Bio Exam #2
11) Each indication below is a clinical characteristic of inflammation except A) decreased temperature. B) edema. C) redness. D) pain. E) increased blood flow.
A
16) Which of the following is not a part of an antibody molecule? A) the epitope B) the constant or C regions C) the variable or V regions D) the light chains E) the heavy chains
A
24) Which of the following cell types are responsible for initiating a secondary immune response? A) memory cells B) macrophages C) stem cells D) B cells E) T cells
A
26) The MHC is important in a T cellʹs ability to A) distinguish self from nonself. B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens. C) identify specific bacterial pathogens. D) identify specific viruses. E) recognize differences among types of cancer.
A
28) In which of the following situations will helper T cells be activated? A) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell B) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines C) when natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor cell D) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test
A
35) These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, and they respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes: A) cytotoxic T cells B) natural killer cells C) helper T cells D) macrophages E) B cells
A
48) When antibodies attack antigens, clumping of the affected cells generally occurs. This is best explained by A) the shape of the antibody with at least two binding regions. B) disulfide bridges between the antigens. C) complement that makes the affected cells sticky. D) bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules. E) denaturation of the antibodies.
A
59) A bone marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given donor (Jane) to a given recipient (Janeʹs cousin Bob), even though Jane has previously given blood for one of Bobʹs needed transfusions. Which of the following might account for this? A) Janeʹs blood type is a match to Bobʹs but her MHC proteins are not. B) A blood type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant because blood is more tolerant of change. C) For each gene, there is only one blood allele but many tissue alleles. D) Janeʹs class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow. E) Bobʹs immune response has been made inadequate before he receives the transplant.
A
61) Regulatory T cells ________. A) may function in preventing autoimmune reactions B) decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decreases C) release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells D) are the most thoroughly understood T cells
A
64) An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because A) MHC molecules of the donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue. B) the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune response. C) a response to the graft will involve T cells and a response to the bacterium will not. D) a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells. E) the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient.
A
65) Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms? A) phagocytes B) gastric juice C) keratin D) cilia
A
66) Which of the following could prevent the appearance of the symptoms of an allergy attack? A) blocking the attachment of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells B) blocking the antigenic determinants of the IgM antibodies C) reducing the number of helper T cells in the body D) A and B only E) B and C only
A
71) Some pathogens can undergo rapid changes resulting in antigenic variation. Which of the following is such a pathogen? A) the influenza virus, which expresses alternative envelope proteins B) the strep bacteria, which can be communicated from patient to patient with high efficiency C) human papilloma virus, that can remain latent for several years D) the causative agent of an autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis E) multiple sclerosis, that attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system
A
77) Fever ________. A) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting B) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication C) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy D) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
A
86) Natural killer (NK) cells ________. A) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated B) are also called cytotoxic T cells C) are cells of the adaptive immune system D) are a type of phagocyte
A
87) Select the correct statement about antigens. A) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody. B) "Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens. C) Only small antigens exhibit reactivity. D) The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.
A
90) Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies. A) Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection. B) Neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together. C) The most potent agglutinating agent is IgG. D) Antibodies may directly destroy "invaders."
A
94) Select the correct statement about complement. A) An adaptive immune mechanism is often involved in directing complement to its target. B) Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, secondary, and alternate. C) Complement proteins C1 through C9 act exclusively in the classical pathway. D) The membrane attack complex consists of complement proteins C3a through C5.
A
33) These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, and they respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes.
A. cytotoxic T cells
104) ________ is the most common type of immediate hypersensitivity.
Allergy
18) Clonal selection implies that A) brothers and sisters have similar immune responses. B) antigens increase mitosis in specific lymphocytes. C) only certain cells can produce interferon. D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors. E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
B
18) The clonal selection theory implies that A) brothers and sisters have similar immune responses. B) antigens activate specific lymphocytes. C) only certain cells can produce interferon. D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors. E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
B
35) Which of the following is (are) not involved in the activation and functioning of cytotoxic T cells? A) interleukins B) antigen-presenting cells C) class I MHC molecules D) T cell surface protein CD8 E) perforin
B
36) Which of the following is a pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells? A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → synthesis of new viral proteins → class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface C) self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released D) complement cells → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released E) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis
B
37) Which of the following is a pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells? A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface C) self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released D) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released E) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis
B
4) Which of the following is not true about helper T cells? A) They function in cell-mediated and humoral responses. B) They recognize polysaccharide fragments presented by class II MHC molecules. C) They bear surface CD4 molecules. D) They are subject to infection by HIV. E) When activated, they secrete cytokines.
B
47) Antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other in the A) way they are produced. B) way they interact with the antigen. C) type of cell that produces them. D) antigenic determinants that they recognize. E) number of carbohydrate subunits they have.
B
52) What happens to people who receive flu vaccinations? A) They develop active immunity to the flu. B) They develop passive immunity to the flu. C) They have immunity to smallpox infection. D) They have an increased number of natural killer (NK) cells. E) They develop a hypersensitive humoral immune response.
B
53) The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________. A) margination B) chemotaxis C) diapedesis D) phagocytosis
B
58) What would be the major concern for an individual with type A blood who receives a transfusion of type B blood? A) the antibodies in the serum of the donor B) the antibodies in the serum of the recipient C) the anti-A antibodies produced by the donor D) the production of memory cells that will occur in the recipient E) antibodies in both the donor's and recipient's serum
B
59) A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in which of the following? A) the recipient's B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies B) the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells C) the recipient's anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type D) no reaction because type O is a universal donor E) no reaction because the O-type individual does not have antibodies
B
6) Inflammatory responses may include which of the following? A) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection B) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma D) release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow
B
70) A person with AIDS would be unlikely to suffer from which of the following diseases? A) cancer B) rheumatoid arthritis C) hepatitis D) tuberculosis E) influenza
B
70) Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________. A) diapedesis B) opsonization C) agglutination D) chemotaxis
B
72) Some viruses can undergo latency, the ability to remain inactive for some period of time. Which of the following is an example? A) influenza, a particular strain of which returns every 10-20 years B) herpes simplex viruses (oral or genital) whose reproduction is triggered by physiological or emotional stress in the host C) Kaposiʹs sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in people with AIDS, but rarely in those not infected by HIV D) the virus that causes a form of the common cold, which recurs in patients many times in their lives E) myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease that blocks muscle contraction from time to time
B
73) Which of the following would be classified as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction? A) anaphylaxis B) allergic contact dermatitis C) cytotoxic hypersensitivity D) immune complex hypersensitivity
B
75) The genetic material of HIV consists of A) single-stranded DNA. B) single-stranded RNA. C) double-stranded DNA. D) double-stranded RNA. E) none of the above
B
75) Which of the following statements is incorrect or false? A) MHC proteins are the cell's identity markers. B) Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens. C) Haptens lack immunogenicity unless attached to protein carriers. D) Class 1 MHC molecules are built into the plasma membranes of all body cells.
B
76) Double-stranded viral DNA is incorporated into a host cell as a A) promoter. B) provirus. C) transposon. D) lac. E) homeobox.
B
80) Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity. A) Immunological memory is established by passive immunization. B) Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies. C) A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body. D) The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism.
B
81) Which of the following is not true about helper T cells? A) They function in both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. B) They recognize polysaccharide fragments presented by class II MHC molecules. C) They bear surface CD4 molecules. D) They are subject to infection by HIV. E) When activated, they secrete cytokines.
B
86) HIV targets include all of the following except A) macrophages. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) helper T cells. D) cells bearing CD4 and fusin. E) brain cells.
B
89) The primary immune response ________. A) occurs when memory cells are stimulated B) has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells C) is another name for immunological memory D) occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response
B
93) Which of the following is not a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders? A) mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present B) a second exposure to an allergen C) exposure of previously "hidden" self-antigens to the adaptive immune system D) cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens
B
10) Inflammatory responses may include all of the following except A) clotting proteins sealing off a localized area. B) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area. C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma. D) release of substances to increase the blood supply to an inflamed area. E) increased release of white blood cells from bone marrow.
C
100) What is the role of interferon in defense against disease? A) protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria B) activates the inflammatory process C) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses D) activates the complement mechanism
C
13) Which of the following is a false statement about innate immunity? A) They include inflammatory responses. B) They include physical and chemical barriers. C) They must be primed by the presence of antigen. D) They may involve the formation of membrane attack complexes. E) Macrophages and natural killer cells are participants in the process.
C
19) The clonal selection theory is an explanation for how A) a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells. B) V gene and J gene segments are rearranged. C) an antigen can provoke development of very few cells to result in production of high levels of specific antibodies. D) HIV can disrupt the immune system. E) macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells.
C
20) A person exposed to a new cold virus would not feel better for one to two weeks because A) specific B cells and T cells must be selected prior to a protective response. B) it takes up to two weeks to stimulate immunologic memory cells. C) phagocytic cells must first be activated by the complement system. D) antigen receptors are not the same. E) V-J gene rearrangement must occur prior to a response.
C
33) The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along with which of the following? A) complement B) antibodies C) class I MHC molecules D) class II MHC molecules E) Dendritic cells
C
46) Which of the following is not a type of T cell? A) regulatory B) cytotoxic C) antigenic D) helper
C
52) Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement? A) NK cells attack cancer cells and virus-infected body cells. B) NK cells attack cells that display abnormal MHC antigens. C) NK cells are a type of neutrophil. D) NK cells are present in the blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow.
C
53) Naturally acquired passive immunity would involve the A) injection of vaccine. B) ingestion of interferon. C) placental transfer of antibodies. D) absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes. E) injection of antibodies.
C
54) Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________. A) reagins B) antibodies C) haptens D) ions
C
55) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis? A) chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion, adherence, killing B) adherence, digestion, killing, ingestion, chemotaxis C) chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing D) ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion, killing
C
57) Which of the following does not respond to cell-mediated immunity? A) foreign tissue transplants B) some cancer cells C) pathogens in the CNS D) intracellular pathogens that reside within host cells
C
58) The number of MHC protein combinations possible in a given population is enormous. However, an individual in that population has only a couple of MHC possibilities. Why? A) The MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways. B) MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II. C) Each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits 2 for each gene. D) Once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories. E) Once a T cell has matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories.
C
71) Which choice could be used as an analogy to describe how HIV affects the body? A) bypassing a light switch so that electricity is constantly flowing to a light B) rebooting a computer after getting a program error message C) snipping the wires coming from a car battery so that no electricity flows to the car components D) an elevator stopping at the floor for which the button has been pushed E) changing the color of your house to match the color of your car
C
76) Phagocyte mobilization involves ________. A) diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall B) monocytes as the most active phagocyte C) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas D) margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues
C
79) Select the correct statement about the prevention of immune attack on "self." A) Neutrophils capable of binding to self-antigens are chemically inactivated. B) The development of tolerance is specific to B cells only. C) Tolerance is developed during fetal life. D) Tolerance to self is due to the action of foreign antigens that inactivate the immune response to one's own tissues.
C
80) An epitope associates with which part of an antibody? A) the antibody-binding site B) the heavy-chain constant regions only C) the variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined D) the light-chain constant regions only E) the antibody tail
C
99) Which of the following is not a method by which antibodies work? A) agglutinating and precipitating antigen B) neutralizing antigen C) activating cytokines D) enhancing phagocytosis
C
Major innate mechanism that mediates destruction of foreign substances in the body.
Complement
14) What is the single most important event establishing a primary immune response? A) the presentation of viral protein complexed to class I MHC B) the lyses of virally infected cells by cytotoxic T cells C) the phagocytosis of microbes by antigen-presenting cells D) the recognition of self versus foreign E) apoptosis of virally infected cells
D
17) If a newborn were accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus, what would most likely happen? A) His cells would lack class I MHC molecules on their surface. B) His humoral immunity would be missing. C) Genetic rearrangement of antigen receptors would not occur. D) His T cells would not mature and differentiate appropriately. E) His B cells would be reduced in number and antibodies would not form.
D
17) If a newborn were accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus, what would most likely happen? A) His cells would lack class I MHC molecules on their surface. B) His immune system would not function. C) Genetic rearrangement of antigen receptors would not occur. D) His T cells would not undergo the test of self-tolerance. E) His B cells would be reduced in number.
D
2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the early stages of local inflammation? A) anaphylactic shock B) fever C) attack by cytotoxic T cells D) release of histamine E) antibody- and complement-mediated lysis of microbes
D
46) Why can normal immune responses be described as polyclonal? A) Blood contains many different antibodies to many different antigens. B) Construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells. C) Multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell. D) Diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen. E) Macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in normal immune response.
D
5) Which cells and which signaling molecules are responsible for initiating an inflammatory response? A) phagocytes: lysozymes B) phagocytes: chemokines C) dendritic cells: interferons D) mast cells: histamines E) lymphocytes: interferons
D
50) What is the primary function of humoral immunity? A) It primarily defends against fungi and protozoa. B) It is responsible for transplant tissue rejection. C) It protects the body against cells that become cancerous. D) It produces antibodies that circulate in body fluids. E) It primarily defends against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells.
D
51) Which of the following statements about humoral immunity is correct? A) It primarily defends against fungi and protozoa. B) It is responsible for transplant tissue rejection. C) It protects the body against cells that become cancerous. D) It is mounted by lymphocytes that have matured in the bone marrow. E) It primarily defends against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells.
D
54) A major difference between active and passive immunity is that active immunity requires A) acquisition and activation of antibodies. B) proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow. C) transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta. D) direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen. E) secretion of interleukins from macrophages.
D
55) Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against the virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds? A) The immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens. B) The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox. C) Cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties. D) There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses. E) All of the above are true.
D
63) Which of the statements below does not describe antigens? A) Antigens can include proteins, nucleic acids, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and certain large polysaccharides. B) Antigens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity. C) The parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic determinants. D) Antigens only come from microbes.
D
74) Innate immune system defenses include ________. A) plasma cells B) B cells C) T cells D) phagocytosis
D
81) Cytotoxic T cells ________. A) function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations B) self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized C) require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function D) are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells
D
82) Which of the following molecules is incorrectly paired with a source? A) lysozyme—tears B) interferons—virus-infected cells C) antibodies—B cells D) chemokines—cytotoxic T cells E) cytokines—helper T cells
D
84) Which of the following is true of immediate hypersensitivities? A) They are are adaptive immune responses to disease organisms. B) They include allergic contact dermatitis. C) They are also called type IV hypersensitivities. D) They involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.
D
97) Which statement is true about T cells? A) Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines. B) They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells. C) They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins. D) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.
D
What are antigens? A) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump B) proteins embedded in B cell membranes C) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains D) foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies E) proteins released during an inflammatory response
D
17) Major innate mechanism that mediates destruction of foreign substances in the body.
D) Complement
11) Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation that might appear in such art? A) heat, pain, and redness B) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue C) swelling and pain D) antibody producing cells E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain
E
27) The MHC is important in A) distinguishing self from nonself. B) recognizing parasitic pathogens. C) identifying bacterial pathogens. D) identifying cancer cells. E) both A and D
E
38) The following events occur when a mammalian immune system first encounters a pathogen. Place them in correct sequence and then choose the answer that indicates that sequence. I. Pathogen is destroyed. II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies. III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes. IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous. V. Only memory cells remain. A) I, III, II, IV, V B) III, II, I, V, IV C) II, I, IV, III, V D) IV, II, III, I, V E) III, IV, II, I, V
E
39) Which cell type interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways? A) plasma cells B) cytotoxic T cells C) natural killer cells D) CD8 cells E) helper T cells
E
42) A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to A) respond to T-independent antigens. B) lyse tumor cells. C) stimulate a cytotoxic T cell. D) interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex. E) interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex.
E
68) What aspect of the immune response would a patient who has a parasitic worm infection and another patient responding to an allergen such as ragweed pollen have in common? A) Both patients would have an increase in cytotoxic T cell number. B) Both patients would suffer from anaphylactic shock. C) Both patients would risk development of an autoimmune disease. D) Both patients would be suffering from a decreased level of innate immunity. E) Both patients would have increased levels of IgE.
E
33) A given pathogen will provoke either a cell-mediated response or an antibody-mediated response but not both.
FALSE
34) Fever is seldom beneficial because it speeds up the cellular metabolic rate and will not allow antigen-antibody reactions to occur.
FALSE
35) Monoclonal antibodies can be specific for several antigenic determinants.
FALSE
21) Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response.
IgG
14) Innate defense system.
Inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes
27) The mechanism of the "lethal hit" of cytotoxic T cells and NK cells involves a protein called perforin.
TRUE
28) Cellular ingestion and destruction of particulate matter is called phagocytosis.
TRUE
38) Anaphylactic shock can result from an immediate hypersensitivity where the allergen enters the blood.
TRUE
