BOC Practice 2

An equestrian athlete with cystic fibrosis must be treated with consistent postural drainage. How is postural drainage best accomplished? a. cupping or hacking massage techniques followed by deep breathing and coughing b. repeated prone to supine positioning exercise followed by recumbent seating c. inverted prone positioning combined with moist heat application d. inhalation of menthol and eucalyptus steam followed by inverted prone positioning e. deep breathing, breath holding, and simple yoga posturing combined with high fluid intake

a. cupping or hacking massage techniques followed by deep breathing and coughing

The nerve that innervates the anterior compartment of the lower leg is the a. deep peroneal nerve b. saphenous ligament c. superficial ligament d. tibial nerve

a. deep peroneal nerve

The fact that a study was performed on athletes with a mean age of 18.2 years affects the ___ of the study a. external validity b. internal validity c. reliability d. statistical significance

a. external validity

An athlete with repeated herpes type-2 eruptions should be counseled to avoid which of the following contributing factors? a. fatigue, psychological stress, poor nutrition b. overexposure to the sun, decreased body fat percentage, sharing water bottles c. sexual activity, contact with others, dehydration d. contract with others, fatigue, high carb diet e. poor nutrition, overexposure to the sun, sexual activity

a. fatigue, psychological stress, poor nutrition

Which of the following is the main bearer of weight in the foot? a. first metatarsal b. first cuneiform c. second metatarsal d. second cuneiform

a. first metatarsal

The primary determinant of the depth of heating with therapeutic US is: a. frequency b. duty cycle c. intensity d. effective radiating area

a. frequency

Which of the following signs is inconsistent with the diagnosis of internal bleeding? a. increased BP b. weak, rapid pulse c. abdominal rigidity d. blood in the urine, stool, or vomit e. bleeding from the eras

a. increased BP

What is the function of the pancreas after an athlete has ingested a high glycemic index food? a. releases bile to digest the carbohydrate b. secretes insulin to uptake blood glucose c. secretes glucagon to store blood glucose d. releases tryptophan to stimulate serotonin release e. releases salivary amylase to initiate carbohydrate digestion

b. secretes insulin to uptake blood glucose

The normal end-feel associated with elbow flexion is a. empty b. soft c. firm d. hard

b. soft

An athlete sustains an uncomplicated crown fx. There is obvious tooth deformity and bleeding but not pain. How would you explain the absence of pain to the athlete? a. the dentin is not affected by this fracture, and it is the primary site of nerve endings in the tooth b. the fx affects only the enamel portion of the tooth, and the enamel contains no nerve endings c. this type of fx exposes the pulp cavity, after the pulp cavity is exposed to air, the nerve endings cease to fire d. the fx is through the gum, which causes bleeding but not pain e. the fx line is through the root, which results in significant bleeding but no pain because the area is not innervated

b. the fx affects only the enamel portion of the tooth, and the enamel contains no nerve endings

According to NATA position statement on environmental cold injuries, three layers of clothing are recommended to minimize risk of hypothermia. Which of the following is correct regarding these layers? a. the external layer allows evaporation of sweat with minimal absorption b. the internal layer allows evaporation of sweat with minimal absorption c. the middle layer provides resistance against wind d. the external layer provides insulation e. the internal layer provides insulation

b. the internal layer allows evaporation of sweat with minimal absorption c. the middle layer provides resistance against wind d. the external layer provides insulation

While assisting athletes in the emergency care tent at a local marathon, you observe a physician begin an IV treatment on a recently collapsed runner. Which of the following is most likely the purpose of this tx? a. to minimize the risk of hyponatremia b. to achieve rapid hydration c. to minimize the risk of exertion sickling d. to decrease core body temperature e. to restore blood glucose levels

b. to achieve rapid hydration

Osteoporosis is a condition that predominantly afflicts older women. Which of the following factors decreases the chance of developing this condition? (select all that apply) a. moderate swimming and increased vitamin C intake b. weight-bearing activities and increased calcium intake c. maintaining 10% body fat and using a minimal-resistance stationary bike d. increased electrolytes and use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication e. avoidance of physical activity and dairy products

b. weight-bearing activities and increased calcium intake c. maintaining 10% body fat and using a minimal-resistance stationary bike

Which of the following Glasgow Coma Scale scores is most encouraging for a functional patient recovery after a traumatic brain injury? a. 4 b. 6 c. 10 d. 1

c. 10

Acute rupture of the Achilles tendon is more commonly seen in individuals between the ages of a. 15-20 b. 20-30 c. 30-50 d. 50+

c. 30-50

A proper sequence of exercises targets the ER would be: a. ER with theraband arm at side with towel roll, ER isometrics, 90-90 ER with theraband b. 90-90 ER with theraband, ER isometrics, ER with theraband at side with towel roll c. ER isometrics, ER with theraband arm at side with towel roll, 90-90 ER with theraband

c. ER isometrics, ER with theraband arm at side with towel roll, 90-90 ER with theraband

Which of the following paths constitutes the normal route for conduction of electrical activity through the heart? a. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers, ventricular musculature b. SA node, atrial musculature, AV node, AV, bundle branches, ventricular musculature c. SA node, atrial musculature, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje's fibers, ventricular musculature d. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, purkinje's fibers e. SA node, AV bundle, atrial musculature, AV node, bundle branches, ventricular musculature, Purkinje's fibers

c. SA node, atrial musculature, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje's fibers, ventricular musculature

An athlete has recently undergone a splenectomy. Which of the following functions are most impact by this surgical procedure? a. ability to filter poisons out of the blood and produce mediators for blood clotting b. ability to filter toxins from the blood and regulate the body's electrolyte level c. ability to produce and destroy blood cells during systemic infection d. ability to produce estrogen and progesterone e. capacity to store vitamins A, E, K and produce vitamin D

c. ability to produce and destroy blood cells during systemic infection

This picture (arm bent, towel roll between elbow, using other hand to increase pressure) represents a. active assisted elbow extension b. passive elbow flexion c. active assisted elbow flexion d. active supination stretching

c. active assisted elbow flexion

Which muscle is a primary elbow flexor when the forearm is in a supinated position? a. brachialis b. brachioradialis c. biceps brachii d. biceps femoris

c. biceps brachii

Pain on the anterior medial heel that occurs with the first steps in the morning is indicative of: a. calcaneal fx b. plantar fasciitis c. calcaneal apophysis d. cuboid subluxation

c. calcaneal apophysis

Which type of immobilization device is used in the immediate treatment of hematoma auris? a. orthoplast splint b. therafoam splint c. collodion cast d. fiberglass cast e. traction splint

c. collodion cast

Charge build-up under an electrode occurs with what current type? a. alternating b. pulsed c. direct d. biphasic

c. direct

A direct blow to the anterior shin can typically result in all of the following except: a. anterior compartment syndrome b. circulatory impairment to the foot c. fibular fx d. loss of DF

c. fibular fx

Which joint in the body is most unstable a. talocrual joint b. tibial-femoral joint c. glenohumeral joint d. radial-carpal joint

c. glenohumeral joint

A pt with increased lordosis would have tightness in the a. hamstrings b. rectus abdominus c. iliopsoas d. transverse abdominis

c. iliopsoas

Which statement best describes the pressure present during inhalation? a. atmospheric pressure is lower than intrapleural pressure b. intra-alveolar pressure is lower than intrapleural pressure c. intra-alveolar pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure d. intra-alveolar pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure e. intrapleural pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure

c. intra-alveolar pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure

A 9 y/o boy is referred to you for a knee evaluation secondary to pain. Upon exam you note the absence of knee pathology and negative special tests, but the hip PROM is about 50% limited for ABD and IR; gluteal atrophy is present; and gait reveals a non-painful limp. What diagnosis do you suspect? a. slipped capital femoral epiphysis b. osgood schlatter's disease c. legg calve perthes disease d. osteochondritis dessicans

c. legg calve perthes disease

The following structures provide static stability to the shoulder EXCEPT a. middle GH ligament b. glenoid labrum c. long head of the biceps d. anterior shoulder capsule

c. long head of the biceps

The muscle being tested in a prone Y position is which of the following? a. upper trapezius b. middle trapezius c. lower trapezius d. latissimus dorsi

c. lower trapezius

An athlete suspects that she may have been exposed to viral hepatitis. In the prodromal stage, which of the following signs and symptoms could the athlete exhibit? a. fatigue, myalgia, jaundice b. headache, rash, increased appetite c. malaise, mild abdominal pain, and arthralgias d. jaundice, anorexia, vomiting e. headache, fatigue, increased urinary output

c. malaise, mild abdominal pain, and arthralgias

Excessive or prolonged pronation in running, which leads to pain in the distal 1/3 of the medial tibial border not associated with a stress fx is typically a. achilles tenosynovitis b. exercise-induced compartment syndrome c. medial tibial stress syndrome d. plantar fasciitis

c. medial tibial stress syndrome

A general term used to describe pain in the ball of the foot is: a. plantar fasciitis b. burisits c. metatarsalgia d. exostosis

c. metatarsalgia

The main supporting ligament of the medial longitudinal arch is a. deltoid b. long plantar ligament c. plantar fascia d. calcaneonavicular

d. calcaneonavicular

Which two enzymes are capable of completing protein digestion in the small intestine? a. pancreatic amylase and salivary amylase b. pancreatic lipase and bile salts c. pepsin and trypsin d. carboxypeptidase and aminopeptidase e. bile salts and salivary amylase

d. carboxypeptidase and aminopeptidase

Stretching the ___ helps decrease shortening to the plantar fascia a. anterior tibialis b. posterior tibialis c. peroneal brevis d. gastrocnemius

d. gastrocnemius

An athlete sustained a hyperextension force to the iliofemoral joint. Evaluation reveals pain nd decreased ROM on passive hip extension. Which of the following structures is most likely injured? a. greater trochanter bursa b. gluteus maximus c. ischiofemoral ligament d. iliofemoral ligament

d. iliofemoral ligament

All of the following s/s indicate a ruptured Achilles tendon except which one? a. excessive passive DF b. inability to stand on toes c. individual hears or feels a popping sensation d. limps with the foot and leg internally rotated

d. limps with the foot and leg internally rotated

All of the following can overload the plantar fascia except which one? a. excessive or prolonged pronation b. excessive tightness of the achilles tendon c. obesity d. over the age of 40

d. over the age of 40

An extensor lag is defined as a condition with full ___ motion, but ___ is incomplete a. active, resisted b. resisted, active c. active, passive d. passive, active

d. passive, active

Which of the following signs is associated with insulin shock? a. dry mucous lining of the mouth b. labored breathing c. fruit-smelling breath d. physical weakness e. n/v

d. physical weakness

The conversion of electric energy to sound energy is known as: a. piezoelectric effect b. Raynaud's effect c. conduction effect d. reverse piezoelectric effect

d. reverse piezoelectric effect

Which of the following persons is/are required to wear a helmet during a baseball game? a. the batter only b. the on-deck batter, and the batter only c. the batter, the on-deck batter, and the base coaches only d. the batter, the on-deck batter, the base coaches, and the base runners only e. the batter, the on-deck batter, the base coaches, and the base runners, and all the umpires

d. the batter, the on-deck batter, the base coaches, and the base runners only

A pt with a grade 1 spondylothesis is referred for lumbar stabilization and strengthening exercises. What movement(s) should be avoided during therapy? a. lumbar rotation b. lumbar flexion c. lumbar extension d. A and B e. A and C

e. A and C

Common exercises included in the management of spinal stenosis include Williams flexion exercises. Which additional muscle stretch would assist in decreasing lumbar lordosis? a. gluteal stretches b. iliopsoas stretches c. hamstring stretches d. rectus femoris stretches e. B and D f. A and C

e. B and D

Which muscle(s) contract concentrically during the acceleration phase of throwing? a. supraspinatus b. infraspinatus c. teres minor d. subscapularis e. a, b, c

e. a, b, c

An athlete reports to the ATR with itchy, watery eyes, a runny nose, and postnasal drip. Which of the following is most appropriate for the relief of these symptoms? a. antitussive b. analgesic c. expectorant d. antipyretic e. antihistamine

e. antihistamine

A swimmer notes Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Which statement best characterizes this condition? a. currently the leading cause of sudden death in athletes b. characterized by a prolonged PR interval and a shortened QRS complex c. results in atrial pre-excitation and bradycardia due to accessory pathway electrical activity d. rarely occurs in athletes but is often provoked by exercise bouts e. characterized by ventricular pre-excitation and tachycardia due to electrical conduction over accessory pathways

e. characterized by ventricular pre-excitation and tachycardia due to electrical conduction over accessory pathways

An adolescent lacrosse crease defender is struck in the chest directly over the area of left ventricle with a shot on goal. He collapses immediately to the turf. What condition would you suspect and what is the most appropriate immediate tx? a. sternum fx; activate emergency medical service b. spontaneous pneumothorax; rescue breathing c. HCM; cardiopulmonary resuscitation and AED use d. ruptured aortic aneurysm; CPR and AED use e. commotion cordis; CPR and AED use

e. commotion cordis; CPR and AED use

Which of the following BBP is most commonly contracted by health care workers? a. hep. C b. syphilis c. HIV d. hep. D e. hep. B

e. hep. B

An athlete has been prescribed amoxicillin to treat an acute bronchial infection. What is the mechanism of action of this drug? a. it inhibits bacterial protein synthesis b. it inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis c. it inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis d. it inhibits bacterial mitochondrial synthesis e. it inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

e. it inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

Which international organization has a number of committees concerned with sports products that focus on testing materials and products used throughout industry, recreation, and leisure among other areas? a. ASTM b. NOCSAE c. HEEC d. ISO e. ANSI

a. ASTM

An AT has been exposed to a potentially infectious material. What is the first step the AT should take to minimize side effects? a. cleanse the exposed body area with soap and water b. inform a supervisor about the exposure incident c. seek medical help within 2 hours as designated in the exposure control plan d. request medical information or testing from the involved source person e. complete an exposure report

a. cleanse the exposed body area with soap and water

An athlete has received a minor blow to the head of the fibula. Which of the following structure might be affected? a. common perineal nerve b. tibial nerve c. tibial artery d. sciatic nerve

a. common perineal nerve

An athlete with a (+) prone instability test would benefit from: a. core stabilization program b. lumbar manipulation c. hamstring stretching d. rotator cuff strengthening

a. core stabilization program

While you are working a baseball tournament, a storm approaches. The flash-to-bang count is 30 s. How should you apply this information? a. The storm is 6 mi away, and all individuals should immediately seek safe shelter b. The storm is 6 mi away, and individuals should be informed of the possibility of lightning and should begin making plans for eventual evacuation of the field c. The storm is 5 mi. away, officials should be alerted of possible storm in the area d. The storm is 5 mi away, and the players should be removed from the field and kept in the dugouts until the flash-to-bang number increases e. The storm is 30 mi away, and officials, coaches, and spectators should be informed of the possibility of lightning and instructed to keep an eye to the sky and await further instruction

a. The storm is 6 mi away, and all individuals should immediately seek safe shelter

Which of the following athletes would be most at risk for developing a heat-related illness? a. an athlete recovering from a recent bout of stomach flu b. an athlete recently diagnosed with asthma c. an athlete who is vegetarian d. an athlete with blonde hair and fair skin e. an athlete with a body fat percentage below the recommended range

a. an athlete recovering from a recent bout of stomach flu

An athlete presents with flu-like symptoms and a cluster of cutaneous vesicles on an erythematous base. The vesicles are tightly clustered and appear to have developed into pustules and ulcers. Several of the vesicles have ruptured, releasing a serous material that has formed a yellowish crust. How is this condition best treated pharmacologically? a. an oral antiviral medication such as acyclovir b. an oral antiviral medication such as erythromycin c. an antibiotic medication such as amoxicillin d. an anti fungal medication such as terbinafine hydrochloride (Lamisil) e. an anti fungal medication such as zanamivir (Relenza)

a. an oral antiviral medication such as acyclovir

A stress is applied to the ankle during PF and iNV, which ligament is the first to stretch? a. anterior talofibular b. posterior talofibular c. calcaneofibular d. anterior tibiofibular

a. anterior talofibular

Which stage of a grand mal seizure may alert an individual with epilepsy to an oncoming attack? a. aura b. clonic c. postictal d. status e. tonic-clonic

a. aura

Which of the following mechanisms would most likely cause a spontaneous pneumothorax? a. acute bacterial pneumonia b. rupture of a bleb c. costochondral separation d. posterior displaced SC joint separation e. hyperventilation

b. rupture of a bleb

After returning from a road trip, a member of your swim team is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management approach for this condition? a. individuals who have been in close contact with the sick athlete should be placed on prophylactic antibiotics b. individuals who have been in close contact with the sick athlete should be tested for the disease using a nasal swab c. everyone in the travel party should be quarantined and monitored for 48 hours to ensure no one else had contracted the disease d. everyone in the travel party is tested for the presence of the condition using a lumbar puncture e. everyone in the travel party should be encouraged to eat well, get plenty of rest and fluids, and report to the ATR immediately if they begin to experience any sxs

a. individuals who have been in close contact with the sick athlete should be placed on prophylactic antibiotics

Which of the following are common problems after an amputation? a. phantom sensation and phantom pain b. infection and arthritis c. neuromas and swellings d. A and C

a. phantom sensation and phantom pain

Your athlete is unable to wear contact lenses. What type of connective eyewear would you recommend for participation? a. polycarbonate lenses b. plastic lenses c. polyethylene lenses d. fiberglass lenses e. ethyl vinyl acetate lenses

a. polycarbonate lenses

A blow to the medial malleolus could contuse the a. tibial nerve b. peroneal nerve c. medial plantar nerve d. femoral nerve

a. tibial nerve

Which of the following is not a direct capability of electrical stimulation? a. vasoconstriction b. wound healing c. muscle contraction d. pain modulation

a. vasoconstriction

Which of the following settings of pulses per second would begin to result in summation of individual muscle contractions? a. <10 pps b. 50 pps c. 80 pps d. >100 pps

b. 50 pps

Which is the most potent agent regulating respiration? a. oxygen contraction of the blood b. CO2 levels at the respiratory center c. lactic acid levels in the blood d. glucose levels in the blood e. oxygen level in the hypothalamus

b. CO2 levels at the respiratory center

All inversion ankle sprains result from excessive a. DF b. PF c. EVR d. INV

b. PF

Which of the following is an example of a 3rd class lever system in the body? a. head balanced on neck in flexion/extension b. PF of the foot resulting in a standing toe raise c. bicep curl exercise holding a DB d. tricep pushdown exercise where the hands are the movable arm

b. PF of the foot resulting in a standing toe raise

According to the American Academy of Pediatrics Guidelines for Sport Participation, which of the following athletes should be recommended for clearance to participate? a. an athlete recently diagnosed with carditis wishing to participate in lacrosse b. an athlete with atlantoaxial instability wishing to participate in cross country c. an offensive lineman with one kidney d. an athlete with an enlarged spleen wishing to participate in swimming e. an athlete with an enlarged liver wishing to participate in basketball

b. an athlete with atlantoaxial instability wishing to participate in cross country

Which of the following limits anterior translation of the talus on the tibia? a. tibiacalcaneal ligament b. anterior talofibular ligament c. posterior tibialtalar ligament d. anterior tibialfibular ligament

b. anterior talofibular ligament

The electrode configuration that uses 2 electrodes of equal current density is: a. monopolar b. bipolar c. quadripolar d. dispersive

b. bipolar

Which of the following statements about bradycardia is the most correct? a. bradycardia is characterized by a resting HR faster than 100bpm b. bradycardia is characterized by a resting HR slower than 60 bpm c. bradycardia is characterized by palpitations d. bradycardia is characterized by a resting HR faster than 100bpm and an increased SV e. bradycardia is characterized by a threefold decrease in Q

b. bradycardia is characterized by a resting HR slower than 60 bpm

Which of the following ankle ligaments is not part of the deltoid ligament? a. anterior tibiotalar ligament b. calcaneofibular ligament c. tibiocalcaneal ligament d. tibionavicular ligament

b. calcaneofibular ligament

With excessive DF and EVR, the talus is thrust laterally and can a. dislocate the transverse talus joint b. fx the medial malleolus c. fx the lateral malleolus d. rupture the interosseous membrane

b. fx the medial malleolus

What muscle is responsible for lateral hip stabilization at mid stance? a. gluteus maximus b. gluteus medius c. biceps femoris d. semitendinosis

b. gluteus medius

In athletes, which factor is most likely to result in anemia? a. an elevated hemoglobin level b. insufficient dietary iron intake c. loss of iron due to chronic heel strike d. RBC loss secondary to irritation of the lining of the urinary bladder e. a vegetarian diet

b. insufficient dietary iron intake

Which of the following options would be an appropriate solution to alleviate stress on tissues for someone who over-pronates? (select all that apply) a. prophylactic ankle tape b. low-dye arch tape c. spenco padding d. medium density OTC arch supports e. semi-rigid custom foot orthotics f. running shoes with a flexible heel counter g. running shoes with dual density mid-foot support h. steel toe plate

b. low-dye arch tape e. semi-rigid custom foot orthotics g. running shoes with dual density mid-foot support

If this tendon ruptures, collapse of the mid foot and hyperpronation may be visible a. anterior tibialis b. posterior tibialis c. extensor digitorum longus d. plantaris

b. posterior tibialis

What muscle helps to support the medial longitudinal arch? a. peroneus brevis b. posterior tibialis c. flexor digitorum longus d. flexor hallicus longus

b. posterior tibialis

Identify the intrinsic factor that most likely influences the onset of athletic injuries a. being a female high-school athlete b. practicing when the temperature is 85* and the humidity is 85% c. running on a cross-country wooded trail d. using an inflatable bladder football helmet e. exercising during the early morning and evening hours

b. practicing when the temperature is 85* and the humidity is 85%

An athlete's blood work comes back from the lab indicating (+) Epstein-Barr virus. What care is dictated by this lab result? a. the athlete should be started on an antiviral medication and be instructed on increasing protein and fluid intake b. the athlete should be inspected for the presence of any herpetic lesions, which should be covered to prevent transmission c. mononucleosis should be ruled out using a mono spot test, and appropriate precautions should be taken in the interim d. the athlete should be started on an antibiotic medication for strep throat and treated symptomatically for HA, fever, malaise e. acute hepatitis should be ruled out using an abdominal US, and the athlete should be withheld from all activity pending test results

c. mononucleosis should be ruled out using a mono spot test, and appropriate precautions should be taken in the interim

Why are AEDs effective in preventing sudden death from a cardiac emergency during sport activity? a. most cardiac emergencies in sport involve a-fib b. most cardiac emergencies in sport involve cardiac arrest c. most cardiac emergencies in sport involve ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest d. most cardiac emergencies in sport cardiac arrhythmia and congestive heart failure e. most cardiac emergencies in sport involve valve dysfunction

c. most cardiac emergencies in sport involve ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

A pt that has suffered an anterior shoulder dislocation would benefit the MOST from what exercise early in their program? a. ER isokinetics b. overhead body blade c. quadruped positioning with gentle perturbations d. anterior capsule shoulder stretches

c. quadruped positioning with gentle perturbations

Palpable pain just anterior to the Achilles tendon indicates irritation to the a. flexor hallicus longus b. peroneus longus c. retrocalcaneal bursa d. achilles tendon

c. retrocalcaneal bursa

Which of the following athletes is demonstrating that he is acclimatized to a hot and humid environment? a. the athlete who produces the least amount of sweat after 1 hour of participation b. the athlete who consumes the least amount of water during the practice season c. the athlete who is the first team member to begin sweating during an outdoor practice session d. the athlete who has the highest heart rate during the exercise session e. the athlete who demonstrates the highest percentage of sodium loss on the team

c. the athlete who is the first team member to begin sweating during an outdoor practice session

Which of the following physiological processes results in diabetic coma? a. depressed fat metabolism that cannot supply energy when glucose is scarce b. the accumulation of insulin in the bloodstream without carbohydrate on which it can act c. the increased concentration of hydrogen cations in the blood arising from ketone bodies d. poor circulation to the brain because of the buildup of fatty deposits (arteriosclerosis) in the arterial tree e. oversecretion of insulin

c. the increased concentration of hydrogen cations in the blood arising from ketone bodies

All but which of the following are true about the sesamoid bones of the foot? a. they are found in the flexor hallicus brevis tendon b. they are injured due to pressure and/or friction c. they are found in the extensor hallicus brevis tendon d. they serve as a lever system for the muscle tendon

c. they are found in the extensor hallicus brevis tendon

Where is cyanosis best observed in a dark-skinned person? a. eyes b. lips and abdomen c. tongue and nailbeds d. earlobes e. pupils

c. tongue and nailbeds

An athlete has sustained an abrasion that has developed into a yellow or honey-colored crusted lesion on an erythematous base. Small pea-shaped lesions have erupted, leaving purulent discharge on the skin. The lesions are painless yet pruritic. What is the best treatment for this condition? a. topical anti fungal medication and removal from activity for 48 hours b. oral antiviral medication and cover lesions for all contact activity c. topical or oral antibiotics and removal from contact activities until lesions have cleared d. topical antihistamine medication and an oral antiviral medication and remove from activity for 24 hrs e. oral steroid medication and cover lesions for all contact activity

c. topical or oral antibiotics and removal from contact activities until lesions have cleared

Which of the following s/s best characterize hypovolemic shock? a. slow, deep breathing; agitation; cold, pale clammy skin b. dilated pupils, excessive urine output, bluish lips and fingernails c. very low BP; rapid, weak pulse; cold, pale clammy skin d. profuse sweating; hot, dry skin; rapid, shallow breathing e. hyperventilation; lightheadedness; slow, thready pulse

c. very low BP; rapid, weak pulse; cold, pale clammy skin

An athlete with PFP should AVOID this range of motion during OKC leg extension? a. 90-60* of flexion b. 60-45* of flexion c. 45-30* of flexion d. 30-0* of flexion

d. 30-0* of flexion

Which exercise would best target the deep abdominal muscles? a. prone swims b. sit-ups c. anterior pelvic tilt d. abdominal brace

d. abdominal brace

An athlete with greater than 25* of GIRD is at increased risk for which of the following injuries? a. SLAP lesions b. posterior RTC impingement c. labral fraying d. all of the above

d. all of the above

While watching an athlete perform a plyometric program, you should be sure that they are avoiding: a. valgus positioning at the knees b. excessive femoral IR c. knee hyperextension d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following conditions is the most common leading to the onset of cardiac problems in middle-ages and older athletes? a. cystic fibrosis b. Marfan's syndrome c. cardiac arrhythmia d. atherosclerosis e. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

d. atherosclerosis

While traveling with your softball team, one of your pitchers exhibits symptoms, consistent with a migraine headache. She has prescription medication, but she left it in her dorm room. What suggestions can you give this athlete for managing this condition? a. recommend that the athlete call her physician to phone in a duplicate prescription, take a hot shower, and get out of sunshine b. recommend that the athlete focus on the team activities, go for a run or a swim in the hotel pool, and consume high-carb sports drinks c. recommend that the athlete lie supine with her head off the end of the bed to promote blood flow, apply a warm towel to the back of her neck and rest quietly d. recommend that the athlete get a workout in the hotel fitness center, take a hot shower, and ensure adequate hydration e. recommend that the athlete take an OTC migraine analgesic medications, rest in a quiet room with the lights off and consume caffeinated beverages

e. recommend that the athlete take an OTC migraine analgesic medications, rest in a quiet room with the lights off and consume caffeinated beverages

A female athlete presents complaining of LLQ tenderness and pain and referred pain in the shoulders. The athlete reports amenorrhea for the past 3 mos. attributed to an increase in training intensity. Which of the following conditions should be ruled out? a. diverticulitis, gallstones, and ovarian cyst b. ectopic pregnancy, UTI, hepatitis c. cholecystitis, spleen injury, IBS d. colitis, STD, pancreatitis e. spleen injury, ovarian cyst, ectopic pregnancy

e. spleen injury, ovarian cyst, ectopic pregnancy

A linebacker weighs 200 lb at the pre-practice weigh-in and weighs 192 lb after practice. What conclusion and recommendation will you make for this athlete? a. the athlete is at increased risk for heat illness and must gain all 8 lb back prior to the next practice session b. the athlete should be encouraged to drink as much fluid as possible in the next 24 hours c. the athlete is at extreme risk for heat illness and should be referred for IV fluid replacement d. the athlete's weight loss falls below the point of increased risk of heat illness, and the athlete is cleared for participation at the next practice session e. the athlete is at increased risk for heat illness and must gain a minimum of 2lb prior to next practice session

e. the athlete is at increased risk for heat illness and must gain a minimum of 2lb prior to next practice session