Blood Bank Study Set

1. Which of the following is not characteristic of antibodies within the ABO system? a. ABO antibodies may cause immediate intravascular hemolysis. b. Antibodies are of IgM Class. c. ABO antibodies do not activate complement. d. Antibodies are naturally occurring.

ABO antibodies do not activate complement.

Polyclonal reagents contain:

Anti-IgG & Anti-CD3

1. All Rh-negative recipients who are transfused with as little as 1 mL of Rh-positive cells will develop anti-D. True False

False

1. What is the frequency of E antigen in the general population? a. 98% b. 30% c. 15% d. 85%

b. 30%

1. What percentage of the white population has type-O blood? a. 10% b. 32% c. 45% d. 4%

c. 45%

Duffy antigens are destroyed by: a. AET. b. neuraminidase. c. neuraminidase and AET. d. ficin.

d (ficin)

1. Where are ABH substances detected in secretors? a. Tears b. Saliva c. Milk d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Name a disease in which your positive D control might be positive. a. PCH b. Huntington's disease c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Multiple myeloma

d. Multiple myeloma

1. If an individual with a partial D expression is transfused with a normal Rh-positive unit of blood, a likely result will be: a. the patient will have an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. b. the patient will experience no consequence of receiving Rh-positive blood. c. the patient will develop an anti-D antibody. d. the patient will form an antibody to the portion of Rh(D) protein that they are missing.

d. the patient will form an antibody to the portion of Rh(D) protein that they are missing.

An immunogenic substance that reacts with an antibody is: a. antigen. b. immunoglobulin. c. chromogen. d. agglutinin.

a (antigen)

1. What is the most common Kidd phenotype in the black population? a. Jk(a+b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Jk(a-b+) d. Jk(a+b+)

a Jk(a+b-)

An ABO antibody will cause a more severe hemolytic transfusion reaction in a patient who has received mismatched blood than will an alloantibody. True False

True

An advantage of polyclonal anti-IgG over monoclonal anti-IgG is: a. polyclonal anti-IgG will recognize IgG variants. b. polyclonal anti-IgG recognizes only one IgG epitope. c. polyclonal anti-IgG also has anticomplement activity. d. AHG produced in rabbits is more specific than AHG produced in mice.

a (polyclonal anti-IgG will recognize IgG variants.)

An immediate spin crossmatch was performed using recipient serum and donor cells from a group AB unit. At immediate spin, the reaction was 4+. What is the reason for this positive reaction? a. ABO incompatibility b. An alloantibody c. Positive DAT on donor cells d. Positive DAT on recipient cells

a. ABO incompatibility

Which tests must be performed on the donor sample? a. ABO, Rh, Du, antibody screen b. ABO, Rh, antibody screen c. ABO, Rh, DAT d. All of the above

a. ABO, Rh, Du, antibody screen

1. Why is determination of Rh status crucial for obstetric patients? a. All Rh-negative mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin. b. All Rh-positive mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin. c. An Rh-positive mother can form anti-D, which will destroy D-positive red blood cells of the fetus. d. An Rh-negative mother can form anti-D if she gives birth to an Rh-negative baby.

a. All Rh-negative mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin.

1. Rh-immune globulin is effective is preventing which type of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? a. Anti-D b. Anti-C c. Anti-c d. Anti-E

a. Anti-D

1. What are the dangers of transfusing donor Rh-negative RBCs to an Rh-positive patient? a. Most Rh-negative blood is c- and e-positive, and because of their immunogenicity the patient may form an antibody to those antigens. b. A patient will be sensitized and will develop an Anti-D. c. A hemolytic transfusion reaction will occur. d. There are no dangers.

a. Most Rh-negative blood is c- and e-positive, and because of their immunogenicity the patient may form an antibody to those antigens.

In what circumstance would an alloadsorption be performed? a. Multiple antibodies in serum b. Warm autoantibody in serum c. HDN d. Hemolytic transfusion reaction

a. Multiple antibodies in serum

What makes up an autologous control? a. Patient serum and patient cells b. Patient serum and screening cells c. Patient cells and Rh control d. None of the above

a. Patient serum and patient cells

"Complete" agglutinins that agglutinate red blood cells in saline are of which immunoglobulin class? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgM d. IgG

c. IgM

What is a positive DAT? a. In vivo sensitization of RBC with antigen b. In vitro sensitization of RBC with antigen c. In vivo sensitization of RBC with antibody d. In vitro sensitization of RBC with antibody

c. In vivo sensitization of RBC with antibody

1. Why are Lewis antibodies not generally implicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn? a. Lewis antigens can readily dissociate from the red blood cell upon transfusion of Lewis-positive cells. b. Lewis antigens are well developed at birth. c. Lewis antibodies are IgM and cannot cross the placenta. d. Lewis antibodies do not bind complement.

c. Lewis antibodies are IgM and cannot cross the placenta.

What antibody is associated with a mixed-field reaction? a. E b. K c. Sda d. Lea

c. Sda

Why is it important for screening cells to be from individuals who have a homozygous expression of antigens? a. Homozygous expression is directly related to clinically significant antibodies. b. Stronger reactions are seen with heterozygous cells than with homozygous cells. c. Weakly reacting antibodies may not agglutinate heterozygous cells. d. All of the above

c. Weakly reacting antibodies may not agglutinate heterozygous cells.

1. An O-positive mother gave birth to an A- negative baby. After 24 hours the newborn's bilirubin level rose to 18 mg/dL. A DAT performed on the cord blood specimen was positive with polyspecific AHG and anti-IgG reagents. It is probable that _______ from maternal circulation is coating the newborn's red blood cells. a. anti-A b. anti-B c. anti-A, B d. anti-D

c. anti-A, B

When performing an antibody screen by gel technology, the following steps are eliminated: a. the AHG reagent and control checked cells. b. the centrifugation and saline wash. c. the saline wash and control check cells. d. the cells I and II and saline wash.

c. the saline wash and control check cells.

What class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta? a. IgD b. IgM c. IgE d. IgG

d (IgG)

Which immunoglobulin exists in a pentameric configuration? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgE d. IgM

d (IgM)

Anti-i is found in association with what disease? a. Gonorrhea b. Pneumonia c. Syphilis d. Infectious mononucleosis

d (Infectious mononucleosis)

How is Leb substance formed? a. L-fucose is added to subterminal N-acetylglucosamine of type 2 H substance. b. Leb is secreted into plasma in the absence of fucosyltransferase. c. Lea and Leb are codominant alleles located on chromosome 19. d. L-fucose is added to subterminal N-acetylglucosamine of type 1 H substance.

d (L-fucose is added to subterminal N-acetylglucosamine of type 1 H substance.)

Opsonization is: a. the coating of pathogens with factors that facilitate phagocytosis. b. a major role of complement in immunity. c. the binding of an opsonin, such as an antibody, to a receptor on the pathogen's cell membrane. d. all of the above.

d (all of the above)

1. Forward grouping is defined as: a. detecting ABO group antibody via reagent red blood cells. b. detecting ABO group antigen via reagent red blood cells. c. detecting antibody on an individual's red blood cells via reagent antisera. d. detecting antigen(s) on an individual's red blood cells via reagent antisera.

d (detecting antigen(s) on an individual's red blood cells via reagent antisera.)

Lewis cell-bound antigens absorbed from plasma onto the red blood cell membranes are: a. ceramides b. sphingolipids c. glycoproteins d. glycolipids

d (glycolipids)

When antigen and antibody combine, they are held together by noncovalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called ___________. a. inhibition b. adhesion c. agglutination d. sensitization

d (sensitization)

All of the following areas of red blood cell biology are crucial for normal erythrocyte survival except: a. RBC membrane. b. hemoglobin structure. c. cellular metabolism. d. site of the ABO antigen attachment.

d (site of the ABO antigen attachment)

1. Antibody titers specific to antigens from the ABO system are typically highest: a. when the patient is around 30 years old. b. when the patient is a newborn. c. when the patient is around 60 years old. d. when the patient is around 10 years old.

d (when the patient is around 10 years old.)

Where are Lewis antigens found? a. Plasma b. Saliva c. Milk d. All of the above

d. All of the above

What is the final step in antibody identification? a. Phenotype patient's RBCs for corresponding antibody b. Phenotype donor's RBC units for corresponding antigen c. Phenotype RBC units for corresponding antibody d. Phenotype patient's RBCs for corresponding antigen

d. Phenotype patient's RBCs for corresponding antigen

1. What does the "R" represent in Rh-Hr terminology? a. Presence of C antigen b. Presence of e antigen c. Absence of D antigen d. Presence of D antigen

d. Presence of D antigen

1. How is an intrauterine transfusion performed? a. RBCs are injected into the maternal peritoneal cavity. b. RBCs are injected into the placenta. c. RBCs are injected into the mother and diffused through the placenta to the fetus. d. RBCs are injected into the fetal peritoneal cavity.

d. RBCs are injected into the fetal peritoneal cavity.

Neutralization of antibody is applicable to all of the following blood groups except: a. Chido. b. P1. c. Lewis. d. Rh.

d. Rh

1. What is the simplest way of reducing the interferences from benign cold autoantibodies in antibody screening procedures? a. Use prewarming techniques b. Use polyspecific AHG c. Use cold autoabsorption techniques d. Use monospecific IgG

d. Use monospecific IgG

Cells that have antibody attached to them but are still separated from one another are: a. phagocytized. b. hemolyzed. c. agglutinated. d. sensitized.

d. sensitized

DAT detects for antibodies: in-vivo in-vitro

in-vivo

What is the purpose of the antihuman globulin (AHG) test in blood banking? a. It detects red blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. b. It detects white blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. c. It detects red blood cells coated with antigen. d. All of the above

a (It detects red blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells)

1. What substances are found in a group A secretor? a. AH b. BH c. ABH d. H

a. AH

1. Which of the following best describes the principle of the Kleihauer-Betke test? a. Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid (alkali) and appears pink, whereas maternal red blood cells appear as ghost cells b. D-positive indicator cells form rosettes around fetal Rh-positive red blood cells c. Maternal hemoglobin is resistant to acid (alkali), appearing pink, whereas fetal cells appear as ghost cells d. D-positive indicator cells form rosettes around maternal Rh-positive RBCs

a. Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid (alkali) and appears pink, whereas maternal red blood cells appear as ghost cells

What screening cells are used primarily for testing donor units for unexpected antibodies? a. Pooled b. 2-vial c. 4-vial d. 3-vial

a. Pooled

1. What determines if a red blood cell antibody is clinically significant? a. Shortened red blood cell survival b. Shortened platelet survival c. Class of antibody (IgG or IgM) d. Shortened white blood cell survival

a. Shortened red blood cell survival

What would be a realistic source of finding compatible units for a person with an antibody to a high-frequency antigen? a. Siblings b. A donor of similar ethnic background c. Apheresis donors d. Random donor units

a. Siblings

1. When one or more D epitopes within the entire D protein is missing it is termed__________. a. partial D b. Del c. weak D d. C in trans to Rh(D)

a. partial D

1. What ABO group contains the least amount of H substance? a. A2B b. A1B c. A2 d. A1

b. A1B

All of the following may be used as potentiators in the antiglobulin crossmatch except: a. LISS. b. papain. c. PEG. d. albumin.

b. papain.

1. In which population is the genetic Du usually found? a. Asian b. Native American c. Black d. White

c. Black

1. What is an advantage of using chemically modified anti-D? a. Du testing is eliminated. b. Few false-negative results are obtained. c. It provides a low-protein medium. d. Rh control is not necessary.

c. It provides a low-protein medium.

What blood type should be transfused when crisis does not permit time to collect and test a patient sample? a. O-positive b. AB-positive c. O-negative d. A-negative

c. O-negative

At what temperature is the incubation phase of the AHG test? Answers: a. 22°C b. 4°C c. 56°C d. 37°C

d (37°C)

1. What percentage of the type A population is A2? a. 80% b. 1% c. 10% d. 20%

d. 20%

1. In the black population, a mosaic form of which antigen may be found? a. E b. C c. c d. e

d. e

What is the normal life span of an RBC? a. 120 days b. 2 days c. 120 hours d. 100 days

a (120 days)

What is the normal platelet count range per cubic millimeter? a. 150,000 to 350,000 b. 50,000 to 200,000 c. 350,000 to 500,000 d. 100 to 350

a (150,000 to 350,000)

One of the most important controls of hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is: a. 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG). b. Ca++. c. glucose. d. K+.

a (2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG).)

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally? a. 37°C b. 4°C c. 22°C d. 56°C

a (37°C)

The diploid chromosome number in humans is: a. 46 b. 12 c. 23 d. 92

a (46)

Which blood group antibodies are known to activate complement, leading to intravascular hemolysis? a. ABO b. Rh c. Duffy d. Lewis

a (ABO)

What does the term autologous transfusion refer to? a. An individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion b. An individual donating blood for a relative c. An individual donating blood for a friend d. A parent donating blood for his or her child

a (An individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion)

1. Which of the following statements is false? a. Anti-D usually stimulates complement. b. Anti-D is mostly IgG. c. Anti-D can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. d. None of the above

a (Anti-D usually stimulates complement.)

1. Individuals with group B blood are more common among which populations? a. Black/Asian b. Asian/white c. Hispanic/white d. White/black

a (Black/Asian)

All of the following techniques are used in the laboratory to detect blood group antigens or antibodies except: a. ELISA. b. hemolysis. c. precipitation. d. agglutination.

a (ELISA)

All of the following are true regarding IgM antibodies except: a. IgM antibodies form against Kell. b. IgM can bind to up to 10 antigens on a red cell. c. IgM is a pentamer. d. IgM is 160 Å larger than IgG.

a (IgM antibodies form against Kell)

Anti-A from a group B individual is primarily what class of immunoglobulin? a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. All of the above

a (IgM)

In the MN blood group system, a person who inherits an "M" allele and an "N" allele expresses both M and N antigens on the RBCs. Which of the following is true? a. M an N are codominant alleles. b. M is dominant to N. c. N is dominant to M. d. M and N are located on the same chromosome.

a (M an N are codominant alleles)

1. How are ABH antigens formed? a. Production of specific glycosyltransferases add sugars to precursor substances b. Recombinant gene technology c. ABO genes code for production of antigens d. All of the above

a (Production of specific glycosyltransferases add sugars)

What do "check cells" contain? a. Rh(D)+ red blood cells coated with anti-D b. Rh(D)- red blood cells coated with anti-D c. B+ red blood cells coated with anti-D d. A+ red blood cell coated with anti-D

a (Rh(D)+ red blood cells coated with anti-D)

A unit of blood was returned to the blood bank before it was spiked. Apparently the patient's IV failed. The unit of blood was outside the blood bank for 35 minutes. Which of the statements below is most accurate? a. The unit of blood must be transfused within 4 hours or be discarded at the end of that time. b. The unit of blood should be discarded immediately. c. The unit of blood must be transfused with 24 hours. d. The unit of blood can be returned to inventory.

a (The unit of blood must be transfused within 4 hours or be discarded at the end of that time)

What is the purpose of washing cells in the AHG test? a. To remove all unbound protein b. To remove all bound protein c. To exclude a low-affinity antibody d. To dilute serum

a (To remove all unbound protein)

What is meant by the term autosomal? a. Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes b. Trait is carried on sex chromosomes c. Organism possesses different alleles for a given characteristic d. Trait is not expressed in the parents

a (Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes)

What is responsible for recognition of the antibody-binding site to homologous antigen? a. Variable region of light/heavy chain b. Phenotype c. Solubility of antigen d. Complementarity

a (Variable region of light/heavy chain)

All of the following are functions performed by the complement system except: a. decreased vascular permeability. b. direct lysis of bacteria. c. smooth muscle contraction. d. promotion of phagocytosis.

a (decreased vascular permeability)

All of the following conditions may produce a positive DAT except: a. lymphoma. b. hemolytic disease of the newborn. c. hemolytic transfusion reaction. d. drug-induced hemolytic anemia.

a (lymphoma)

1. The ABO group antibodies are primarily: a. naturally occurring. b. alloantibodies. c. drug induced. d. autoantibodies.

a (naturally occurring)

All of the following statements are true concerning ABH soluble substances except: a. the precursor chain is type 2 (beta 1-4 linkage). b. the first sugar in the precursor substance is N-acetylgalactosamine. c. ABH structures are glycoproteins. d. L-fucosyltransferase production is regulated by the Se system.

a (the precursor chain is type 2 (beta 1-4 linkage).)

All of the following are characteristics of monoclonal reagents except: a. undetectable subgroups of A. b. monoclonal antibodies with high affinities. c. an absence of batch variation. d. antibodies directed against a single epitope.

a (undetectable subgroups of A)

The transfusion nurse calls the blood bank 5 minutes after a unit of packed cells were issued to say that the unit is not needed at this time. It is important for the nurse to bring the unit back immediately so that the temperature of the unit does not exceed: a. 10°C. b. 37°C. c. 4°C. d. 22°C.

a. 10°C.

In a gel-based technology, the solid band at the top of the gel indicates a __________, whereas formation of a pellet at the bottom of the microtubes indicates _____________. a. 4+ reaction/a negative reaction b. negative reaction/a 4+ reaction c. 3+ reaction/a negative reaction d. mixed field reaction/subgroups

a. 4+ reaction/a negative reaction

1. What percentage of A2 individuals produce anti-A1? a. 5% b. 20% c. 80% d. 50%

a. 5%

1. Which ABO group's reaction will be the weakest with anti-H lectin? a. AB b. B c. A1 d. A2B

a. AB

1. Why is reverse grouping not performed on cord blood specimens? a. Antibodies are generally not present at birth. b. Antigens are too weak. c. Antigens are not present at birth. d. Antibody titer is too high.

a. Antibodies are generally not present at birth.

1. All of the following antigens are interacted by proteolytic enzymes except: a. C. b. M. c. Fya. d. S.

a. C.

What is the most critical step in blood transfusion? a. Checking patient identification and compatibility of donor unit b. Phenotyping units to ensure compatibility with alloantibody c. Following quality control procedures d. Monitoring the temperature control of donor units

a. Checking patient identification and compatibility of donor unit

1. What effect do enzyme-treated cells have on anti-I detection? a. Enhances reactivity b. Destroys reactivity c. No effect d. None of the above

a. Enhances reactivity

1. What is the biochemical structure of secreted A, B, and H substances? a. Glycoprotein b. Glycolipid c. Sphingolipid d. Ceramide

a. Glycoprotein

1. Most Rh antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class? a. IgG b. IgE c. IgA d. IgM

a. IgG

A layer of red blood cells agglutinates at the top of the gel media, and a pellet of unagglutinated red blood cells forms at the bottom. These findings are comparable to which of the following reactions in the test tube? a. Mixed-field b. Negative c. Weak positive d. Invalid

a. Mixed-field

What does the minor crossmatch consist of? a. Mixing donor plasma with patient red blood cells b. Mixing patient serum with donor red blood cells c. An immediate spin major crossmatch d. None of the above

a. Mixing donor plasma with patient red blood cells

How can neutralization aid in the identification of multiple antibodies? a. Once antibody has been neutralized serum can be further tested in panel studies. b. Neutralization inhibits all warm autoantibodies. c. Neutralized serum can be used to phenotype patient cells. d. All of the above

a. Once antibody has been neutralized serum can be further tested in panel studies.

In which scenario can an antibody be ruled out? a. Patient serum does not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen b. Patient serum does react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen c. Patient cells do not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody d. Patient cells do react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody

a. Patient serum does not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen

1. Which of the following statements is correct concerning cold antibody screens? a. Patient serum is incubated with group O adult and cord red blood cells at 4°C. b. Patient serum is incubated with check cells at 18°C. c. Patient serum is incubated with group O cord cells at 37°C. d. Patient serum is incubated with group A cord cells at room temperature.

a. Patient serum is incubated with group O adult and cord red blood cells at 4°C.

What is tested in an antibody screen? a. Patient serum is tested against group O reagent screening cells. b. Patient serum is tested against group AB reagent screening cells. c. Patient red blood cells are tested against group O reagent screening cells. d. Patient serum is tested against group A reagent screening cells.

a. Patient serum is tested against group O reagent screening cells.

Cold-reactive autoantibodies can be selectively removed from patient serum by adsorption with autologous red blood cells (RBCs). What other cells can be used? a. Rabbit RBCs b. Mouse RBCs c. Goat RBCs d. Donor RBCs

a. Rabbit RBCs

1. What does Rh genotype refer to? a. Rh genes inherited from both parents b. Antibodies detected in serum by serologic methods c. Antigens detected on a red blood cell by serologic methods d. Rh genes inherited from the mother

a. Rh genes inherited from both parents

Why are screening cells group O? a. To prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum b. Because group O cells are easier to acquire in random populations c. Because group O cells contain antigens to clinically significant antibodies d. To prevent interference with A and B antigens on patient cells

a. To prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum

Which phlebotomy site is unacceptable for compatibility testing? a. Vein above the intravenous line b. Vein in the hand c. Vein below an intravenous line d. Antecubital fossa

a. Vein above the intravenous line

1. What does hr' refer to in the Weiner nomenclature? a. c b. e c. C d. E

a. c

All of the following are important in evaluating a positive DAT except: a. donation history. b. patient diagnosis. c. transfusion history. d. drug therapy.

a. donation history.

1. The state in which an individual's red blood cells are agglutinated by all sera regardless of blood type is called: a. polyagglutination. b. leukoagglutination. c. panagglutination. d. sensitization.

a. polyagglutination.

Which of the following events does not occur while RBCs are stored? a. Potassium levels increase. b. 2,3-DPG levels increase. c. 2,3-DPG and potassium levels increase. d. Hgb has a decreased affinity for oxygen carrying capacity.

b (2,3-DPG levels increase)

At what age do infants begin to produce their own antibodies? a. 1 year b. 6 months c. 1 week d. 2 months

b (6 months)

What does hemolysis represent in an antigen-antibody reaction? a. A negative result b. A positive result c. An inconclusive result d. None of the above

b (A positive result)

1. Reverse grouping showed negative reactions with A1 and B cells. Forward grouping showed positive reactions with A, B, and AB antisera. What blood type is consistent with these results? a. B b. AB c. A d. O

b (AB)

A woman with blood group A marries a man with blood group O. Their firstborn child has blood group O. The mother's most probable genotype is: a. OO b. AO c. AA d. AB

b (AO)

What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum? Selected Answer: a. Elution b. Adsorption c. Indirect Coombs' d. Direct Coombs'

b (Adsorption)

How is it genetically possible for a child to type Rh-negative? a. Both parents are DD. b. Both parents are Dd. c. Mom is DD and Dad is Dd. d. Sibling is Rh-positive.

b (Both parents are Dd)

How is the classical pathway of complement activated? a. By lipopolysaccharides on surface of red blood cells b. By binding of antigen with antibody c. By polysaccharides on the surface of bacteria d. By enzyme catalysis

b (By binding of antigen with antibody)

Only 5% of Kell-negative individuals will develop antibodies to Kell if exposed to the Kell antigen, whereas 50% to 70% of Rh(D)-negative individuals would produce antibodies to D upon exposure. What is the reason for this? a. Difference in ABO type b. Difference in immunogenicity c. Phenotype d. All of the above

b (Difference in immunogenicity)

Anti-IgG is specific for what part of the IgG molecule? a. Kappa light chain b. FC fragment c. Hypervariable region of Fab fragment d. Constant region of Fab fragment

b (FC fragment)

Which immunoglobulin is found in greatest concentration in serum? a. IgM b. IgG c. IgE d. IgA

b (IgG)

HDN is most often associated with what class of antibody? Selected Answer: Correct a. IgE b. IgG1 c. IgM d. IgG4

b (IgG1)

Lewis antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class? a. IgA b. IgM c. IgE d. IgG

b (IgM)

The indirect antiglobulin test detects which antigen-antibody reactions? a. In vivo b. In vitro c. Both in vivo and in vitro d. None of the above

b (In vitro)

What blood group is the best example of codominantly inherited blood group genes? a. Rh b. MN c. Lewis d. ABO

b (MN)

Extravascular hemolysis occurs when red blood cells are coated with antibody; what organ sequesters these cells? a. Thymus b. Reticuloendothelial system c. Bone marrow d. All of the above

b (Reticuloendothelial)

Which of the following is not a major factor that influences platelet shape and activation while the platelet is in storage? a. pH b. Volume c. Agitation d. Temperature

b (Volume)

Polyspecific AHG contains: a. anti-C3b-C3d. b. anti-IgG and anti- C3d. c. anti-IgG and anti-IgM. d. anti-IgG.

b (anti-IgG and anti- C3d.)

Regarding loss of RBC membrane deformability, all of the following are true except: a. decrease in spectrin phosphorylation level. b. increase in ATP level. c. increase in calcium level. d. decrease in ATP level.

b (increase in ATP level)

All of the following biochemical changes are associated with loss of red blood cell viability upon storage except: a. decreased pH. b. increased ATP level. c. loss of red blood cell function. d. decreased glucose consumption.

b (increased ATP level)

An elderly patient is documented as being type O. The forward grouping is negative with anti-A and anti-B. The reverse grouping shows no reactivity with A1 cells and B cells. What can be done to correct the discrepancy? a. Incubate the patient's serum and reagent cells for 15 minutes at 37°C. b. Incubate the patient's serum and reagent cells for 15 minutes at room temperature. c. Perform an antibody screen. d. Incubate the patient's cells and serum for 15 minutes at room temperature.

b. (Incubate the patient's serum and reagent cells for 15 minutes at room temperature.)

1. The Rh gene is located on which chromosome? a. 9 b. 1 c. 11 d. 7

b. 1

What does a panel of reagent red blood cells consist of? a. 1 to 5 group O red blood cell suspensions b. 11 to 20 group O red blood cell suspensions c. 3-vial screening cells d. Pooled screening cells

b. 11 to 20 group O red blood cell suspensions

In what phase of reactivity is rouleaux usually found? a. IS b. 37°C c. AHG d. None of the above

b. 37°C

How long after a transfusion must donor and recipient samples be stored at 1°C to 6°C? a. 5 days b. 7 days c. 14 days d. 10 days

b. 7 days

1. What percentage of individuals inherit the secretor gene? a. 50% b. 80% c. 15% d. 98%

b. 80%

1. What percentage of the type-A population are A1? a. 50% b. 80% c. 10% d. 20%

b. 80%

1. The Rh antibody agglutinates what percentage of RBCs? a. 15% b. 85% c. 35% d. 50%

b. 85%

What is an elution? a. A technique used to dissociate IgM antibodies from sensitized RBCs b. A technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs c. A technique used to reduce the zeta potential enhancing antigen binding d. None of the above

b. A technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs

1. When a patient has Rh-null syndrome, what kind of packed RBCs need to be transfused? a. O-negative PRBCs b. ABO compatible Rh-null blood c. ABO compatible Rh-positive blood d. ABO compatible Rh-negative blood

b. ABO compatible Rh-null blood

The FDA has approved the ___________ for application of gel technology. a. ABO, antibody screen, and DAT b. ABO, Rh, DAT, antibody screen and identification, as well as crossmatching c. ABO, Rh, DAT, and antibody screen d. Antibody screen, antibody identification, and crossmatching

b. ABO, Rh, DAT, antibody screen and identification, as well as crossmatching

What does compatibility testing include? a. ABO, Rh, antibody screen, minor crossmatch b. ABO, Rh, antibody screen, major crossmatch c. ABO, antibody screen, major crossmatch, elution d. ABO, Rh, DAT, major crossmatch

b. ABO, Rh, antibody screen, major crossmatch

1. A patient who was recently diagnosed with an obstructed bowel became septic from Proteus vulgaris. Prior to surgery, a routine type and screen was performed. Though this person typed as an A two years ago, his forward type is consistent with an AB individual, albeit weaker in strength with anti-B. What is the reason for this discrepancy? a. Technical error b. Acquired "B" c. Incorrect patient history d. Contaminated anti-A

b. Acquired "B"

1. Why do false-negative Rh testing results occur in babies with severe hemolytic disease of the newborn due to anti-D? a. The cord cells may be contaminated with Wharton's jelly. b. All D sites are covered by maternal anti-D, which blocks the reagent. c. Antigens are not expressed yet. d. None of the above

b. All D sites are covered by maternal anti-D, which blocks the reagent.

What is an antigen profile sheet? a. An insert listing the antibodies present in each vial of screening cells b. An insert listing the antigenic makeup of each vial of screening cells c. A statistical comparison of 200 blood banks' results of antigenic reactions with various antisera d. An insert listing the antigenic makeup of check cells

b. An insert listing the antigenic makeup of each vial of screening cells

1. In the event of a clinically significant antibody found in the mother's serum, which of the following must be performed to determine its concentration? a. Antibody screen b. Antibody titer c. Fetal screen d. Elution

b. Antibody titer

1. What is the first step in reading hemagglutination reactions? a. Resuspension of red blood cells b. Checking supernatant for hemolysis c. Grading agglutination d. None of the above

b. Checking supernatant for hemolysis

What fatal disease is associated with the McLeod phenotype? a. Graves' disease b. Chronic granulomatous disease c. Fanconi's syndrome d. Lymphoma

b. Chronic granulomatous disease

1. How are the Rh antigens inherited? a. X-linked recessive b. Codominant alleles c. X-linked dominant d. None of the above

b. Codominant alleles

Routine pre-transfusion testing consists of all of the following except: a. ABO typing. b. DAT. c. antibody screen. d. Rh typing.

b. DAT.

1. Which gene combination is expressed in the greatest frequency in the black population? a. DCE b. Dce c. dce d. DCe

b. Dce

Which of the following is not involved in the Kell blood group system? a. K b. Jka c. Kpb d. Jsa

b. Jka

1. All of the following antigens are found on reagent screening cells except: a. Fyb. b. Jsa. c. C. d. D.

b. Jsa.

1. Which severe outcome can be caused by indirect bilirubin levels greater than 18 mg/dL in the newborn? a. Hydrops fetalis b. Kernicterus c. Bilirubinuria d. Bilirubinemia

b. Kernicterus

Why is it important to match the lot number on the panel sheet with the lot number on the panel cells? a. The ABO group will change from lot to lot. b. Pattern of reactions will change from lot to lot. c. It is a requirement of the FDA. d. All of the above

b. Pattern of reactions will change from lot to lot.

1. Persons who phenotype as Fy(a-b-) are resistant to infection by which organism? a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Plasmodium vivax c. Plasmodium ovale d. Plasmodium malariae

b. Plasmodium vivax

1. What is a possible explanation for a nonreactive eluate? a. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) b. Positive DAT due to drugs c. A warm autoantibody d. All of the above

b. Positive DAT due to drugs

In what test might rouleaux cause an interference? a. DAT b. Reverse ABO grouping c. Forward ABO grouping d. Rh control

b. Reverse ABO grouping

1. Which blood group system is not based on carbohydrates? a. Lewis b. Rh c. ABO d. P

b. Rh

1. In order for the mother to be considered for Rh-immune globulin, her Rh type must be _________, and her newborn must be __________. a. Du-negative/Du-negative b. Rh-negative/Rh-positive c. Rh-positive/Rh-negative d. Du-positive/Rh-positive

b. Rh-negative/Rh-positive

1. The Rh testing on a blood donor was negative at immediate spin. The tube was incubated at 37°C for 15 minutes. The tube was centrifuged and read macroscopically. The test was negative at 37°C. The tube was washed three times with saline, and two drops of AHG were added. After centrifugation, the tube yielded a 2+ reaction. How is this Rh type reported on the donor unit? a. Rh-variable b. Rh-positive c. Rh-negative d. Du-positive

b. Rh-positive

1. What protocol is put in place to validate Rh testing when high-protein reagents are used, especially when the patient types as an AB-positive? a. Wash cells before testing b. Run a control with Rh test c. Add LISS to test system d. Use only saline reactive anti-D

b. Run a control with Rh test

1. An individuals of the dce/dce genotype given dCe/dce blood has an antibody response that appears to be anti-C and anti-D. The most likely explanation for this is: a. There was an incorrect reading of the agglutination reactions. b. The antibody is anti-G. c. The antibody is anti-Cw. d. The antibody is anti-partial D.

b. The antibody is anti-G.

How is an antibody ruled in? a. Two RBC samples positive for antigen show reactivity; two RBC samples negative for the antigen show no reactivity b. Three RBC samples positive for antigen show reactivity; three RBC samples negative for the antigen show no reactivity c. One homozygous RBC sample shows reactivity d. None of the above

b. Three RBC samples positive for antigen show reactivity; three RBC samples negative for the antigen show no reactivity

Why should only homozygous cells be used to rule out an antibody? a. Homozygous cells carry a double dose of antibody. b. Weakly reacting antibody may not react with heterozygous cells. c. Strong reacting antibodies may not react with heterozygous cells. d. All of the above

b. Weakly reacting antibody may not react with heterozygous cells.

1. Anti-LW will react most strongly with: a. Rh-negative cord blood. b. adult Rh-positive RBCs. c. Rh-null RBCs. d. Rh-negative RBCs.

b. adult Rh-positive RBCs

1. Two drops of serum are added to one drop of A1 cells, and two drops are added to one drop of B cells; the two tubes are centrifuged. The tubes show reactivity when read macroscopically. This is an example of: a. crossmatch. b. reverse grouping. c. forward grouping. d. antibody screen.

b. reverse grouping.

1. All of the following may cause a false-negative reaction in Rh typing except: a. immunoglobulin coating cells. b. rouleaux. c. cell suspension that is too heavy. d. omission of reagent.

b. rouleaux.

How is a 40:1 ratio of serum to cells prepared for the AHG test? a. 1 drop of serum + 5 drops of a 5% v/v RBC suspension b. 1 drop of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v RBC suspension c. 2 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v RBC suspension d. 5 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v RBC suspension

c (2 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v RBC suspension)

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react? a. 37°C b. 56°C c. 22°C d. 42°C

c (22°C)

What is the optimal temperature for complement activation? a. 22°C b. 58°C c. 37°C d. 4°C

c (37°C)

What is the definition of an immunoglobulin? Selected Answer: a. A substance that aids in the primary immune response b. A substance that aids in the growth and proliferation of leukocytes c. A protein molecule produced in response to an antigen d. A protein molecule produced in response to an antibody

c (A protein molecule produced in response to an antigen)

Which red blood cell preservative has a storage time of 35 days? a. AS-1 b. ACD c. CPDA-1 d. CPD

c (CPDA-1)

Most antigens in the various blood group systems follow what kind of inheritance patterns? a. Dominant b. Autosomal c. Codominant d. Homozygous

c (Codominant)

What cryoprotective agent is added to red blood cells upon freezing? a. Dextrose b. Adsol c. Glycerol d. All of the above

c (Glycerol)

Why is incubation omitted in the direct AHG test? a. Incubation will cause lysis of red blood cells. b. Incubation elutes complement components from red blood cells. c. In vivo antigen antibody complex is already formed. d. Polyspecific AHG contains a higher dose of anti-IgG.

c (In vivo antigen antibody complex is already formed.)

Which of the following antibodies is least likely to bind complement? a. ABO b. Jka c. Kell d. P

c (Kell)

Anti-I is found in association with what microorganism? a. Treponema pallidum b. Proteus vulgaris c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae d. Escherichia coli

c (Mycoplasma pneumoniae)

1. Type I H antigen in secretions is a product of which of the following genes? a. H b. Le c. Se d. le

c (Se)

Which of the following red blood cell morphologies may be present on the peripheral blood smear as a result of loss of RBC membrane? a. Schistocytes b. Burr cells c. Spherocytes d. Target cells

c (Spherocytes)

What does the term zeta potential mean? a. The attraction of positive charges on the red blood cell surface to negative charges in an ionic cloud b. The ability of antigen to react with antibody c. The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud d. The repulsion between red blood cells caused by noncovalent forces

c (The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud)

A father carries the Xga trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but none of his sons. What type of inheritance does this represent? a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked dominant d. X-linked recessive

c (X-linked dominant)

A gene, such as the O gene, that produces no detectable product is called: a. recessive. b. a trait. c. an amorph. d. an allele.

c (an amorph)

Most blood group alleles are: a. X-linked dominant. b. X-linked recessive. c. codominant. d. none of the above.

c (codominant)

All of the following may depress antigen expression except: a. leukemia. b. Hodgkin's disease. c. coronary heart disease. d. lymphoma.

c (coronary heart disease.)

All of the following are technical errors that could result in ABO discrepancies except: a. a misidentified sample. b. clerical errors. c. failure to warm reagents. d. failure to add reagents.

c (failure to warm reagents.)

At birth, infant cells are rich in ______, and ______ is nearly undetectable. a. I/H b. I/i c. i/I d. H/i

c (i/I)

All of the following statements regarding the AHG test are true except: a. when washing cells, all saline should be removed completely. b. centrifugation should provide a firm pellet. c. incubation time with LISS should be a minimum of 30 minutes. d. Coombs' control cells should be added to all negative tubes.

c (incubation time with LISS should be a minimum of 30 minutes)

Serologic tests determine a person's: a. genotype b. haplotype c. phenotype d. all of the above

c (phenotype)

When an individual is said to have blood group A, it refers to the individual's: a. alleles on the chromosome. b. genotype. c. phenotype. d. haplotype.

c (phenotype)

At what age does I antigen become detectable on infant cells? a. 1 month b. 1 year c. 18 months d. 4 years

c. 18 months

1. A 300-µg dose of Rh-immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood? a. 50 mL b. 100 mL c. 30 mL d. 15 mL

c. 30 mL

Which of the following is known as the "sensitization phase" in the antibody screen? a. Immediate spin b. AHG c. 37°C incubation d. None of the above

c. 37°C incubation

1. Weak agglutination with anti-A typing sera is to be expected with which of the following blood groups? a. A1 b. A2 c. A2 B

c. A2 B

If donor cells were coated with antibody resulting in a positive DAT, what phase of the major crossmatch would generally react? a. IS b. 37 c. AHG d. None of the above

c. AHG

The indicator cells used to detect antibodies in a solid phase technology are: a. plain RBC suspension. b. anti-D coated RBCs. c. AHG-coated RBCs. d. antibody screen cell I.

c. AHG-coated RBCs.

1. What does the hh genotype refer to? a. Kell b. Lewis c. Bombay d. Sid

c. Bombay

1. Which of the following Rh antigens is the most immunogenic? a. e b. C c. D d. E

c. D

What anticoagulant is used to eliminate false-negative reactivity caused by cold autoantibodies and rouleaux? a. Heparin b. Sodium citrate c. EDTA d. All of the above

c. EDTA

In the autoabsorption procedure for the removal of cold autoagglutinins from serum, pre-treatment of the patient's RBCs with which of the following reagents is helpful: a. Phosphate buffered saline b. Albumin c. Ficin d. LISS

c. Ficin

1. Why is reverse grouping omitted in neonate ABO grouping? a. Maternal ABO antibody is identical to newborn ABO antibody b. Maternal antibodies mask the ABO antibodies of the neonate c. Newborns do not produce isoagglutinins of their own d. None of the above

c. Newborns do not produce isoagglutinins of their own

1. Of the three following categories of altered D antigen, in which variation of D antigen expression are you more likely to encounter an allo-anti-D? a. C in Trans to RhD b. Weak D c. Partial D d. None of the above

c. Partial D

Tests with which AHG reagents can determine if IgG, complement, or both are coating red blood cells? a. Standardized b. Irradiated c. Polyspecific d. Monospecific

c. Polyspecific

1. Active immunization induced by Rh(D) antigen can be prevented by the concurrent administration of: a. immune serum globulin. b. gamma globulin. c. Rh immunoglobulin. d. alpha-1 protease inhibitor.

c. Rh immunoglobulin.

1. A cord blood sample was sent to the blood bank for a type and DAT. Cells were washed six times with saline before testing. The forward grouping typed as an O. There was no agglutination with anti-D and washed cord cells. The DAT was 3+ with polyspecific AHG. What is the Rh type of the baby? a. Rh-negative b. Rh-positive c. Rh type cannot be determined d. None of the above

c. Rh type cannot be determined

Where are the donor red blood cells usually acquired from when performing a major crossmatch? a. A separate phlebotomy b. Pierced donor unit c. Segments from donor unit d. Pilot tubes

c. Segments from donor unit

What is the primary objective of the major crossmatch? a. To reveal the phenotype of the donor unit b. To detect the presence of antibody in the donor's serum c. To detect the presence of antibody in the recipient's serum d. None of the above.

c. To detect the presence of antibody in the recipient's serum

What test must be performed on a patient with a warm autoantibody in their serum before transfusing? a. Prewarming b. DAT c. Warm autoadsorption d. Elution

c. Warm autoadsorption

An advantage of monoclonal anti-C3 over polyclonal anti-C3 is: a. contamination with anti-IgG is avoided with anti-C3. b. false-positives caused by cold agglutinins are avoided with anti-C3. c. with monoclonal anti-C3, the antibody potency can be controlled. d. with monoclonal anti-C3, antibody to immunoglobulin light chains are eliminated.

c. with monoclonal anti-C3, the antibody potency can be controlled.

1. What class of immunoglobulin makes up anti-Lua? a. IgA b. IgM c. IgG d. All of the above

d (All of the above)

In order for an individual to express Leb antigen on their red blood cells, they must have inherited which gene? a. Le b. Se c. H d. All of the above

d (All of the above)

What criteria must be met for an antigen to be assigned to a blood group system? a. Must be a red blood cell antigen b. Must be assigned to a unique chromosomal locus c. Must be controlled by a single gene or two closely linked genes d. All of the above

d (All of the above)

What does polyspecific AHG contain? a. anti-IgG b. anti-C3b c. anti-C3d d. All of the above

d (All of the above)

What role do platelets play in hemostasis? a. Maintenance of vascular integrity b. Initial arrest of bleeding by platelet plug formation c. Stabilization of the hemostatic plug d. All of the above

d (All of the above)

What type of globulin does the antiglobulin test detect? a. IgG alloantibodies b. IgG autoantibodies c. C3b complement components d. All of the above

d (All of the above)

What is Kell's antithetical partner? a. Sutter b. Penney c. Rautenberg d. Cellano

d (Cellano)

Which of the following is NOT a clinical application for a direct antiglobulin test? a. HDN b. HTR c. AIHA d. Heterophile detection

d (Heterophile detection)

How is polyclonal antiglobulin serum made? a. Murine serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody. b. Serum from one human is injected into another human, and an antibody is produced. c. Murine serum is injected into mice, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody. d. Human serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody.

d (Human serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody.)

In an immune response, what is the time called during which no antibody is detected in the test serum? a. Primary response time b. Amnestic response time c. Secondary response time d. Latency period

d (Latency period)

1. Reverse grouping was performed on an AB person. The technologist observed a very weak agglutination macroscopically. The cells appeared as "stacked coins" under a microscope. Which reagent should be added to the tube before recentrifugation in an attempt to resolve the discrepancy? a. Serum b. Water c. LISS d. Saline

d (Saline)

False-negative results in antihuman globulin testing can be caused by: a. over-centrifugation. b. under-centrifugation. c. cell suspensions that are too weak or too heavy. d. all of the above.

d (all of the above)

1. A cord blood specimen from a jaundiced infant should be tested for which of the following? a. ABO b. Rh c. DAT d. All of the above

d. All of the above

1. An AB male mates with an AB female. What could be the genotype of the offspring? a. AB b. AA c. BB d. All of the above

d. All of the above

1. In the Fisher-Race nomenclature what does "d" refer to? a. Amorph b. Silent allele c. Absence of D d. All of the above

d. All of the above

1. What are the antibody characteristics of Fy3, Fy4, and Fy5? a. Immunogenic b. IgG c. Reactive at AHG d. All of the above

d. All of the above

1. What clinical manifestation may be associated with the Rh-null syndrome? a. Reticulocytosis b. Stomatocytosis c. Low hemoglobin d. All of the above

d. All of the above

1. What is the advantage of having a 3-cell panel screen versus a 2-cell panel screen? a. More cells in the homozygous state that show dosage b. You can narrow down the specificity of the AB better. c. You might detect more rare antibodies. d. All of the above

d. All of the above

1. Which prenatal serologic tests are recommended during the first trimester? a. ABO b. Rh c. Antibody screen d. All of the above

d. All of the above

What is the purpose of Coombs' control cells? a. To ensure that AHG tests with negative results are not false-negatives b. To ensure that washing removed all unbound antibody c. To ensure that AHG was not omitted or inactivated d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following factors are likely to cause false-positive results while using gel technology? a. Lipemia b. Icteric sample c. Rouleaux d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following is a factor in possible false-negative or false-positive results when using the gel system to screen for antibodies? a. Bacterial contamination b. Temperature c. Time d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which population has the greatest frequency of the Fy(a-b-) phenotype? a. Asian b. Native American c. White d. Black

d. Black

1. G antigen is present on all of which type of red blood cells? a. e-positive b. D-positive c. E-positive d. C-positive

d. C-positive

1. Which of the following genotypes is consistent with f antigen expression? a. DCe/dCE b. DcE/DCe c. DCe/DcE d. Dce/DCE

d. Dce/DCE

1. Which substance must be formed first before A or B specificity is determined? a. I b. O c. Bombay d. H

d. H

What is the most common cause of clerical errors in transfusion therapy? a. Entering an erroneous ABO type b. Entering an erroneous crossmatch result c. Labeling units as antigen-positive instead of antigen-negative when phenotyping d. Misidentification of the patient

d. Misidentification of the patient

Why are antibodies to high-frequency antigens, such as cellano (k), rarely seen in patient samples? a. Most persons are not antigenically stimulated to produce the antibody, because their red blood cells are negative for the antigen. b. Anti-k has low avidity. c. Most reagent cells are heterozygous for cellano. d. Most persons are not antigenically stimulated to produce the antibody, because their red blood cells are positive for the antigen.

d. Most persons are not antigenically stimulated to produce the antibody, because their red blood cells are positive for the antigen.

What alternative type can be given to an O-positive person when group O blood is not available? a. A packed cells b. B packed cells c. AB packed cells d. None of the above

d. None of the above

1. Which blood group contains the highest concentration of H antigen? a. B b. A2 c. AB d. O

d. O

The forward grouping of a patient showed no agglutination of patient cells with anti-A, anti-B, or anti-AB reagent antisera. The reverse grouping showed agglutination with A1 and B cells. What is this person's ABO group? a. A b. B c. AB d. O

d. O

1. All of the following are true regarding Rh antibodies except: a. An individual with a low titer Rh antibody may experience a secondary immune response on antigen exposure. b. Rh antibodies may cause a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. c. Red blood cell destruction is usually extravascular. d. Rh antibodies can bind complement on the red blood cell membrane.

d. Rh antibodies can bind complement on the red blood cell membrane.

1. What is the principle of the Rh-Hr (Weiner) terminology? a. Each gene is independent of the others. b. The Rh gene produces at least three factors within an agglutinin. c. Each gene (D, C, c, E, e) produces one product or antigen. d. The Rh gene produces at least three factors within an agglutinogen.

d. The Rh gene produces at least three factors within an agglutinogen.

Mixing patient serum and donor red blood cells together and observing for direct cell lysis or agglutination is known as: a. a minor crossmatch. b. an autohemolysis test. c. the Donath-Landsteiner test. d. a major crossmatch.

d. a major crossmatch.

1. The electrical force that exists between red blood cells is: a. called the zeta potential. b. due to the net negative charge of the red blood cell membrane. c. related to the voltage or potential that exists or at the surface of the RBC and the outer layer of the ionic cloud. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

Before compatibility testing commences, donor units should be observed for: a. blood clots. b. correct labeling. c. abnormal color. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

Pseudoagglutination: a. is frequently associated with alterations in serum proteins. b. occurs when serum viscosity is increased. c. can be confused with pan-agglutination. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

1. The biochemical structure of the Rh antigens is a nonglycosylated protein, meaning: a. glucose is attached to protein. b. glycerol is attached to protein. c. lipids are not attached to protein structure. d. carbohydrates are not attached to protein structure.

d. carbohydrates are not attached to protein structure.

The gel system has all of the following advantages over the traditional tube procedure except: a. standardization in reading technique. b. replicability of the test results. c. stability of the test reaction. d. different grading system.

d. different grading system.

1. All of the following may occur following an Rh-mediated hemolytic transfusion reaction except: a. elevated fever. b. positive DAT. c. increased bilirubin. d. intravascular hemolysis.

d. intravascular hemolysis

1. A1 lectin agglutinates: a. cells not agglutinated by absorbed anti-A. b. all cells except A2. c. all subgroups of A. d. only A1 cells.

d. only A1 cells.

In performing an antibody screen by the solid phase technique, a monolayer of red blood cells is formed at the top of the microplate wells following the addition of indicator cells. This result should be interpreted as: a. weak positive. b. negative. c. mixed-field. d. positive.

d. positive.

After completing an antibody screen using the gel testing method, results after centrifugation yield a pellet of unagglutinated cells at the bottom of the microtube and a thin layer of cells at the top gel column. This situation commonly indicates: a. a contaminated patient specimen. b. a warm autoantibody. c. a cold agglutinin. d. that fibrin from serum that has not clotted completely.

d. that fibrin from serum that has not clotted completely.

1. All of the following are characteristic of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) except: a. the infant has mild HDFN. b. the mother is group O. c. the mother has anti-A, B. d. the antibody is IgM.

d. the antibody is IgM.

IAT detects for antibodies: in-vivo in-vitro

in-vitro

1. Rh-immune globulin is of no benefit after a person has been actively immunized and formed anti-D. True False

true