the correct stage of meiosis and diploid chromosome number. pulling apart 4 on each side

anaphase I, 2n=8

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuation in concentration during the cell cycle, are called

cyclins

Which of the diagrams represent a chromosome or chromosome pair in a cell at the end of prophase II?

diagram 4

The figure below shows a cell in which stage of the cell cycle? (centrioles in centrosomes, nucleolus, chromatin, nuclear envelope, plasma membrane)

interphase

DNA and histones form bead-like globules known as

nucleosomes

a dyad consists of

one duplicated chromosome consisting of two sister chromatids.

Which of the following processes and products are paired correctly?

oogenesis - 1n gamete

Which of the following does not occur twice during meiosis?

pairing of homologous chromosomes

Which of the following is a correct match?

separation of sister chromatids - anaphase II

The structures labeled "d" in the following figure are called

sister chromatids

The spindle serves two roles in mitotic cell division. These are to separate the

sister chromatids and to elongate the cell.

Which lifestyle choice is responsible for 90% of the cases of lung cancer among men?

smoking

Susan went to an oncologist because some cancerous cells had been detected within her breast tissue. Which of the following is not a warning signal for cancer?

some cells were found to be in interphase

The term metastasis refers to the fact that cancer cells tend to

spread

A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene

stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis.

If cancer is discovered at an early stage, which treatment method is most often used?

surgery

All of the following occur during the latter stages of mitotic prophase except the

synthesis of DNA

Embryonic cells and cancer cells are similar because

telomerase is active

Ben was looking at onion root tip cells under the microscope in biology class. He saw one cell that had two nuclei within it. What stage of the cell cycle was this cell in?

telophase/cytokinesis

Cytokinesis in plants occurs as ________ and in animals as ________.

the Golgi apparatus produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M-phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?

the cell would never leave metaphase

All of the following statements are true about mitosis except

the cells arising from mitosis contain only half of the necessary genetic material.

The possibility of Down syndrome increases as the mother's age increases because

the possibility of nondisjunction increases

cancer occurs when

the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.

If a cell stops at the G1 checkpoint, this is most likely due to what problem?

there is DNA damage

When a portion of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a different chromosome, this is called a

translocation

A protein that promotes apoptosis would be considered a(n)

tumor suppressor

A cell is inhibited during the S phase of its cycle. It will not reproduce due to lack of

DNA synthesis

Inheritance of mutant forms of some genes may lead to a predisposition to develop cancer. Which of the genes listed below has not been linked to hereditary forms of cancer?

DScam

If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at the end of anaphase there would be a total of

92 chromosomes

In each gamete following telophase II, how many copies of each gene is/are present?

1

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA in the nucleus. Those cells would have ________ picograms at the end of the S phase and ________ picograms at the end of G2.

16;16

Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. Which of the following statements explains why this occurs?

Cell division can be inhibited by the proximity of other cells of the same type, a process called contact inhibition.

Which of the following organelles would be abundant and in close proximity to the cell plate in a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis?

Golgi apparatus

Which of the following statements is correct? in relation to meiosis

Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four nonidentical daughter nuclei.

Which items in the following pairs are correctly matched?

S phase- DNA replication

A tumor suppressor gene undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose its normal function. What would be the most likely result of this mutation?

The cell no longer responds to signals that cause it to stop dividing or undergo apoptosis

What would occur in a cell if the production of cyclins halted during the cell cycle?

The cell would remain in the G2 phase and would not enter into mitosis.

How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare to their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?

The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.

Which statement best describes how the members of a tetrad are separated during meiosis I?

The two homologous chromosomes of a tetrad separate into different daughter nuclei.

Refer to the figure below. Differentiated cells, such as nerve cells, would be in which of the following stages of the cell cycle?

b

apoptosis

can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells.

Angiogenesis contributes to carcinogenesis because it

causes blood vessels to grow into the tumor.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells? in relation to phases

cells that spend 90% of their lifetime in interphase

The structure labeled "c" in the following figure is called the

centromere

What is the structure that holds together the two sister chromatids that form a chromosome?

centromere

Which cancer therapy can lead to side effects such as nausea and hair loss?

chemotherapy

What structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?

chromosome

The looping of DNA around histone proteins

condenses a large amount of DNA so that it can fit into the cell.

One major difference between meiosis I and meiosis II is that

crossing-over occurs in prophase of meiosis I but not in prophase of meiosis II.

A translocation may lead to cancer if it

disrupts control of expression of genes that regulate the cell cycle.

A mutation that causes an increase in function in a tumor suppressor gene would not likely cause cancer because a tumor suppressor protein

does not promote cell division

When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

during mitosis

Nuclear division is represented in the figure below by the letter

e

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells? exhibits ____

exhibit contact inhibition

During meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes of a tetrad

face opposite spindle poles.

Which of the following lists is in the correct order, from the least inclusive to the most inclusive?

gene - allele - chromosome

during crossing-over,

genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.

The presence of which protein is required in order for chromatin to compact correctly within the nucleus?

histone

Metaphase II is more similar to metaphase of mitosis than to metaphase I because

in metaphase II, dyads align separately at the spindle equator.

Multicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division to

increase the size of the organism

While Jeff was looking under the microscope at cells in different stages of mitosis, he commented on the fact that many cells were in the same stage. If you were looking under the compound light microscope at an onion root tip, in what stage of the cell cycle would the majority of the cells be?

interphase

Which is not a correct association?

interphase - shortest stage of the cell cycle

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the events of the cell cycle?

interphase consists of G1, S, and G2

During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?

interphase; S

Rebecca found out that she has a mass of dividing cells called a tumor in her ovaries. She has had tests and is returning to the doctor. Which of the following would be the best news that Rebecca could receive from her doctor?

it is a benign tumor

in the human life cycle,

meiosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by mitosis to produce a new individual.

Susan was examining a cell under the microscope and noticed the formation of a cell plate in the midline of the cell and the formation of nuclei at opposite poles of the cell. The cell under examination was most likely a(n)

plant cell undergoing cytokinesis

Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because

plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells do not.

Some of the drugs used in chemotherapy work by

preventing spindle formation

Unicellular organisms undergo mitotic division to

produce new organisms

The drug chloral hydrate prevents elongation of microtubules by preventing the addition of new subunits to the growing end. During which stage of mitosis would chloral hydrate be most harmful?

prophase

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of (early mitotic spindle, centrosome, centromere, chromosome with two sister chromatids)

prophase

For the figure shown here, indicate the correct stage of meiosis and the diploid number of the cell.

prophase II, 2n=4

Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their

rate of cell division


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