bio1617

9. 9) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found? A) A = C B) A = G and C = T C) A + C = G + T D) G + C = T + A

A + C = G + T

5) A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is A) 3' UCA 5'. B) 3' UGA 5'. C) 5' TCA 3'. D) 3' ACU 5'. E) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base.

A) 3' UCA 5'.

6. 6) The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following? A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism. B) All organisms have experienced convergent evolution. C) DNA was the first genetic material. D) The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids. E) Different organisms have different numbers of different types of amino acids.

A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.

49. 49) You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent A) leading strands and Okazaki fragments. B) lagging strands and Okazaki fragments. C) Okazaki fragments and RNA primers. D) leading strands and RNA primers. E) RNA primers and mitochondrial DNA.

A) leading strands and Okazaki fragments.

18. 19. 19) A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that A) many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA. B) there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code. C) many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid. D) nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process. E) there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.

A) many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.

57. 57) The spontaneous loss of amino groups from adenine in DNA results in hypoxanthine, an uncommon base, opposite thymine. What combination of proteins could repair such damage? A) nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase B) telomerase, primase, DNA polymerase C) telomerase, helicase, single-strand binding protein D) DNA ligase, replication fork proteins, adenylyl cyclase E) nuclease, telomerase, primase

A) nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase

26) What is the function of topoisomerase? A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork B) elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding nucleotides to the existing chain C) adding methyl groups to bases of DNA D) unwinding of the double helix E) stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork

A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork

8. 8) It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following? A) sequence of bases B) phosphate-sugar backbones C) complementary pairing of bases D) side groups of nitrogenous bases E) different five-carbon sugars

A) sequence of bases

7) Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA? A) the diameter of the helix B) the rate of replication C) the sequence of nucleotides D) the bond angles of the subunits E) the frequency of A vs. T nucleotides

A) the diameter of the helix

24) The leading and the lagging strands differ in that A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction. B) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end. C) the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together. D) the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.

A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

1) Which of the following variations on translation would be most disadvantageous for a cell? A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA B) using fewer kinds of tRNA C) having only one stop codon D) lengthening the half-life of mRNA E) having a second codon (besides AUG) as a start codon

A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA

60) According to Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis, how many genes are necessary for this pathway? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) It cannot be determined from the pathway.

Answer: C 61. 61) A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation? A) an accumulation of A and no production of B and C B) an accumulation of A and B and no production of C C) an accumulation of B and no production of A and C D) an accumulation of B and C and no production of A E) an accumulation of C and no production of A and B A) an accumulation of A and no production of B and C

52. 52) In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules? A) A = G B) A + G = C + T C) A + T = G + T D) A = C E) G = T

B) A + G = C + T

4. 4) In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not. B) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not. C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines. E) RNA includes ribose, whereas DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.

B) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.

56. 56) A biochemist isolates, purifies, and combines in a test tube a variety of molecules needed for DNA replication. When she adds some DNA to the mixture, replication occurs, but each DNA molecule consists of a normal strand paired with numerous segments of DNA a few hundred nucleotides long. What has she probably left out of the mixture? A) DNA polymerase B) DNA ligase C) nucleotides D) Okazaki fragments E) primase

B) DNA ligase

40. 40) What is the function of the release factor (RF)? A) It separates tRNA in the A site from the growing polypeptide. B) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA. C) It releases the amino acid from its tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a peptide bond. D) It supplies a source of energy for termination of translation. E) It releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides into the cytosol.

B) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA.

12. 12) RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching? A) It might allow the transcription process to vary from one cell to another. B) It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions. C) It could allow the polymerase to react differently to each stop codon. D) It could allow ribosomal subunits to assemble at faster rates. E) It could alter the rate of translation and of exon splicing.

B) It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions.

1) In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe? A) Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections. B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form. C) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic. D) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains. E) Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.

B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.

10. 10) Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes? A) RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase. B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript. C) RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript. D) Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome. E) RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop advancing through the gene and release the mRNA.

B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript.

45. 45) Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product? A) a deletion of a codon B) a deletion of two nucleotides C) a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon D) a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon E) an insertion of a codon

B) a deletion of two nucleotides

21. 21) Alternative RNA splicing A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription. B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA. C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs. D) increases the rate of transcription. E) is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs.

B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.

20. 20) Polytene chromosomes of Drosophila salivary glands each consist of multiple identical DNA strands that are aligned in parallel arrays. How could these arise? A) replication followed by mitosis B) replication without separation C) meiosis followed by mitosis D) fertilization by multiple sperm E) special association with histone proteins

B) replication without separation

33. 33) There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that A) some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize four or more different codons. B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible. C) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable. D) the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs but some are then destroyed. E) competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed by nucleases.

B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible.

13) An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements? A) primase, polymerase, ligase B) 3' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5' C) 5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3' D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III E) 5' DNA to 3'

C) 5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3'

11. 11) Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic gene expression, but does in eukaryotic gene expression? A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed. B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter. C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end. D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little. E) RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule.

C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.

2. 4. 4) The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group? A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone B) proteins, ATP, and DNA C) ATP, RNA, and DNA D) α glucose, ATP, and DNA E) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP

C) ATP, RNA, and DNA

15. 16. 16) A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which of the following might this illustrate? A) The sequence evolves very rapidly. B) The sequence does not mutate. C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against. D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters. E) The sequence is transcribed at the start of every gene.

C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.

51. 51) What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized? A) The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end. B) Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end. C) DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand. D) DNA ligase works only in the 3' → 5' direction. E) Polymerase can work on only one strand at a time.

C) DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand.

46. 46) What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene? A) It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein. B) It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein. C) It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA. D) It alters the reading frame of the mRNA. E) It prevents introns from being excised.

C) It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.

14) In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein? A) ligase B) RNA polymerase I C) RNA polymerase II D) RNA polymerase III E) primase

C) RNA polymerase II

54. 54) In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around A) polymerase molecules. B) ribosomes. C) histones. D) a thymine dimer. E) satellite DNA.

C) histones.

62. 62) If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain that is mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme A would be able to grow on which of the following media? A) minimal medium B) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient A only C) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient B only D) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient C only E) minimal medium supplemented with nutrients A and C

C) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient B only

50. 50) In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria and mice, Griffith found that A) the protein coat from pathogenic cells was able to transform nonpathogenic cells. B) heat-killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia. C) some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic. D) the polysaccharide coat of bacteria caused pneumonia. E) bacteriophages injected DNA into bacteria.

C) some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic.

9. 9) Which of the following provides some evidence that RNA probably evolved before DNA? A) RNA polymerase uses DNA as a template. B) RNA polymerase makes a single-stranded molecule. C) RNA polymerase does not require localized unwinding of the DNA. D) DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA. E) DNA polymerase has proofreading function.

D) DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA.

3. 3) After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria with a living nonphosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait? A) DNA passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. B) Protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. C) The phosphorescence in the living strain is especially bright. D) Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent. E) Both DNA and protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.

D) Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent.

5. 5) Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl

D) Erwin Chargaff

43) Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of protein's activity? A) It might result in a chromosomal translocation. B) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon. C) It might exchange one serine codon for a different serine codon. D) It might substitute an amino acid in the active site. E) It might substitute the N-terminus of the polypeptide for the C-terminus.

D) It might substitute an amino acid in the active site.

29) Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum are hypersensitive to sunlight. This occurs because their cells are impaired in what way? A) They cannot replicate DNA. B) They cannot undergo mitosis. C) They cannot exchange DNA with other cells. D) They cannot repair thymine dimers. E) They do not recombine homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

D) They cannot repair thymine dimers.

44. 44) In the 1920s Muller discovered that X-rays caused mutation in Drosophila. In a related series of experiments in the 1940s, Charlotte Auerbach discovered that chemicals-she used nitrogen mustards-have a similar effect. A new chemical food additive is developed by a cereal manufacturer. Why do we test for its ability to induce mutation? A) We worry that it might cause mutation in cereal grain plants. B) We want to make sure that it does not emit radiation. C) We want to be sure that it increases the rate of mutation sufficiently. D) We want to prevent any increase in mutation frequency. E) We worry about its ability to cause infection.

D) We want to prevent any increase in mutation frequency.

30. 30) Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase? A) a high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous B) production of Okazaki fragments C) inability to repair thymine dimers D) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes E) high sensitivity to sunlight

D) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes

51. 51) Which of the following mutations is most likely to cause a phenotypic change? A) a duplication of all or most introns B) a large inversion whose ends are each in intergenic regions C) a nucleotide substitution in an exon coding for a transmembrane domain D) a single nucleotide deletion in an exon coding for an active site E) a frameshift mutation one codon away from the 3' end of the nontemplate strand

D) a single nucleotide deletion in an exon coding for an active site 53. 54. 54) Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene? A) a unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic B) a DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein C) a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide D) a DNA—RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product E) a discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids C) a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide

53. 53) The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis A) progresses away from the replication fork. B) occurs in the 3' → 5' direction. C) produces Okazaki fragments. D) depends on the action of DNA polymerase. E) does not require a template strand.

D) depends on the action of DNA polymerase.

63. 63) If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme B would be capable of growing on which of the following media? A) minimal medium B) minimal medium supplemented with A only C) minimal medium supplemented with B only D) minimal medium supplemented with C only E) minimal medium supplemented with nutrients A and B

D) minimal medium supplemented with C only

28) Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated? A) primase B) ligase C) DNA polymerase D) single-strand binding proteins E) exonuclease

D) single-strand binding proteins

2) How do we describe transformation in bacteria? A) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule B) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule C) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule D) the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell

E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell

21. 21) To repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act? A) exonuclease, DNA polymerase III, RNA primase B) helicase, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase C) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase E) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase

E) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase

34. 34) Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes? A) elongation of the polypeptide B) base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA C) binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits D) covalent bonding between the first two amino acids E) the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA

E) the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA

33. 33) Which of the enzymes covalently connects segments of DNA? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

III. ligase

20. 20) During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction? A) protein B) DNA C) RNA D) lipid E) sugar

RNA

34. 34) Which of the enzymes synthesizes short segments of RNA? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

V. primase

45. 45) A space probe returns with a culture of a microorganism found on a distant planet. Analysis shows that it is a carbon-based life-form that has DNA. You grow the cells in ¹⁵N medium for several generations and then transfer them to ¹⁴N medium. Which pattern in the figure above would you expect if the DNA was replicated in a conservative manner? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

b

44) In the late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing "heavy" nitrogen (¹⁵N) and then transferred them to a medium containing ¹⁴N. Which of the results in the figure above would be expected after one round of DNA replication in the presence of ¹⁴N? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

d

46. 46) Once the pattern found after one round of replication was observed, Meselson and Stahl could be confident of which of the following conclusions? A) Replication is semi-conservative. B) Replication is not dispersive. C) Replication is not semi-conservative. D) Replication is not conservative. E) Replication is neither dispersive nor conservative.

d

32) Which of the enzymes separates the DNA strands during replication? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

helicase