BSC 2085 Finals Chapters 7- 16
10. The neurotransmitter released by somatic motor neurons is A) Acetylcholine B) Acetylcholinesterase C) Norepinephrine
A
11) An IPSP is inhibitory because A) it hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane B) it reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynapptic terminal C) it prevents calcium ion entry into presynaptic terminal D) it changes the threshold of the neuron
A
11. Identify the stage of sleep described by using choices from the key. (note a-d refer to NREM sleep_ Key: (a) stage 1, (b) stage 2, (c) stage 3, (d) stage 4, (e)REM 4. when the sleeper is very easily awakened: EEG shows alpha waves
A
12. The prime mover of hip extension against resistance is the A) Gluteus maximus B) Gluteus medius C) Biceps femoris D) Semimembranosus
A
14. Sensory impulses transmitted over the facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves are involved in the sensation of a) taste b) touch c) equilibrium d) smell
A
16. Which of the following is a large, deep muscle that protracts the scapula during punching? A) Serratus anterior B) Rhomboids C) Levator scapulae D) Subscapularis
A
2. The anterior pituitary secretes all but a) antidiuretic hormone b) growth hormone c) gonadotropins d) TSH
A
3. Which sequence best describes a normal route for the flow of tears from the eyes into the nasal cavity? a) lacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sacs, nasolacrimal ducts b) lacrimal ducts, lacrimal canaliculi, nasolacrimal ducts c) nasolacrimal ducts, lacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sacs
A
4. A patient suffered a cerebral hemorrhage that has caused dysfunction of the precentral gyrus of his right cerebral cortex. As a result, a) he cannot voluntarily move his left arm or leg b) he feels no sensation on the left side of his body c) he feels no sensation on his right side
A
4. The prime mover of inspiration is the A) Diaphragm B) Internal intercostals C) External intercostals D) abdominal wall muscles
A
5. Collateral sympathetic ganglia are involved with innervating a) abdominal organs b) thoracic organs c) head d) arrecteor pili e) all of these
A
5. The sites where the motor nerve impulse is transmitted from the nerve endings to the skeletal muscle cell membranes are the A) Neuromuscular junctions B) Sarcomeres C) Myofilaments D) Z discs
A
5. The velocity of nerve impulse conduction is greatest in: A) Heavily myelinated, large-diameter fibers B) Myelinated, small-diameter fibers C) Nonmyelinated, large-diameter fibers
A
6. Contraction elicited by a single brief stimulus is called A) A twitch B) Wave summation C) Multiple motor unit summation D) Fused Tetanus
A
8. Characteristics of isometric contractions include all but A) Shortening B) Increased muscle tension throughout the contraction phase C) Absence of shortening D) Used in resistance training
A
8. Fiber tracts that allow neurons within the same cerebral hemisphere to communicate are a) association fibers b) commissures c) projection fibers
A
8. Nearshightedness is more properly called a) myopia b) hyeropia c) prebyopia d) emmetropis
A
9. During muscle contraction, ATP is provided by (a) a couple reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP, (b) aerobic respiration of glucose, and (c) anaerobic glycolysis. 1. Which provides ATP Fastest?
A
9. If the brain structure listed below is primarily gray matter select (A); if the structure is primarily white matter select (B) 1. cerebral cortex
A
9. If the brain structure listed below is primarily gray matter select (A); if the structure is primarily white matter select (B) 3. red nucleus
A
9. If the brain structure listed below is primarily gray matter select (A); if the structure is primarily white matter select (B) 4. medial and lateral nuclear groups
A
9. If the brain structure listed below is primarily gray matter select (A); if the structure is primarily white matter select (B) 6. carnial nerve nuclei
A
9. If the brain structure listed below is primarily gray matter select (A); if the structure is primarily white matter select (B) 9. cingulate and precentral gyri
A
CHAPTER 12 1. The primary motor cortex, Brocas's area, and the premotor cortex are located in which lobe? A) frontal B) parietal C) temporal D) occipital
A
15. Which criterion (or criteria) is/are used in naming the gluteus medius? A) Relative size B) Muscle location C) Muscle shape D) Action E) Number of origins
A B
9. During muscle contraction, ATP is provided by (a) a couple reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP, (b) aerobic respiration of glucose, and (c) anaerobic glycolysis 2. Which does (do) not require that oxygen be available?
A C
5. Identify the hormones described 2. Cause the kidneys to conserve water and/ or salt
Aldosterone & Antidiuretic hormone
5. Identify the hormones described 9. secreted by the posterior pituitary
Antidiuretic hormone & oxtocin
2. Match the name of the supporting cells with the following description: 5. Helps regulate the ionic composition of CNS extracellular fluid
Astrocyte
10. Hormones a) are produced by exocrine glands b) are carried to all parts of the body in blood c) remain at constant concentration in the blood d) affect only non hormone producing organs
B
10. Which sequence of reactions occurs when a person looks at a distant object? a) pupils contract, ciliary zonule (suspensory ligament) relaxes, lenses become less convex b) pupils dilate, ciliary zonule becomes taut, lenses become less convex c) pupils dialate, ciliary zonule becomes taut, lenses become more convex d) pupils constrict, ciliary zonule relaxes, lenses become more convex
B
11. A prime mover of hip flexion is the A) Rectus femoris B) Iliopsoas C) Vastus muscles D) Gluteus maximus
B
11. During embryonic development, the lens of the eye forms a) as part of the choroid coat b) from the surface ectoderm overlying the optic cup c) as part of the sclera d) from mesodermal tissue
B
12. Absence of thyroid hormone would result in a) increased hear rate and increased force of heart contraction b) depression of the CNS and lethargy c) exophthalmos d) high metabolic rate
B
14. The smooth muscle type found in the wall of digestive and urinary systems organs that exhibits gap junctions and pacemaker cells is (a) multi unit (b) unitary
B
18. Olfactory nerve filament are found a) in the optic bulbs b) passing through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone c) in the optic tracts d) in the olfactory cortex
B
19. Conduction of sound from the middle ear to the internal ear occurs via vibration of the a) malleus against the tympanic membrane b) stapes in the oval window c) incus in the round window d) stapes against the tympanic membrane
B
2. A fascicle is a A) Muscle B) Bundle of muscle fibers enclosed by a connective tissue sheath C) Bundle of myofibrils D) Group of myofilaments
B
22. Pitch is to frequency of sound as loudness is to a) quality b) intensity c) overtones d) all of these
B
23. The structure that allows pressure in the middle ear to be equalized with atmospheric pressure is the a) pinna b) pharyngotympanic tube c) tympanic membrane d) oval window
B
25. Equilibrium receptors that report the position of the head in space relative to the pull of gravity are a) spiral organs b) maculae c) cristae ampullares d) otoliths
B
3. Preganglionic neurons develop from a) neural crest cells b) neural tube cells c) alar plate cells d) endoderm
B
3. What types of current flows through the axolemma during the steep phase of repolarization? A) Chiefly a sodium current B) Chiefly a potassium current C) Sodium and potassium currents of approximately the same magnitude
B
4. Activation of the sypathetic nervous system causes a) contraction of the sphincter pupillae muscles b) contraction of the dilator pupillae muscles c) contraction of the ciliary muscles d) a decrease in ciliary zonule tension
B
5. The description "Articular surfaces deep and secure; capsule heavily reinforced by ligaments and muscle tendons: extremely stable joint" best describes; A) The Elbow Joint B) The hip joint C) The knee joint D) The shoulder joint
B
6. Which of the following tracts convey vibration and other specific sensations that can be precisely localized? A) pyramidal tract B) medial lemniscus C) lateral spinothalamic tract D) reticulospinal tract
B
7. Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include all but A) norepinephrine B) acetylcholine C) dopamine D) serotonin
B
7. Blockage of the scleral venous sinus might result in a) a sty b) glaucoma c) conjunctivitis d) a cataract
B
8. If anterior pituitary secretion is deficient in a growing child, the child will a) develop acromegaly b) become a dwarf but have fairly normal body proportions c) mature sexually at an earlier than normal age d) be in constant danger of becoming dehydrated
B
9) Several muscles act to move and/or stabilize the scapula. Which of the following are small rectangular muscles that square the shoulders as they act together to retract the scapula? A) Levator scapulae B) Rhomboids C) Serratus anterior D) Trapezius
B
9. During muscle contraction, ATP is provided by (a) a couple reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP, (b) aerobic respiration of glucose, and (c) anaerobic glycolysis 3. Which provides the highest yield of ATP per glucose molecule?
B
9. During muscle contraction, ATP is provided by (a) a couple reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP, (b) aerobic respiration of glucose, and (c) anaerobic glycolysis 5. Which has carbon dioxide and water products?
B
9. During muscle contraction, ATP is provided by (a) a couple reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP, (b) aerobic respiration of glucose, and (c) anaerobic glycolysis 6. Which is most important in endurance sports?
B
9. If the brain structure listed below is primarily gray matter select (A); if the structure is primarily white matter select (B) 2. corpus callosum and corona radiata
B
9. If the brain structure listed below is primarily gray matter select (A); if the structure is primarily white matter select (B) 5. medial lemniscus
B
9. If the brain structure listed below is primarily gray matter select (A); if the structure is primarily white matter select (B) 7. spinothalamic tract
B
9. If the brain structure listed below is primarily gray matter select (A); if the structure is primarily white matter select (B) 8. fornix
B
9. Of the neurons in the retina, the axons of which of these form the optic nerve? a) bipolar nerves b) ganglion cells c) cone cells d) horizontal cells
B
CHAPTER 11 1. Which of the following structures is not part of the central nervous system? A) Brain B) Nerve C) Spinal cord D) Tract
B
CHAPTER 13 1. The large onion-shaped receptors that are found deep in the dermis and in subcutaneous tissue and that respond to deep pressure are a) tactile discs b) lamellar corpuscles c) free nerve endings d) muscle spindles
B
CHAPTER 16 1. The major stimulus for release of parathyroid hormone is a) hormonal b) humoral c) neural
B
2. Freely movable joins are
B) Diarthroses
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 6. Muscles that flex the wrist and digits (2 nerves)
Brachial/ Median & Ulnar
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 10. Elbow joint
Brachial/ Median, Musculocutaneous, Radial, Ulnar
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 5. Anterior arm muscles that flex the forearm
Brachial/ Musculocutaneous
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 7. Muscles that extend the wrist digits
Bracial/ Radial
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 8. Skin and extensor muscles of the posterior arm
Bracial/ Radial
10) The anatomical region of a multipolar neuron that has the lowest threshold for generating an AP is the A) soma B) dendrites C) axon hillock D) distal axon
C
11. A reflex that causes reciprocal activation of the antagonist muscle is the a) crossed extensor b) flexor c) tendon d) muscle stretch
C
11. The ions that enter the skeletal muscle cell during the generation of an action potential are A) Calcium ions B) Chloride ions C) Sodium ions D) Potassium ions
C
12. All of the following descriptions refer to the dorsal column medial lemniscal ascending pathways except one; a) they include the fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus b) they include a chain of three neurons c) their connections are diffuse and poorly localized d) they are concerned with precise transmission of one or few related types of sensory input
C
12. Myoglobin has a special function in muscle tissue. It: A) Breaks down glycogen B) Is a contractile protein C) holds a reserve supply of oxygen in the muscle
C
13. Aerobic exercise results in all of the following except A) Increased cardiovascular system efficiency B) More mitochondria in the muscle cells C) Increased size and strength of existing muscle cells D) Increased neuromuscular system coordination
C
13. Medullary chromaffin cells are found in the a) parathyroid gland b) anterior pituitary gland c) adrenal gland d) pineal gland
C
13. Muscles that cause plantar flexium include all but the A) Gastrcnemius B) Soleus C) Tibialis Anterior D) Tibialis Posterior E) Fibularis Muscles
C
16. Gustatory epithelial cells are stimulated by a) movement of otoliths b) stretch c) substances in solution d) photons of light
C
2. Proprioceptors include all of the following except a) muscle spindles b) tendon organs c) tactile discs d) join kinesthetic receptors
C
2. The arrangement of muscle fibers in which the fibers are arranged at an angle to a central longitudinal tendon is: A) Circular B) Longitudinal C) Pennate D) Parallel
C
20. The transmission of sound vibrations through the internal ear occurs chiefly through a) nerve fibers b) air c) fluid d) bone
C
26. Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness? a) impacted cerumen b) middle ear infection c) smooth muscles of the iris and ciliary body d) levator palpebrae superioris
C
27. Which of the following are intrinsic eye muscles? a) superior rectus b) orbicularis oculi c) smooth muscles of the iris and ciliary body d) levator palpebrae superioris
C
28. Which lies closest to the exact posterior pole of the eye? a) optic nerve b) optic disc c) macula lutea d) point of entry of central artery into the eye
C
29. Otoliths (ear stones) are a) cause of deafness b) type of hearing aid c) important in equilibrium d) the rock hard petrous temporal bones
C
3. A hormone not involved in glucose metabolism is a) glucagon b) cortisone c) aldosterone d) insulin
C
3. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by a) arachnoid villi b) dura mater c) choroid plexuses d) all of these
C
4. Assume that an EPSP is being generated on the dendritic membrane. Which will occur? A) Specific Na+ channels will open B) Specific K+ channels will open C) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of Na+ and K+ D) Na+ channels will open first and then close as K+ channels will open
C
4. The function of the T tubules in muscle contraction is to A) Make and store glycogen B) Release Ca (2+) into the cell interior and then pick it up again C) Transmit the action potential deep into the muscle cells D) Form proteins
C
4. The neural machinery of the spinal cord is at the a) precommand level b) projection level c) segmental level
C
4. The white rami communicantes contain what kind of fibers? a) preganglionic parasympathetic b) postganglionic parasypathetic c) preganglionic sympathetic d) postganglionic sympathetic
C
5. Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect a) accommodation b) refraction c) convergence d) pupil constriction
C
5. The arm muscle that both flexes the elbow and the supinates the forearm is the A) Brachialis B) Brachioradialis C) Biceps brachii D) Triceps brachii
C
6. Chemical synapses are characterized by all of the following except: A) The release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic membranes B) Postynaptic membranes bearing receptors that bind neurotransmitter C) Ions flowing through protein channels from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neuron D) A fluid filled gap separating the neurons
C
6. The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers is the a) epineurium b) endoneurium c) perineurium d) epimysium
C
6. The phenomenon of dark adaptation is best explained by the fact that a) rhodopsin does not function in dim light b) rhodopsin breakdown occurs slowly c) rods exposed to intense light need time to generate rhodopsin d) cones are stimulated to function by bright light
C
7. Destruction of the ventral horn cells of the spinal cord results in loss of A) integrating impulses B) sensory impulses C) voluntary motor impulses D) all of these
C
7. Muscles that depress the hyoid bone and larynx include all but the A) Strenohyoid B) Omohyoid C) Geniohoid D) Sternothyroid
C
7. Testosterone is to the male as which hormone is to the female? a) luteinizing hormone b) progesterone c) estrogen d) prolactin
C
8. Intrinsic muscles of the back that promote extension of the spine (or head) include all but A) Splenius muscles B) Semispinalis muscles C) Scalene muscles D) Erector spinae
C
9) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by poisoning blocks neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction because A) ACh is no longer released by the presynaptic terminal B) ACh synthesis in the presynaptic terminal is blocked C) ACh is not degraded, hence prolonged depolarization is enforced on the postsynaptic cell D) ACh is blocked from attaching to the postsynaptic ACh receptors
C
9. During muscle contraction, ATP is provided by (a) a couple reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP, (b) aerobic respiration of glucose, and (c) anaerobic glycolysis 4. Which results in the formation of lactic acid?
C
CHAPTER 10 1. A muscle that assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts is a: A) Antagonist B) Prime mover C) Synergist D) Agonist
C
CHAPTER 15 1. Accessory glands that produce an oily seretion are the a) conjunctiva b) lacrimal glands c) tarsal glands
C
CHAPTER 9 1. The connective tissue covering that encloses the sarcolemma of an individual muscle fiber is called the A) epimysium B) Perimysium C) Endomysium D) Periosteum
C
11. Identify the stage of sleep described by using choices from the key. (note a-d refer to NREM sleep_ Key: (a) stage 1, (b) stage 2, (c) stage 3, (d) stage 4, (e)REM 3. when nightmares are likely to occur
C D
10) The quadriceps include all but A) Vasuts lateralis B) Vastus intermedius C) Vastus medialis D) Biceps femoris E) Rectus femoris
D
Match the key term to the appropriate descriptions Bones connected by a disc of hyaline cartilage or fibocarilage;
Cartilaginous Joints
5. Choose the correct term that corresponds to the following statement describing various brain areas 8. brain area most concerned with equilibrium, body posture, and coordination of motor activity
Cerebellum
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 1. The diaphragm
Cervical/Phrenic
12) Identify the neuronal circuits described below 3) Many neurons influence a few neurons
Converging
5. Choose the correct term that corresponds to the following statement describing various brain areas 5. relay stations for visual and auditory stimuli input; found in midbrain
Corpora quadrigemina
10. A professor unexpectedly blew a loud horn in his anatomy and physiology class. The students looked up, startled. The reflexive movements of their eyes were mediated by the a) cerebral cortex b) inferior olives c) raphe nuclei d) superior colliculi e) nucleus gracilis
D
11. Identify the stage of sleep described by using choices from the key. (note a-d refer to NREM sleep_ Key: (a) stage 1, (b) stage 2, (c) stage 3, (d) stage 4, (e)REM 1. the stage when blood pressure and heart rate reach their lowest levels
D
11. Some hormones act by a) increasing the synthesis of enzymes b) converting an inactive enzyme into an active enzyme c) affecting only specific target organs d) all of these
D
12. The blind spot of the eye is a) where more rods than cones are found b) where the macula lutea is located c) where only cones occur d) where the optic nerve leaves the eye
D
13. Olfactory tract damage would probably affect your ability to a) see b) hear c) feel pain d) smell
D
14. Atrial natriuretic peptide secreted by the heart has exactly the opposite function of this hormone secreted by the zona glomerulosa a) antidiuretic hormone b) epinephrine c) calcitonin d) aldosterone e) androgens
D
14. In walking, which two lower limb muscles keep the forward swinging foot from dragging on the ground? A) Pronator teres and popliteus B) Flexor digitorum longus and popliteus C) Adductor longus and abductor digiti minimi in the foot D) Gluteus medius and tibialis anterior
D
15. Taste buds are found on the a) anterior part of the tongue b) posterior part of the tongue c) palate d) all of these
D
17. Cells in the olfactory bulb that act as local 'integrators' of olfactory inputs are the a) hair cells b) amacrine granule cells c) olfactory stem cells d) mitral cells e) supporting cells
D
2. The innermost layer of the meninges, delicate and closely apposed to the brain tissue is the a) dura matter b) corpus callosum c) arachnoid matter d) pia matter
D
2. The portion of the fibrous layer that is white and opaque is the a) choroid b) cornea c) retina d) sclera
D
21. Which of the following statement does not correctly describe the spiral organ? a) sounds of high frequency stimulate hair cells the basal end b) the hairs of the receptor cells are embedded in the tectorial membrane c) the basilar membrane acts as a resonator d) the more numerous outer hair cells are largely responsible for our perception of sound
D
3. Anatomical characteristics shared by all synovial joints include all except: A) Articular cartilage B) A Joint Cavity C) An articular capsule D) Presence of fibrocartilage
D
3. The aspect of sensory perception by which the cerebral cortex identifies the site or pattern of stimulation is a) perceptual detection b) feature abstraction c) pattern recognition d) spatial discrimination
D
4. Factors that influence the stability of a synovial join include: A) Shape of articular surfaces B) Presence of strong reinforcing ligaments C) Tone of surrounding muscles D) All of these
D
4. Parathyroid hormone a) increases bone formation and lowers blood calcium levels b) increases calcium excretion from the body c) decreases calcium absorption from the gut d) demineralizes bone and raises blood calcium levels
D
6. A hypodermic injection of epinephrine would a) increase heart rate, increase blood pressure, dilate the bronchi of the lungs, and increase peristalsis b) decrease heart rate, decrease blood pressure, constrict the bronchi and increase peristalsis c) decrease heart rate, increase blood pressure, constrict the bronchi, and decrease peristalsis d) increase heart rate, increase blood pressure, dilate the bronchi, and decrease peristalsis
D
6. Anyklosis means A) Twisting of the ankle B) Tearing of ligaments C) Displacement of a bone D) Immobility of a joint due to fusion of its articular surfaces
D
6. The chewing muscles that protrude the mandible and produce side to side grinding movements are the A) Buccinators B) Masseters C) Temporalis D) Pterygoids
D
7. A smooth, sustained contraction resulting from very rapid stimulation of the muscle, in which no evidence of relaxation is seen, is called A) A twitch B) Wave summation C) Multiple motor unit summation D) Fused Tetanus
D
7. An autoimmune disorder in which joints are affected bilaterally and which involves pannus formation and gradual joint immobilization is A) Bursitis B) Gout C) Osteoarthritis D) Rheumatoid arthritis
D
8. The neuropeptides that act as natural opiates are A) Substance P B) Somatostatin and cholecystokinin C) Tachykinins D) Enkephalins
D
9. If there is adequate carbohydrate intake, secretion of insulin results in a) lower blood glucose levels b) increased cell utilization of glucose c) storage of glycogen d) all of these
D
CHAPTER 14 1. All of the following characterize the ANS except a) a two neuron efferent chain b) presence of nerve cell bodies in CNS c) presence of nerve cell bodies in the ganglia d) innervation of skeletal muscles
D
12) Identify the neuronal circuits described below 2) One or a few inputs ultimately influence large numbers of neurons
Diverging
11. Identify the stage of sleep described by using choices from the key. (note a-d refer to NREM sleep_ Key: (a) stage 1, (b) stage 2, (c) stage 3, (d) stage 4, (e)REM 2. indicated by movement of the eyes under the lids; dreaming occurs
E
24. Which of the following is important in maintaining the balance of the body? a) visual cues b) semicircular canals c) the saccule d) proprioceptors e) all of these
E
5. Dorsal root ganglia contain a) cell bodies of somatic motor neurons b) axon terminals of somatic motor neurons c) cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons d) axon terminals of sensory neurons e) cell bodies of sensory neurons
E
2. Match the name of the supporting cells with the following description: 2. Lines brain cavities
Ependymal cell
Match the bone with its description Contain Paranasal sinuses (4 answers)
Ethmoid Frontal Maxillary Sphenoid
10. Characterize each receptor activity 4. You bump (lightly) into someone
Extero/ Mechano
10. Characterize each receptor activity 2. You have just scalded yourself with hot coffee
Extero/ Nociceptor/ Thermo
10. Characterize each receptor activity 3. The retinas of your eyes are stimulated
Extero/ Photo
10. Characterize each receptor activity 1. You are enjoying an ice cream cone
Extero/ chemo/ Thermo
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 10. Contain parasympathetic motor fibers (4 nerves)
Facial Glossopharyngela Oculomotor Vagus
Match the key term to the appropriate descriptions Bones connect by collagen fibers
Fibrous joints
Match the key term to the appropriate descriptions Types are sutures and syndesmoses
Fibrous joints
7. Match the receptor type with the following description 1. Pain, itch, and temperature receptors
Free Nerve Ending
CHAPTER 7 Match the bone with its description Connected by the coronal suture (2 answers)
Frontal Parietal
3. Match the muscle names to the facial muscles 2. Raises the eyebrows
Frontal belly of epicranius
5. Identify the hormones described 1. important anabolic hormone; many of its effects mediated by IGFs
Growth Hormone
5. Choose the correct term that corresponds to the following statement describing various brain areas 3. control of temperature, autonomic nervous system reflexes, hunger, and water balance
Hypothalamus
10. Characterize each receptor activity 6. You feel uncomfortable after a large meal
Intero/ Mechano
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 4. Medial Thigh muscles
Lumbar/ Obturator
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 3. Anterior thigh muscles
Lumbar/Femoral
Match the bone with its description Forms the chin
Mandible
Match the bone with its description Keystone bone of the face
Maxillary
Match the bone with its description Form the hard palate (2 answers)
Maxillary Palatine
5. Choose the correct term that corresponds to the following statement describing various brain areas 2. region where there is a gross crossover of fibers descending pyramidal tracts
Medulla
5. Choose the correct term that corresponds to the following statement describing various brain areas 6. houses vital centers for control of the heart, respiration, and blood pressure
Medulla
2. Match the name of the supporting cells with the following description: 4. CNS phagocyte
Microglial cell
5. Choose the correct term that corresponds to the following statement describing various brain areas 4. houses the substantia nigra and cerebral aqueduct
Midbrain
7. Match the receptor type with the following description 2. Contains intrafusal fibers and anulospiral and flower spray endings
Muscle spindle
Match the bone with its description Allows the spinal cord to pass
Occipital
3. Match the muscle names to the facial muscles 5. Pulls the scalp posteriorly
Occipital belly of epicranius
2. Match the name of the supporting cells with the following description: 1. Myelinates nerve fibers in the CNS
Oligodendrocyte
3. Match the muscle names to the facial muscles 1. Squints the eyes
Orbicularis oculi
3. Match the muscle names to the facial muscles 4. Puckers the lips
Orbicularis oris
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 11. most active when you are relaxing in a hammock
P
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 2. intramural ganglia
P
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 3. craniosacral part
P
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 6. otic ciliary ganglia
P
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 7. generally short duration action
P
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 9. increases gastric motility and secretion of lacrimal, salivary, and digestive juices
P
12) Identify the neuronal circuits described below 4) Maybe involved in exacting types of mental activity
Parallel after discharge
10. Characterize each receptor activity 5. You are in a completely dark room and reaching toward the light switch
Proprio/ Mechano
12) Identify the neuronal circuits described below 1) Impulses continue around and around the circuit until one neuron stops firing
Reverberating
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 1. short preganglionic, long posganglionic fibers
S
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 10. innervates blood vessels
S
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 12. active when you are running in the Boston Marathon
S
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 4. adrenergic fibers
S
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 5. cervical ganglia
S
2. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system 8. increases heart rate and blood pressure
S
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 9. Fibularis muscles, tibialis anterior, and toe extensors
Sacral/ Common Fibular
9. For each of the following muscle or body regions, identify the plexus and the peripheral nerves involved 2. Muscles of the posterior leg
Sacral/ Tibial
2. Match the name of the supporting cells with the following description: 3. Myelinates nerve fibers in the PNS
Schwann cell
Match the bone with its description Keystone bone of cranium
Sphenoid
5. Choose the correct term that corresponds to the following statement describing various brain areas 1. basal nuclei involved in fine control of motor activities
Striatum
CHAPTER 8 Match the key term to the appropriate descriptions Exhibit a joint cavity
Synovial Joints
Match the key term to the appropriate descriptions Should, hip, jaw, and elbow joins
Synovial Joints
5. Identify the hormones described 6. major metabolic hormones of the body
T4 & T3
5. Identify the hormones described 8. tropic hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone
TSH
Match the bone with its description Contains mastoid sinuses
Temporal
5. Choose the correct term that corresponds to the following statement describing various brain areas 7. brain area through which all the sensory input is relayed to get to the cerebral cortex
Thalamus
Contains myosin
Thick
Does not lie in the I band
Thick
3. Attaches to the Z disc
Thin
5. Contains troponin
Thin
3. Match the muscle names to the facial muscles 3. Smiling Muscle
Zygomaticus
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 3. Serves the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
accessory
5. Identify the hormones described 10. a steroid hormone
aldosterone
5. Identify the hormones described 7. causes reabsorption of sodium ions by the kidneys
aldosterone
7. Match the receptor type with the following description 6. Slowly adapting pressure receptor
bulbous corpuscles
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 7. Impaired Bell's palsy
facial
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 5. Serves the tongue muscles
hypoglossal
7. Match the receptor type with the following description 5. Rapidly adapting deep pressure receptor
lamellar corpuscle
5. Identify the hormones described 4. tropic hormone that stimulates the gonads to secrete sex hormones
luteinizing hormone
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 1. Causes pupillary constriction
oculomotor
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 4. purely sensory (two nerves)
olfactory optic
5. Identify the hormones described 3. stimulates milk prodution
oxytocin
5. Identify the hormones described 5. increases uterine contractions during birth
oxytocin
7. Match the receptor type with the following description 3. Discriminative touch receptor in hairless skin (fingertips)
tactile corpuscle
7. Match the receptor type with the following description 4. Contains receptor ending wrapped around thick collagen bundles
tendon organ
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 2. The major sensory nerve of the face
trigeminal
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 6. Allows you to chew your food
trigeminal
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 8. Helps regulate your heart activity
vagus
8. Match the cranial nerves with the following description 9. helps you hear and maintain your balance
vestibulocochlear