CAA TOTAL

Weather Advisory Broadcasts, including Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), Convective SIGMETs, and SIGMETs, are provided by (A) ARTCCs on all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area described is within 150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction (B)AFSSs on 122.2 MHz and adjacent VORs, when any part of the area described is within 200 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction (C)selected low-frequency and/or VOR navigational aids

(A) ARTCCs on all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area described is within 150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction

When is DME required for an instrument flight? (A) At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. (B) In terminal radar service areas. (C)Above 12,500 feet MSL.

(A) At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required

Which is a purpose of a transformer rectifier? (A) Converts 115 volts ac, 400-Hz to 28 volts dc. (B)Changes dc to alternating 26 volts or 115 volts, 400-Hz power. (C)Operates emergency flight instruments and radios from the airplane battery.

(A) Converts 115 volts ac, 400-Hz to 28 volts dc.

Which control systems for operating cabin pressurization use reference chamber air pressure within the controller to regulate the outflow valve? (A) Isobaric and differential. (B)Unpressurized and pressurized controls. (C)Ambient, differential, and maximum differential.

(A) Isobaric and differential

A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? (A) Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. (B)An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. (C)A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.

(A) Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest.

Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? (A) Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance. (B)Decreased takeoff distance (C)Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.

(A) Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance.

What type of gas is normally used to service the air-storage bottles of an emergency pneumatic system? (A) Nitrogen. (B)Dry oxygen. (C)Carbon dioxide.

(A) Nitrogen

Which best describes cabin differential pressure? (A) The difference between ambient and internal air pressure. (B)The difference between the cabin flight altitude pressure and MSL pressure. (C)The difference between the cabin pressure controller setting and the actual cabin pressure.

(A) The difference between ambient and internal air pressure.

What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing? (A) The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing. (B)The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. (C) A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

(A) The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing.

If an attempt is made to start an engine with a hydraulic lock, (A) a connecting rod can bend or break if the crankshaft continues to rotate. (B) the starter gearbox can overtorque since the liquid is incompressible and stops piston movement. (C) the fuel or oil from the lower cylinders can be injected into the exhaust system causing afterfiring.

(A) a connecting rod can bend or break if the crankshaft continues to rotate.

If the line between the manifold pressure gauge and the engine induction system is broken, the gauge will indicate (A) ambient pressure. (B) standard atmospheric pressure. (C) high when operating at a manifold pressure above atmospheric pressure.

(A) ambient pressure.

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon (A) arrival at the DH on the glide slope. (B) arrival at the visual descent point. (C)expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

(A) arrival at the DH on the glide slope.

Zero fuel weight is defined as the (A) basic operating weight plus payload. (B)empty weight plus passengers and cargo. (C) takeoff weight minus fuel to destination and alternate.

(A) basic operating weight plus payload.

The purpose of a bypass valve in the hydraulic filter is to (A) bypass a clogged element. (B)maintain the desired temperature and viscosity by controlling the amount of fluid through the unit. (C) ensure adequate flow when the engines are started until the fluid is warmed sufficiently to flow freely.

(A) bypass a clogged element.

A cockpit voice recorder must be operated (A) from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. (B)from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown. (C) when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.

(A) from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight.

Aircraft owner or operator should establish a Aircraft Maintenance Program, the interval of mandatory inspections are (A) in accordance with CAA approved aircraft maintenance program (B) every 100 hours flying time (C)every 120 hours flying time (D)every 150 hours flying time

(A) in accordance with CAA approved aircraft maintenance program

A purpose of leading edge flaps is to (A) increase the camber of the wing. (B) reduce lift without increasing airspeed. (C) direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

(A) increase the camber of the wing

Weight X Arm ÷ the Reduction Factor is the formula used to determine ? (A) index units. (B)total moments. (C) CG from LEMAC.

(A) index units

The propeller governor controls (A) oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism. (B) spring tension of the boost pump speeder spring. (C) movement in and out of the linkage and counterweights.

(A) oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism.

Which of the following is member of flight crew (A) pilot (B)flight attendant (C)engineer (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(A) pilot

The first step to correct preignition is to (A) retard the throttle. (B)increase the mixture. (C) decrease the mixture.

(A) retard the throttle.

Use violent force, threat or intimidating act to high-jack a aircraft, the penalty to the culprit is (A) sentence to death, indefinite time imprisonment or 7 or more years imprisonment (B)10 or more years imprisonment (C) 7 years as less imprisonment (D) a fine

(A) sentence to death, indefinite time imprisonment or 7 or more years imprisonment

The purpose of water injection is to (A) suppress detonation. (B)increase fuel economy. (C) prevent carburetor ice.

(A) suppress detonation.

Pressure from an engine-driven hydraulic pump may be regulated by a (A) system bypass valve. (B)constant speed drive. (C)in-line variable restrictor orifice.

(A) system bypass valve

"For commerical airplane, what is the normal fuel usage sequence ? " (A)"Ceter tank first , then main wing tank." (B)"Main wing tank, then center tank" (C)depend on aircraft type

(A)"Ceter tank first , then main wing tank."

"GIVEN: Empty weight 937 with Arm 29.07 Pilot (fwd seat) weight 170 with Arm -45.30 Passenger (aft seat) weight 160 with Arm +1.60 Ballast weight 15 with Arm -45.30 the CG is located at station" (A)+14.91 (B)+16.43 (C)+27.38

(A)+14.91

What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet? (A)-5°C. (B)-15°C. (C)+5°C.

(A)-5°C.

When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately? (A).Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. (B).If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. (C).if radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.

(A).Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.

Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be (A).RNAV equipped (B).Astrotracker equipped (C).FMS / EFIS equipped

(A).RNAV equipped

Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will (A).cancel the approach mode annunciation. (B).require flying point-to-point on the approach to comply with the published approach procedure. (C).have no effect if the approach is flown manually.

(A).cancel the approach mode annunciation.

Upon shifting of center of gravity more than _________ of mean aerodynamic chord, the aircraft shall be weighed. (A)0.5% (B)0.7% (C)0.9%

(A)0.5%

(Refer to Fig. 17) Which illustration indicates the airplane should be turned 150 left to intercept the 360 radial at a 60 angle inbound?(如圖A21_Fig17) (A)1 (B)2 (C)3

(A)1

(Refer to Figure 11 .)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?(如圖A21_Fig11) (A)1 (B)8 (C)11

(A)1

Air transport aircraft with a seating capacity of 60~99 shall be equipped with how many battery operated portable loud speaker in the cabin (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

Air transport operator shall give members of flight crew route check(s) _____ time(s) each year. Those who fail the check(s) shall not be dispatched to exercise as members of flight crew. (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

Air transport operator, for each flight, shall assign _____ pilot as PIC (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

Aircraft with a seating capacity of 251 or more shall be equipped with how many medical chests (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

Aircraft with a seating capacity of 50 or less shall be equipped with how many first aid kits (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

All aircraft when operated as VFR flight shall be equipped with _____ magnetic compass; _____ accurate timepiece indicting the time in hours, minutes and seconds; _____ sensitive altimeter, _____ airspeed indicator and such additional instruments or equipment as may be prescribed by CAA. (A)1 (B)2 (C)3

(A)1

An aircraft with seating capacity of 7-30 shall be equipped with ___ portable fire extinguisher (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

Fixed wing aircraft shall be equipped with ______ axes for breaking cabin door or emergency exit when they cant be opened in ease of emergency (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

For 50-100 seats air transport aircraft, it shall be equipped with ____ first aid kits (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

For air transport, when an airport is selected as take-off alternate, how many hours before and after ETA of the flight, the forecasted weather condition at the alternate airport shall be equal or higher than its minima (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

The valid period of an aircraft airworthiness certificate is ________ years (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(A)1

(Refer to Figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall(如圖A22_Fig2) (A)10 knots higher in a power-on 60° bank with gear and flaps up than with gear and flaps down. (B)35 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configuration. (C)10 knots higher in a 45 ° bank, power-on stall, with gear and flaps down, than in a wings-level stall.

(A)10 knots higher in a power-on 60° bank with gear and flaps up than with gear and flaps down.

(Refer to Figure2)Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall(如圖A22_Fig2) (A)10 knots higher in a power-on 60° bank with gear and flaps up than with gear and flaps down. (B)25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configuration. (C)10 knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall than in a wings-level stall with flaps down.

(A)10 knots higher in a power-on 60° bank with gear and flaps up than with gear and flaps down.

Inbound on the 190 radial, a pilot selects the 195 radial, turns 5 to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 10 min. based on this information, the ETE to the station is (A)10 minutes. (B)15 minutes. (C)20 minutes.

(A)10 minutes.

Minimum actual altitude of VFR flight shall be ______ft. above the highest obstacle within 2,000 ft. radius when flying over cities or populous areas. (A)1000 (B)2000 (C)5000 (D)500

(A)1000

In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above (A)10000 feet MSL (B)12500 feet MSL (C)14500 feet MSL

(A)10000 feet MSL

The full range of VHF frequencies used for communication is: (A)118.0 to 136.975 MHz (B)108.0 to 139.5 MHz (C)3 to 30 MHz (D)88 to 108 MHz

(A)118.0 to 136.975 MHz

"GIVEN: Weight A - 155 pounds at 55 inches aft of datum Weight B - 165 pounds at 145 inches aft of datum Weight C - 95 pounds at 185 inches aft of datum Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?" (A)120.5 inches (B)116.8 inches (C)124.5 inches

(A)120.5 inches

"Given: MZFW=130000, MLDW=140000, MTOW=170000, DOW=90000, TIF=20000, TOF=30000, Payload=40000, what is the operating weight for this flight?" (A)120000 (B)150000 (C)160000

(A)120000

An aircraft at FL100 over flat terrain on a clear day will have a maximum VHF communication range of about: (A)120nm (B)100nm (C)150nm (D)75nm

(A)120nm

Communications equipment on aircraft shall be capable to contact ground on the emergency frequency of ________ mHz (A)121.5 (B)144.5 (C)155.5 (D)123.4

(A)121.5

In accordance with airliner cabin altitude pressure requirement, at (above) what altitude passengers shall be provided with continuous oxygen? (A)13,000 ft (B) 5,000 ft (C) 8,000 ft (D)9,000 ft

(A)13,000 ft

(Refer to figure 20.) Using instrument group 3. if an aircraft makes a 180 turn on the left and continues straight ahead, it will intercept which radial?(如圖A21_Fig20) (A)135 radial. (B)270 radial. (C)360 radial.

(A)135 radial

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? (A)15 degree and 29.92" Hg. (B)59 degree and 101 3.2" Hg. (C)15 degree and 29.92 hPa

(A)15 degree and 29.92" Hg.

"Given: MZFW=130000, MLDW=130000, MTOW=160000, DOW=90000, TIF=20000, TOF=30000, Payload=30000, what is the take off weight for this flight?" (A)150000 (B)160000 (C)170000

(A)150000

"Given: DOW=45680, MZFW=62600, MLDW=68040, MTOW=76850, TIF=9200, TOF=15600, what is maximum payload ?" (A)15570 (B)16920 (C)16190

(A)15570

"Given: MZFW=130634, MLDW=145149, MTOW=170000, DOW=89886, TIF=20000, TOF=30000, what is the allowed weight for take off for this flight ?" (A)160634 (B)170000 (C)165149

(A)160634

Maintenance personnel for aircraft maintenance shop license and rating applicant shall be no less than ________ years of age (A)18 (B)20 (C)21 (D)23

(A)18

The ADF is tuned to a nondirectional radiobeacon and the relative bearing change from 095 to 100 in 1.5 minutes of elapsed time. The time en route to that station would be (A)18min. (B)24min (C)30min.

(A)18min.

(Refer to figure 31 on page 12-35.) The surface wind is 180 at 25 knots. What is the crosswwind component for a RWY 13 landing ?(如圖A21_Fig31) (A)19 knots. (B)21 knots. (C)23 knots.

(A)19 knots.

(Refer to figure 28.) pressure altitude:18,000 ft ; Temperature: -41C; Power: 2500 RPM--26"MP; Recommended lean mixture usable fuel: 318 lb; what is the approximate flight time available under the given condition( Allow for VFR night fuel reserve )(如圖A21_Fig28) (A)2 hours 27 minutes. (B)3 hours 12 minutes. (C)3 hours 42 minutes.

(A)2 hours 27 minutes

(Refer to figure 8.)With 38 gallons of fuel aboard at cruise power (55 percent), how much flight time is available with night VFR fuel reserve still remaining.(如圖A21_Fig25) (A)2 hours 34 minutes. (B)2 hours 49 minutes. (C)3 hours 18 minutes.

(A)2 hours 34 minutes.

A pilot shall have had ______ hours of flight time in a type aircraft before he can conduct functional check flight of that type aircraft after maintenance (A)200 (B)500 (C)300 (D)100

(A)200

To track outbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to (A)215 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. (B)215 and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. (C)035 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

(A)215 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

According the METAR: RCTP 120230Z 25017KT 8000 -SHRA FEW012 BKN025 OVC090 27/24 Q0995= The Dew Point Temperature at 12/0230Z is: (A)24°C (B)27°C (C)30°C

(A)24°C

Air transport operator when introducing a type of aircraft for first time use, in the case of a helicopter, shall have the helicopter flown at least _______ hours before put it to business operations (A)25 (B)50 (C)75 (D)100

(A)25

(Refer to Fig. 31) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane's crosswind capability of 0.2 Vso, if Vso is 60 knots?(如圖A21_Fig31) (A)260 at 20 knots. (B)275 at 25 knots. (C)315 at 35 knots.

(A)260 at 20 knots

(Refer to chart 6.)What wind is forecast for ZGGG at 18,000 feet?(如圖A24_chart6) (A)260 degree true at 10 knots. (B)235 degree true at 06 knots. (C)235 degree magnetic at 06, peak gusts to 16 knots.

(A)260 degree true at 10 knots.

A "VRB" wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is (A)3 knots or less. (B)6 knots or less. (C)9 knots or less.

(A)3 knots or less.

What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a "land and hold should" clearance? (A)3 statute miles and 1000 feet (B)3 nautical miles and 1000 feet (C)3 statute miles and 1500 feet

(A)3 statute miles and 1000 feet

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 1,500 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be (A)3,000 pounds (B)4,000 pounds. (C)12,000 pounds

(A)3,000 pounds

Wingtip bearing change......................15 Time elapsed between bearing change..................................6min Rate of fuel consumption..................................8.6gal/hr The fuel required to fly to the station is (A)3.44 gallons. (B)6.88 gallons. (C)17.84 gallons.

(A)3.44 gallons.

A flight of air transport helicopter, weather conditions at the destination heliport meets VFR requirement and no alternate heliport is required, the flight shall carry the operating flight plan required amount of fuel and additionally shall carry _____ minute fuel for holding over destination heliport at 1,500 ft under standard air temperature and for approach and landing (A)30 (B)45 (C)60 (D)75

(A)30

How long before take-off shall the flight plan be sent to the flight operations (A)30 minutes (B)60 minutes (C)90 minutes (D)2 hours

(A)30 minutes

For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for (A)30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. (B)10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. (C) each passenger for 30 minutes.

(A)30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers.

Wingtip bearing change 15 degree ; Time elapsed between bearing change 7.5 min ；true airspeed 85 kts ；Rate of fuel consumption 9.6 gal/hr The time , distance and fuel to the station (A)30 minutes; 42.5 miles; 4.80 gallons. (B)32minutes; 48miles; 5.58 gallons. (C)48 minutes; 48miles; 4.58 gallons.

(A)30 minutes; 42.5 miles; 4.80 gallons.

(Refer to figure B)'At which flight level is the top of the troposphere?(如圖A24_FigB) (A)30,000 feet (B)40,000 feet (C)50,000 feet

(A)30,000 feet

"Given: C.G. at 1400inch,LEMAC at 1300 inch, MAC=300, How much percent MAC is C.G.position ?" (A)33.3%MAC (B)21.4%MAC (C)23.1%MAC

(A)33.3%MAC

When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern? (A)3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less. (B)3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less. (C)1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

(A)3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

Unsaturated air flowing up slope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry lapse rate) (A)3蚓 per 1,000 ft. (B)2蚓 per 1,000 ft. (C)2.5 蚓 per 1,000 ft.

(A)3蚓 per 1,000 ft.

(Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument(s) show(s) the aircraft is getting further from the selected VORTAC?(如圖A21_Fig20) (A)4 (B)1 & 4 (C)2 & 3

(A)4

What is the maximum bearing error (+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using an FAA-approved ground test signal? (A)4 degrees (B)6 degrees (C)8 degrees

(A)4 degrees

Wingtip bearing change......................10 Time elapsed between bearing change..................................4min Rate of fuel consumption..................................11gal/hr The fuel required to fly to the station is (A)4.4 gallons. (B)8.4 gallons. (C)12 gallons.

(A)4.4 gallons

"GIVEN: MZFW=130634, MLDW=145149, MTOW=170000, DOW=89886, TIF=20000, TOF=30000,what is the maximum allowed traffic load ? (A)40748 (B)40114 (C)38263

(A)40748

While maintaining a magnetic heading of 270 and a true airspeed is 120 knots, the 360 radial of VOR is crossed at 1237 and the 350 radial is crossed at 1244.The approximate time and distance to this station are (A)42 minutes and 84NM. (B)42 minutes and 91NM. (C)44 minutes and 96NM.

(A)42 minutes and 84NM.

(Refer to figure 29.) Using a maximum rate of climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 16,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight.....3,400 lb Airport pressure altitude.....6,000 ft Temperature.....10C(如圖A21_Fig29) (A)43 pounds. (B)45 pounds. (C)49 pounds.

(A)43 pounds.

A flight of a piston-engined airplane to a destination and alternate airport is required, the flight shall carry the operating flight plan required amount of fuel for flying to the destination airport and divert to the most fuel consuming alternate airport. The flight shall carry additional ______ minute fuel for normal cruising thereafter (air transport) (A)45 (B)60 (C)75 (D)90

(A)45

What is maximum tolerance(+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using an FAA-approved ground test signal? (A)4。 (B)6。 (C)8。

(A)4。

(Refer to figure 32)airport pressure altitude...2,000ft airport temperature...20C cruise pressure altitude...10,000ft cruise temperture...0C What will be the fuel, time, and distance required to climb to cruise altitude under given conditions?(如圖A21_FIG32) (A)5 gallons, 9 minutes, 13NM. (B)6 gallons, 11 minutes, 16NM. (C)7 gallons, 12 minutes, 18NM.

(A)5 gallons, 9 minutes, 13NM.

While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 15 doubles in 5 minutes. If the true airspeed is 105 knots, The time and distance to the station being used is approximately (A)5 minutes and 8.7 miles. (B)10 minutes and 17 miles. (C)15 minutes and 31.2 miles.

(A)5 minutes and 8.7 miles.

While maintaining a constant heading, the ADF needle increases from a relative bearing of 045 to 090 in 5 minutes. The time to the station being used is (A)5 minutes. (B)10 minutes. (C)15 minutes.

(A)5 minutes.

Small aircraft is referred to aircraft with a maximum take off weight less than or equal to ________ kg (A)5700 (B)8000 (C)3200 (D)4800

(A)5700

(Refer to figure 17.)which illustration indicates the airplane will intercept the 060 radial at a 60 angle inbound, if the present heading is maintained?(如圖A21_Fig17) (A)6 (B)4 (C)5

(A)6

"GIVEN: Total Weight 3037 lb CG location Station 65 Fuel consumption 12.7 gal/hr Fuel CG Station 68.0 After I hour 45 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station" (A)64.86 (B)65.86 (C)63.86

(A)64.86

"GIVEN: Total Weight 4000 lb CG location Station 72 Fuel consumption 14 GPH Fuel CG Station 60 After 2 hour 30 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station" (A)72.66 (B)72.12 (C)70.07

(A)72.66

"An aircraft is loaded with a ramp weight of 3,650 pounds and having a CG of 96.0, approximately how much baggage would have to be moved from the rear baggage area at station 180 to the forward baggage area at station 80 in order to move the CG to 94.0?" (A)73.0 pounds. (B)36.5 pounds. (C)26.07 pounds.

(A)73.0 pounds.

Inbound on the 090 radial, a pilot rotatess the OBS 010 to the left, turns 010 to the right, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot determines that the elapsed time for the CDI to center is 8 minutes. Based on this information, the ETE to the station is (A)8 minutes. (B)16 minutes. (C)24 minutes.

(A)8 minutes.

The theoretical VHF range that you can obtain at FL50 is: (A)85nm (B)120nm (C)71nm (D)9nm

(A)85nm

"An aircraft is loaded to a gross weight of 4,800 pounds with three pieces of luggage in the rear baggage compartment. The CG is located 98 inches aft of datum, which is 1 inch aft of limits. If luggage which weights 300 pounds is moved from the rear baggage compartment (145 inches aft of datum) to the front compartment (45 inches aft of datum), what is the new CG?" (A)91.75 inches aft of datum. (B)87.58 inches aft of datum. (C)83.58 inches aft of datum.

(A)91.75 inches aft of datum.

According the METAR: RCTP 120230Z 25017KT 8000 -SHRA FEW012 BKN025 OVC090 27/24 Q0995= The QNH at 12/0230Z is: (A)995 mb (B)27 in-Hg (C)1012 mb

(A)995 mb

What is an electrical relay? (A)A magnetically operated switch. (B)A device used to increase, or step-up voltage. (C)A conductor which receives electrical energy and passes it on with little or no resistance.

(A)A magnetically operated switch.

Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions? (A)A power-on approach and power-on landing (B)A power-off approach and power-on landing (C)A power-on approach and power-off landing

(A)A power-on approach and power-on landing

What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? (A)A- Rate will decrease and radius will increase. (B)B- Rate will increase and radius will decrease. (C)C- Rate and radius will increase.

(A)A- Rate will decrease and radius will increase

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? (A)A- The aircraft dispatcher. (B)B- Air route traffic control center. (C)C- Director of operations.

(A)A- The aircraft dispatcher.

If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the (A)A- appropriate ground radio station. (B)B- nearest FAA district office. (C)C- operations manager (or director of operations).

(A)A- appropriate ground radio station.

Holding position signs have (A)A- white inscriptions on a red background. (B)B- red inscriptions on a white background. (C)C- yellow inscriptions on a red background.

(A)A- white inscriptions on a red background.

"Given: ZFW=A, LDW=B, TOW=C, DOW=D, TIF=E, TOF=F, Operating weight=G, Payload=H, I what is true?" (A)A=D+H (B)A=C-E (C)A=G-F

(A)A=D+H

"Given: ZFW=A, LDW=B, TOW=C, DOW=D, TIF=E, TOF=F, Operating weight=G, Payload=H, I what is true?" (A)A=D+H (B)C=D+E (C)B=C-F

(A)A=D+H

The most current en route and destination weather information for an instrument flight should be obtained from the (A)AFFS (B)ATIS broadcast (C)Notices to Airmen Publications

(A)AFFS

"For better maneuver ability, which is TRUE?" (A)AFT C.G. is preferred (B)FWD C.G. is preferred (C)independent of C.G.

(A)AFT C.G. is preferred

An operator shall ensure that pressurized aircraft (or "pressurized airplane" for General Aviation) operated in expected thunderstorms or severe meteorological conditions is equipped with weather radar and functions normally. (A)Affirmative. (B)Negative. (C)It depends.

(A)Affirmative

Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment? (A)Air Carrier's Operations Specifications. (B)nternational Flight Information Manual. (C)Airplane Flight Manual.

(A)Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? (A)Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment (B)The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating (C)The pilot in command must hold at least a student pilot certificate

(A)Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment

Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way? (A)Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right (B)Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right to pass (C)Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left

(A)Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights? (A)Anti-collision light system (B)Gyroscopic direction indicator (C)Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator

(A)Anti-collision light system

When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately? (A)Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. (B) If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. (C)If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.

(A)Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.

Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem? (A)Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed. (B)Settling to the surface abruptly during landing. (C)Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs.

(A)Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.

During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled? (A)Both wings are stalled (B) left wings is stalled (C) right wings is stalled

(A)Both wings are stalled

(Figure 1)When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?(如圖A23_Fig1) (A)Bottom yellow (B)Top red (C)Middle yellow

(A)Bottom yellow

To follow up the above question, if the passenger is not satisfied with the medication and refuses to leave the aircraft. The carrier may request, after obtained CAA consent __________ to persuade or enforce the passenger to leave the aircraft (A)Bureau of Aviation Police (B)Military Police (C)Criminal Police Squad (D)Bureau of Investigation

(A)Bureau of Aviation Police

Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its (A)C.G. moves aft (B)C.G. moves forward (C)elevator trim is adjusted noseddown

(A)C.G. moves aft

When dispute arises between the passenger and the air carries, during the progress of transport or at the end of transport, who would be the mediator (A)CAA (B)the immigration authority (C)Custom, Bureau of Airport Police, Airport Military Police (D)Airport Military Police

(A)CAA

What is the forecast wind at 180OZ in the following TAF? KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005= (A)Calm. (B)Unknown. (C)Not recorded.

(A)Calm

Which operational force creates the greatest stress on a propeller? (A)Centrifugal. (B)Torque bending. (C)Aerodynamic twisting.

(A)Centrifugal

There are no effect on the indicated stalling speed since (A)Change in density altitude and angel of attack (B)As the weight is increased (C)A-?? As the bank angel increases

(A)Change in density altitude and angel of attack

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for (A)Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas (B)all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and District of Columbia at and above 10000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2500 feet above the surface) (C)both answer A and B

(A)Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion? (A)Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind. (B)Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface. (C)Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude.

(A)Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind.

What is the purpose of an electrical relay? (A)Controls remote, high current equipment items with a small switch. (B) Prevents static buildup by connecting shock mounted equipment to ground. (C)Engages starter gears, moves locking pins or other mechanical control devices.

(A)Controls remote, high current equipment items with a small switch.

Which is true regarding the development of convective circulation? (A)Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward. (B)Warm air is less dense and rises on its own accord. (C)Warmer air covers a larger surface area than the cool air; therefore, the warmer air is less dense and rises.

(A)Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward.

What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas? (A)Coriolis force. (B)Surface friction. (C)Pressure gradient force.

(A)Coriolis force.

The raising of flaps increases the stall speed during level turns? (A)Correct (B)incorrect (C)There is no change in the stall speed whether using the flap or no

(A)Correct

A setting of 7700 on the transpoder indicates: (A)DISTRESS (B)AIRCRAFT IS LOST (C)RADIO FAILURE (D)HI-JACKING

(A)DISTRESS

What is a disadvantage of wing mounted vortex generators? (A)Drag is increased slightly at slow airspeeds. (B)Parasite drag increases significantly at high airspeeds. (C)Shock induced flow separation from vortex generators increases control surface buffet.

(A)Drag is increased slightly at slow airspeeds.

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air? (A)Evaporation and sublimation. (B)Heating and condensation. (C)Supersaturation and evaporation.

(A)Evaporation and sublimation.

Which component of an air-cycle cooling system undergoes a pressure and temperature drop of air during operation? (A)Expansion turbine. (B) Primary heat exchanger. (C)Refrigeration bypass valve.

(A)Expansion turbine

'(Refer to figure G ) at which flight level is the ceiling of the cloud?(如圖A24_FigG) (A)FL 380 (B)FL 270 (C)unknown

(A)FL 380

Both lift and drag would be increased when which of these devices are extended? (A)Flaps. (B)Spoilers. (C)Slats.

(A)Flaps

The functions of airmen's examination, rating certification, licensing and registration are the responsibilities of which Division of CAA (A)Flight standards (B)Air Transportation (C)Air Traffic Control (D)Legal and Planning

(A)Flight standards

Which situation would result in reverse sening of a VOR receiver? (A)Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS. (B)setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90 from the bearing on which the aircraft is located. (C)Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to outbound course after passing the station.

(A)Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.

Which is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for an airplane flown in a coordinated turn at a constant altitude? (A)For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary. (B)To maintain a steady rate of turn, the angle of bank must be increased as the airspeed is decreased. (C)The faster the true airspeed, the faster the rate and larger the radius of turn regardless of the angle of bank.

(A)For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary.

In-Flight Aviation Weather Advisories include what type of information? (A)Forecasts for potentially hazardous flying conditions for en route aircraft (B)States and geographic areas with reported ceilings and visibilities below VFR minimums (C)IFR conditions, turbulence, and icing within a valid period for the listed states

(A)Forecasts for potentially hazardous flying conditions for en route aircraft

Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time? (A)Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period (B)Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 4-hour categorical outlook (C)Four times daily and are valid for 12 hours including a 6-hour categorical outlook

(A)Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period

What is a disadvantage of a stabilizer and elevator located at the top of the vertical fin? (A)Heavier structure. (B) Undesirable spin characteristics. (C)Less effective fin and rudder due to the end plate action of the stabilizer location.

(A)Heavier structure.

Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? (A)Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. (B)Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. (C) Heavy fast, gear and flaps down.

(A)Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way? (A)Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right (B)Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass (C)Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left

(A)Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC? (A)High altitudes close to the VORTAC. (B) Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. (C) Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

(A)High altitudes close to the VORTAC.

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms? (A)High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions. (B)High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds. (C)Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.

(A)High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.

Fixed wing aircraft first airworthiness certificated after Jan 1, 1989 and with a maximum take off weight over 27,000 kg, shall be equipped with ________ type flight data recorder (A)I (B)II (C)III (D)IV

(A)I

What is the purpose of REIL? (A)Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. (B) Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. (C) Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.

(A)Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.

Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately? (A)In flight fire (B)Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch (C)Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hanger which results in damage to other property of more than $25000

(A)In flight fire

What single reference contains information regarding a volcanic eruption, that is occurring or expected to occur? (A)In-Flight Weather Advisories (B)Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF) (C)Weather Depiction Chart

(A)In-Flight Weather Advisories

Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? (A)Increase speed for a headwind. (B)Increase speed for a tailwind. (C)Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.

(A)Increase speed for a headwind.

Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat? (A)It enriches the fuel/air mixture (B)It leans the fuel/air mixture (C)It has no effect on the fuel/air mixture

(A)It enriches the fuel/air mixture

What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments? (A)It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure (B)It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators (C)It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators

(A)It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure

What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments? (A)It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure (B)It is more reliable than vacuum-driven indicators. (C)It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators.

(A)It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure

What direction should the ailerons move when the control wheel is moved? (A)Left aileron down when the control wheel is moved right. (B) Right aileron up when the control wheel is moved left. (C)Left aileron down when the control wheel is moved left.

(A)Left aileron down when the control wheel is moved right.

What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight? (A)Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag (B)lift, drag, and weight equal thrust. (C)Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.

(A)Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag

Which weather phenomenon is always associate with a thunderstorm? (A)Lightning. (B)Heavy rain. (C)Hail.

(A)Lightning.

In what flight condition is torque effectthe greatest in a single-engine airplane? (A)Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. (B)Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack. (C)high airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

(A)Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

When are inboard ailerons normally used? (A)Low-speed and High-speed flight (B)High-speed flight only. (C)Low-speed flight only.

(A)Low-speed and High-speed flight

Upon completing major repair or major alteration of an aircraft, its power plant, propeller, component or parts, the authorized person shall be responsible to fill the form titled ___________. (A)Major Repair and Alteration (Airframe, Powerplant, Propeller, or Appliance). (B)Major Repair and Alteration Airworthiness Report. (C)Airworthiness Authorization tag.

(A)Major Repair and Alteration

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take? (A)Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. (B)Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, perform missed approach. (C)Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

(A)Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course.

Which procedures should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? (A)Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet (B)Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course (C)Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course

(A)Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? (A)Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. (B)Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course. (C)Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

(A)Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

(Refer to figure 6.)nterpret the weather symbol depicted in southern California on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.(如圖A24_Fig6) (A)Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet. (B)Thunderstorm tops at 18,000 feet. (C)Base of clear air turbulence, 18,000 feet.

(A)Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet.

If you are flying an aircraft without a transponder then reply to an instruction to "SQUAWK IDENT" should be: (A)NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER (B)NO SQUAWK (C)SQUAWK NOT POSSIBLE (D)NO SQUAWK

(A)NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER

What type of gas may be used to service hydraulic accumulators? (A)Nitrogen. (B)Dry oxygen. (C)Carbon dioxide.

(A)Nitrogen.

The callsign FASTAIR 1234 can be abbreviated to: (A)No abbreviation (B)FASTAIR 34 (C)1234 (D)FOXTROT34

(A)No abbreviation

While taxing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830? (A)No notification or report is required (B)A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours (C)An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office

(A)No notification or report is required

Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date? (A)No, it is issued without a specific expiration date (B)Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued (C)No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months

(A)No, it is issued without a specific expiration date

What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? (A)Notify ATC immediately. (B)Squawk 7600. (C)Monitor the VOR receiver.

(A)Notify ATC immediately.

An altitude of 13,500 feet would be spoken as: (A)ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET (B)THIRTEEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET (C)ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE ZERO ZERO FEET

(A)ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET

Under what condition does a pilot receive a 'void time' specified in the clearance? (A)On an uncontrolled airport. (B)When 'gate hold' procedures are in effect. (C)If the clearance is received prior to starting engines.

(A)On an uncontrolled airport.

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories? (A)On tower frequency. (B)On approach control frequency. (C)One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

(A)On tower frequency.

When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport? (A)Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency. (B)When aligned on the final approach course. (C)When cleared for the approach.

(A)Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency.

When does ATC issue a STAR? (A)Only when ATC deems it appropriate. (B) Only to high priority flights. (C)Only upon request of the pilot.

(A)Only when ATC deems it appropriate.

Which are protective functions of an ac generator control unit? (A)Open phase, underexcitation, and overvoltage. (B)Undervoltage, differential fault, and manual paralleling. (C)Generator underspeed and bus-tie circuit-breaker automatic closing.

(A)Open phase, underexcitation, and overvoltage.

Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? (A)Operations Specifications. (B)Operating Certificate. (C) Dispatch Release.

(A)Operations Specifications.

Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes? (A)Over all designated compulsory reporting points. (B)Only where specifically requested by ARTCC. (C)When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

(A)Over all designated compulsory reporting points.

The phrases proceeding an URGENCY message should be: (A)PanPan PanPan PanPan (B)Urgency Urgency Urgency (C)Mayday Mayday Mayday

(A)PanPan PanPan PanPan

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne? (A)Past the point where the jet touched down (B)At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point (C)Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down

(A)Past the point where the jet touched down

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne? (A)Past the point where the jet touched down. (B)At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point. (C)Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.

(A)Past the point where the jet touched down.

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control; tower, within the Class C airspace area? (A)Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility (B)Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder (C)Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility

(A)Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility

What is the definition of flight plan? (A)Provide flight operations authority with specific information concerning the entire flight or part there of intended by the aircraft (B)A plan resulted from cross calculating pertinent information involving weather, aircraft performance, fuel consumption and airway profile to provide the flight crew with necessary navigational information to operate the aircraft (C)The other answers are correct. (D)The other answers are wrong.

(A)Provide flight operations authority with specific information concerning the entire flight or part there of intended by the aircraft

Which discipline is the science of mind and behavior? (A)Psychology (B)Human physiology (C)Medicine (D)Anthropometry

(A)Psychology

Which principle operates a hydraulic fuse? (A)Quantity of flow. (B)Thermal increase. (C)Pressure increase.

(A)Quantity of flow.

Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be (A)RNAV equipped. (B)Astrotracker equipped. (C)FMS/EFIS equipped.

(A)RNAV equipped.

What is a purpose of flight spoilers? (A)Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. (B) Increase the camber of the wing. (C)Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

(A)Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.

Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? (A)Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. (B)Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. (C)Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.

(A)Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.

When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff and landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required? (A)Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. (B)500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. (C)Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.

(A)Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

About the "SHEL" model, which description is not correct: (A)S means situation (B)H measn hardware (C)E means environment (D)L means liveware

(A)S means situation

The phrase used by ATC to impose radio silence during an emergency situation is: (A)STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY OUT (B)MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY OUT (C)DISTRESS TRAFFIC IN PROGRESS

(A)STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY OUT

What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace? (A)Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories. (B)Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories. (C)Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.

(A)Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories.

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? (A)Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown (B)Stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path (C)Stay well below its final approach flight path and land at least 2000 feet behind

(A)Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? (A)Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown. (B)Stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path. (C)Stay well below its final approach flight path and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

(A)Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown.

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? (A)Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. (B)Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath (C)Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

(A)Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.

What is a characteristic of stable air? (A)Stratiform clouds. (B)Unlimited visibility. (C)Cumulus clouds.

(A)Stratiform clouds.

Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations? (A)The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated (B)The cabin area should not be preheated with portable heaters (C)Hot air should be blown directly at the engine through the air intakes

(A)The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated

Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations? (A)The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated. (B)The cabin area should not be preheated with portable heaters. (C)Hot air should be blown directly at the engine through the air intakes.

(A)The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated.

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane? (A)The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift (B)The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab. (C)The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag

(A)The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way? (A)The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right (B)The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left (C)Each pilot should alter course to the right

(A)The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right

Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions? (A)The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions (B)The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes (C)The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes

(A)The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature of a thunderstorm? (A)The start of rain at the surface. (B)Growth rate of cloud is maximum. (C)Strong turbulence in the cloud.

(A)The start of rain at the surface.

To which meteorological condition does the term "dew point"refer? (A)The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated. (B)The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal. (C)The temperature at which dew will always form.

(A)The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

In an electrically heated windshield system, what maintains normal windshield temperature? (A)Thermistors. (B)Electronic amplifiers. (C)Thermal overheat switches.

(A)Thermistors

Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight? (A)These forces are equal. (B)Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal. (C)Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.

(A)These forces are equal.

What is one purpose of wing flaps? (A)To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed (B)To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls (C)To decrease wing area to vary the lift

(A)To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed

(Figure 1)Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?(如圖A23_Fig1) (A)Top red (B)Middle yellow (C)Bottom yellow

(A)Top red

Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP? (A)Turbulence and structural icing. (B)Jetstream-type winds and icing. (C)Level of the tropopause and turbulence.

(A)Turbulence and structural icing

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight? (A)Turns (B)Climbs. (C)Stalls

(A)Turns

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? (A)Two-way communications. (B)Two-way communications and transponder. (C)Transponder 及 DME.

(A)Two-way communications.

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points? (A)Unequal heating of the Earth's surface. (B)Variation of terrain elevation. (C)Coriolis force.

(A)Unequal heating of the Earth's surface.

After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? (A)Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. (B)Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach proc. at the corrected ETA, + or - 3 minutes. (C)At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.

(A)Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? (A)VS (B)VS1 (C)VSo.

(A)VS

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? (A)VS (B)VS1 (C)VS0

(A)VS

How is engine power output affected by the application of carburetor heat? (A)Volumetric efficiency is reduced. (B)Mixture is leaned and power is decreased. (C)Weight of the fuel/air mixture is increased.

(A)Volumetric efficiency is reduced.

What situation is most conductiive to the formation of radiation fog? (A)Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights. (B)Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water. (C)The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

(A)Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog? (A)Warm, moist air over low, flatted areas on clear calm night. (B)Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water. (C)The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

(A)Warm, moist air over low, flatted areas on clear calm night.

When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left? (A)When at high angles of attack. (B)When at low angles of attack. (C)When at high airspeed.

(A)When at high angles of attack.

When should pilots decline a "land and hold should" (LAHSO) clearance? (A)When it will compromise safety (B)If runway surface is contaminated (C)Only when the tower controller concurs

(A)When it will compromise safety

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? (A)When priority has been given. (B) Anytime an emergency occurs. (C)When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

(A)When priority has been given. (

Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)? (A)Widespread sand or dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles. (B)Moderate icing. (C)Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface.

(A)Widespread sand or dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.

Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters "VC". When VC appears in a terminal aerodrome forecast, it covers a geographical area of (A)a 8 to 16 status kilometer radius from the airport. (B)a 8-kilometer radius of the center of a runway complex. (C)16 kilometers of the station originating the forecast.

(A)a 8 to 16 status kilometer radius from the airport.

To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot could monitor (A)a TWEB on a low-frequency and/or VOR receiver (B)the regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency (C)a high-frequency radio receiver tuned to En Route Flight Advisory Service

(A)a TWEB on a low-frequency and/or VOR receiver

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is (A)a change in temperature. (B)an increase in cloud coverage. (C)an increase in relative humidity.

(A)a change in temperature.

When Airlines A merges Airlines B without providing SOP training, we may conclude it as (A)a latent failure (B)an active failure (C)a neutral failure (D)a total failure

(A)a latent failure

To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires (A)a lower angle of attack (B)the same angle of attack (C)a greater angle of attack

(A)a lower angle of attack

To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires (A)a lower angle of attack. (B)the same angle of attack. (C)a greater angle of attack.

(A)a lower angle of attack.

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow (A)across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable. (B)down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable. (C)parallele to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.

(A)across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.

The CG of an airplane will be _____ by the fuel carried. (A)affected greatly (B)no effect (C)affected less

(A)affected greatly

"If MAC long 280 inches, CG is at MAC22%. CG is :" (A)after the LEMAC 61.6 inches. (B)before the LEMAC 61.6 inches. (C)before the TEMAC 61.6 inches. (D)after the TEMAC 61.6 inches.

(A)after the LEMAC 61.6 inches

Air transport operator shall comply with transport according to priority (A)air mails take precedence of passenger or cargo (B)passenger and cargo have priority over others (C)they have equal standing (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(A)air mails take precedence of passenger or cargo

The definition of flying time is (A)aircraft for the purpose of take-off and begin to move under its own power till the moment stopped moving after landing (B)aircraft for the purpose of take-off from moment it became airborne till the moment stopped moving after landing (C)aircraft for the purpose of take-off and begin to move under its own power till the moment it touches down (D)aircraft for the purpose of take-off from the moment it begins to move till the moment it stops moving

(A)aircraft for the purpose of take-off and begin to move under its own power till the moment stopped moving after landing

On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the (A)aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made (B)approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot (C)flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above the published minimums for that approach

(A)aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made

Aircraft " flight operations regulations" require what kind of aircraft shall be equipped with weather radar (A)aircraft that has pressured cabin (B) aircraft that has 4 reciprocate type engines (C)aircraft that has two or more turbine engines (D)aircraft that has a gross weight over 12,500 lbs

(A)aircraft that has pressured cabin

An airplane will stall at the same (A)angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon (B)airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon (C)angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon

(A)angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon

An airplane will stall at the same (A)angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon. (B)airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon. (C)angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon.

(A)angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.

While flying cross-country, in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. this indicates that you (A)are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions. (B)have flown from an area of unfavorable weather conditions. (C)cannot determine weather conditions without knowing pressure changes.

(A)are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions.

In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers (A)are not used as circuit protective devices. (B)are used in all circuits essential to safe operation of the aircraft. (C) are found in locations where only temporary overloads are encountered.

(A)are not used as circuit protective devices.

Air transport operator may not carry passenger without entry permit into ROC. The violator shall (A)arrange the most recent flight to leave (B)detain the passenger for investigation (C)to confiscate passenger's belonging for the compensation of ticket(s) (D)clarify it has nothing to do with it

(A)arrange the most recent flight to leave

Before take-off, when the pilot considers the ATC clearance is not proper, he shall (A)ask amendment immediately (B)do the best to comply (C)ask for amendment till next ATC (D)switch to company frequency and ask for amendment

(A)ask amendment immediately

If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight (A)at sunset (B)30 minutes after sunset (C)1 hour after sunset

(A)at sunset

When planning for a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for (A)availability and status of en route and destination airport lighting systems (B)red en route course lights (C)location of rotating light beacons

(A)availability and status of en route and destination airport lighting systems

Whose responsibility is to investigate and determine the cause of an aircraft accident? (A)aviation safety council (B)CAA (C)Ministry of Transportation and Communications (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(A)aviation safety council

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by (A)being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flight path until able to turn clear of its wake. (B)maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climb out. (C)extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet＇s rotation point.

(A)being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flight path until able to turn clear of its wake.

The pressure altitude of the aircraft cabin derived for relative standard atmosphere pressure is (A)cabin pressure altitude (B)absolute altitude (C)flight altitude (D)sea level altitude

(A)cabin pressure altitude

Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its (A)center of gravity moves aft. (B)center of gravity moves forward. (C)elevator trim is adjusted nose down.

(A)center of gravity moves aft.

Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its (A)center of gravity moves aft. (B)center of gravity moves forward. (C)elevator trim is adjusted nosedown.

(A)center of gravity moves aft.

Aircraft in flight carrying passenger, cargo or mail may not simulate emergency or abnormal situation (A)certainly not (B)it may (C)depends on the situation (D)The other answers are wrong.

(A)certainly not

Container of flight data recorder must be painted in ______ color (A)conspicuous orange yellow (B)black (C)white (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(A)conspicuous orange yellow

How may a pilot determine if a LORAN-C receiver is authorized for IFR operations? (A)consult the AIRPLANE FIGHT MANUAL SUPPLEMENT. (B)a placard stating, "LORAN-C APPROVED FOR IFR EN ROUTE, TERMINAL AND APPROACH SEGMENTS" . (C)an airframe logbook entry that the LORAN-C receiver has been checked within the previous 30 calendar days.

(A)consult the AIRPLANE FIGHT MANUAL SUPPLEMENT.

In which of the following spaces are may request special VFR permit (A)controlled zone (B)controlled area (C)controlled region (D)flight information area

(A)controlled zone

Moisture in a pneumatic system may cause (A)corrosion. (B) a variety of sounds including banging, squealing and chattering. (C)return lines to freeze when the pressure of the air drops during actuation.

(A)corrosion.

(Refer to figure 17.)which statement is true regarding illustration 2, if the present heading is maintaind? The airplane will(如圖A21_Fig17) (A)cross the 180 radial at 45 angle outbound. (B)intercept 225 radial at a 45 angle. (C)intercept 360 radial at a 45 angle.

(A)cross the 180 radial at 45 angle outbound.

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to (A)decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density (B)decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density (C)increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air

(A)decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density

As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift (A)decreases and the horizontal component of lift increase. (B)increases and the horizontal component of lift decreases. (C)decreases and the horizontal component of lift remains constant.

(A)decreases and the horizontal component of lift increase.

As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift (A)decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases (B) increases and the horizontal component of lift decreases (C)decreases and the horizontal component of lift remains constant

(A)decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane (A)decreases because of lower parasite drag. (B)increases because of increased induced drag. (C)increases because of increased parasite drag.

(A)decreases because of lower parasite drag.

Defines VF as : (A)design flap speed (B)flap operating speed (C)max flap extended speed

(A)design flap speed

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is (A)developing lift. (B)operating at high airspeeds. (C)heavily loaded

(A)developing lift

Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is (A)developing lift. (B) operating at high airspeeds. (C) using high power settings.

(A)developing lift.

Load factor is the lift generated by the wing of an aircraft at any given time (A)divided by the total weight of the aircraft. (B)multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft. (C)divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.

(A)divided by the total weight of the aircraft.

Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time (A)divided by the total weight of the aircraft. (B)multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft. (C)divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.

(A)divided by the total weight of the aircraft.

Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating (A)during all types of operations, both day and night (B)anytime the pilot is in the cockpit (C)anytime an engine is in operation

(A)during all types of operations, both day and night

Flight crew's dead head time to a destination shall be counted as (A)duty time (B)rest period (C)half of duty time (D)stand by time

(A)duty time

(Refer to figure 6.)The low pressure associated with the cold front in the western states is forecast to move(如圖A24_Fig6) (A)east at 30 knots. (B)northeast at 12 knots. (C)southeast at 30 knots.

(A)east at 30 knots.

When discussing culture, population size and education belong to the issue of (A)economic and political context (B)geographic and physical context (C)social context (D)airline operating context

(A)economic and political context

The best L/D ratio of a glider occurs when parasite drag is (A)equal to induced drag. (B)less than induced drag. (C)greater than induced drag.

(A)equal to induced drag.

Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of (A)exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit (B)a power loss due to back pressure in the exhaust system (C)a cold-running engine due to the heat withdrawn by the heater

(A)exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit

An airplane leaving ground effect will (A)experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust (B)require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient (C)experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.

(A)experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust

When ROC design and manufactured aeronautic product intend to export to other country, it shall first obtain a ________ certificate from CAA (A)export airworthiness (B)technical standard part producer authorization (C)manufacturing certificate (D)supplement type certificate

(A)export airworthiness

Which is corect with respect to rate and radius of turn for an airplane flown in a coordinated turn at a constant altitude ? (A)for a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary (B)to maintain a steady rate of turn, the angle of bank must be increased as the airspeed is decreased (C)the faster the true airspeed, the faster the rate and larger the radius of turn regardless of the angle of bank

(A)for a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the (A)force acting perpendicular to the relative wind (B)differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing. (C)reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber

(A)force acting perpendicular to the relative wind

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the (A)force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. (B)differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing. (C)reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber.

(A)force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the (A)force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. (B)differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing. (C)reduced pressure reesulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber.

(A)force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the (A)force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. (B)vary depending upon speed and air density. (C)reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber.

(A)force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.

In order to prevent interference with navigational aids and communication equipment of aircraft, airmen crew members and passengers may not carry electronic apparatus on board except hearing aids, pacer or electric razor. The effective period shall be (A)from the time the cabin doors are closed till they are open (B)from the time the engine started till they are shut off (C)The other answers are correct. (D)The other answers are wrong.

(A)from the time the cabin doors are closed till they are open

Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft (A)gains altitude with no mixture adjustment (B)descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment (C)throttle is advanced very abruptly

(A)gains altitude with no mixture adjustment

(Refer to Figure 1.) At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the airplane will(如圖A22_Fig1) (A)have its maximum L/D ratio. (B)have its minimum L/D ratio. (C)be developing its maximum coefficient of lift.

(A)have its maximum L/D ratio.

What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is (A)headed away from you (B)crossing to your left (C)approaching you head-on

(A)headed away from you

The best signals for VHF communications are obtained when the position of the aircraft is at: (A)high altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome (B)high altitude at long range (C)low altitude and short range

(A)high altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome

What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight ? (A)higher than at low elevation (B)lower than at low elevation (C)the same as at low elevation

(A)higher than at low elevation

Effective CRM training need the support of (A)highest levels of management (B)passengers (C)ATC (D)family

(A)highest levels of management

A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding lead is to (A)idle the engine and momentarily turn the ignition off (B)add full power, while holding the brakes, and momentarily turn off the ignition (C)run on one magneto, lean the mixture, and look for a rise in manifold pressure

(A)idle the engine and momentarily turn the ignition off

A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight (A)if it creates a hazard to persons and property (B)unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property (C)unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property

(A)if it creates a hazard to persons and property

In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to (A)increase (B)decrease (C)not vary

(A)increase

One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to (A)increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. (B) decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed (C)permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.

(A)increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

If the same angle of attack is maintained in maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will (A)increase, and induced drag will decrease. (B)decrease, and parasite drag will increases. (C)increase, and induced drag will increase.

(A)increase, and induced drag will decrease.

In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to (A)increase. (B)decrease. (C)not vary.

(A)increase.

What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance ? (A)increases takeoff distance (B)decreases takeoff speed (C)decreases takeoff distance

(A)increases takeoff distance

The "taxiway ending" marker (A)indicates taxiway does not continue (B)identifies area where aircraft are prohibited (C)provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway

(A)indicates taxiway does not continue

Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated aiespeed corrected for (A)installation and instrument error (B)the power-off stall speed (C)the maneuvering speed

(A)installation and instrument error

Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for (A)installation and instrument error (B)instrument error (C)non-standard temperature

(A)installation and instrument error

Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for (A)installation and instrument error. (B)instrument error. (C)non-standard temperture.

(A)installation and instrument error.

For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn (A)is constant and the stall speed increases (B)varies with the rate of turn (C)is constant and the stall speed decreases

(A)is constant and the stall speed increases

For a give angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn (A)is constant and the stall speed increases. (B)varies with the rate of turn. (C)is constant and the stall speed decreases.

(A)is constant and the stall speed increases.

For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn (A)is constant and the stall speed increases. (B)varies with the rate of turn. (C)is constant and the stall speed decreases.

(A)is constant and the stall speed increases.

On a Surface Analysis Chart, the solid lines that depict sea level pressure patterns are called (A)isobars (B)isogons (C)millibars

(A)isobars

What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments ? (A)it is a backup in case of vacuum system failure (B)it is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators (C)it will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators

(A)it is a backup in case of vacuum system failure

when on route actual or forecasted weather conditions are compatible with VFR requirement, the flight may engage in VFR (A)it is correct (B)no, it is not (C)it depends (D)The other answers are wrong.

(A)it is correct

Communications and navigation equipment installed on aircraft, in case of one system fail in either communications or navigation operations, or both (A)it shall not effect other compatible equipment's normal operation (B)it may fail the other compatible equipment (C)The ohter answers are correct. (D)The ohter answers are wrong

(A)it shall not effect other compatible equipment's normal operation

Class 3 performance helicopter, when flying to a distance from shore that is beyond reach by autorotation gliding shall be equipped with ________ and place them under the seat or berth where is easily accessible (A)life vest or individual floating device (B)introduction to the type helicopter (C)escape guide (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(A)life vest or individual floating device

The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the (A)lift at low speeds. (B)L/D max. (C)drag and reduce airspeed.

(A)lift at low speeds.

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane (A)lift, airspeed, and drag. (B)lift, airspeed, and CG. (C)lift and airspeed, but not drag.

(A)lift, airspeed, and drag.

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's (A)lift, airspeed, and drag. (B)lift, airspeed, and CG. (C)lift and airspeed, but not drag.

(A)lift, airspeed, and drag.

According to SHEL model, staff-management relationship is an issue of (A)liveware-liveware interface (B)liveware-hardware interface (C)liveware-software interface (D)liveware-environment interface

(A)liveware-liveware interface

The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as (A)load factor and directly affects stall speed. (B)aspect load and directly affects stall speed. (C)load factor and has no relation with stall speed.

(A)load factor and directly affects stall speed.

The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as? (A)load factor and directly affects stall speed. (B)aspect load and directly affects stall speed. (C)load factor and has no relation with stall speed.

(A)load factor and directly affects stall speed.

"When a pilot develops and fails to recognize a lack of perception or an erroneous perception of the state of the aircraft and its relationship to the world" can be defined as (A)loss of situation awareness (B)loss of system awareness (C)poor interface design (D)over-reliance

(A)loss of situation awareness

Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn ? To compensate for the (A)loss of the vertical component of lift (B)loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force (C)rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn

(A)loss of the vertical component of lift

Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the (A)loss of the vertical component of lift. (B)loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force. (C)rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn.

(A)loss of the vertical component of lift.

In the "SHEL" moel, hardware means (A)machinery, equipment, etc. (B)documentation, procedures, symbols, etc. (C)both internal and external to the workplace (D)the human element

(A)machinery, equipment, etc.

On hearing an Urgency message, a pilot should: (A)maintain a listening watch to see if you can assist in any way (B)acknowledge the message straight away (C)change frequency because a radio silence will be imposed

(A)maintain a listening watch to see if you can assist in any way

Aircraft owner or operator, when contractd domestic MRO conducting aircraft maintenance, modification or fabrication, shall present ___ to CAA for concurrence. (A)maintneance agreement (B)maintenance certificate (C)maintenance document (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(A)maintneance agreement

When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should (A)make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated (B)fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL (C)enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL

(A)make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude ? (A)make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet (B)slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course (C)make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course

(A)make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the (A)mature stage. (B)downdraft stage. (C)cumulus stage.

(A)mature stage

Defines VLE as : (A)max landing gear extended speed (B)max landing gear operating speed (C)max leading edge flaps extended speed

(A)max landing gear extended speed

Defines VNO as : (A)max structural cruising speed (B)normal operating speed (C)max operating speed

(A)max structural cruising speed

May a company representative is not of Republic of China nationality apply for ROC registration for his aircraft (A)may not (B)may after the bar associations verification (C)there is not any regulation to follow (D)may after deposit of collateral

(A)may not

Members of flight crew shall occupy their duty positions during flight (A)may not leave position except of physiological need or necessary works (B)one may leave position when cruising and all is normal (C)one may leave position when flight reaches 290 level (D)one may leave position except when take-off or landing

(A)may not leave position except of physiological need or necessary works

When an aircraft ownership transfers, according to the Republic of China's regulation, the airworthiness certificate of the aircraft (A)may not transfer with the aircraft (B) may transfer with the aircraft (C)depending on the type entered in the aircraft registration to decide whether it is transferable (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(A)may not transfer with the aircraft

Normally, when an aircraft is more automated, the role of a pilot is (A)more in monitoring. (B)more in controlling. (C)more in both monitoring and controlling.

(A)more in monitoring.

If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays (A)neutral longitudinal static stability. (B)positive longitudinal static stability. (C)Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.

(A)neutral longitudinal static stability.

(Refer to figure 1)' , is there any information in this figure indicates light turbulence(如圖A24_Fig1) (A)no indication of light turbulence (B)light turbulence at N40E164 (C)The ohter answers are wrong. (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(A)no indication of light turbulence (B)light turbulence at N40E164

Air transport operator's aircraft maintenance manager shall have which of the following qualifications (A)no less than 5 years experience of maintenance of air transport aircraft (B)no less than 3 years experience of maintenance of air transport aircraft (C)no less than 2 years experience of maintenance of air transport aircraft (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(A)no less than 5 years experience of maintenance of air transport aircraft

Crew is referred to personnel assigned by the operator to work (A)on aboard aircraft during flight (B)on ground (C)in aircraft while on ground (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(A)on aboard aircraft during flight

The abbreviation HJ means that the aerodrome is: (A)open between sunrise and sunset (B)open between sunset and sunrise (C)open 24 hours (D)open during unspecified hours

(A)open between sunrise and sunset

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne ? (A)past the point where the jet touched down (B)at the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point (C)approximately 500 ft prior to the point where the jet touched down

(A)past the point where the jet touched down

To best determine observed weather conditions between weather reporting stations, the pilot should refer to (A)pilot reports (B)Area Forecasts (C)prognostic charts

(A)pilot reports

The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on (A)pressure/density altitude (B)cabin altitude (C)true altitude

(A)pressure/density altitude

The purpose of shutting an engine down with the mixture control at the end of the flight is to (A)prevent an accidental start. (B) preclude liquid lock during subsequent starts. (C)assure that there is no fuel in the intake system that could result in a fire

(A)prevent an accidental start.

A purpose of wing mounted vortex generators is to (A)prevent shock induced separation of air from the wing. (B)increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed. (C) break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.

(A)prevent shock induced separation of air from the wing

The purpose of fusible plugs in aircraft wheels is to (A)prevent tire blowouts. (B) quickly deflate tires for repair. (C)protect the antiskid electrical system.

(A)prevent tire blowouts

If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to (A)proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. (B)continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation. (C)proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument approach and land.

(A)proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system

The left turning tendency of an airplane cause by P-factor is the result of the (A)propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left. (B)clockwise rotation of the engine and propeller turning the airplane counterclockwise. (C)gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90' in advance of the point the force was applied.

(A)propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

Propeller efficiency is the (A)ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower (B)actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution (C)ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch

(A)ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower

A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when (A)receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix (B)maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes (C)maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes

(A)receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix

If necessary to take off from a slushy runway, the freezing of landing gear mechanisms can be minimized by (A)recycling the gear (B)delaying gear retraction (C)increasing the airspeed to VLE before retraction

(A)recycling the gear

If necessary to takeoff from a slushy runway, the freezing of landing gear mechanisms can be minimized by ? (A)recycling the gear (B)delaying gear retraction (C)increasing the airspeed to VLE before retraction

(A)recycling the gear

A purpose of ground spoilers is to (A)reduce the wing's lift upon landing. (B) aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. (C)increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.

(A)reduce the wing's lift upon landing.

While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would (A)remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant life vector. (B)vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately. (C)vary depending upon the resultant lift vector.

(A)remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant life vector.

While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would (A)remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector (B)very depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportationately (C)vary depending upon the resultant lift vector

(A)remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector

While holding the angle of bank constant, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would (A)remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector. (B)vary depending upon speed and air density. (C)vary depending upon the resultant lift vector.

(A)remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.

An airplane said to be inherently stable will (A)require less effort to control (B)be difficult to stall. (C)not spin

(A)require less effort to control

A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives (A)required maintenance and inspections (B)an annual inspection (C)an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates

(A)required maintenance and inspections

In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the (A)right by Coriolis force. (B)right by surface friction. (C)left by Coriolis force.

(A)right by Coriolis force.

When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include (A)selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible (B)landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown (C)turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing

(A)selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible

If you are told to "SQUAWK 1250", you should (A)set code 1250 on SSR transponder (mode A) (B)change to frequency 125.0 MHz (C)say "TESTING 1250"

(A)set code 1250 on SSR transponder (mode A)

Which Unit shall be reported as soon as possible , when encountered Hazardous flight conditions other than those associated with meteorological conditions, The reports so rendered shall give such details as may be pertinent to the safety of other aircraft. (A)shall be reported to ATC and the appropriate aeronautical station . (B)ASC(Aviation Safety Council) (C)FSF(Flihgt Safety Foundation) (D)No necessary

(A)shall be reported to ATC and the appropriate aeronautical station .

Aircraft apply for airworthiness certificate (A)shall have been issued registration certificate (B)need not to have registration certificate before hand (C) since the aircraft is on lease it is unnecessary to have registration certificate in place (D) apply airworthiness certificate directly since it is brand new out of manufacture company

(A)shall have been issued registration certificate

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to (A)sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. (B) rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. (C)accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.

(A)sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a (A)small angle of attack and high RPM (B)large angle of attack and low RPM (C)large angle of attack and high RPM

(A)small angle of attack and high RPM

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are (A)squall line thunderstorms. (B)steady-state thunderstorms. (C)warm front thunderstorms.

(A)squall line thunderstorms.

During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to (A)stall at a higher airspeed (B)have a teendency to spin. (C)be more difficult to control.

(A)stall at a higher airspeed

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance ? (A)stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown (B)stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath (C)stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 ft behind

(A)stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown

In flight when it is known that the latest weather forecast shows that when the flight arrives the destination or the alternate airport, the weather conditions will below minima, the pilot shall (A)stop to go to destination (B)proceed to destination and wait weather conditions to turn better (C)proceed the flight since the aircraft is equipped with precision approach equipment (D)proceed to alternate and stand by

(A)stop to go to destination

The purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to (A)store hydraulic fluid under pressure. (B)collect hydraulic fluid from system leaks. (C) gather foam and extract the air before returning it to the reservoir.

(A)store hydraulic fluid under pressure.

If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should (A)take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. (B) comply with the company's lost aircraft plan. (C)phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

(A)take any action considered necessary under the circumstances.

An advantage of a piston-type accumulator is that it (A)takes up less area than a sphere-type accumulator. (B) may be used with higher pressure than a bladder-type accumulator. (C)can store more hydraulic fluid than a diaphragm-type accumulator.

(A)takes up less area than a sphere-type accumulator.

Those engaged in production of aeronautics technical standard technical standard order parts must first obtain ______ (A)technical standard part producer authorization technical standard order authorization (B)manufacturing certificate production certificate (C)supplemental type certificate (D)airworthiness certificate

(A)technical standard part producer authorization technical standard order authorization

When passengers sustained losses because of delay of flight, (A)the carrier shall bear liability (B)the carrier bears no liability if the cause of delay was unresistable (C)the carrier bears no responsibility whatsoever (D)it is the court's decision to settle liability

(A)the carrier shall bear liability

For decision makers, to eliminate the hazard thereby preventing a future accident belongs to which level of action (A)the first level of action (B)the second level of action (C)the third level of action (D)the fourth level of action

(A)the first level of action

What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing ? (A)the flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing (B)the altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach (C)a normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshould

(A)the flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing

From takeoff to landing the weight of airplane changes because: (A)the fuel is reduced. (B)the water is reduced. (C)the serving supplies are reduced

(A)the fuel is reduced.

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when (A)the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly (B)an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power (C)the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder

(A)the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly

Which of the following lists or hand books is provided for the PIC to decide prior to a flight of an air transport aircraft or after landing at a intermediate airport, the flight could be commenced or continued when some instruments, equipment or systems became inoperative. (A)the minimum equipment list (B)the primary minimum equipment list (C)the flight handbook (D)the operating handbook

(A)the minimum equipment list

The meaning of "time of utilization" is (A)the time between aircraft airborne till touch down (B)aircraft for the purpose of take-off, the time it begins to move under its own power till the time it stops moving after landing (C)aircraft for the purpose of take-off and begin to move under its own power till the time of landing (D)aircraft for the purpose of take-off from the moment it begins to move till it stops moving

(A)the time between aircraft airborne till touch down

When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes (A)the unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil (B)all usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage (C)all usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments that were installed by someone other than the manufacturer

(A)the unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil

The condition that defines the state of Urgency is that: (A)there is concern about the safety of the aircraft or a person on board but it does not require immediate assistance (B)the aircraft is threatened by serious or imminent danger and requires immediate assistance (C)there is an emergency on the ground

(A)there is concern about the safety of the aircraft or a person on board but it does not require immediate assistance

The purpose of fusible plugs in the wheel is to prevent (A)tire blowout. (B)overservicing the tire. (C)damage to the tire resulting from heat expansion.

(A)tire blowout

Which is true about homing when using ADF during crosswind conditions? Homing (A)to a radio station results in a curved path that leads to the station. (B)is a practical navigation method for flying both to and from a radio station. (C)to a radio station requires that the ADF have an automatically or manually rotatable azimuth.

(A)to a radio station results in a curved path that leads to the station

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous (A)to all aircraft (B)particularly to heavy aircraft (C)particularly to light airplanes

(A)to all aircraft

To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF (A)transmitter and receiver (B)transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver (C)transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver

(A)transmitter and receiver

According aircraft airworthiness certification, they are classified into: (A)transport, general aviation, special operations and aerobatic (B) turbine, turbine propeller, propeller and helicopter (C)heavy, middle and light aircraft (D)short range, middle range and long range aircraft

(A)transport, general aviation, special operations and aerobatic

If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency, you should: (A)try another approiate frequency (B)transmit the words twice (C)start transmitting blind

(A)try another approiate frequency

The primary cause of all changes in the earth's weather is (A)variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions (B)changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface (C)movement of the air mass

(A)variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions

The definition of the phrase "STANDBY" is: (A)wait and I will call you (B)hold your present position (C)consider the transmission is not sent

(A)wait and I will call you

You would use the phrase "WORDS TWICE" when you (A)want each word repeat twice (B)make a blind transmission (C)want the message to be repeated

(A)want each word repeat twice

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when (A)water vapor condenses. (B)water vapor is present. (C)relative humidity reaches 100 percent

(A)water vapor condenses.

The angle of attak at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of (A)weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude (B)dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude (C)weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle

(A)weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude

The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of (A)weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude. (B)dynamic pressure but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude. (C)weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.

(A)weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.

Stall speed is affected by (A)weight, load factor, and power (B)load factor, angle of attack, and power (C)angle of attack, weight, and air density

(A)weight, load factor, and power

Stall speed is affected by (A)weight, load factor, and power. (B)load factor, angle of attack, and power. (C)angle of attack, weight, and air density

(A)weight, load factor, and power.

Stall speed is affected by (A)weight, load factor, and power. (B)load factor, angle of attack, and power. (C)angle of attack, weight, and air density.

(A)weight, load factor, and power.

At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed (A)will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster (B)will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged (C)should be increased to compensate for the thinner air

(A)will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster (

A higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed (A)will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster. (B)will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchange. (C)should be increased to compensate for thinner air.

(A)will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster.

One weather phenomenon which will always occure when flying across a front is a change in the (A)wind direction. (B)type of precipitation. (C)stability of the air mass.

(A)wind direction.

What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations in Class B airspace? A transponder (A)with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability (B)with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement (C)is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles

(A)with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability

A flight of air transport aircraft may be redispatched to another destination during flight (A)yes (B)no

(A)yes

Cabin pressurized aircraft when flying under forecasted thunderstorm or inclement weather conditions, its weather radar must function normally (A)yes (B)not necessarily (C)it depends (D)The other answers are wrong.

(A)yes

The time spent by flight crew members riding aircraft to a destination for the purpose of assuming duties from there, shall be counted as their duty time (A)yes (B)no (C)depends (D)The other answers are wrong.

(A)yes

It is the aircraft operator's primary responsibility to maintenance the aircraft --- including airframe, power plant, propeller, equipment, parts and component in airworthiness conditions (A)yes, it is the operator's responsibility (B)except, when the works are contracted to a third party (C)The ohter answers are correct. (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(A)yes, it is the operator's responsibility

What is the nominal voltage rating of a fully charged lead-acid battery containing six cells? (A) 6 volts. (B) 12 volts. (C)24 volts.

(B) 12 volts.

What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet? (A) 0 DME miles. (B) 2 DME miles. (C)2.3 DME miles.

(B) 2 DME miles.

Which pressure is defined as station pressure? (A)Altimeter setting. (B) Actual pressure at field elevation. (C) Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.

(B) Actual pressure at field elevation

When may rain repellent be applied to a windshield? (A) Prior to entering rain. (B) After it starts raining. (C)Whenever the windshield is dirty.

(B) After it starts raining.

What is a purpose of a rotary inverter? (A) Change 115 volts ac to 28 volts dc. (B) Convert dc to 115 volts, 400-Hz power. (C) Transform 26/29 volts dc to 115/200 volts dc

(B) Convert dc to 115 volts, 400-Hz power.

What speed does a frequency meter give a direct indication of? (A) Engine N(2). (B) Generator RPM. (C)CSD input speed.

(B) Generator RPM.

One of the main gear tires has deflated as a result of a thermal fuse melt. What does this mean? (A) Heavy braking has overheated the wheel, melted a plastic fuse in the rim, and prevented the danger of a tire blowout. (B) High tire temperatures have melted a fusible metal plug installed in the aircraft wheel and caused the tire to deflate. (C)High temperatures in the wheel well have caused the tire's temperature sensitive valve core to melt, deflated the tire, and prevented damage to the wing.

(B) High tire temperatures have melted a fusible metal plug installed in the aircraft wheel and caused the tire to deflate

What is indicated during engine shutdown when the tachometer does not increase? (A) Idle mixture is correct. (B) Idle mixture is too lean. (C) Idle mixture is too rich.

(B) Idle mixture is too lean.

Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? (A) When collision with another aircraft is imminent. (B) If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. (C)When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.

(B) If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle

What type of icing is most likely to occur with a pressure-injected carburetor? (A) Fuel. (B) Induction. (C)Evaporative.

(B) Induction.

If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? (A)Maintain a constant altitude. (B) Maintain a constant attitude. (C) Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.

(B) Maintain a constant attitude.

Which is an indication of carburetor ice? (A) Decrease in propeller RPM. (B) Manifold pressure (MAP) drop. (C)Backfiring, which is caused by a rich mixture.

(B) Manifold pressure (MAP) drop.

Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind? (A)PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed. (B) PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increases, then decreases. (C)PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

(B) PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increases, then decreases.

In a pressurized system, what is the purpose of the dump valve? (A) Relieve a negative pressure differential. (B) Relieve all positive pressure from the cabin. (C) Relieve any pressure in excess of maximum cabin differential.

(B) Relieve all positive pressure from the cabin

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation? (A)Read the clearance back in its entirety. (B) Request a clarification from ATC. (C)Do not accept the clearance.

(B) Request a clarification from ATC.

What is the difference between a relay and a solenoid? (A)Relays have movable cores. (B) Solenoids have movable cores. (C)Relays are used as mechanical control devices.

(B) Solenoids have movable cores.

Which is a feature of a parallel bus electrical system? (A) External power may be paralleled with operating generators. (B) The electrical load is automatically redistributed when one generator fails. (C) Each generator supplies power separately from the other generators to its respective bus.

(B) The electrical load is automatically redistributed when one generator fails.

How is cabin pressurization controlled? (A) The pressure valve regulates the air output of the compressor. (B) The outflow valve dumps all air pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set. (C)The inflow valve limits the amount of air to the cabin when a pressure equivalent to cabin altitude has been reached.

(B) The outflow valve dumps all air pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set.

An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? (A) Four. (B) Three. (C) Two.

(B) Three.

What unit of power is used in dc electrical circuits? (A)Volts. (B) Watts. (C)Amperes.

(B) Watts.

Which of the following weight factors determine ramp or taxi weight? (A)Payload plus operating weight. (B) Zero fuel weight plus total fuel load. (C)"Zero fuel weight plus payload, fuel, and oil."

(B) Zero fuel weight plus total fuel load

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is (A) an airborne radar system for monitoring approaches to two runways. (B) a radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways. (C)a high update rate radar system for monitoring multiple aircraft to a single runway.

(B) a radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.

Increasing the throttle setting in cruise flight will result in (A)a decrease in blade angle. (B) an increase in blade angle. (C) an increase in propeller RPM.

(B) an increase in blade angle.

Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the (A)rate of turn. (B) angle of bank. (C)true airspeed.

(B) angle of bank

An advantage of Skydrol is that it (A)is resistant to water contamination. (B) has a wide operating temperature range. (C) is compatible with vegetable-base hydraulic fluid.

(B) has a wide operating temperature range.

A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in (A)a hard landing. (B) increased landing rollout. (C)landing short of the runway threshold.

(B) increased landing rollout.

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane (A)decreases because of lower parasite drag. (B) increases because of increased induced drag. (C)increases because of increased parasite drag.

(B) increases because of increased induced drag.

An ATC 'instruction' (A) is the same as an ATC 'clearance.' (B) is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action. (C)must be 'read back' in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

(B) is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action.

Airline transport operations permit (A)is transferable (B) is not transferable (C)is transferred when aircraft is transferred (D) is transferable after approval

(B) is not transferable

The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are (A)lift, weight, thrust, and gravity. (B) lift, weight, thrust, and drag (C)lift gravity, power, and friction.

(B) lift, weight, thrust, and drag

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies 'NO PT,' the pilot should (A) advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. (B) not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. (C)execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.

(B) not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC.

The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the (A)pilot in command and chief pilot. (B) pilot in command and director of operations. (C)pilot in command and the flight follower.

(B) pilot in command and director of operations.

The primary purpose for utilizing boost pumps in the fuel system is to (A) prevent unporting of fuel on takeoff. (B) provide a positive fuel flow to the engine pump. (C) provide fuel transfer between tanks to prevent fuel imbalance.

(B) provide a positive fuel flow to the engine pump.

When instructed by ATC to 'Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),' the pilot should stop (A)with the nose gear on the hold line. (B) so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. (C) so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

(B) so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line.

A foreign small private aircraft intended to depart Japan for Hong Kong fly over Taiwan (A)the flight shall request from the Chinese Ministry of Defense's approval of over fly Taiwan in advance (B) the flight shall request the approval from Chinese CAA over fly Taiwan in advance (C)advance request is not necessary but should have so stated in the flight plan (D) advance request is not necessary but should make radio contacts when flying over Taiwan in accordance with regulation

(B) the flight shall request the approval from Chinese CAA over fly Taiwan in advance

Follow up the above question. Then the pilot shall fly __________ in accordance with the flight plan (A)to alternate airport (B) to the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (C)circuling holding pattern (D)to the nearest airport and land

(B) to the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

"GIVEN: Empty weight 1100 with Arm 30 Pilot (fwd seat) weight 170 with Arm -45 Passenger (aft seat) weight 160 with Arm +2 Ballast weight 50 with Arm -50 the CG is located at station" (A)+15.91 (B)+15.66 (C)+15.48

(B)+15.66

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver? (A).At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach. (B).As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. (C).At the ImWizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.

(B).As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

The lowest ILS Category II minimums are (A). DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. (B).DH 1 00 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. (C).DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

(B).DH 1 00 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.

What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? (A).ASR and PAR. (B).The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. (C).Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.

(B).The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums

A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver (A).over the MAWP. (B).after the MAWP. (C).just prior to the MAWP.

(B).after the MAWP

(Refer to figure 18.) If the airplane continues to fly on the headingas shown, what magnetic bearing from the station would be intercepted at 35 angle outbound?(如圖A21_FIG18) (A)035。 (B)070。 (C)215。

(B)070。

Any person who, by fraudulence in application for certification or registration, obtaining an airman certificate, medical certificate, certificate of aircraft registration or airworthiness certificate, shall be subject to imprisonment up to 5 years, detention or a fine of up to NT$ _____. (A)500,000 (B)1,000,000 (C)1,500,000

(B)1,000,000

An F/O who has less than 100 hours of flight time in a type aircraft, when the visibility at an airport is less than ______ meters, the take off or landing shall be done by the PIC. (A)600 (B)1,200 (C)2,000 (D)3,000

(B)1,200

Air transport Class 1 or Class 2 performance helicopter when flying out from the shore for more than ___ minutes at normal cruising speed shall be equipped with permanent or rapidly deployable floatation devices to ensure safety in case of forced land at water. (A)5 (B)10 (C)15 (D)20

(B)10

Cabin pressurized aircraft shall carry sufficient oxygen for all crew members and passengers' use for no less than ______ minute when it flies at 25,000 ft altitude (A)5 (B)10 (C)15 (D)20

(B)10

Type IV and type V flight data recorders shall be able to retain at least the last ______ hours of flight data (A)5 (B)10 (C)15 (D)20

(B)10

During LORAN approach the receiver must detect a lost signal blink within: (A)5 seconds of the occurrence and warn the pilot of the event. (B)10 seconds of the occurrence and warn the pilot of the event. (C)15 seconds of the occurrence and warn the pilot of the event.

(B)10 seconds of the occurrence and warn the pilot of the event.

When checking the course sensitivity of vor receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side? (A)18 to 20. (B)10 to 12. (C)5 to 10.

(B)10 to 12.

All member of flight crew shall have continuous oxygen supply when the flight reaches ______ ft cabin pressure altitude (A)8,000 (B)10,000 (C)12,000 (D)13,000

(B)10,000

At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82°F and the dewpoint is 38°F? (A)9,000 feet AGL. (B)10,000 feet AGL. (C)11,000 feet AGL.

(B)10,000 feet AGL.

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of (A)14500 feet MSL (B)10000 feet MSL if above 1200 feet AGL (C)10000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground

(B)10000 feet MSL if above 1200 feet AGL

'(Refer to figure P )'this depiction in high-level significant weather chart indicates a wind speed of (如圖A24_FigP) (A)110Kts (B)115Kts (C)25Kts

(B)115Kts

Duty time limitation for standard flight crew on domestic flight is ____ consecutive hours (air transport) (A)10 (B)12 (C)14 (D)16

(B)12

Flight time limitation for double flight crew on aircraft without sleeping berth during 24 consecutive hours may not exceed _____ hours (air transport) (A)10 (B)12 (C)14 (D)16

(B)12

Flight time limitation for reinforced flight crew on aircraft without sleeping berth during 24 consecutive hours may not exceed _____ hours (air transport) (A)10 (B)12 (C)14 (D)16

(B)12

Inbound on the 315 radial, a pilot selects the 320 radial, turns 5 to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 12 min. based on this information, the ETE to the station is (A)10 minutes. (B)12 minutes. (C)24 minutes.

(B)12 minutes.

The validity of medical certificate for Aircraft pilot of Civil Air Transport Enterprise (under 40-year-old) (A) 6 months (B)12 months (C) 18 months (D)24 months

(B)12 months

A flight of a piston-engined airplane to a destination airport which is located in a remote area and there is no appropriate alternate airport. The operator can choose to carry the operating flight plan required amount of fuel to the destination airport. In addition the flight shall carry fuel for ______ minute normal cruising thereafter. (air transport) (A)60 (B)120 (C)160 (D)180

(B)120

A flight of air transport helicopter to a destination heliport which is located in a remote area, there is no suitable alternate heliport and the flight does not need an alternate heliport. The flight shall carry the operating flight plan required amount of fuel to fly to the destination heliport and additional ______ minute fuel for normal cruising holding flight (A)60 (B)120 (C)160 (D)180

(B)120

When aircraft operators assume government assigned air transport missions and approved by CAA, the flight time of their flight crew members may increase to a total of ______ hours per month (A)110 (B)120 (C)130 (D)140

(B)120

Within 30 consecutive days a flight crew member's flying time may not exceed (A)100 hours (B)120 hours (C)75 hours (D) 150 hours

(B)120 hours

When aircraft operators assume government assigned air transport missions and approved by CAA, the flight time of their flight crew members may increase to a total of ______ hours during any 12 consecutive calendar month period. (A)1100 (B)1200 (C)1300 (D)1400

(B)1200

Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from (A)700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14500 feet MSL (B)1200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18000 feet MSL (C)1200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14500 feet MSL

(B)1200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18000 feet MSL

Communications equipment on board aircraft shall have emergency frequency ______ mHz available for air-ground and air-air contacts (A)121.7 (B)121.5 (C)122.45 (D)122.55

(B)121.5

"GIVEN: Weight A - 155 pounds at 55 inches aft of datum Weight B - 165 pounds at 155 inches aft of datum Weight C - 95 pounds at 175 inches aft of datum Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?" (A)120.5 inches (B)122.2 inches (C)124.5 inches

(B)122.2 inches

Pressure altitude.....12000ft True air temperature.....+50 F From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is (A)11,900 feet. (B)14,130 feet. (C)18,150 feet.

(B)14,130 feet.

Wingtip bearing change......................5 Time elapsed between bearing change..................................6min Rate of fuel consumption..................................12gal/hr The fuel required to fly to the station is (A)8.2 gallons. (B)14.4 gallons. (C)18.7 gallons.

(B)14.4 gallons.

A flight of a piston-engined airplane to a destination airport which is located in a remote area and there is no appropriate alternate. The operator can choose to carry the operating flight plan required amount of fuel to the destination airport. In addition the flight shall carry fuel for 45 minute normal cruising thereafter. The flight shall also carry additional ____% fuel required for the entire flying time at cruising altitude (air transport) (A)10 (B)15 (C)20 (D)25

(B)15

Inbound on the 040 radial, a pilot selects the 055 radial, turns 15 to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 15 min. based on this information, the ETE to the station is (A)8 minutes. (B)15 minutes. (C)30 minutes.

(B)15 minutes.

An aircraft is maintaining a magnetic heading of 265 and the ADF shows a relative bearing of 065, this indicates that aircraft is crossing the (A)065 magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon. (B)150 magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon. (C)330 magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon.

(B)150 magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon.

If the relative bearing changes from 090 to 100 in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time, the time en route to the station would be (A)12min. (B)15min. (C)18min.

(B)15min.

(Refer to figure 10.) Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?(如圖A21_Fig10) (A)175 (B)165 (C)345

(B)165

"Given: MZFW=130634, MLDW=145149, MTOW=170000, DOW=89886, TIF=30000, TOF=40000, what is the allowed weight for take off for this flight ?" (A)160634 (B)170000 (C)165149

(B)170000

According the METAR: RCTP 120230Z 25017KT 8000 -SHRA FEW012 BKN025 OVC090 27/24 Q0995= The wind speed at 12/0230Z is: (A)25kt (B)17kt (C)50kt

(B)17kt

ground mechanic license and rating applicant shall be no less than _______ years of age (A)16 (B)18 (C)21 (D)23

(B)18

Turbo engine fixed wing aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of ______ person or more shall be equipped with TCAS (A)10 (B)19 (C)25 (D)30

(B)19

(Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument shows the aircraft to be northwest of the VORTAC?(如圖A21_Fig20) (A)1 (B)2 (C)3

(B)2

A flight of a turbine-engined airplane (air transport operations), when a destination is isolated and there is no suitable (destination) alternate aerodrome, shall carry sufficient fuel to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned and thereafter for _____ hours at normal cruise consumption. (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

A flight of a turbine-engined airplane for which there is no alternate airport is available, the flight shall carry the flight plan required amount of fuel to fly to the destination airport. The flight shall also carry ____ hour fuel for normal cruising (air transport) (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

Air transport aircraft operator shall provide a seat and seat belt for each passenger who is _____ years old (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

Air transport aircraft with a seating capacity of 100 or more shall carry how many battery operated portable loud speaker in the cabin (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

Air transport company flight crew, when arriving at an intermediate stop, due to delay of flight, have passed their duty time limitation. Release crew can not be dispatch in time. The PIC may decide to terminate on extend their duty time. The extend time shall not exceed ____ hours. In any event, the flight may not delay into night operations. (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

Air transport fixed wing aircraft engaged in long range over water flight shall be equipped with ____ set(s) of emergency locator transmitters (ELT) which shall operate in accordance with the relevant provisions of Annex 10, Volume III. (A)1 (B)2 (C)4 (D)5

(B)2

Aircraft with a seating capacity of 51-150 shall be equipped with how many first aid kits (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

An air transport aircraft with a seating capacity of 56, shall carry how many approved portable fire extinguisher (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

An aircraft shall be reweighed for basic weight and balance once every _________ year(s). (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

An aircraft when operated in accordance with the instrument flight rules, or when the aircraft cannot be maintained in a desired attitude without reference to one or more flight instruments, shall be equipped with _____ pressure altimeters indicators. (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

An aircraft with seating capacity of 31-60 shall be equipped with ___ portable fire extinguisher (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

For 158 seats air transport aircraft, it shall be equipped with ____ first aid kits (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

For 255 seats air transport aircraft, it shall be equipped with ____ first aid kits (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

The owner or operator shall keep the history book of aircraft, power plant or propeller which are demised, damaged beyond repair, destroyed or permanently discarded for ______ years from the date of the event. (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(B)2

An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately (A)6 miles (B)2 miles (C)1 miles

(B)2 miles

An aircraft 60 miles from VOR station has a CDI indication of one fifth deflection this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately (A)6 miles. (B)2 miles. (C)1 miles.

(B)2 miles.

If a standard rate of turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360? (A)1 min (B)2 mins (C)3mins

(B)2 mins

If a standard rate of turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360? (A)1 minute (B)2 minutes (C)3 minutes

(B)2 minutes

(Refer to figure 25.) Determine the amount of fuel consumed during takeoff and climb at 70 percent power for 10 minutes.(如圖A21_Fig25) (A)2.66 gallons. (B)2.88 gallons. (C)3.2 gallons.

(B)2.88 gallons.

Air transport helicopter, when commencing an IFR flight shall carry the operating flight plan required amount of fuel to fly to the destination heliport. The flight shall also carry ____ minute fuel flying at air speed for the most optimum range and additional r 10% of fuel of the planned total flying time to cope with any contingency the operator may consider possible (A)10 (B)20 (C)30 (D)40

(B)20

When a special airworthiness certificate expires, it shall be returned to CAA within ______ days (A)10 (B)20 (C)30 (D)40

(B)20

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2500 feet AGL within 4NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is (A)180 knots (B)200 knots (C)230 knots

(B)200 knots

What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace (A)156 knots (B)200 knots (C)230 knots

(B)200 knots

IFR flight over mountainous area that has not established minimum altitude, the flight shall be ______ ft. above the highest obstacle within 5 NM radius (A)1000 (B)2000 (C)5000 (D)10000

(B)2000

Turbo engine fixed wing aircraft with a maximum take off weight of 15,000 kilogram or above, and seating capacity of 30 or more shall be equipped with the ground proximity warning system (GPWS) if it is certified airworthy after 30 March ______ (A)2001 (B)2002 (C)2003 (D)2004

(B)2002

(Refer to figure 1)' When does the HIGH LEVEL SIGWX CHART become valid(如圖A24_Fig1) (A)2010 MAY 06 0000Z (B)2010 MAY 07 0000Z (C)2010 MAY 06 0000L(TPE)

(B)2010 MAY 07 0000Z

Baggage weighing 70 pounds is placed in a normal category airplane's baggage compartment which is placarded at 100 pounds. If this airplane is subjected to a positive load factor of 3.0G's, the total load of the baggage would be (A)315 pounds and would be excessive. (B)210 pounds and would not be excessive. (C)350 pounds and would not be excessive.

(B)210 pounds and would not be excessive.

The ADF is tuned to a nondirectional radiobeacon and the relative bearing change from 090 to 100 in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time. If the true airspeed is 90knots, the distance and time en route to that radiobeacon would be (A)15 miles and 22.5 minutes. (B)22.5 miles and 15 minutes. (C)32 miles and 18 minutes.

(B)22.5 miles and 15 minutes.

What minimum floor load limit must an aircraft have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet size is 78.9 inches wide and 98.7 inches long, Pallet weight = 161 lb, Tiedown devices = 54 lb, Cargo weight = 11,810.5 lb. (A)213 lb/sq ft. (B)223 lb/sq ft. (C)183 lb/sq ft.

(B)223 lb/sq ft.

The magnetic heading is 350 and the relative bearing to a radiobeacon is 240. what would be the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon? (A)050。 (B)230。 (C)295。

(B)230。

During flight any emergency situation occurrence that endangers the aircraft or personnel safety, it is the pilot-in-command's responsibility to take necessary actions to cope with the emergency. If any practical, drastic measures taken by the PIC is in Conflict with the local authorities rules or regulations, the PIC shall notify the local authorities immediately, and notify CAA within (A)12 hours (B)24 hours (C)36 hours (D)48 hours

(B)24 hours

"What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 48 x 48 inches? Floor load limit: 169 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight: 47 lbs Tiedown devices: 33 lbs" (A)"1,948.0 pounds" (B)2624.0 pounds (C)2784.0 pounds

(B)2624.0 pounds

Helicopter with a maximum take off weight over ______ kg and seating capacity of 6 or more shall be equipped with cockpit voice recorder. Those without a flight data recorder, shall be equipped with a CVR capable of recording RPM of main rotor (A)1200 (B)2700 (C)3200 (D)5700

(B)2700

What minimum floor load limit must an aircraft have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet size is 78.9 inches wide and 78.9 inches long, Pallet weight = 161 lb, Tiedown devices = 44 lb, Cargo weight = 11,820.5 lb. (A)283 lb/sq ft. (B)279 lb/sq ft. (C)183 lb/sq ft.

(B)279 lb/sq ft.

What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18000 feet MSL? (A)Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route (B)29.92 Inches Hg (C)Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport

(B)29.92 Inches Hg

To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to (A)the current altimeter setting (B)29.92" Hg and the altimeter indication noted (C)the field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted

(B)29.92" Hg and the altimeter indication noted

To determine presure altitude prior takeoff, the altimeter should be set to (A)the current altimeter setting. (B)29.92"Hg and the altimeter indication noted. (C)the field elevation and presure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.

(B)29.92"Hg and the altimeter indication noted.

(Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument shows the aircraft in a position where a straight course after a 90 left turn would result in intercepting the 180 radial?(如圖A21_Fig20) (A)2 (B)3 (C)4

(B)3

Refer to figure 25.) Fuel quiantity.....47 gal power-cruise(lean) 55 percent Approximately how much flight time would be available with a night VFR fuel reserve remaining(如圖A21_Fig25) (A)3 hours 8 minutes. (B)3 hours 22 minutes. (C)3 hours 43 minutes.

(B)3 hours 22 minutes.

What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace? (A)1 mile visibility; clear of clouds (B)3 miles visibility; 1000 feet above and 500 feet below (C)5 miles visibility; 1000 feet above and 1000 feet below

(B)3 miles visibility; 1000 feet above and 500 feet below

A flight of a turbine-engined airplane for which alternate airport is not required, the flight shall carry the operating flight plan required a mount of fuel to fly to the destination airport. The flight shall also carry _____ minute fuel for holding over the destination airport at 1,500 ft altitude under standard air temperature, or coping any contingency the operator considered possible (air transport) (A)15 (B)30 (C)45 (D)60

(B)30

Air transport aircraft while flying at cabin altitude 10,000 ft to 13,000 ft shall have sufficient supply of oxygen for all members of crew and one tenth of passengers use for no less than ______ minute flight at this altitude (A)15 (B)30 (C)45 (D)60

(B)30

Air transport flight shall keep the last _____ minutes flight operations record of the cockpit voice recorder (A)20 (B)30 (C)40 (D)50

(B)30

(Refer to chart 6.)Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for ZSSS at 29,000 feet.(如圖A24_chart6) (A)023 degree magnetic at 53 knots, temperature 47 degreeC. (B)300degree ture at 70 knots, temperature -35 degree C. (C)235 degree true at 34 knots, temperature -7 degreeC.

(B)300degree ture at 70 knots, temperature -35 degree C.

Members of standard flight crew may not fly a total time exceeding ______ hours in consecutive 7 days (A)24 (B)32 (C)36 (D)40

(B)32

The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitude is (A)20,000 FT (B)37,000 FT (C)45,000 FT

(B)37,000 FT

(Refer to Figure 3.) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30'banked turn while maintaining altitude?(如圖A22_Fig3) (A)3810kilogram (B)3810 pounds (C)6600 pounds

(B)3810 pounds

It is required that aircraft must be weighed for basic weight and balance once every two year. Because of special circumstance when approved by the CAA, the weighing schedule may be extended but in no circumstance to exceed _______ year(s). (A)3 (B)4 (C)5

(B)4

(Refer to figure 28.) pressure altitude: 18,000 ft ; Temperature: -21C ;Power: 2400 RPM--28"MP; Recommended lean mixture usable fuel: 425 lb ; what is the approximate flight time available under the given condition ( Allow for VFR day fuel reserve )(如圖A21_Fig28) (A)3 hours 46 minutes. (B)4 hours 1 minutes. (C)4 hours 31 minutes.

(B)4 hours 1 minutes.

Refer to figure 25.) Fuel quiantity.....65 gal best power-level flight 55 percent Approximately how much flight time would be available with a day VFR fuel reserve remaining(如圖A21_Fig25) (A)4 hours 17 minutes. (B)4 hours 30 minutes. (C)5 hours 4 minutes.

(B)4 hours 30 minutes.

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60°constant-altitude bank, the total load would be (A)3,000 pounds. (B)4,000 pounds. (C)12,000 pounds.

(B)4,000 pounds.

If an aircraft with gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be (A)3,000 pounds. (B)4,000 pounds. (C)12,000 pounds.

(B)4,000 pounds.

(Refer to figure D)At which flight level is the top of the troposphere?(如圖A24_FigD) (A)30,000 feet (B)40,000 feet (C)50,000 feet

(B)40,000 feet

"GIVEN: MZFW=130634, MLDW=145149, MTOW=170000, DOW=89886, TIF=30000, TOF=40000, what is the maximum allowed traffic load? (A)40748 (B)40114 (C)38263

(B)40114

A flight of a piston-engined airplane, when the weather conditions at the destination airport, one hour before and one hour after ETA will meet VFR requirement and shall not need an alternate airport, then the flight shall carry the operating flight plan required amount of fuel to the destination airport. In addition the flight shall carry fuel for ______ minute normal cruising there after. (air transport) (A)30 (B)45 (C)60 (D)75

(B)45

If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for (A)30 minutes at slow cruising speed (B)45 minutes at normal cruising speed (C)1 hour at normal cruising speed

(B)45 minutes at normal cruising speed

(Refer to Figure 3.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60' banked turn while maintaining altitude?(如圖A22_Fig3) (A)4600 kilogram (B)4600 pounds. (C)3450 pounds

(B)4600 pounds.

Upon completing major repair or major alteration, the operator shall forward a copy of the form to CAA, within ______ hours after the aircraft, its powerplant, propellers, component or parts is approved for return to service. (A)24 (B)48 (C)72

(B)48

Aircraft operates at an altitude above ________ ft shall be equipped with cosmic radiation detect devices in the cockpit to provide the flight crew a referential indicator (A)41,000 (B)49,000 (C)55,000 (D)60,000

(B)49,000

(Refer to Fig. 17) Which illustration indicates the airplane will intercept the 060 radial at a 75 angle outbound, if the present heading is maintained?(如圖A21_Fig17) (A)4 (B)5 (C)6

(B)5

Any person operating an aircraft without an airworthiness certificate shall be subject to imprisonment not exceeding ___ years, detention or a fine of up to NT$1,000,000. The same applies also to a person flying an aircraft with an invalid airworthiness certificate. (A)3 (B)5 (C)8

(B)5

Out of controlled air space , when visibility is lower than ____ kilometers, VFR flight may not conducted (A)8 (B)5 (C)3 (D)1

(B)5

Without authorization, aircraft carries arms, ammunitions, explosives, the penalty to whoever is responsible would be (A)3 years in prison (B)5 years in prison (C)8 years in prison (D)10 years in prison

(B)5 years in prison

If the air temperature is + 8 degree at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level? (A)3,350 ft MSL (B)5,350 ft MSL (C)9,350 ft MSL

(B)5,350 ft MSL

A flight engineer shall have had ______ hours of flight time in a type aircraft before he can exercise as F/E in that type aircraft (A)24 (B)50 (C)100 (D)120

(B)50

Air transport operator when introducing a type of aircraft for first time use, in the case of fixed wing, shall have the aircraft flown at least _______ hours before put it to business operations (A)25 (B)50 (C)75 (D)100

(B)50

Pressure altitude...6000ft True air temperature.....+30 F From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is (A)5000 feet. (B)5500 feet. (C)9000 feet.

(B)5500 feet.

Large aircraft is referred to aircraft with a maximum take off weight more than ________ kg (A)3200 (B)5700 (C)8000 (D)9000

(B)5700

(Refer to Figure 11 .)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "E" correspond?(如圖A21_Fig11) (A)5 (B)6 (C)15

(B)6

Flight crew of fixed wing aircraft, except for training, may perform no more than ____ landing with in duty period on international flight (A)4 (B)6 (C)8 (D)10

(B)6

While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 15 doubles in 6 minutes. The time to the station being used is (A)3 minutes. (B)6 minutes. (C)12 minutes.

(B)6 minutes

The visibility entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) of P6SM implies that the prevailing visibility is expected to be greater than (A)6 nautical miles. (B)6 statute miles. (C)6 kilometers.

(B)6 statute miles

The visibility entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) of P6SM implies that the prevailing visibility is expected to be greater than (A)6 nautical miles (B)6 statute miles (C)6 kilometers

(B)6 statute miles

For fixed aircraft flight crew of air transport company, within acceptable duty time, except training flights, the number of take-off and landing on international flight may not exceed (A)5 times (B)6 times (C)7 times (D)8 times

(B)6 times

Twin engine jet passenger aircraft, according to noise abatement requirement, its noise volume may not higher than 101 dB at a distance of ____ km along the extension line of take off (A)4 (B)6.5 (C)9 (D)12

(B)6.5

Twin turbine engine driven fixed wing aircraft air transport operator, when diverting a flight from any way point to land at a suitable alternate airport, except approved by CAA, shall not divert the flight to a distance exceeding ______ minute flying time with one engine inoperative normal cruising speed under calm wind conditions (A)45 (B)60 (C)75 (D)90

(B)60

"Given: MZFW=15830, MLDW=17000, MTOW=18370, DOW=10950, PAYLOAD=4640, TIF=1400, min TOF=2130, what is maximum extra fuel the airplane can carry for this flight ?" (A)1990 (B)650 (C)970

(B)650 15830-10950-4640=240 18370-15830-2130=410 410+240=650

(Refer to Figure 3.) If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45' banked turn while maintaining altitude?(如圖A22_Fig3) (A)4,563 pounds (B)6750 pounds (C)9063 pounds

(B)6750 pounds

(Refer to figure 27.) What would be the endurance at an altitude of 7,500 feet, using 52 percent power?(NOTE: with 48 gallons fuel-no reserve)(如圖A21_Fig27) (A)6.1 hours. (B)7.7 hours. (C)8.0 hours.

(B)7.7 hours.

It is required when assigning PIC and F/O for a flight, one of the two pilots must have at least ______ hours flight experience in the type aircraft (A)50 (B)75 (C)100 (D)150

(B)75

Aircraft when hijacked shall switch its radar code to (A)7000 (B)7500 (C)7600 (D)7800

(B)7500

What is the hijack code? (A)7200 (B)7500 (C)7777

(B)7500

The Squawk code for radio failure is : (A)7700 (B)7600 (C)7500

(B)7600

when air radio communications fail, the flight shall attempt to establish communication try all possible means and switch the radar code to (A)7500 (B)7600 (C)7700 (D)2600

(B)7600

Pressure altitude...5000ft True air temperature.....+30 C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is (A)7200 feet (B)7800 feet. (C)9000 feet

(B)7800 feet.

Flight time limitation for standard flight crew on domestic flight during 24 consecutive hours may not exceed _____ hours (air transport) (A)6 (B)8 (C)10 (D)12

(B)8

(Refer to figure 6.)At what altitude is the freezing level over northeastern Oklahoma on the 24-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?(如圖A24_Fig6) (A)4,000 feet. (B)8,000 feet. (C)10,000 feet.

(B)8,000 feet.

Refer to the e following METAR report: KTUS ... 08004KT 4SM HZ ..... 26/04 A2995 RMK RAE36 At approximately what altitude AGL should bases of convective-type cumuliform clouds be expected? (A)4,400 feet. (B)8,800 feet. (C)17,600 feet.

(B)8,800 feet.

(Refer to figure 29.) Using a maximum rate of climb, how much time would be required to climb to a 8,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight.....4,000 lb Airport pressure altitude.....2,000 ft Temperature.....32C(如圖A21_Fig29) (A)7 minutes. (B)8.4 minutes. (C)11.2 minutes.

(B)8.4 minutes.

(Refer to figure 32 ) airport pressure altitude...4,000ft airport temperature...12C cruise pressure altitude...9,000ft cruise temperture...-4C What will be the distance required to climb to cruise altitude under given conditions?(如圖A21_FIG32) (A)6 miles. (B)8.5 miles. (C)11 miles.

(B)8.5 miles.

Pressure altitude...7000ft True air temperature.....+15 C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is (A)5000 feet. (B)8500 feet. (C)9500 feet.

(B)8500 feet

Emergency evacuation from an aircraft of more than 44 passengers shall be completed within ________ (A)60 seconds (B)90 seconds (C)120 seconds (D)150 seconds

(B)90 seconds

"An aircraft is loaded to a gross weight of 4,800 pounds with three pieces of luggage in the rear baggage compartment. The CG is located 94 inches aft of datum, which is 1 inch aft of limits. If luggage which weights 90 pounds is moved from the rear baggage compartment (145 inches aft of datum) to the front compartment (45 inches aft of datum), what is the new CG?" (A)93.13 inches aft of datum. (B)92.13 inches aft of datum. (C)94.13 inches aft of datum.

(B)92.13 inches aft of datum.

Which is the definition of C.G ? (A)An unbalance point in airplane. (B)A balance point in airplan (C)An equal pressure center point in airplane. (D)A fix point that never changes in airplane.

(B)A balance point in airplan

When operating VFR at night, what is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions? (A)Ground lights begin to take on an appearance of being surrounded by a halo or glow (B)A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground (C)Cockpit lights begin to take on an appearance of a halo or glow around them

(B)A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground

What is the definition of operational flight plan? (A)Provide flight operations authority with specific information concerning the entire flight or part there of intended by the aircraft (B)A plan resulted from cross calculating pertinent information involving weather, aircraft performance, fuel consumption and airway profile to provide the flight crew with necessary navigational information to operate the aircraft (C)The other answers are correct. (D)The other answers are wrong.

(B)A plan resulted from cross calculating pertinent information involving weather, aircraft performance, fuel consumption and airway profile to provide the flight crew with necessary navigational information to operate the aircraft

Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot? (A)A record of preventive maintenance is not required (B)A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records (C)Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight

(B)A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records

When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind-shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance? (A)A fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent. (B)A sudden change in airspeed. (C)A sudden surge of thrust.

(B)A sudden change in airspeed.

Which feature is associated with the tropopause? (A)Constant height above the Earth. (B)Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate. (C)Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

(B)Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple? (A)Maintain altitude and airspeed (B)Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air (C)Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed

(B)Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? (A)Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME) (B)Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment (C)Must conduct operations under visual flight rules

(B)Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area? (A)Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility (B)Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment (C)Prior to land, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with an ATC controlling facility

(B)Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment

Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases? (A)Altitude. (B)Airspeed. (C)Angle of attack.

(B)Airspeed.

Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere? (A)Low-level winds (B)Ambient lapse rate (C)Atmospheric pressure.

(B)Ambient lapse rate

How are electrical generators rated? (A)Watts at rated voltage. (B)Amperes at rated voltage. (C) Voltage at rated amperes.

(B)Amperes at rated voltage.

How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? (A)A decrease in angle of attack. (B)An abrupt change in relative wind. (C)Sudden decrease in load factor.

(B)An abrupt change in relative wind.

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form? (A)A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains. (B)An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter. (C)A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.

(B)An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.

Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections? (A)A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection (B)An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection (C)An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved

(B)An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights? (A)Flashlight with red lens, if the flight is for hire (B)An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire (C)Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure

(B)An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack? (A)A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag. (B)An increase in angle of attack will increase drag. (C)An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.

(B)An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.

The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to (A)Any flight conducted for compensation or hire (B)Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport (C)IFR flights only

(B)Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver? (A)At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach. (B)As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. (C)At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.

(B)As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

Which roman alphabet designates aircraft's nationality of the Republic of China (A)A (B)B (C)W (D)R

(B)B

What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? (A)A- Pilots have a choice of glide angles. (B)B- A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. (C)C- The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.

(B)B- A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.

Which is a definition of the term 'crewmember'? (A)A- Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. (B)B- A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. (C)C- Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

(B)B- A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.

While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? (A)A- No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. (B)B- Advise ATC immediately. (C)C- Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.

(B)B- Advise ATC immediately.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? (A)A- Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights. (B)B- Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. (C)C- Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.

(B)B- Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.

Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? (A)A- All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. (B)B- Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. (C)C- All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.

(B)B- Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased.

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? (A)A- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. (B)B- Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. (C)C- Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.

(B)B- Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.

When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? (A)A- In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. (B)B- Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required. (C)C- For flights at or above FL 180.

(B)B- Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required.

What is the oil viscosity index? The oil viscosity index (A)A- indicates how fluid an oil is at low temperature under laboratory conditions. (B)B- is an arbitrary method of stating the rate of change in viscosity of an oil with changes of temperature. (C)C- is the weight of any oil compared with the weight of an equal volume of oil from the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity scale.

(B)B- is an arbitrary method of stating the rate of change in viscosity of an oil with changes of temperature.

The CG of an airplane is normally located in the fuselage at a point expressed in (A)inches from the forward CG limit. (B)B- percent of mean aerodynamic chord aft of LEMAC. (C)C- percentage of MAC aft of the leading edge of the wing.

(B)B- percent of mean aerodynamic chord aft of LEMAC

The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during (A)A- taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. (B)B- taxiing, takeoff, and landing (C)C- takeoff, cruise, and landing.

(B)B- taxiing, takeoff, and landing

When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency? (A) Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM. (B)Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency. (C)Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then broadcast position and intentions to land on UNICOM.

(B)Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency.

In small aircraft, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the (A)C.G. is too far rearward, and rotation is around the longitudinal axis (B)C.G. is too far rearward, and rotation is around the C.G. (C)spin is entered before the stall is fully developed

(B)C.G. is too far rearward, and rotation is around the C.G.

Which clouds have the greatest turbulence? (A)TCU (B)CB (C)AC

(B)CB

in small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the (A)CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. (B)CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. (C)spin is entered before the stall is fully developed.

(B)CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG

In small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the (A)CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. (B)CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. (C)spin is entered before the stall is fully developed.

(B)CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG.

Three axes of airplane pass through : (A)the CG of wing. (B)CG. (C)LEMAC (D)TEMAC

(B)CG.

The abbreviation for the callsign "CHEROKEE XY-ABC" would be: (A)CHEROKEE XY-BC (B)CHEROKEE BC (C)XY-BC (D)ABC

(B)CHEROKEE BC

The word for the expression "Have I correctly received the following" is: (A)ACKNOWLEDGE (B)CONFIRM (C)VERIFY (D)ARE U SURE

(B)CONFIRM

Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? (A)Airplane Flight Manual. (B)Certificate holder's manual. (C) Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.

(B)Certificate holder's manual.

What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation? (A)Class D, which then becomes Class C (B)Class D, which then becomes Class E (C)Class B

(B)Class D, which then becomes Class E

If the cabin rate of climb is too great, how should the pressurization controls be adjusted? (A)Open the outflow valve slower. (B)Close the outflow valve faster. (C)Increase the amount of incoming air.

(B)Close the outflow valve faster

Which section of a turbine engine provides air for the pressurization and air-conditioning systems? (A) Intake. (B)Compressor. (C) Combustion.

(B)Compressor.

The term" DISREGARD" means: (A)Pay no attention to what I say (B)Consider the last message as not sent (C)Cancel the last clearance

(B)Consider the last message as not sent

What type of oxygen system is used for passengers? (A) Demand. (B)Constant-flow. (C) Diluter-demand.

(B)Constant-flow

What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach? (A)Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. (B)Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. (C)Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

(B)Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? (A)Roll cloud. (B)Continuous updraft. (C)Beginning of rain at the surface.

(B)Continuous updraft

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? (A)Roll cloud. (B)Continuous updraft. (C)Frequent lightning.

(B)Continuous updraft.

What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? (A)Cargo and passenger distribution information. (B)Copy of the flight plan. (C)Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

(B)Copy of the flight plan.

Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface? (A)Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and poor visibility. (B)Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and good visibility. (C)Stratiform clouds, smooth air and poor visibility.

(B)Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and good visibility.

Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? (A)Altocumulus (B)Cumulonimbus (C)Stratocumulus

(B)Cumulonimbus

What clouds have the greatest turbulence? (A)Towering cumulus. (B)Cumulonimbus. (C)Nimbostratus.

(B)Cumulonimbus.

TOW includes ? (A)ZFW + Trip fuel (B)DOW + Payload + TOF (C)DOW + Trip fuel

(B)DOW + Payload + TOF

Which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other record by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations? (A)VOR name or identification, place of operational check, amount of bearing error, and date of check (B)Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and signature (C)VOR name or identification, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature

(B)Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and signature

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? (A)Cumulus. (B)Dissipating. (C)Mature.

(B)Dissipating.

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium? (A)when the aircraft is accelerating (B)During unaccelerated flight (C)When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.

(B)During unaccelerated flight

Which of the following is considered a primary flight control? (A)Leading-edge flap (B)Elevator (C)Dorsal fin

(B)Elevator

What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? (A)Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. (B)Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise. (C) Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.

(B)Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise.

'(Refer to figure G ), at which flight level is the cloud base?(如圖A24_FigG) (A)FL 380 (B)FL 270 (C)unknown

(B)FL 270

(Refer to figure 1)'The chart in figure 1 encompasses airspace(如圖A24_Fig1) (A)FL250 and below (B)FL250-FL650 (C)The ohter answers are correct.

(B)FL250-FL650

'(Refer to figure I ), at which flight level is the cloud base?(如圖A24_FigI) (A)FL 380 (B)FL280 (C)unknown

(B)FL280

(Refer to figure 1)' , S25E160 at which flight level will the turbulence to occur?(如圖A24_Fig1) (A)FL250-FL450 (B)FL350-FL470 (C)FL250-FL500 (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(B)FL350-FL470

(Refer to figure 2)' , under standard atmosphere, at which flight level will 200hpa be?(如圖A24_Fig2) (A)FL350 (B)FL390 (C)FL200

(B)FL390

(Refer to figure 1)' what is the ceiling of the CB located at N30E140 (如圖A24_Fig1) (A)FL 250 (B)FL430 (C)from sea level to FL 320

(B)FL430

"For better control ability, which is TRUE?" (A)AFT C.G. is preferred (B)FWD C.G. is preferred (C)independent of C.G.

(B)FWD C.G. is preferred

The main compartment providing the same amount of lift at slower airspeed during the approach and landing is (A)Aileron (B)Flaps (C)Elevator

(B)Flaps

(Refer to figure 6.)How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?(如圖A24_Fig6) (A)For overall planning at all altitudes. (B)For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence). (C)For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage.

(B)For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).

How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance? (A)Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing its lifting capability. (B)Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability. (C)Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall speed.

(B)Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability

Payload not includes? (A)Passenger (B)Fuel (C)Cargo

(B)Fuel

How does the thermocouple in a fire detection system cause the warning system to operate? (A) Heat increases electrical resistance. (B)Heat generates a small electrical current. (C)Heat causes expansion and a ground to form.

(B)Heat generates a small electrical current.

"WILCO" means: (A)I have received all your last transmission (B)I understand your message and I will comply with it (C)Permission for proposed action granted

(B)I understand your message and I will comply with it

Fixed wing aircraft first airworthiness certificated after Jan 1, 1989 and with a maximum take off weight over 5,700 kg, shall be equipped with ________ type flight data recorder (A)I (B)II (C)III (D)IV

(B)II

When may hazardous wind shear be expected? (A)When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds. (B)In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence. (C)Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing.

(B)In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.

How does ATC report RVR? (A)In feet and inches (B)In meters at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end of runway (C)In kilometers along the final approach (D)In nautical miles along with runway

(B)In meters at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end of runway

What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased? (A)Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag. (B)Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift. (C)Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increase drag.

(B)Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift.

What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance ? (A)Increases takeoff speed. (B)Increases takeoff distance. (C)Decreases takeoff distance.

(B)Increases takeoff distance.

( Weight * Arm ) / Reduction Factor = ? (A)Distance from CG to DATUM LINE. (B)Index unit. (C)Basic moment.

(B)Index unit.

What is a feature of an electromagnetic-type circuit breaker? (A) It resets automatically. (B)It may be reset immediately. (C)It is necessary to wait a short time before attempting a reset.

(B)It may be reset immediately

If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use? (A)Its use is not permitted (B)It may be used when in Class G airspace (C)It may be used for VFR flight only

(B)It may be used when in Class G airspace

When do you look for visual signals after a communications failure? (A)After landing (B)Joining the circuit at a controlled airfield (C)Overhead an aerodrome

(B)Joining the circuit at a controlled airfield

The readback from an aircraft that is cleared to change level from FL100 to FL80 is: (A)DESCENDING TO FL80 (B)LEAVING FL100 DESCENDING TO FL80 (C)DOWN TO FL80

(B)LEAVING FL100 DESCENDING TO FL80

What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? (A)Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. (B)Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. (C)Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

(B)Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.

Which hydraulic operation normally uses a double-acting, unbalanced linear actuator? (A) Brakes. (B)Landing gear. (C)Automatic pilot servo.

(B)Landing gear.

LOFT is the acronym of (A)Line operation flight training (B)Line oriented flight training (C)Line operation flight test (D)Line oriented flight test

(B)Line oriented flight training

When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope? (A)Higher than normal power initially, followed by a further increase as the wind shear is encountered, then a decrease. (B)Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase. (C)Higher than normal power initially, followed by a decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase.

(B)Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase.

"After an airplane is loaded completely, the position of C.G normally shows :" (A)（INDEX UNIT） (B)MAC％ (C)MOMENT

(B)MAC％

The call from an aircraft in imminent danger is: (A)OH NO! (B)MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY (C)PANPAN PANPAN PANPAN (D)PAN PAN MEDICAL

(B)MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY

What information does VOLMET broadcast on VHF? (A)SIGMETs (B)METARs for various aerodromes (C)TAFs for specific aerodromes

(B)METARs for various aerodromes

The phrase used by ATC to instruct you listen out on a frequency is: (A)CONTACT (B)MONITOR (C)TRY (D)REPORT

(B)MONITOR

Aircraft use Mach number as airspeed reference shall have _________ (A)airspeed indicator (B)Mach number indicator (C)ground speed indicator (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(B)Mach number indicator

"For long haul flight, the critical weight for allowable traffic load is normally limited by" (A)Maxomum landing weight (B)Maximum take off weight (C)maximum zero fuel weight

(B)Maximum take off weight

(Refer to figure 1), in figure 1 at N42W125 represents(如圖A24_Fig1) (A)Light C.A.T. (B)Moderate C.A.T. (C)Severe C.A.T.

(B)Moderate C.A.T.

What are the characteristics of the electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery? (A)Noncorrosive. (B)Much like household lye and will cause severe burns. (C)Harmless compared to the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery.

(B)Much like household lye and will cause severe burns.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? (A)Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME) (B)Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules (C)Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder

(B)Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules

Which component of an airplane pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming higher than the airplane altitude? (A)Cabin rate of descent control. (B)Negative pressure relief valve. (C) Compression ratio limit switch.

(B)Negative pressure relief valve.

When referring to a frequency the word "DECIMAL" can be dropped: (A)only during a readback of a frequency (B)Never (C)only after satisfactory communications have been established

(B)Never

The take-off alternate aerodrome of an airplane having two power-units shall be located within which distance from the aerodrome of departure: (A)Not more than a distance equivalent to one hour at the twin-engine cruise speed (B)Not more than a distance equivalent to one hour at the single-engine cruise speed (C)Not more than a distance equivalent to two hours at the twin-engine cruise speed (D)Not more than a distance equivalent to two hours at the single-engine cruise speed

(B)Not more than a distance equivalent to one hour at the single-engine cruise speed

The take-off alternate aerodrome of an airplane having three or more power-units shall be located within which distance from the aerodrome of departure: (A)Not more than a distance equivalent to one hour at the single-engine cruise speed (B)Not more than a distance equivalent to two hours at the single-engine cruise speed (C)Not more than a distance equivalent to one hour at the twin-engine cruise speed (D)Not more than a distance equivalent to two hours at the twin-engine cruise speed

(B)Not more than a distance equivalent to two hours at the single-engine cruise speed

What action should be taken if a hydraulic stationary connection has a static leak? (A)Reduce the accumulator pressure. (B)Notify maintenance to repair it. (C)Pressurize the system and perform an operational check.

(B)Notify maintenance to repair it.

When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF is expressed as (A)6PSM. (B)P6SM. (C)6SMP.

(B)P6SM.

What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane? (A)Certificate holder (B)Pilot in command (C)Airplane owner/operator

(B)Pilot in command

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? (A)The appearance of an anvil top. (B)Precipitation beginning to fall. (C)Maximum growth rate of the clouds.

(B)Precipitation beginning to fall

What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage? (A)The anvil top has completed its development. (B)Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base. (C)A gust front forms.

(B)Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.

What is the function of the circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system? (A)Protects the lights from too much current. (B)Protects the wiring from too much current. (C)Prevents excessive voltage from reaching the wiring.

(B)Protects the wiring from too much current.

The information in a message from ATC that has to be readback includes: (A)weather, wind (B)QNH, runway in use (C)everything except hesitation sounds

(B)QNH, runway in use

If you want to backtrack then your transmission should be: (A)REPORTING BACKTRACK (B)REQUEST BACKTRACK (C)REQUEST VACATE RUNWAY

(B)REQUEST BACKTRACK

For what reason there is a standard procedure for fuel loading? (A)For fire fighting (B)Reduce the bending moment of the wing (C)Prevent tail down during refueling

(B)Reduce the bending moment of the wing

What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine fails? (A)Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. (B)Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. (C) Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

(B)Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.

What action should be taken when a pilot is 'cleared for approach' while being radar vectored on an unpublished route? (A)Descend to minimum vector altitude. (B)Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. (C)Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

(B)Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment

What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? (A)Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. (B)Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. (C) One light projector with two colors; red and white.

(B)Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.

The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abondon its take off includes the phrase: (A)GIVE-UP TAKE OFF (B)STOP IMMEDIATELY (C)ABORT TAKE OFF

(B)STOP IMMEDIATELY

What is the name for the visible discharge of static electricity from the airplane into the air? (A)Corona threshold. (B)Saint Elmo's fire. (C)Precipitation static.

(B)Saint Elmo's fire

SAR stands for: (A)Single Aircraft Radio (B)Search And Rescue (C)Secondary Airborne Radar

(B)Search And Rescue

Which of the following is considered a secondary flight control? (A)Rudder. (B)Servo tab. (C)Inboard aileron.

(B)Servo tab

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated check-point on the airport surface? (A)Set the OBS on 180 plus or minus 4; the CDI should center with From indication. (B)Set OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 of that radial with a FROM indication. (C)Whith the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and OBS set 000, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4 of that radial with a to indication.

(B)Set OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 of that radial with a FROM indication.

What should be used to remove Skydrol from your skin? (A)Solvent. (B)Soap and water. (C)Trichlorethylene.

(B)Soap and water.

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin? (A)Partially stalled with one wing low. (B)Stalled. (C)In a steep diving spiral.

(B)Stalled.

What type of electrolyte is contained in a lead-acid battery? (A)Boric acid. (B)Sulfuric acid. (C)Potassium hydroxide.

(B)Sulfuric acid.

How do you report a level of 3500feet? (A)THREE FIVE ZERO FEET (B)THREE THOUSND FIVE HUNDRED FEET (C)THIRTY FIVE HUNDRED FEET

(B)THREE THOUSND FIVE HUNDRED FEET

When unable to establish 2-way communications, you should prefix your message with: (A)RADIO CHECK (B)TRANSIMTTING BLIND (C)PAN PAN PAN (D)DO YOU READ?

(B)TRANSIMTTING BLIND

Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence. (A)Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll (B)The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll (C)The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast

(B)The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll

Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence. . (A)Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll. (B)The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll. (C)The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast.

(B)The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.

Which is true with respect to vortex circulation? (A)Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation (B)The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow (C)When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger

(B)The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow

The term " flight" is defined in the Civil Aviation Law as (A)The activities begin at engine start, taxi, take-off till landing and engine shot-off (B)The activities begin at engine start, taxi, take-off till landing and taxi to parking ramp (C)The activities begin at engine start, navigation till landing (D)The activities begin at passengers and cargo loaded and door closed till after flight doors open

(B)The activities begin at engine start, taxi, take-off till landing and taxi to parking ramp

What force makes an airplane turn? (A)The vertical component of lift (B)The horizontal component of lift. (C)Centrifugal

(B)The horizontal component of lift.

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? (A)A certificated aircraft mechanic (B)The pilot in command (C)The owner or operator

(B)The pilot in command

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace? (A)The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating (B)The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate (C)Solo student pilot operation are not authorized

(B)The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? (A)Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated (B)The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area (C)Solo student pilot operation are not authorized

(B)The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area

Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns? (A)The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed. (B)The raising of flaps increases the stall speed. (C)Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

(B)The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.

Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns ? (A)The lowering of flaps incraeses the stall speed (B)The rasing of flaps increases the stall speed (C)Rasing flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick

(B)The rasing of flaps increases the stall speed

What is ground effect? (A)The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane. (B)The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane (C)The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.

(B)The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane

The aircraft C.G. is finalized when completely loaded. What direction will the C.G. move if we load something on specific direction ? (A)The reverse direction on which something was loaded (B)The same direction on which something was loaded (C)C.G. will not change

(B)The same direction on which something was loaded

Which conditions result in the formation of frost? (A)The temperature of the collecting suface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface. (B)The temperature of the collecting suface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing. (C)The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface

(B)The temperature of the collecting suface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.

What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds? (A)The winds at 2,000 ft and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction. (B)The winds at 2,000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker. (C)The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2,000 ft and are usually weaker.

(B)The winds at 2,000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.

Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight? (A)At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. (B)There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. (C)An airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in weight will require an increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

(B)There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

"What is the main purpose to follow "" weight and balance limit "" during loading airplane ?" (A)To obey CAA regulation. (B)To consider flight safety and economy (C)For takeoff / landing possiblely encourter crosswind (D)For passenger comfort.

(B)To consider flight safety and economy

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane? (A)To control overbanking tendency (B)To control yaw (C)To control roll

(B)To control yaw

Why is it necessary to periodically completely discharge and recharge a nickel-cadmium battery? (A)To restore electrolyte levels. (B)To eliminate cell imbalance and loss of capacity. (C)To dissolve nickel oxide formations on positive cells to restore capacity.

(B)To eliminate cell imbalance and loss of capacity.

Why is it important that all electrical loads and power sources be turned off before connecting or disconnecting the battery? (A)To prevent discharging the battery. (B)To prevent a spark from igniting explosive gas. (C) To prevent power surges from spiking sensitive equipment.

(B)To prevent a spark from igniting explosive gas

What is the purpose of MOAs? (A)To protect military aircraft operations from civil aircraft. (B)To separate military training activities from IFR traffic. (C)To separate military training activities from both IFR and VFR traffic.

(B)To separate military training activities from IFR traffic.

What tread wear will occur if tires are under-inflated? (A)Uniform wear at a fast rate. (B)Tread worn away more on the shoulders than in the center. (C)Accelerated centerline wear while leaving rubber on the shoulder.

(B)Tread worn away more on the shoulders than in the center.

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts? (A)True direction and MPH (B)True direction and knots (C)Magnetic direction and knots

(B)True direction and knots

The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon: (A)High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed (B)Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed (C)Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed

(B)Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed

The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon: (A)High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed. (B)Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed. (C)Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.

(B)Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.

The band for frequencies between 118.0 to 136.975 MHz is known as the: (A)UHF band (B)VHF band (C)SHF band (D)HF band

(B)VHF band

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration ? (A)VS (B)VS1 (C)VS0

(B)VS1

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration? (A)VS (B)VS1 (C)VS0

(B)VS1

Which cabin air-conditioning system utilizes a refrigerant to carry away cabin heat? (A)Air cycle (B)Vapor cycle. (C) Evaporative blower.

(B)Vapor cycle

How may pressure from an engine-driven hydraulic pump be regulated? (A)Constant speed drive. (B)Variable-displacement pump. (C) In-line variable restrictor orifice.

(B)Variable-displacement pump.

When should pilots decline a 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance? (A)If runway surface is contaminated (B)When it will compromise safety. (C)Only when the tower controller concurs.

(B)When it will compromise safety.

When a pilots age is over 60 may not engage in single pilot flight (A)except minimum flight crew is made up of 2 pilots (B)When minimum flight crew is made up of 2 pilots, only one may be over 60 years of age (C)when minimum flight crew is made up of 2 pilots both is permissible to be over 60 years of age (D)When minimum flight crew is made up of 3 pilots, if they are physically and mentally fit, they are permissible to be over 60 years of age

(B)When minimum flight crew is made up of 2 pilots, only one may be over 60 years of age

What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? (A)Light and variable. (B)Wind shear. (C)Frontal passage.

(B)Wind shear.

If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach? (A)Precipitation static. (B)Wind-shear turbulence. (C)Steady rain.

(B)Wind-shear turbulence.

CRM is (A)a quick fix that can be implemented overnight (B)a comprehensive system for improving crew performance (C)a passive lecture-style classroom course (D)another form of individually centered crew training

(B)a comprehensive system for improving crew performance

The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is (A)an anticyclone and is caused by descending cold air. (B)a cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force. (C)an anticyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

(B)a cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

(Refer to figure 1) 'What is the jet stream at N45W170t?(如圖A24_Fig1) (A)a jet stream with a maximum wind speed of 100kts at FL 280 (B)a jet stream with a maximum wind speed of 110kts at FL 370 (C)a jet stream with a maximum wind speed of 100kts at FL 360

(B)a jet stream with a maximum wind speed of 110kts at FL 370

The suffix "nimbus", used in naming clouds, means (A)a cloud with extensive vertical development. (B)a rain cloud. (C)a middle cloud containing ice pellets.

(B)a rain cloud.

GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by (A)the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement. (B)a sovereign country or governmental unit. (C)the FAA Administrator only.

(B)a sovereign country or governmental unit.

One purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to (A) compress hydraulic fluid. (B)absorb sudden pressure surges. (C) store hydraulic fluid from small system leaks.

(B)absorb sudden pressure surges.

A pilot is encountering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple (A)maintain altitude and airspeed (B)adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air (C)enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed

(B)adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air

The force which tries to feather the propeller blade is (A)torque bending. (B)aerodynamic twisting. (C) centrifugal twisting moment.

(B)aerodynamic twisting.

The force which tries to increase propeller blade angle is (A)torque bending. (B)aerodynamic twisting. (C) centrifugal twisting moment.

(B)aerodynamic twisting.

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on (A)relative humidity (B)air temperature (C)stability of air

(B)air temperature

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depend on the (A)dewpoint. (B)air temperature. (C)stability of the air.

(B)air temperature.

In the flight deck system management, inner loop implies (A)ATC communication (B)aircraft control (C)aircraft monitoring (D)crew communication

(B)aircraft control

Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause (A)the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal. (B)airflow separation at a lower angel of attack, resulting in a tendency to stall during Takeoff (C)drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.

(B)airflow separation at a lower angel of attack, resulting in a tendency to stall during Takeoff

A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of (A)altitude and RPM (B)airspeed and RPM (C)airspeed and altitude

(B)airspeed and RPM

Aircraft owner or operator shall properly maintain the aircraft that has been issued ______ certificate and shall also ensure the continuous airworthiness of the aircraft (A)registration (B)airworthiness (C)insurance (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(B)airworthiness

Operations of aircraft shall comply with (A)registration certificate (B)airworthiness certificate (C)radio station operator license (D)The other answers are wrong.

(B)airworthiness certificate

Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of (A)atmospheric stabilization around cities. (B)an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products. (C)increased temperature due to industrial heating.

(B)an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products.

We may call an error or a violation which has an immediate adverse effect (A)a latent failure (B)an active failure (C)a neutral failure (D)a total failure

(B)an active failure

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack (A)a decraese in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag (B)an increase in angle of attack will increase drag (C)an increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag

(B)an increase in angle of attack will increase drag

Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depending upon the (A)rate of turn (B)angle of bank (C)true airspeed

(B)angle of bank

Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the (A)rate of turn (B)angle of bank (C)Ground speed

(B)angle of bank

Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the (A)rate of turn. (B)angle of bank. (C)true airspeed.

(B)angle of bank.

The operator shall keep the maintenance records of the aircraft history book for ______ (A)two years (B)as long as the maintenance work is conducted in repetition or replaced by other works (C)indefinite period of time (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(B)as long as the maintenance work is conducted in repetition or replaced by other works

The purpose of pressurizing a hydraulic reservoir is to (A)provide an alternate source of pressure in case of a hydraulic pump failure. (B)assure a positive feed of foam free fluid to the hydraulic pump at high altitudes. (C) insure an adequate supply of fluid to the hydraulic pump inlet during negative-G flight.

(B)assure a positive feed of foam free fluid to the hydraulic pump at high altitudes.

(Figure 1)The red symbol at the top would most likely be found(如圖A23_Fig1) (A)upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control (B)at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway (C)near the approach end of ILS runway

(B)at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway

Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft (A)at the higher altitude (B)at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft (C)that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft

(B)at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft

At some airport located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are (A)not authorized (B)authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM (C)authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM

(B)authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by (A)extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point. (B)being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. (C)maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.

(B)being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off (A)prior to the point where the jet touched down. (B)beyond the point where the jet touched down. (C)at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.

(B)beyond the point where the jet touched down.

When applying for export airworthiness certificate, the applicant shall return the present certificate to CAA and complete ________ (A)transaction (B)cancel nationality registration (C)regist importing nationality (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(B)cancel nationality registration

A category of precision approach and landing for which the decision height is between 200ft to 100 ft, RVR is between 550 meter to 350 meter, this system is (A)category 1 instrument approach (B)category 2 instrument approach (C)category 3 instrument approach (D)special instrument approach

(B)category 2 instrument approach

For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a (A)ceiling of 2000 feet and visibility 3 SM (B)ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR (C)ceiling of 1000 feet and visibility 3 NM

(B)ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR

The Low Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) provides wind data and software process to detect the presence of a (A)rotating column of air extending from a cumulonimbus cloud (B)change in wind direction and/or speed within a very short distance above the airport (C)downward motion of the air associated with continuous winds blowing with an easterly component due to the rotation of the earth

(B)change in wind direction and/or speed within a very short distance above the airport

Your action on receipt of the message "STANDBY ON 118.9 FOR TOWER" is to: (A)change to freq 118.9 and contact TOWER (B)change to freq 118.9 and wait for TOWER to initiate communications (C)wait for TOWER to contact you on present frequency to let you know when they are ready

(B)change to freq 118.9 and wait for TOWER to initiate communications

Turbulence that is encountered above 15000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform clouding thunderstorms, should be report as (A)severe turbulence (B)clear air turbulence (C)convective turbulence

(B)clear air turbulence

To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should (A) lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath. (B)climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath. (C) remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.

(B)climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath

En route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) is a service that provides en route aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight intended, route, and altitude. this information is received by (A)listening to en route VORs at 15 and 45 minutes past the hour (B)contacting flight watch, using the name of the ARTCC facility identification in your area, your aircraft identification, and name of nearest VOR, on 122.0 MHz below 17,500 feet MSL (C)contacting the AFSS facility in your area, using your airplane identification, and the name of the nearest VOR

(B)contacting flight watch, using the name of the ARTCC facility identification in your area, your aircraft identification, and name of nearest VOR, on 122.0 MHz below 17,500 feet MSL

The Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service (HWAS) is broadcast service over selected VORs that provides (A)SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance (B)continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories (C)SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour

(B)continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories

While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will (A)decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor (B)decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor (C)increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor

(B)decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor

While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will (A)decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. (B)decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. (C)increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.

(B)decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor

While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will (A)decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. (B)decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. (C)increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.

(B)decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.

To eastablish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller,the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and (A)increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle (B)decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle (C)decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle

(B)decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle

Aircraft without ________ shall not operate in known or forecasted icing weather conditions (A)wind shield wiper (B)deicing or icing prevention devices (C)air condctioning (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(B)deicing or icing prevention devices

Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided ? (A)excessive induced drag will result in structural failure (B)design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered (C)control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable

(B)design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered

If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to (A)minimum control speed (B)design-maneuvering speed (C)maximum structural cruising speed

(B)design-maneuvering speed

if severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to (A)minimum control speed (B)design-maneuvering speed (VA) (C)max structural cruising speed (VNO)

(B)design-maneuvering speed (VA)

An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be (A)a longer takeoff run (B)difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition (C)stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.

(B)difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition

A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the (A)direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway (B)direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway (C)downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift

(B)direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway

The angel of attack of a wing directly controls the (A)angle of incidence of the wing. (B)distribution of pressures below and above wing. (C)amount of airflow above and below the wing.

(B)distribution of pressures below and above

The CG of an airplane can be determined by ? (A)multiplying total arms by total weight. (B)dividing total moments by total weight. (C)multiplying total weight by total moments.

(B)dividing total moments by total weight.

In the "SHEL" moel, software means (A)machinery, equipment, etc. (B)documentation, procedures, symbols, etc. (C)both internal and external to the workplace (D)the human element

(B)documentation, procedures, symbols, etc.

The Civil Aeronautics Administration may conduct inspections on flight operation, airworthiness and maintenance status of aircraft. Aircraft owner or operator should notify the Civil Aeronautics Administration for inspection when performing what kind of maintenance action: (A)during minor repair, daily maintenance or modification of the aircraft (B)during major repair, modification or renewal of airworthiness certificate of the aircraft (C) during minor repair, inspection or major repair of the aircraft (D)during minor repair, major repair or modification of the aircraft

(B)during major repair, modification or renewal of airworthiness certificate of the aircraft

Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its (A)rudder (B)elevator (C)ailerons

(B)elevator

longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its (A)rudder (B)elevator (C)ailerons

(B)elevator

Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its ? (A)rudder. (B)elevator. (C)ailerons.

(B)elevator.

The message "CHECK" to an aircraft means that you should: (A)confirm that you received and understood the last message (B)examine a system or procedure (C)stay where you are

(B)examine a system or procedure

When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flight, it is important to (A)make 90? left and right turns to scan for other traffic (B)exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions (C)pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial

(B)exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions

An airplane leaving ground effect will (A)experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction (B)experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust (C)require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient

(B)experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust

An airplane leaving ground effect will (A)experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction. (B)experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust. (C)require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.

(B)experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.

The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when (A)climbing or descending to assigned altitudes (B)experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight (C)requested to contact a new controlling facility

(B)experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight

Which of the following personnel need not to apply for license or rating certificate issued by CAA (A)aircraft dispatch (B)flight attendant (C)air traffic controller (D)ground mechanic

(B)flight attendant

Air transport aircraft shall be installed a ________ to record flight information for accident investigation (A)auto pilot (B)flight data recorder (C)compass (D)ACARS

(B)flight data recorder

Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the (A)flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used (B)flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used (C)visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distinctly visible to the pilot

(B)flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel to the (A)chord line. (B)flightpath. (C)longitudinal axis.

(B)flightpath.

A flight (air transport operations) of a turbine-engined airplane, when a destination alternate aerodrome is not required in terms of article 57, paragraph 1, subparagraph 1, shall carry sufficient fuel to allow the aircraft to fly to the aerodrome which the flight is planned, and the additional fuel to fly ... (A)for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome to which the flight is planned under standard temperature conditions and contingency fuel. (B)for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome to which the flight is planned under standard temperature conditions and contingency fuel. (C)for 45 minutes at holding speed at 3,000 ft above the aerodrome to which the flight is planned under standard temperature conditions and contingency fuel. (D)for 30 minutes at holding speed at 3,000 ft above the aerodrome to which the flight is planned under standard temperature conditions and contingency fuel.

(B)for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome to which the flight is planned under standard temperature conditions and contingency fuel.

At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the (A)engine to overheat (B)fouling of spark plugs (C)engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased

(B)fouling of spark plugs

If the airspeed of a glider is increased from 45 MPH to 90 MPH, the parasite drag will be? (A)two times greater. (B)four times greater. (C)six times greater.

(B)four times greater.

The frequency to transmit on first for an urgency call is the: (A)frequency of the nearest radar station (B)frequency in use now (C)international distress frequency

(B)frequency in use now

The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. this difference in direction is primarily due to (A)stronger pressure graident at higher altitudes. (B)friction between the wind and the surface. (C)stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

(B)friction between the wind and the surface.

Winds at 5,000 ft AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. this difference in direction is primarily due to (A)a stronger pressure gradient at high altitudes. (B)friction between the wind and the surface. (C)Stronger Coioslis force at the surface.

(B)friction between the wind and the surface.

A "BLIND TRANSMISSION" is a transmission: (A)from an aircraft that is directly overhead the ground station (B)from one station to another when there is no communication but where is believed that the caller station is able to receive the transmission (C)where the transmission is unable to see the receiver

(B)from one station to another when there is no communication but where is believed that the caller station is able to receive the transmission

When discussing culture, terrain and weather belong to the issue of (A)economic and political context (B)geographic and physical context (C)social context (D)airline operating context

(B)geographic and physical context

(Refer to Figure 1.) At the airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the pilot can expect to obtain the airplane＇s maximum(如圖A22_Fig1) (A)endurance. (B)glide range. (C)coefficient of lift.

(B)glide range.

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is (A)heavy, dirty, and fast. (B)heavy, clean, and slow. (C)light, dirty, and fast

(B)heavy, clean, and slow.

Clouds are divided into four families according to their (A)outward shape. (B)height range. (C)composition.

(B)height range.

At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb ? (A)low speed (B)high speed (C)any speed

(B)high speed

An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the (A)negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface. (B)higher air pressure below the wing＇s surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface. (C)higher air flow above and below the wing's surface

(B)higher air pressure below the wing＇s surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.

The priority for an urgency call is: (A)lower than for a Pan Pan medical (B)higher than for everything else but less than for distress (C)dependant upon the length of the queue

(B)higher than for everything else but less than for distress

As a gesture to thank friends seeing him off at the waving deck, the passenger droped streamers from the cabin of the airborne aircraft. The act is (A)legal (B)illegal (C)customary human relation and has nothing to do with law (D)not illegal because he has told the pilot

(B)illegal

For fuel saving, the C.G. of the transport aircraft should be " (A)in the forward of C.G.limitation (B)in the aftward of C.G.limitation (C)the C.G. position has no effect on fuel saving

(B)in the aftward of C.G.limitation

After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made (A)on the airworthiness certificate (B)in the aircraft maintenance records (C)in the FAA-approved flight manual

(B)in the aircraft maintenance records

The pilot can control the airplane's lift, airspeed, and CG by changing the angle of attack of a wing. (A)Correct (B)incorrect (C)There is no change in airplane's lift, airspeed, and CG

(B)incorrect

The rectangular wing has a tendency to stall first at the wing tips with the stall pattern progressing inward to the wing roots. (A)Correct (B)incorrect (C)There is no difference between wing roots and wing tips during stall pattern.

(B)incorrect

What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased ? (A)increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag (B)increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift (C)decrease the angle of attack to compenstae for the increasing drag

(B)increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift

In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being (A)decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure (B)increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure (C)increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure

(B)increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for max lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane (A)decreases because of lower parasite drag (B)increases because of increased induced drag (C)increases because of increased parasite drag

(B)increases because of increased induced drag

That portion of the glider's total drag created by the production of lift is called. (A)induced drag, and is not affected by changes in airspeed. (B)induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. (C)parasite drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.

(B)induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.

When members of Culture A learn and adopt the ways of Culture B, in whole or in part, it is a phenomenon of (A)assimilation (B)integration (C)separation (D)accumulation

(B)integration

A controller would say "BREAK BREAK" when he: (A)wishes to create a pause in a long message to an aircraft (B)is in a busy environment and has communications with more than one aircraft (C)is instructing an aircraft to abandon take-off (D)wishes to cancel a message already transmitted to an aircraft

(B)is in a busy environment and has communications with more than one aircraft

Air transport fixed wing aircraft shall have emergency lighting equipment installed at emergency exits. Their power source (A)is common with other systems (B)is independent (C)is from VHF COM 1 (D)is from CVR

(B)is independent

Aircraft without deicing equipment may fly in known or forecasted icing conditions (air transport) (A)it may fly under icing conditions (B)it may not (C)it depends (D)The other answers are wrong.

(B)it may not

(Refer to figure 1), N40W130 represents(如圖A24_Fig1) (A)turbulence at FL360 (B)jet stream at FL350 with maximum wind speed of 100kts (C)the moving direction of the cloud

(B)jet stream at FL350 with maximum wind speed of 100kts

If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its (A)vertical axis. (B)lateral axis. (C)longitudinal axis.

(B)lateral axis

If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its (A)vertical axis (B)lateral axis (C)longitudinal axis

(B)lateral axis

If an airplane is loaded to the rear of the its C.G. range, it will tend to be unstable about its (A)vertical axis (B)lateral axis (C)longitudinal axis

(B)lateral axis

If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its (A)vertical axis. (B)lateral axis. (C)longitudinal axis.

(B)lateral axis.

(Refer to figure 18.) To intercept a magnetic bearing of 240 from at a 30 angle(while outbound), the airplane should be turned(如圖A21_FIG18) (A)left 065. (B)left 125 (C)right 270

(B)left 125

When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the (A)left and decreasing. (B)left and increasing. (C)right and decreasing.

(B)left and increasing.

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be (A)less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds. (B)less stable at all speeds. (C)less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds.

(B)less stable at all speeds

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as (A)light chop (B)light turbulence (C)moderate turbulence

(B)light turbulence

According to SHEL model, cockpit configuration is an issue of (A)liveware-liveware interface (B)liveware-hardware interface (C)liveware-software interface (D)liveware-environment interface

(B)liveware-hardware interface

"When a pilot is unaware of the basic capabilities and limitations of systems, or develop erroneous ideas of how system perform in particular situations" can be defined as (A)loss of situation awareness (B)loss of system awareness (C)poor interface design (D)over-reliance

(B)loss of system awareness

The operator shall provide, for the use and guidance of maintenance and operational personnel concerned, a _________ approved by the CAA. (A)training program (B)maintenance program (C)utilization program

(B)maintenance program

Defines VNO as (A)normal operating speed (B)maximum structural cruising speed (C)maximum operating speed.

(B)maximum structural cruising speed

Large aircraft refers to (A)maximum take-off weight is more than 5,000 kg (B)maximum take-off weight is more than 5,700 kg (C)maximum take-off weight is more than 7,700 kg (D)maximum take-off weight is more than 8,700 kg

(B)maximum take-off weight is more than 5,700 kg

Air transport operator may establish its en-route minimum altitude, but ________ lower than that published by the country it flies over. If the country has not publish its minimum altitude for its airways then the operator shall establish minimum altitude but not lower than the instrument flight altitude standards established in the flight regulations (A)may (B)may not (C)depends (D)The other answers are wrong.

(B)may not

'(Refer to figure L )this depiction indicates(如圖A24_FigL) (A)light icing (B)moderate icing (C)severe icing

(B)moderate icing

'(Refer to figure N )this depiction indicates(如圖A24_FigeN) (A)light turbulence (B)moderate turbulence (C)severe turbulence

(B)moderate turbulence

(Refer to figure 1) 'The turbulence located at N45W170 is (如圖A24_Fig1) (A)Light turbulence (B)moderate turbulence (C)severe turbulence

(B)moderate turbulence

According to figure 3,the SIGNIFICANT WEATHER PROGNOSTIC CHART figure 3, what kind of significant weather will the flight from RCTP toZSQD encounter?(如圖A24_Fig3) (A)moderate icing (B)moderate turbulence (C)severe icing (D)severe turbulence

(B)moderate turbulence

A member of standard crew in 24 consecutive hours who has been dispatched on duty for permissible maximum hours, shall be given a rest period of (A) no less than 8 consecutive hours (B)more than 18 consecutive hours (C) more than 12 consecutive hours (D)more than 14 consecutive hours

(B)more than 18 consecutive hours

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying (A)at 3000 feet or more AGL, based on true course (B)more than 3000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course (C)at 3000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic heading

(B)more than 3000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot (A) may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude. (B)must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach . (C)may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.

(B)must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach

Defines VNE as : (A)max nose wheel extended speed (B)never-exceed speed (C)max landing gear extended speed

(B)never-exceed speed

when the weather conditions at the destination or alternate airport are lower than their minima, the flight may engage in IFR (air transport) (A)the flight may engage in IFR (B)no the flight may not (C)it depends (D)The oTHer answers are wrong.

(B)no the flight may not

Max structural cruising speed is the max speed at which an airplane can be operated during (A)abrupt maneuvers (B)normal operations (C)flight in smooth air

(B)normal operations

Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during (A)abrupt maneuvers (B)normal operations (C)flight in smooth air

(B)normal operations

On hearing the message "ALL STATIONS, STEPHENVILLE RADAR, STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY", you should: (A)assist with the emergency (B)not interfere with the distress traffic (C)leave the frequency (D)re-transmitting the message

(B)not interfere with the distress traffic

Air transport and general aviation operators shall apply which of the following documents and only when approval granted by CAA may begin to engage in flight operations (A)airworthiness certificate (B)operations specifications (C)registration certificate (D)radio station permit

(B)operations specifications

The cabin pressure control setting has a direct effect upon the (A) compressor speed. (B)outflow valve opening. (C) pneumatic system pressure.

(B)outflow valve opening

Test flight aircraft except approved by CAA, shall not carry ____ irrelevant in a test flight (A)passenger (B)passenger or cargo (C)cargo (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(B)passenger or cargo

The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by (A) passing heated air through a compressor. (B)passing air through an expansion turbine and extracting heat energy. (C)passing air through cooling coils that contain a volume of refrigerant.

(B)passing air through an expansion turbine and extracting heat energy.

The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when (A)passing FL 180 (B)passing each designated reporting point, to include time and altitude (C)changing control facilities

(B)passing each designated reporting point, to include time

Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by (A)bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper. (B)pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper. (C)Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

(B)pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

After experiencing a power plant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include (A)turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing (B)planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area (C)maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road

(B)planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area

(Refer to Figure 5.) The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the (如圖A22_Fig5) (A)ultimate load factor. (B)positive limit load factor. (C)airspeed range for normal operations.

(B)positive limit load factor.

If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays (A)positive dynamic stability. (B)positive static stability. (C)Neutral dynamic stability.

(B)positive static stability.

The second phase of CRM training is: (A)awareness phase (B)practice and feedback phase (C)continual reinforcement phase (D)breakthrough phase

(B)practice and feedback phase

The purpose of the antiskid system control box is to (A) sense wheel speed change. (B)prevent landing with the brakes applied. (C)meter the brake pressure to prevent stoppage of wheel rotation.

(B)prevent landing with the brakes applied

One purpose of a fuel tank boost pump is to (A)provide pressure for injection carburetors. (B)prevent vapor lock caused by high temperature. (C) prevent vapor lock caused by high atmospheric pressure.

(B)prevent vapor lock caused by high temperature.

One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to (A)decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. (B)provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed. (C)decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.

(B)provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed.

One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to (A)decraese the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed (B)provide the same amount of lift at a slower airsped (C)decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made

(B)provide the same amount of lift at a slower airsped

One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to (A)decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed (B)provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed (C)decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made

(B)provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed

During investigation, to help analyse the impact of external factors on motivation and behavior, investigator may consult (A)medical doctors (B)psychologists (C)ergonomists (D)sociologists

(B)psychologists

who is authorized to start helicopter's rotor blade and taxi a helicopter (A)ground mechanic (B)qualified helicopter pilot (C)flight engineer (D)dispatcher

(B)qualified helicopter pilot

What performance is a characteristic of flight at max lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane ? Maximum (A)gain altitude over a given distance (B)range and max glide distance (C)coefficient of lift and max coefficient of drag

(B)range and max glide distance

What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum (A)gain in altitude over a given distance. (B)range and maximum distance glide. (C)coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.

(B)range and maximum distance glide.

Readability 2" means that your transmission is : (A)two way communications have been established (B)readable now and then (C)readable but with difficulty (D)readable

(B)readable now and then

A purpose of flight spoilers is to (A) increase the camber of the wing. (B)reduce lift without increasing airspeed. (C) direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

(B)reduce lift without increasing airspeed.

Aircraft before applying certification to CAA shall already have had (A)radio certificate (B)registration certificate (C)manufacturer's certificate (D)company financial certificate

(B)registration certificate

told "RE-SQUAWK 1015", you should: (A)press the identification (Ident) button on the control panel (B)reselect the digits on the transponder mode A (C)set 1015 on your altimeter (D)switch on mode C

(B)reselect the digits on the transponder mode A

For night flight operations, the best night vision is achieved when the (A)pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10 minutes (B)rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes (C)cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5 minutes

(B)rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes

Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine continues to run with no interruption; this (A)is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cut-off (B)should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position (C)is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong

(B)should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position

If available, LOFT exercises should utilize (A)aircraft (B)simulators (C)computers (D)classroom

(B)simulators

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to (A)rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path (B)sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence. (C)rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.

(B)sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that will produce a (A)large angle of attack and low RPM (B)small angle of attack and high RPM (C)large angle of attack and high RPM

(B)small angle of attack and high RPM

A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a (A)prefrontal system. (B)squall line. (C)dry line.

(B)squall line.

The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with (A)slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause. (B)squall lines. (C)fast-moving occluded fronts.

(B)squall lines.

The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon the (A)source of lift. (B)stability of the air being lifted. (C)temperature of the air being lifted.

(B)stability of the air being lifted.

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds know as (A)mammatocumulus clouds. (B)standing lenticular clouds. (C)roll clouds.

(B)standing lenticular clouds.

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time ? (A)steepen the bank and increase airspeed (B)steepen the bank and decrease airspeed (C)shallow the bank and increase airspeed

(B)steepen the bank and decrease airspeed

On a Surface Analysis Chart, close spacing of the isobars indicates (A)weak pressure gradient. (B)strong pressure gradient. (C)strong temperature gradient.

(B)strong pressure gradient.

When two aircraft are closing in head on and are in danger of mid-air collision, they shall (A)take avoidance action and make left turn (B)take avoidance action and make right turn (C)take avoidance action by pulling up or push down (D) make rapid above face turn

(B)take avoidance action and make right turn

'(Refer to figure Q )'The depiction below in high-level significant weather chart indicates(如圖A24_FigQ) (A)wind speed (B)temperature (C)altitude

(B)temperature

Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause (A)the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal (B)the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal (C)drag factors so large that sufficient speed can not be obtained for takeoff

(B)the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal

Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence (A)vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll (B)the primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll (C)the greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast

(B)the primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by (A)a defective bearing (B)the oil level being too low (C)operating with an excessively rich mixture

(B)the oil level being too low

If obstructive structures around an air terminal, airfield or navigation aid installation were already in place at the time the prohibition or restriction rulings were promulgated, (A)the obstructive structures must not be removed. (B)the operator of the airport or the airfield shall pay compensation for the relocation or for installing obstruction lights and markings. (C)the requirements are unconstitutional and should not be published. (D)All answers are not correct.

(B)the operator of the airport or the airfield shall pay compensation for the relocation or for installing obstruction lights and markings.

For decision makers, to accept hazard identified and adjust the system to tolerate human error and to reduce the possibility of an occurrence belongs to which level of action (A)the first level of action (B)the second level of action (C)the third level of action (D)the fourth level of action

(B)the second level of action

Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight ? (A)at lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude (B)there is a corresponding indicated airspeed required to every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude (C)an airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in weight will require an increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude

(B)there is a corresponding indicated airspeed required to every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude

Without authorization from CAA, aircraft drops objects from the air, the penalty of the PIC of that aircraft is (A)one years imprisonment (B)three years imprisonment (C)five years imprisonment (D)seven years imprisonment

(B)three years imprisonment

The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon (A)high density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed (B)turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed (C)turbulence which causes an decrease in stall speed

(B)turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed

Aircraft operator shall comply with the requirement that flight crews shall conduct ______ time(S) proficiency checks within 12 month validity of their rating certificate (A)once (B)twice (C)three (D)four

(B)twice

When applying for approval of a type design of any aircraft product, the applicant should submit the application to CAA for approval. An applicant is entitled to a ______ for an aircraft product if his/her application is approved by CAA. (A)airworthiness certificate (B)type certificate (C)manufacturing production certificate

(B)type certificate

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds aer a lifting action and (A)unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei. (B)unstable, moist air. (C)either stable or unstable air.

(B)unstable, moist air.

Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation (A)varies over time as the agonic line shifts (B)varies for different headings of the same aircraft (C)is the same for all aircraft in the same locality

(B)varies for different headings of the same aircraft

Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass ? Deviation (A)varies over time as the agonic line shifts. (B)varise for different headings of the same aircraft. (C)is the same aircraft for all in the same locality.

(B)varise for different headings of the same aircraft

To maintain altitude during a turn, the angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the decrease in the (A)forces opposing the resultant component of drag. (B)vertical component of lift. (C)horizontal component of lift.

(B)vertical component of lift.

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of (A)lenticular ice formation in calm air. (B)very strong turbulence. (C)heavy icing conditions.

(B)very strong turbulence.

Unless approved by CAA, aircraft may not carry or transport (A)signal guns, signal flags, signal lights or dangerous goods (B)weapons, explosives, ammunitions, toxicate gases or other dangerous goods (C)fuel, hydraulic or lubricate oils or other dangerous goods (D)animals

(B)weapons, explosives, ammunitions, toxicate gases or other dangerous goods

Aircraft being reweight shall amend its ________ and manual (A)airworthiness certificate (B)weight and balance sheet (C)registration certificate (D)radio station license

(B)weight and balance sheet

Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the (A)volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder (B)weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder (C)weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor

(B)weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder

Refer to the 300 hPa PROGNOSTIC CHART provided in figure 4,'Please calculate the temperature and wind aloft value of RCTP by interpolation.(如圖A24_Fig4) (A)wind speed 45KT, temperature -30℉ (B)wind speed 45KT, temperature -30℃ (C)wind speed 95KT, temperature -30℉ (D)wind speed 95KT, temperature -30℃

(B)wind speed 45KT, temperature -30℃

A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the (A)wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root. (B)wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip. (C)center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip.

(B)wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip.

A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall at the (A)wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root (B)wing root, with the stall progression toward the wingtip (C)center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip

(B)wing root, with the stall progression toward the wingtip

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read (A)within 4 of the selected radial. (B)within 6 of the selected radial. (C)0 TO, only if u are due south of the VOR.

(B)within 6 of the selected radial.

Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its (A)center of gravity moves forward. (B)elevator trim is adjusted nosedown. (C) center of gravity moves aft.

(C) center of gravity moves aft.

During the time when government declared emergency, flight crew's flying time increased accordingly. The flying time required for 30 consecutive days is (A)unrestricted (B)150 hours (C) 120 hours (D) 100 hours

(C) 120 hours

Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? (A) 0000 through 1000. (B) 7200 and 7500 series. (C) 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

(C) 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations? (A) A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each liferaft. (B)A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver. (C) A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

(C) A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

How does a photoelectric smoke detector operate? (A)A photoelectric smoke detector only warns when smoke is present. (B)A photoelectric smoke detector measures the amount of smoke under a specific set of conditions. (C) A photoelectric smoke detector measures the amount of light available under a specific set of conditions.

(C) A photoelectric smoke detector measures the amount of light available under a specific set of conditions.

Why should synthetic hydraulic fluid be stored in an airtight container? (A)High evaporation rate. (B)Vapor is extremely toxic. (C) Atmospheric moisture contamination.

(C) Atmospheric moisture contamination.

Which hydraulic operation normally uses a double-acting, balanced linear actuator? (A)Brakes. (B)Landing gear. (C) Automatic pilot servo.

(C) Automatic pilot servo.

What causes cell imbalance in a nickel-cadmium battery? (A)Low temperatures. (B) Deep rapid discharges. (C) Constant-potential (voltage) charging.

(C) Constant-potential (voltage) charging.

What does an increase of approximately 125 propeller RPM indicate during shutdown? (A) Idle mixture is correct. (B) Idle mixture is too lean. (C) Idle mixture is too rich.

(C) Idle mixture is too rich.

Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport, at the ETA? (A)Low-Level Prog Chart. (B)Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts. (C) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

(C) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS, which rule applies? (A)The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land. (B)The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. (C) The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.

(C) The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.

Increasing the throttle setting while taxiing with a reciprocating engine will result in (A) a decrease in blade angle. (B) an increase in blade angle. (C) an increase in propeller RPM.

(C) an increase in propeller RPM.

Records of scheduled inspection of aircraft shall (A) be entered onto aircraft record book (B) be entered onto power plant record book (C) be entered onto the above mentioned record books (D) be reported to CAA

(C) be entered onto the above mentioned record books

The term mean aerodynamic chord may be defined as the ? (A)ratio of the average wing chord to its aerodynamic center of pressure. (B)" distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing, measured at the wing root." (C) chord of an imaginary airfoil which has the same aerodynamic characteristics as the actual airfoil.

(C) chord of an imaginary airfoil which has the same aerodynamic characteristics as the actual airfoil.

The purpose of the oil cooler bypass valve is to (A)bypass the oil cooler when there is a blockage. (B) control and limit the lubricating oil pressure. (C) control the flow of oil to the oil cooler according to the temperature and viscosity of the oil.

(C) control the flow of oil to the oil cooler according to the temperature and viscosity of the oil.

The purpose of chines on tires is to (A) increase traction on snow or ice covered runways. (B)reduce the tendency to hydroplane on wet runways. (C) deflect water or slush away from the engine intakes.

(C) deflect water or slush away from the engine intakes.

Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a (A) key to the flight deck door. (B)certificate holder's manual. (C) flashlight in good working order.

(C) flashlight in good working order.

A disadvantage of Skydrol is that (A) it is incompatible with synthetic-base fluid. (B)sustained operations below -40°C should be avoided. (C) it will break down the insulation on some electrical wiring.

(C) it will break down the insulation on some electrical wiring.

When physical certificate of members of flight crew required that correct lenses are needed, they shall (A)must use them while on duty (B) carry with them while on duty but may not use them (C) must use them and have a spare while on duty (D) do as they pleased because there is no building requirement

(C) must use them and have a spare while on duty

The fundamental qualification for an airman is (A)not less than 20 years old (B)one who has at least completed national compulsory education (9 the grade) (C) national of the Republic of China except approved by the Ministry (D) none of the above answers is correct

(C) national of the Republic of China except approved by the Ministry

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the (A) aircraft dispatcher. (B) flight navigator. (C) pilot-in-command.

(C) pilot-in-command.

Alcohol is added to the fluid in a water injection system to (A) increase the octane. (B)provide greater cooling. (C) prevent freezing of the water.

(C) prevent freezing of the water.

A company has an aircraft which is issued cargo airworthiness certificate. In the event it is needed to convert into passenger carrying configuration and install seats. The status of the aircraft is considered to be (A)the aircraft is operating without airworthiness certificate (B)the aircraft is operating without complete documentation (C) the aircraft is operating in violation of airworthiness requirement (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C) the aircraft is operating in violation of airworthiness requirement

The purpose of the propeller synchrophase system is to set (A) all propellers at exactly the same RPM. (B)the propeller blade angles for all propellers in the same relative position. (C) the angular difference in the plane of rotation between the blades of the slave engines and the blades of the master.

(C) the angular difference in the plane of rotation between the blades of the slave engines and the blades of the master.

During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft (A)#2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1 (B)#2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1 (C)#1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2

(C)#1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2

What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet? (A)-15°C. (B)-20°C. (C)-25°C.

(C)-25°C.

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver? (A).At the published DH. (B).At the MDA published or a circling approach. (C).As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

(C).As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

The weather forecast requires an alternate for LUKACHUKAI (GPS RWY 25) ARIZONA. The alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure, which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival, other than (A).GPS or VOR. (B).ILS or GPS. (C).GPS or Loran C.

(C).GPS or Loran C

Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category 11 approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? (A).Radar and RVR. (B).RCLS and REIL. (C).HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

(C).HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

What is the lowest Category IIIA minimum? (A).DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. (B).RVR 1,000 feet. (C).RVR 700 feet,

(C).RVR 700 feet,

Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that (A).the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a. (B).the pilot must review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular receiver. (C).procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur.

(C).procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur.

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should (A).continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured. (B).proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory. (C).select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid.

(C).select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid.

______on special airworthiness certificate shall note its period validity. It may not exceed (A)60 days (B)120 days (C)1 year (D)2 years

(C)1 year

Flight time limitation for standard crew on a mixed domestic and international flight during 24 consecutive hours may not exceed _____ hours (air transport) (A)6 (B)8 (C)10 (D)12

(C)10

Flight time limitation for standard flight crew on international flight during 24 consecutive hours may not exceed _____ hours (air transport) (A)6 (B)8 (C)10 (D)12

(C)10

For standard flight crew, when complete a domestic flight in 24 consecutive hours how many consecutive hours of rest period shall be given (air transport) (A)6 (B)8 (C)10 (D)12

(C)10

A pilot is dispatched as a member of standard crew and is on duty on an international flight. In a period of 24 consecutive hours. The pilot's maximum consecutive flying time may not exceed (A) 6 hours (B) 8 hours (C)10 hours (D) 12 hours

(C)10 hours

Members of flight crew may not fly a total time exceeding ____ hours in a year (A)800 (B)900 (C)1000 (D)1200

(C)1000

Air transport aircraft during flight when its cabin pressure altitude is higher than _____ft. shall be able to supply oxygen and shall have distributing system (A)5000 (B)8000 (C)10000 (D)12000

(C)10000

Cabin pressurized aircraft shall carry sufficient oxygen for all crew members and passengers' use when a flight reaches more than ________ ft and lost cabin pressure. (A)5000 (B)8000 (C)10000 (D)12000

(C)10000

(Refer to figure 27.) What would be the approximate true airspeed and fuel consumption per hour at an altitude of 7,500 feet, using 52 percent power?(如圖A21_Fig27) (A)103 MPH TAS, 7.7 GPH. (B)105 MPH TAS, 6.1 GPH. (C)105 MPH TAS, 6.2 GPH.

(C)105 MPH TAS, 6.2 GPH.

If the airplane is equipped with a battery rated to deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours, what is the ampere-hour rating? (A)90.0 ampere-hour. (B)18.0 ampere-hour. (C)112.5 ampere-hour.

(C)112.5 ampere-hour.

Wingtip bearing change 5 degree ; Time elapsed between bearing change 5 minutes. True airspeed 115kts ; The distance to the station is (A)36NM (B)57.5NM (C)115NM

(C)115NM

"GIVEN: Weight A - 155 pounds at 45 inches aft of datum Weight B - 165 pounds at 145 inches aft of datum Weight C - 95 pounds at 195 inches aft of datum Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?" (A)126.8 inches (B)122.2 inches (C)119.1 inches

(C)119.1 inches

(Refer to Figure 11 .)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond?(如圖A21_Fig11) (A)6 (B)7 (C)12

(C)12

To an airport or a route, a pilot must be current within ____ months before he can exercise as PIC of the flight (A)6 (B)9 (C)12 (D)24

(C)12

A dispatcher must have an observation ride in the type aircraft and on the route for which is his dispatching responsibility, at least once every ________ (A)6 months (B)9 months (C)12 months (D)2 years

(C)12 months

A dispatcher who disrupted work for consecutive ________ must undergo training before resuming dispatching job (A)6 months (B)9 months (C)12 months (D)2 years

(C)12 months

The validity of an aircraft airworthiness certificate is (A)24 months (B)48 months (C)12 months (D)36 months

(C)12 months

For fixed aircraft flight crew of air transport company, within acceptable duty time, except training flights, the number of take-off and landing on domestic flight may not exceed (A)8 times (B)10 times (C)12 times (D)14 times

(C)12 times

At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes? (A)15,000 feet. (B)14,000 feet. (C)13,000 feet.

(C)13,000 feet.

Duty time limitation for standard flight crew on international flight is ____ consecutive hours (air transport) (A)10 (B)12 (C)14 (D)16

(C)14

the CG of aircraft is located at LEMAC 52 inches and TEMAC 98 inches, determine the length of MAC. (A)46 inches (B)98 inches (C)150 inches (D)52 inches

(C)150 inches

(Refer to Figure 11 .)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?(如圖A21_Fig11) (A)10 (B)14 (C)16

(C)16

"Given: MZFW=130000, MLDW=140000, MTOW=170000, DOW=90000, TIF=20000, TOF=30000, Payload=40000, what is the take off weight for this flight?" (A)120000 (B)140000 (C)160000

(C)160000

"GIVEN: MZFW=130634, MLDW=145149, MTOW=170000, DOW=89886, TIF=20000, TOF=40000, what is the allowed weight for take off? (A)160634 (B)170000 (C)165149

(C)165149

(Refer to Figure 11 .)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond?(如圖A21_Fig11) (A)4 (B)15 (C)17

(C)17

(Refer to figure 31 on page 12-35.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010 at 18 knots, what is the crosswind component for RWY 08 landing ?(如圖A21_Fig31) (A)7 knots. (B)15 knots. (C)17 knots.

(C)17 knots.

For reinforced flight crew, in 24 consecutive hours, they have flown more than 10 hours but less than 12 hours, how many consecutive hours of rest period shall be given (air transport) (A)14 (B)16 (C)18 (D)20

(C)18

TO track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to (A)360 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. (B)180 and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. (C)180 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

(C)180 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

(Refer to Figure 11 .)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?(如圖A21_Fig11) (A)9 (B)13 (C)19

(C)19

Autolanding was made possible in (A)1940s (B)1950s (C)1960s (D)1970s

(C)1960s

(Refer to figure25.) Approximately how much fuel would be consumed when climbing at 75 percent power for 7 minutes ?(如圖A21_Fig25) (A)1.82 gallons. (B)1.97 gallons. (C)2.15 gallons

(C)2.15 gallons

Within the controlled air space, aircraft may not conduct VFR flight above which of the following flight levels (A)150 (B)180 (C)200 (D)290

(C)200

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is (A)2000 feet over all terrain (B)3000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2000 feet over terrain elsewhere (C)2000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

(C)2000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

For double flight crew, in 24 consecutive hours they have flown more than 16 hours, at the end of the mission how many consecutive hours of rest period shall be given (air transport) (A)16 (B)18 (C)22 (D)24

(C)22

Aircraft maintenance personnel shall get a consecutive _______ hours rest within 7 consecutive days of duty, except when carrying out emergency duties. (A)18 (B)22 (C)24 (D)28

(C)24

An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding (A)30 days (B)12 calendar months (C)24 calendar months

(C)24 calendar months

(Refer to Fig. 33) Using a maximum rate of climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 6,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight.....3,200 lb Airport pressure altitude.....2,000 ft Temperature.....27C(如圖A21_Fig33) (A)10 pounds. (B)14 pounds. (C)24 pounds.

(C)24 pounds.

(Refer to figure 16) If the aircraft continues its present heading as shown in instrument group 3, what will be the relative bearing when the aircraft reaches the magnetic bearing of 030 FROM the NDB?(如圖A21_Fig16) (A)030。 (B)060。 (C)240。

(C)240。

"What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 48 x 48 inches? Floor load limit: 159 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight: 50 lbs Tiedown devices: 30 lbs" (A)"1,948.0 pounds" (B)2624.0 pounds (C)2464.0 pounds

(C)2464.0 pounds

The ADF is tuned to a nondirectional radiobeacon and the relative bearing change from 085 to 090 in 2 minutes of elapsed time. The time en route to that station would be (A)15min. (B)18min. (C)24min.

(C)24min

Type I and type II flight data recorders shall be able to retain the last _____ hours flight data (A)20 (B)22 (C)25 (D)27

(C)25

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least (A)10 knots. (B)15 knots. (C)25 knots.

(C)25 knots.

What is the approximate nominal voltage rating of a fully charged nickel-cadmium battery containing twenty cells? (A) 12 volts. (B) 20 volts. (C)25 volts.

(C)25 volts.

Air transport cabin pressurized aircraft shall be equipped with a warning system to alert flight crew of cabin depressurization when the aircraft reached an altitude higher than ________ft. (A)15000 (B)20000 (C)25000 (D)30000

(C)25000

According the METAR: RCTP 120230Z 25017KT 8000 -SHRA FEW012 BKN025 OVC090 27/24 Q0995 TEMPO 1500 SHRA= The Ceiling at 12/0230Z is: (A)1200ft (B)9000ft (C)2500ft

(C)2500ft

"An aircraft is loaded with a ramp weight of 3,650 pounds and having a CG of 96.0, approximately how much baggage would have to be moved from the rear baggage area at station 180 to the forward baggage area at station 40 in order to move the CG to 95.0?" (A)52.14 pounds. (B)104.29 pounds. (C)26.07 pounds.

(C)26.07 pounds.

The magnetic heading is 315 and the ADF shows a relative bearing of 140 .The magnetic bearing FROM the radiobeacon would be (A)095。 (B)175。 (C)275。

(C)275。

According the METAR: RCTP 120230Z 25017KT 8000 -SHRA FEW012 BKN025 OVC090 27/24 Q0995= The Temperature at 12/0230Z is: (A)24°C (B)27°F (C)27°C

(C)27°C

A PIC, in the last 90 days, shall have made at least ____ take off(s) and landing(s on the route in a type of aircraft. The air transport operator may dispatch the pilot to exercise as PIC (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(C)3

Air transport operator shall keep records of fuel and oil consumption for ______ months (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(C)3

Aircraft operator shall keep the latest _____ months records of fuel and oil consumption (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(C)3

Aircraft with a seating capacity of 151-250 shall be equipped with how many first aid kits (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(C)3

An air transport aircraft with a seating capacity of 158, shall carry how many approved fire extinguisher (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(C)3

An aircraft with seating capacity of 61-200 shall be equipped with ___ portable fire extinguisher (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(C)3

First officer who has not performed on a type of aircraft at least _____ take off(s) and landing(s) in the last 90days, the air transport operator may not dispatch the F/O to perform take-off or land on the type of aircraft as F/O (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(C)3

Manager-general CEO, employee of aircraft manufacturing company, maintenance shop, engage in manufacturing, assembling or maintenance unauthorized aircraft equipment, parts and components(bogus) to conduct business. The penalty for which is ______ year or less imprisonment and a fine up to NT$1,000,000 (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(C)3

The pilot shall immediately notify ATC when he discovers that estimated time of the flight over next reporting point is _____ minutes differs from the planned time (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)5

(C)3

(Refer to Figure 4.) What increase in load factor would take place if the angle of bank were increased from 60° to 80°?(如圖A22_Fig4) (A)3 Gs. (B)3.5 Gs. (C)3.7 Gs

(C)3.7 Gs

Aircraft shall carry sufficient oxygen for the use of all members of crew and 1/10 of passengers for ______ minutes at the cabin pressure altitude of 10,000 ft to 13,000 ft. (A)10 (B)20 (C)30 (D)40

(C)30

CVR shall keep the last _____ minutes or more of the recorded information (A)20 (B)25 (C)30 (D)50

(C)30

For initial application for aircraft airworthiness certificate, the owner or operator shall present application better ________days in advance to CAA (A)10 (B)20 (C)30 (D)40

(C)30

When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR? Within the preceding (A)30 days or 30 hours of flight time (B)10 days or 10 hours of flight time (C)30 days

(C)30 days

Accident or incident causing airman's technical negligence or error, for which the penalty is a fine of NT$60,000 up to NT$_________ (A)100,000 (B)200,000 (C)300,000 (D)400,000

(C)300,000

(Refer to figure 19.) If the airplane continues to fly on magnetic heading as illustrated, what magnetic bearing FROM the station would be intercepted at a 35 angle?(如圖A21_FIG19) (A)090。 (B)270。 (C)305。

(C)305。

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 60 x 48 inches? Floor load limit: 159 lbs/sq ft, Pallet weight: 63 lbs, Tiedown devices: 37 lbs. (A)2080.0 pounds. (B)2800.0 pounds. (C)3080.0 pounds

(C)3080.0 pounds

The ADF is tuned to a nondirectional radiobeacon and the relative bearing change from 270 to 265 in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time. The time en route to that beacon would be (A)9min. (B)18min (C)30min.

(C)30min.

(Refer to figure 19.) If the airplane continues to fly on magnetic heading as illustrated, what magnetic bearing FROM the station would be intercepted at a 30 angle?(如圖A21_FIG19) (A)090。 (B)270。 (C)310。

(C)310。

Dispatched as standard flight crew, in consecutive 7 days, their flying time may not exceed ________ hours (air transport) (A)26 (B)30 (C)32 (D)35

(C)32

The ADF is tuned to radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040 and the relative bearing is 290, the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be (A)150。 (B)285。 (C)330。

(C)330。

With a TAS of 115 knots, the relative bearing on an ADF changes from 090 to 095 in 1.5 minutes of elapsed time. The distance to the station would be (A)12.5 NM (B)24.5NM (C)34.5NM

(C)34.5NM

(Refer to figure 26.) Using a normal climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 10,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight.....3,500 lb Airport pressure altitude.....4,000 ft Temperature.....21C(如圖A21_FIG26) (A)23 pounds. (B)31 pounds. (C)35 pounds.

(C)35 pounds.

When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centerd and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the (A)090 radial. (B)180 radial. (C)360 radial.

(C)360 radial.

(Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument shows the aircraft in a position where a 180 turn would result in the aircraft intercepting the 150 radial at a 30 angle?(如圖A21_Fig20) (A)2 (B)3 (C)4

(C)4

When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to (A)5 NM, up to and including 3000 feet AGL (B)5 NM, up to and including 3000 feet AGL (C)4 NM, up to and including 2500 feet AGL

(C)4 NM, up to and including 2500 feet AGL

(Refer to Fig. 33) Using a maximum rate of climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 10,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight.....3,800 lb Airport pressure altitude.....4,000 ft Temperature.....30C(如圖A21_Fig33) (A)28 pounds. (B)35 pounds. (C)40 pounds.

(C)40 pounds.

(Refer to figure 30.) Using a normal climb, how much fuel would be required from engine start to climb to a 12,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight.....3,700 lb Airport pressure altitude.....4,000 ft Temperature.....21C(如圖A21_Fig30) (A)30 pounds. (B)37 pounds. (C)46 pounds.

(C)46 pounds.

Caculate the TOW : OW=3800kg ZFW=4200kg TOF=700kg Trip Fuel= 500kg (A)4700kg (B)5100kg (C)4900kg

(C)4900kg

(Refer to Fig. 28) pressure altitude: 18,000 ft; Temperature: -1 deg. C; Power: 2200 RPM--20"MP; Recommended lean mixture usable fuel: 344 lb; What is the approximate flight time available under the given condition (Allow for VFR day fuel reserve)?(如圖A21_Fig28) (A)4 hours 50 minutes. (B)5 hours 20 minutes. (C)5 hours 59 minutes.

(C)5 hours 59 minutes.

(Refer to figure 30.) Using a normal climb, how much time would be required to climb to a 8,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight.....3,400 lb Airport pressure altitude.....4,000 ft Temperature.....14C(如圖A21_Fig30) (A)4.8 minutes. (B)5 minutes. (C)5.5 minutes.

(C)5.5 minutes.

"GIVEN: Total Weight 3037 lb CG location Station 56.6 Fuel consumption 12.7 gal/hr Fuel CG Station 68.0 After I hour 45 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station" (A)56.58 (B)55.88 (C)56.08

(C)56.08

Fixed wing aircraft first airworthiness certificated after Jan. 1,1987 with a maximum take off weight over ______ kg, shall be equipped with cockpit voice recorder (A)3200 (B)4500 (C)5700 (D)6800

(C)5700

(Refer to figure 26.) Using a normal climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 12,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight.....3,800 lb Airport pressure altitude.....4,000 ft Temperature.....26C(如圖A21_FIG26) (A)46 pounds. (B)51 pounds. (C)58 pounds.

(C)58 pounds.

The relative bearing on ADF changes from 265 to 260 in 2 minutes of elapsed time. If the groundspeed is 145 knots, the distance to that station would be (A)26NM (B)37NM (C)58NM

(C)58NM

An air transport aircraft with a seating capacity of 410, shall carry how many approved fire extinguisher (A)2 (B)4 (C)6 (D)8

(C)6

Flight and maintenance records of an aircraft shall be kept for _____ months. (A)2 (B)4 (C)6 (D)8

(C)6

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70°F and the dewpoint is 48°F? (A)4,000 feet MSL. (B)5,000 feet MSL. (C)6,000 feet MSL.

(C)6,000 feet MSL.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as (A) 8,000 ft/min. (B) 7,000 ft/min. (C)6,000 ft/min.

(C)6,000 ft/min.

The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is (A)30 minutes (B)45 minutes (C)60 minutes

(C)60 minutes

"GIVEN: Total Weight 3037 lb CG location Station 66.6 Fuel consumption 12.7 gal/hr Fuel CG Station 68.0 After I hour 45 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station" (A)64.86 (B)65.86 (C)66.54

(C)66.54

Entries onto aircraft history book shall be done within _______ days after completion of works (A)3 (B)5 (C)7 (D)9

(C)7

"GIVEN: Total Weight 3900 lb CG location Station 70 Fuel consumption 13.7 GPH Fuel CG Station 68.0 After 1 hour 30 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station" (A)71.13 (B)72.12 (C)70.07

(C)70.07

An operator shall ensure that information on faults, malfunctions, defects and other occurrences which cause or might cause adverse effects on the continuing airworthiness of its aircraft be reported to the CAA within ________ hours. (A)24 (B)48 (C)72 (D)96

(C)72

According the METAR: RCTP 120230Z 25017KT 8000 -SHRA FEW012 BKN025 OVC090 27/24 Q0995 TEMPO 1500 SHRA= The visibility at 12/0230Z is: (A)1500m (B)1500ft (C)8000m

(C)8000m

(Refer to figure 27.) If the cruise altitude is 7,500 feet, using 64 percent power at 2,500 RPM, what would be the range with 48 gallons of usable fuel?(如圖A21_Fig27) (A)635 miles. (B)645 miles. (C)810 miles.

(C)810 miles.

(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2 Gs if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?(如圖A22_Fig4) (A)66 knots. (B)74 knots. (C)84 knots.

(C)84 knots.

"Given: MTOW=283 tons, MLDW=213 tons, MZFW=204 tons, DOW=114 tons, Trip fuel = 75 tons, take off fuel=85 tons, , what is the maximum allowable payload for this flight?" (A)90 tons (B)89 tons (C)84 tons

(C)84 tons 114+85=199 283-199=84

Aircraft grounded or stored more than ______ days shack treated with corrosion prevention and maintenance measures, and made duly entries onto its history book (A)30 (B)60 (C)90 (D)120

(C)90

Aircraft stopped operating over __________consecutives days became unairworthy (A)45 (B)60 (C)90 (D)120

(C)90

Export airworthiness certificate is valid for ________days upon its issuance and nullifies at expiry (A)30 (B)60 (C)90 (D)120

(C)90

"An aircraft is loaded to a gross weight of 4,800 pounds with three pieces of luggage in the rear baggage compartment. The CG is located 96 inches aft of datum, which is 1 inch aft of limits. If luggage which weights 90 pounds is moved from the rear baggage compartment (145 inches aft of datum) to the front compartment (45 inches aft of datum), what is the new CG?" (A)96.13 inches aft of datum. (B)95.13 inches aft of datum. (C)94.13 inches aft of datum.

(C)94.13 inches aft of datum.

Required navigation performance (RNP) refers to an precision navigation to maintain its location in a specific airspace up to _____ of accuracy in a certain time frame. (A)80% (B)90% (C)95% (D)100%

(C)95%

Which is true with respect to a high- or low- pressure system? (A)A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. (B)A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air. (C)A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

(C)A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

What will neutralize the electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery? (A)Soap and water. (B)Bicarbonate of soda. (C)A solution of boric acid, vinegar, lemon juice, or some other mildly acid solution.

(C)A solution of boric acid, vinegar, lemon juice, or some other mildly acid solution.

Which components make up the basic air-cycle cooling system? (A)Heaters, coolers, and compressor. (B)Ram air source, compressors, and engine bleeds. (C)A source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine.

(C)A source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine.

What type of In-flight Weather Advisories provides an en route pilot with information regarding the possibility of moderate icing, moderate turbulence, winds of 30 knots or more at the surface and extensive mountain obscurement? (A)Convective SIGMETs and SIGMETs (B)Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW) and SIGMETs (C)AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA)

(C)AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA)

What tread wear will occur if tires are over-inflated? (A)Uniform wear at a slow rate. (B)Tread worn away more on the shoulders than in the center. (C)Accelerated centerline wear while leaving rubber on the shoulder.

(C)Accelerated centerline wear while leaving rubber on the shoulder.

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist? (A)Radiation fog and ice fog. (B)Steam fog and ground fog. (C)Advection fog and upslope fog.

(C)Advection fog and upslope fog.

If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take? (A)Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. (B)Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC. (C)Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

(C)Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used

When taxi during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron position should be used? (A)Neutral (B)Aileron up on the side which the wind is blowing (C)Aileron down on the side which the wind is blowing

(C)Aileron down on the side which the wind is blowing

When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used? (A)neutral. (B)Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. (C)Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

(C)Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? (A)Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta (B)Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D and E airspace are shown in magenta (C)Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D and E airspace are shown in blue

(C)Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D and E airspace are shown in blue

In order to maintain continuous airworthiness of aircraft, when CAA finds that any penitential unsafe indications on airframe, power plant, propeller or various parts, components, and similar design, CAA may issue ______ and require inspection, repair, modification, replacement or restriction of operation on the subject product (A)Engineering directive (B)Operating directive (C)Airworthiness directive (D)Flight safety directive

(C)Airworthiness directive

SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft? (A)Small aircraft only. (B)Large aircraft only. (C)All aircraft.

(C)All aircraft.

Air transport operator's flight operations director shall have which of the following qualifications (A)An ALTP license and rating holder, or has had been a holder, and has no less than three years experience as PIC in small aircraft (B)An ALTP license and rating holder, or has had been a holder, and has no less than one year experience as PIC in large aircraft (C)An ALTP license and rating holder, or has had been a holder, and has no less than three years experience as PIC in large aircraft (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)An ALTP license and rating holder, or has had been a holder, and has no less than three years experience as PIC in large aircraft

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? (A) A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. (B) Survival kit for each passenger (C)An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

(C)An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter

Which of the following situations will most likely cause the engine to backfire through the induction system when operated at low RPM? (A)A clogged air inlet. (B)The idle speed set too low. (C)An excessively lean mixture setting.

(C)An excessively lean mixture setting.

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? (A)ARINC. (B)Any FSS. (C)Appropriate dispatch office.

(C)Appropriate dispatch office.

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver? (A)At the published DH. (B)At the MDA published or a circling approach. (C)As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

(C)As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance? (A)As air density decreases, thrust increases (B)As temperature increases, thrust increases (C)As temperature increases, thrust decreases

(C)As temperature increases, thrust decreases

Where does wind shear occur? (A)Only at higher altitudes. (B)Only at lower altitudes (C)At all altitudes, in all directions.

(C)At all altitudes, in all directions.

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach? (A)At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible. (B)When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. (C)At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

(C)At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

Which is a reason for heating cockpit windows? (A) Deicing. (B)Prevent thermal shock. (C)Bird-impact protection.

(C)Bird-impact protection.

(Figure 1) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?(如圖A23_Fig1) (A)Top red (B)Middle yellow (C)Bottom yellow

(C)Bottom yellow

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane? (A)A- A large airplane. (B)B- A turbojet airplane. (C)C- An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

(C)C- An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required? (A)A- Descend below Class A airspace. (B)B- Advise dispatch via company frequency. (C)C- Notify ATC immediately.

(C)C- Notify ATC immediately.

Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have (A)A- yellow inscriptions on a black background. (B)B- white inscriptions on a black background. (C)C- black inscriptions on a yellow background.

(C)C- black inscriptions on a yellow background.

Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored (A)A- within easy reach of each passenger. (B)B- under each occupant seat. (C)C- within easy reach of each seated occupant.

(C)C- within easy reach of each seated occupant.

The range between FWD LIMIT and AFT LIMIT is called : (A)M.A.C. (B)chord line. (C)C.G range

(C)C.G range

Aircraft maintenance work shall follow the technical manual and related documents Republished by the manufacture or _______ approved procedures (A)Owner (B)operator (C)CAA (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(C)CAA

Aircraft operator, because of special circumstances, can not comply with Airworthiness Directive withiness required time frame, may request _______- for an extension. (A)FAA (B)JAA (C)CAA (D)DGAC

(C)CAA

Whose responsibility is it to develop airport noise abatement and prevention program (A)Environment Protection Administration (B)CAA (C)CAA in coordination with EPA (D)Civil Aeronautics Medical Center

(C)CAA in coordination with EPA

Which component gives an indication of the rate of change in cabin altitude and what unit of measurement is used? (A)Pressure controller, PSI. (B)Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, PSI. (C)Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, feet per minute.

(C)Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, feet per minute.

When a dashed blue circles surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart it will depict the boundary of (A)Special VFR airspace (B)Class B airspace (C)Class D airspace

(C)Class D airspace

Why should hydraulic fluid be filtered? (A)Water in the fluid could freeze. (B) It assures a positive feed of foam free fluid to the hydraulic pump inlet. (C)Contaminants may damage the seals and cylinder walls causing internal leakage.

(C)Contaminants may damage the seals and cylinder walls causing internal leakage.

Which force, in the North Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars? (A)Centrifugal (B)Pressure gradient (C)Coriolis

(C)Coriolis

If you make a miastake in transmission, you should use the phrase: (A)Sorry (B)I say again (C)Correction (D)Correct

(C)Correction

The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is: (A)MAYDAY (B)URGENCY (C)DISTRESS (D)PAN PAN

(C)DISTRESS

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance 'cleared as filed' include? (A)Clearance limit and en route altitude. (B)Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. (C)Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.

(C)Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.

Which principle operates a hydraulic fuse? (A)Heat. (B) Electrical. (C)Differential pressure.

(C)Differential pressure.

Which type of oxygen system is the flight deck equipped with normally? (A) Constant-flow. (B)Phase dilution. (C)Diluter-demand.

(C)Diluter-demand.

The frequency on which ATIS can be found is (A)Discrete VHF only (B)VOR frequency only (C)Discrete VHF or VOR frequency (D)any ATC frequency

(C)Discrete VHF or VOR frequency

Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an MOA? (A)Military controllers. (B)ATC controllers. (C)Each pilot.

(C)Each pilot.

What is a purpose of enclosing wires or electrical units in metal? (A) Eliminates ground wires. (B)Prevents the buildup of static discharges. (C)Eliminates interference with radio reception.

(C)Eliminates interference with radio reception.

Which publication includes information on operations in the NORTH ATLANTIC MINIMUN NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE SPECIFICATIONS AIRSPACE? (A)FAR PART 121. (B)ICAO ANNEX 1, CHAPTER 2. (C)FAR PART 91

(C)FAR PART 91

Refer to the 300 hPa PROGNOSTIC CHART provided in figure 4, which flight level will be related to this figure in general?(如圖A24_Fig4) (A)FL 400 (B)FL 350 (C)FL 300 (D)FL250

(C)FL 300

(Refer to figure 1)' , the height of the cloud at S10E110 is(如圖A24_Fig1) (A)FL250 (B)SEA level-FL320 (C)FL530

(C)FL530

What action should be taken in case of eye contact with any hydraulic fluid? (A)Apply an aesthetic eye dressing. (B)Flush thoroughly with soap and water. (C)Flush with water and consult a doctor.

(C)Flush with water and consult a doctor.

If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? (A)Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. (B)Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. (C)Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

(C)Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

If the temperature/ dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62oF, what type of weather is most likely to develop? (A)Freezing precipitation. (B)Thunderstorms. (C)Fog or low clouds.

(C)Fog or low clouds.

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate? (A)Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures. (B)Freezing drizzle. (C)Freezing rain.

(C)Freezing rain.

What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut? (A) Uplock switch. (B)Downlock switch. (C)Ground safety switch.

(C)Ground safety switch.

When flying on a SW headind at 3500 feet, you would report your heading and level as: (A)HEADING 045 AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED (B)HEADING 225 AT THRITY FIVE HUNDRED (C)HEADING 225 AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED (D)SOUTHWEST HEADING AT THREE FIVE ZERO ZERO

(C)HEADING 225 AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED

What are the four families of clouds? (A)Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus. (B)Clouds formed by updrafts, front, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air. (C)Height, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

(C)Height, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

What may cause engine detonation? (A)High octane fuel. (B)Low manifold pressure. (C)High intake air temperatures.

(C)High intake air temperatures.

Which flight conditions will result in the largest propeller blade angle? (A)Initial climb-out. (B)Approach to landing. (C)High-speed, high-altitude cruise flight.

(C)High-speed, high-altitude cruise flight.

What is an advantage of using 115 volts, 400-Hz alternating current? (A)The AC voltage may be changed easily by the use of rectifiers which reduces wire size and weight. (B) Inductive reactance at high frequency increases current and more efficient power transmission. (C)High-voltage AC motors are smaller and lighter than equivalent DC-powered motors.

(C)High-voltage AC motors are smaller and lighter than equivalent DC-powered motors.

What initial action is taken to unfeather a Hamilton-Standard Hydromatic propeller? (A) Place the aircraft in a shallow dive to start the propeller windmilling. (B)Turn the autofeather system off and place the propeller lever to the full forward position. (C)Hold the feather button in until the propeller starts windmilling, then release for restart.

(C)Hold the feather button in until the propeller starts windmilling, then release for restart.

Multi-turbo engine fixed wing aircraft first airworthiness certificated after Jan 1, 1990 and with a maximum take off weight of 5,700 kg or less, shall be equipped with ______ type flight data recorder (A)I (B)II (C)IIA (D)III

(C)IIA

Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? (A)When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. (B)If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. (C)If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

(C)If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? (A)When cleared for an IFR approach. (B)When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. (C)In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

(C)In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

(Refer to Figure 1.)Which is true regarding aerodynamic drag?(如圖A22_Fig1) (A)Induced drag is created entirely by air resistance. (B)All aerodynamic drag is created entirely by the production of lift. (C)Induced drag is a by-product of lift and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.

(C)Induced drag is a by-product of lift and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.

What is the sequence of events for a reciprocating engine to convert chemical to mechanical energy? (A)Ignition, compression, power, and exhaust. (B)Compression, ignition, intake, power, and exhaust. (C)Intake, compression, ignition, power, and exhaust.

(C)Intake, compression, ignition, power, and exhaust.

With respect to advection fog, which statement is true? (A)It is slow to develop, and dissipates quite rapidly. (B)It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak. (C)It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.

(C)It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear? (A)It is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence. (B)The Coriolis phenomenon in both high- and low level air masses is the principal generating force. (C)It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low-level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.

(C)It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low-level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.

What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments? (A)It's more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators (B)It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators (C)It's backup in case of vacuum system failure

(C)It's backup in case of vacuum system failure

How are airplane ac generators rated? (A) Volts. (B)Kilowatts (KW). (C)Kilovolt-amps (KVA).

(C)Kilovolt-amps (KVA).

which of the following description is FALSE (A)ZFW=DOW+Payload (B)TOW=ZFW+T/O fuel (C)LDW=TOW-T/O fuel

(C)LDW=TOW-T/O fuel

A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the (A)right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis. (B)left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis. (C)Left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

(C)Left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

At a give airspeed, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift and drag of a glider? (A)Lift and drag will decrease. (B)Lift will increase but drag will decrease. (C)Lift and drag will increase.

(C)Lift and drag will increase.

If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers? (A)Limited acrobatics, excluding spins (B)Any maneuver except acrobatics or spins (C)Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved)

(C)Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved)

In case of emergency, air transport operators shall be subjected to the direction of ________ carrying out transportation missions (A)Ministry of National Defense (B)The Presidential Office (C)Ministry of Transportation and Communications (D)Ministry of Interior

(C)Ministry of Transportation and Communications

How should a pilot describe braking action? (A)00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. (B)Zero-zero, fifty-fifty or normal. (C)Nil, poor, fair, or good.

(C)Nil, poor, fair, or good.

Air transport operator's quality control manager shall have which of the following qualifications (A)No less than one year experience of maintenance work in transport company or rated aircraft maintenance shop on transport category aircraft, and no less than one year experience as maintenance inspector (B)No less than two years experience of maintenance work in transport company or rated aircraft maintenance shop on transport category aircraft, and no less than one year experience as maintenance inspector (C)No less than 3 years experience of maintenance work in transport company or rated aircraft maintenance shop on transport category aircraft, and no less than one year experience as maintenance inspector (D)The other answers are wrong.

(C)No less than 3 years experience of maintenance work in transport company or rated aircraft maintenance shop on transport category aircraft, and no less than one year experience as maintenance inspector

While taxing on the parking ramp, the landing gear, wheel, and tire are damaged by striking ground equipment. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830? (A)An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office (B)A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field office within 7 days (C)No notification or report is required

(C)No notification or report is required

Where should the chines be located for a dual nosewheel installation? (A)One on each side of the tires. (B)On the inside of the tires only. (C)On the outside of the tires only.

(C)On the outside of the tires only.

Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance? (A)One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed. (B)One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed. (C)One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.

(C)One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.

Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight? (A) Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a deviation from FARs. (B)Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting ARTCC. (C)Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.

(C)Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace

While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes? (A)Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. (B)When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. (C)Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

(C)Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? (A)Tabs. (B)Flaps. (C)Outboard ailerons.

(C)Outboard ailerons

Of the following, turbulence associated with thunderstorms? (A)outside the clouds, shear turbulence can be encountered 50 miles laterally from a severe storm. (B)Shear turbulence is encountered only inside cumulonimbus clouds or within a 5-mile radius of them. (C)Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm.

(C)Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm.

Readability 5 means that your transmission is : (A)Readable now and then (B)Readable (C)Perfectly readable (D)Unreadable

(C)Perfectly readable

What is the purpose of a fuse-type current limiter? (A) Prevent overloads in low power circuits. (B)Fast blow design prevents damage to sensitive circuits or equipment. (C)Permit short periods of overload before the fuse link melts and breaks the circuit.

(C)Permit short periods of overload before the fuse link melts and breaks the circuit.

Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? (A)Pilot in command. (B)Dispatcher. (C)Person who declares the emergency.

(C)Person who declares the emergency.

Who has the final authority to accept or decline any "land and hold should" (LAHSO clearance? (A)66 kts (B)Airplane owner/operator (C)Pilot-in-Command

(C)Pilot-in-Command

Who has the final authority to accept or decline any 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance? (A)Airplane owner/operator (B)ATC tower controller (C)Pilot-in-command

(C)Pilot-in-command

(Refer to Figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds.(如 圖A22_Fig2) (A)Power-off stalls occur at higher airspeeds with the gear and flaps down. (B)In a 60° bank the airplane stalls at a lower airspeed with the gear up. (C)Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds in shallower banks.

(C)Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds in shallower banks.

What is the difference between a hydraulic sequence valve and a priority valve? (A) Sequence valves are electrically actuated. (B) Mechanical contact opens a priority valve. (C)Priority valves are opened by hydraulic pressure.

(C)Priority valves are opened by hydraulic pressure

Which is a feature of the propeller feathering system? (A)Throttle levers may be in any position for the autofeather system to operate. (B)Retarding a throttle to idle on takeoff will cause the autofeather system to operate. (C)Propeller blades are held in the full feather position by aerodynamic forces.

(C)Propeller blades are held in the full feather position by aerodynamic forces.

(Refer to figure 10 below.) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?(如圖A21_Fig10) (A)R-175. (B)R-165. (C)R-345.

(C)R-345.

If a controller would like to say to you "Pass me the following information", he would use the expression: (A)READBACK (B)REQUEST (C)REPORT (D)SAY AGAIN

(C)REPORT

What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA? METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42 (A)The wind is variable from 290配o 360?. (B)Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31. (C)Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.

(C)Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.

The message "READABILITY3" means: (A)Readable now and then (B)Readble (C)Readable but with difficulty (D)Unreadable

(C)Readable but with difficulty

A characteristic of the stratosphere is (A)An overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude. (B)A relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet (C)Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

(C)Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? (A)Same direction. (B) Opposite direction. (C)Remains fixed for all positions.

(C)Remains fixed for all positions.

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000? (A)Immediately climb to 9,000. (B)Report climbing to 9,000. (C)Report maintaining 8,000.

(C)Report maintaining 8,000.

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? (A)Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. (B)If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. (C)Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

(C)Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say: (A)WORDS TWICE (B)REPEAT MESSAGE (C)SAY AGAIN (D)SPEAK SLOWER

(C)SAY AGAIN (D)SPEAK SLOWER

The abbreviation SSR stands for: (A)Single System Receiver (B)Sector Safety Range (C)Secondary Surveillance Radar

(C)Secondary Surveillance Radar

Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence? (A)Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed (B)Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude (C)Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude

(C)Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude

What is the maximum forecast period for AIRMETS? (A)Two hours. (B)Four hours. (C)Six hours.

(C)Six hours.

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog? (A)Rain-induced fog. (B)Upslope fog. (C)Steam fog.

(C)Steam fog.

What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope? (A)Stratified clouds (B)Vertical clouds with increasing height. (C)Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

(C)Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

What wind conditions would you anticipate when squalls are reported at your destination? (A)Rapid variations in wind speed of 15 knots or more between peaks and lulls (B)Peaks gusts of at least 35 knots combined with a change in wind direction of 30? or more (C)Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots to a sustained speed of 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute

(C)Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots to a sustained speed of 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute

What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm? (A)A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture. (B)A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate. (C)Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

(C)Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category 11 instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL? (A)RCLS and REIL. (B)Radar and RVR. (C)TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

(C)TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

ZFW + TOF =? (A)DOW (B)Landing weight (C)TOW (D)Aircraft gross weight

(C)TOW

Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport at the ETA? (A)Low-level Prog Chart. (B)Radar Summary and weather depiction charts. (C)Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

(C)Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? (A)The IFR alternate minimums (B)2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA. (C)The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

(C)The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway? (A)Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. (B)Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. (C)The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

(C)The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude increases? (A)The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases (B)The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel increases (C)The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant

(C)The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant

What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted? (A)The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced (B)When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight. (C)The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

(C)The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

What is the effect on the fuel/air mixture when flying from a cold to a warm area at a constant altitude without automatic mixture control? (A) The engine is not capable of producing as much power due to the increase in air density. (B)The engine is capable of producing more power due to a greater volume of air which is available due to heat expansion. (C)The engine is not capable of producing as much power due to a decrease in air density which causes a richer mixture.

(C)The engine is not capable of producing as much power due to a decrease in air density which causes a richer mixture.

What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL? (A)Oxygen must be available for the flight crew (B)Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon (C)The flight crew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen

(C)The flight crew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen

On what frequency do you transmit your first MAYDAY call? (A)121.5 MHz (B)The frequency of the nearest radar station (C)The frequency in use (D)The frequency of the nearest FIS

(C)The frequency in use

What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable? (A) A test signal, 'TESTING,' is sent every 30 seconds. (B)Identifier is preceded by 'M' and an intermittent 'OFF' flag would appear. (C)The identifier would be removed.

(C)The identifier would be removed.

Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator? (A)The never-exceed speed (B)The power-off stall speed (C)The maneuvering speed

(C)The maneuvering speed

Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator? (A)The never-exceed speed (B)The power-off stall speed (C)The maneuvering speed

(C)The maneuvering speed

Which statement is correct when applying liquid rain repellent? (A) Begin application as soon as rain begins, to form a barrier between the rain and the windshield. (B) Apply rain repellent first, then activate the windshield wipers to spread the repellent. (C)The number of times the repellent is applied is determined by the intensity of the rain.

(C)The number of times the repellent is applied is determined by the intensity of the rain.

Air transport aircraft shall have break in areas marked on the fuselage to facilitate emergency personnel's rescue efforts. The areas shall be marked with ___ colors 9㎝ × 3㎝ strips (A)red (B)yellow (C)The ohter answers are correct. (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)The ohter answers are correct.

Air transport operator, when preparing on operating flight plan according to IFR, it is required that there shall be at least one alternate destination airport, which of following is exception (A)it is forecasted one hour before and one hour after ETA, the weather condition at the airport would be VFR (B)the destination is located in a remote area and there is no suitable alternate (C)The ohter answers are correct. (D)The other answers are wrong.

(C)The ohter answers are correct.

The manager (director) of flight safety shall have a thorough knowledge of related hand books and civil aviation regulations, (A)in addition he must have received safety management training, either in country or out of country, and is awarded a diploma (B)in addition he must have had at least three year experience of working in the field of flight safety, flight operations, or aircraft maintenance (C)The ohter answers are correct. (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following conditions is considered on aircraft is not airworthy (A)the PIC finds the aircraft is not airworthy (B)CAA inspector considers the aircraft is not airworthy (C)The ohter answers are correct. (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)The ohter answers are correct.

"Before takeoff, the payload of airplane should:" (A)consider the maximum takeoff weight. (B)consider the maximum landing weight. (C)The other answers are all correct.

(C)The other answers are all correct.

Air transport aircraft operator may not undertake refueling operations while there are passengers on board the aircraft or loading unloading of passengers, except (A)when there are qualified personnel stand by to provide direction or guidance for emergency evacuation (B)when the member of flight crew on the aircraft and the refueling ground crew have established two-way communications (C)The ohter answers are correct. (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)The other answers are correct.

Air transport and general aviation operators shall establish __________ and implement after CAA's approval (A)self audit program (B)accident/incident prevention program (C)The other answers are correct. (D)The other answers are wrong.

(C)The other answers are correct.

If CG exceed limit. How can we solve the problem ? (A)"By increasing or decreasing some weight, make CG back to limit. " (B)"By shifting some weight, make CG back to limit." (C)The other are correct. (D)The other are incorrect.

(C)The other are correct. (

To operate an airplane under special VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required? (A)The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums (B)The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area (C)The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight

(C)The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? (A)As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged (B)A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for takeoffs. (C)The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM.

(C)The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM.

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? (A)As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged (B)A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for takeoffs (C)The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM

(C)The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM

What is meant by the term "dewpoint"? (A)The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal. (B)The temperature at which dew will always form. (C)The tempreatuer to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

(C)The tempreatuer to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

"Among ZFW,LDW,TOW, how to identify the most critical weight which limits the maximum allowable payload for specific flight?" (A)"the lightest weight of MZFW,MLDW,MTOW " (B)"the heaviest weight of MZFW,MLDW,MTOW" (C)The weight which is closest to its respective max. weight

(C)The weight which is closest to its respective max. weight

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft (A)The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space (B)The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate (C)There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

(C)There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence? (A)Cirrus clouds. (B)Nimbostratus clouds. (C)Towering cumulus clouds.

(C)Towering cumulus clouds.

Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, weather, and obstructions to vision in a route format? (A)Area Forecast (B)Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF) (C)Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB)

(C)Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB)

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts? (A)Magnetic direction and knots. (B)Magnetic direction and miles per hour. (C)True direction and knots.

(C)True direction and knots.

The time given in aeronautical communications is: (A)in minutes only (B)Local mean time (C)UTC (D)daylight saving time

(C)UTC (D)daylight saving time

What is residual voltage? (A)Voltage produced that is not in phase with the current. (B)Voltage stored in the generator exciter output windings. (C)Voltage produced by permanent magnets which starts the ac generator output.

(C)Voltage produced by permanent magnets which starts the ac generator output.

With respect to vortex circulation, which is true? (A)Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation (B)The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast (C)Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes

(C)Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound? (A)Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first. (B)At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage. (C)When abeam the holding fix.

(C)When abeam the holding fix.

For fixed wing turbo jet aircraft when filling a flight plan, if there is no alternate aerodrome available, it's fuel supply requirement is (A)When the flight arrives at destination there shall be sufficient fuel available to conduct a safe landing (B)When the flight arrives at destination there shall be fuel enough for 30 minutes flying time in case of a missed approach (C)When the flight arrives at destination there shall be fuel available for 2 hour normal cruising flying time (D)When the flight arrives at destination there shall be safe fuel available for one hour flying time

(C)When the flight arrives at destination there shall be fuel available for 2 hour normal cruising flying time

What does the contraction VRB in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) mean? (A)Wind speed is variable throughout the period (B)Cloud base is variable (C)Wind direction is variable

(C)Wind direction is variable

(Refer to figure E )'this depiction indicates(如圖A24_FigE) (A)regional low pressure system tops FL 430 (B)regional freezing level at FL 430 (C)a HIGH tropopause height of FL 430 in this area (D)the highest point of the tropopause is FL 430

(C)a HIGH tropopause height of FL 430 in this area

The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off is (A)carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs (B)a magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing (C)a broken magneto ground wire

(C)a broken magneto ground wire

LORAN-C is based upon measurements of the difference in time arrival of pulses generated by what type of radio station? (A)a group of stations operating on the 108-115 MHz frequency band. (B)two stations operating on the 90-110 MHz frequency band. (C)a chain of stations operating on the 90-110 kHz frequency band.

(C)a chain of stations operating on the 90-110 kHz frequency band.

To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at (A)the same true airspeed regardless of angle of attack. (B)a lower true airspeed and a greater angle of attack. (C)a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.

(C)a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.

To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at (A)the same true airspeed regardless of angle of attack (B)a lower true airspeed and a greater angle of attack (C)a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

(C)a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as (A)an inactive frontal cloud. (B)a funnel cloud. (C)a lenticular cloud.

(C)a lenticular cloud.

(Refer to figure C )'What does the depiction in this chart represent?(如圖A24_FigC) (A)regional low pressure system tops 27,000 feet (B)regional freezing level at 27,000 feet (C)a low tropopause height of FL 270 (D)the highest point of the tropopause is FL 270

(C)a low tropopause height of FL 270

(Refer to figure 1) 'The depiction N15E140 in figure 1 represents (如圖A24_Fig1) (A)Turbulence at FL500 (B)CIELING of FL500 (C)a tropopause height of FL500

(C)a tropopause height of FL500

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft (A)below and downwind from the heavy aircraft. (B)below and upwind from the heavy aircraft. (C)above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

(C)above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying (A)below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point. (B)above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point (C)above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point

(C)above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point

If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anti-collision light system, no person may operate that aircraft (A)after dark (B)1 hour after sunset (C)after sunset to sunrise

(C)after sunset to sunrise

In the flight deck system management, outer loop implies (A)ATC communication (B)aircraft control (C)aircraft monitoring (D)crew communication

(C)aircraft monitoring

A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of (A)altitude and RPM (B)airspeed and altitude (C)airspeed and RPM

(C)airspeed and RPM

True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for (A)installation or instrument error (B)non-standard temperature (C)altitude and non-standard temperature

(C)altitude and non-standard temperature

True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for (A)installation or instrument error (B)non-standard temperature (C)altitude and non-standard temperature

(C)altitude and non-standard temperature

Aircraft fuse capacities are rated in (A)volts. (B)watts. (C)amperes.

(C)amperes.

The term "CORRECTION" is used when: (A)the message to be deleted (B)the readback of a message is correct (C)an error has been made in the transmission and correct version is.

(C)an error has been made in the transmission and correct version is.

The term "CANCEL" means: (A)consider the message is not sent (B)your flight has been cancelled by your operator (C)annul the previously transmitted clearance

(C)annul the previously transmitted clearance

When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should (A)rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation (B)climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identify checkpoints (C)apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriates shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible

(C)apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriates shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing ? (A)apply full main wheel braking only (B)apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly (C)apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage

(C)apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage

The distance from DATUM LINE to CG is (A)M.A.C. (B)moment. (C)arm. (D)CG shift range.

(C)arm.

Whose responsibility is it to investigate aircraft accident happened in the Republic of China's territory (A)company the aircraft belongs to (B) local judicial authority (C)aviation safety council (D) aircraft manufacturer

(C)aviation safety council

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must (A)be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport (B)list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport (C)be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed

(C)be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed

A flight of a certain carrier has completed preflight preparations, all passengers boarded aircraft, cargo secured in hold, aircraft checked. Before take-off it is discovered that the airworthiness certificate of the aircraft has expired. the flight shall (A)proceed for take-off on the condition that CAA is informed of this situation and the aircraft has been inspected and released by a qualified engineer (B)be delayed until aircraft has been rechecked and released by a qualified mechanic (C)be stopped (D)take-off on schedule because international agreement provides 5 rights of air navigation

(C)be stopped

The term "angle of attack"?is defined as the angle (A)formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing. (B)between the airplane's climb angle and the horizon. (C)between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

(C)between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

In the "SHEL" moel, environment means (A)machinery, equipment, etc. (B)documentation, procedures, symbols, etc. (C)both internal and external to the workplace (D)the human element

(C)both internal and external to the workplace

To follow up the above question, if the aircraft requires two pilots (A)it is not restricted by this requirement (B)one pilot shall meet the requirement (C)both pilots shall meet the requirement (D)it is decided by the dispatcher according to each's experience

(C)both pilots shall meet the requirement

Markings on the vertical tail surface shall be painted on its (A)right sides (B)left sides (C)both sides (D)either side

(C)both sides

The force which tries to bend the propeller blades opposite the direction of rotation is (A) torque bending. (B) aerodynamic bending. (C)centrifugal bending.

(C)centrifugal bending.

The term "VERIFY" means: (A)confrim your last transmission (B)identify yourself (C)check and confirm with originator

(C)check and confirm

The third phase of CRM training is: (A)awareness phase (B)practice and feedback phase (C)continual reinforcement phase (D)breakthrough phase

(C)continual reinforcement phase

The Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) provided by AFSSs includes (A)weather information service on a common frequency(122.0 MHz) (B)recorded weather briefing service for the local area, usually within 50 miles and route forecasts (C)continuous recording of meteorological and/or aeronautical information available by telephone

(C)continuous recording of meteorological and/or aeronautical information available by telephone

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by (A)warm, dense air moving inland from over the water. (B)water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land. (C)cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

(C)cool, dense air moving inland from over the water

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine (A)will not operate on one magneto (B)cannot be started with the switch in the BOTH position (C)could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder

(C)could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder

(Refer to figure 17.) Which is ture regarding illustration 4 if the present heading is maintained? The airplane will(如圖A21_Fig17) (A)cross the 060 radial at a 15 angle. (B)intercept the 240 radial at a 30 angle. (C)cross the 180 radial at a 75 angle.

(C)cross the 180 radial at a 75 angle.

"The beliefs and values which are shared by all or almost all members of a group" is the definition of (A)law (B)atmosphere (C)culture (D)attitude

(C)culture

As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will (A)increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air (B)remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure (C)decrease due to higher density altitude

(C)decrease due to higher density altitude

To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and (A)increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle (B)decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle (C)decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle

(C)decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle

When planning for a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of (A)all VORs to be used en route (B)airport rotating light beacons (C)destination airport lighting systems

(C)destination airport lighting systems

When the cabin pressure regulator is operating in the differential mode, reference pressure is vented to the atmosphere by the (A)relief valve. (B) isobaric metering valve. (C)differential metering valve.

(C)differential metering valve.

The purpose of a reverse-current relay is to (A)prevent one generator from driving another generator. (B) increase or decrease the voltage of a generator so it carries its share. (C)disconnect the generator from the main bus when generator voltage drops below battery voltage.

(C)disconnect the generator from the main bus when generator voltage drops below battery voltage.

The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the (A)angle of incidence of the wing (B)amount of airflow above and below the wing (C)distribution of pressure acting on the wing

(C)distribution of pressure acting on the wing

The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the (A)angle of incidence of the wing. (B)amount of airflow above and below the wing. (C)distribution of pressures acting on the wing.

(C)distribution of pressures acting on the wing.

What may happen when the assessment of a particular situation by the human differs from the automated system? (A)loss of system awareness (B)systematic decision error (C)distrust (D)over-reliance

(C)distrust

Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened (A)during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft (B)while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties (C)during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties

(C)during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties

"The sum of airplane weight, fix equipment, unusable fuel and oil is :" (A)zero fuel weight. (B)operational weight. (C)empty weight. (D)gross weight.

(C)empty weight.

Preignition is indicated by (A)intermittent firing and low cylinder temperatures. (B)explosions from the exhaust system with torching or afterburning. (C)engine roughness and a sudden increase in cylinder head temperatures.

(C)engine roughness and a sudden increase in cylinder head temperatures.

Applying carburetor heat will (A) not affect the mixture (B) lean the fuel/air mixture (C)enrich the fuel/air mixture

(C)enrich the fuel/air mixture

During investigation, to help asses the effect of cockpit layout on the crew, investigator may consult (A)medical doctors (B)psychologists (C)ergonomists (D)sociologists

(C)ergonomists

Moisture is added to a parcel of air by (A)sublimation and condensation. (B)evaporation and condensation. (C)evaporation and sublimation.

(C)evaporation and sublimation.

AIRMETs are issued on a scheduled basis every (A)15 minutes after the hour only. (B)15 minutes until the Al RMET is canceled. (C)every 6 hours.

(C)every 6 hours.

Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and (A) maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. (B) request a new ATC clearance. (C)expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

(C)expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

The penalty for anyone who is not in possession of License, Rating Certificate and medical certificate but engage in flight operations is (A)one years imprisonment (B)three years imprisonment (C)five years imprisonment (D)seven years imprisonment

(C)five years imprisonment

The time when an fixed wing aircraft start to move on the own power for take-off till the time it landed and stopped movement. The time is (A)utilization time (B)power time (C)flight time (D)instrument time

(C)flight time

Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all (A)upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. (B)rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces. (C)forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.

(C)forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.

Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent ? The sum of all (A)upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces (B)rearword forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces (C)forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces

(C)forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces

In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become (A)twice as great (B)half as great (C)four times greater

(C)four times greater

In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be (A)the same as at the lower speed (B)two times greater than at the lower speed (C)four times greater than at the lower speed

(C)four times greater than at the lower speed

In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is double, the lift produced at the higher speed will be (A)the same as at the lower speed. (B)two times greater than at the lower speed. (C)four times greater than at the lower speed.

(C)four times greater than at the lower speed.

If the indicated airspeed of a glider is decreased from 90 MPH to 45 MPH, the induced drag will be (A)four times less. (B)two times greater. (C)four times greater.

(C)four times greater.

In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become (A)twice as great. (B)half as great. (C)four times greater.

(C)four times greater.

The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a (A)frontolysis. (B)frontogenesis. (C)front.

(C)front.

A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by (A)warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. (B)the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air. (C)ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

(C)ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of , a (A)movement of air. (B)pressure differential. (C)heat exchange.

(C)heat exchange.

The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by (A) high performance aircraft. (B) helicopters. (C)high cockpit aircraft.

(C)high cockpit aircraft.

An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the (A)negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing surface. (B)vacuum below the wing surface and greater air pressure above the wing surface. (C)higher air pressure below the wing surface and lower air pressure above the wing surface.

(C)higher air pressure below the wing surface and lower air pressure above the wing surface.

An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the (A)negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface. (B)vacuum below the wing＇s surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface. (C)higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing＇s surface.

(C)higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing＇s surface.

Automation technology must be (A)environment-centered (B)machine-centered (C)human-centered (D)ego-centered

(C)human-centered

A high cloud is composed mostly of (A)ozone. (B)condensation nuclei (C)ice crystals

(C)ice crystals

During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive special attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by (A)congealed oil from the crankcase (B)moisture from the outside air which has frozen (C)ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen

(C)ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen

Systematic search for "WHY" in the investigation is to (A)assign blame or liability (B)pinpoint a single cause (C)identify the underlying deficiencies (D)excuse human error

(C)identify the underlying deficiencies

A flight has loaded passenger and cargo to the capacity, and unload some mail to make room for more profit. The act is (A)not against any regulation (B)not illegal because it is not stated in aviation law or regulation (C)illegal (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)illegal

If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only (A) when able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route. (B) in VFR conditions. (C)in day VFR conditions.

(C)in day VFR conditions.

When flight crew member unable to perform his/her duty due to physical or psychological inability, we call it (A)active failure. (B)passive failure. (C)incapacitation.

(C)incapacitation.

To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should (A)maintain the bank and decrease airspeed (B)increase the bank and increase airspeed (C)increase the bank and decrease airspeed

(C)increase the bank and decrease airspeed

To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should (A)maintain the bank and decrease airspeed. (B)increases the bank and increase airspeed. (C)increase the bank and decrease airspeed.

(C)increase the bank and decrease airspeed.

What effect, if any, will landing at a higer-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning ? (A)no effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll (B)reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied (C)increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking

(C)increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking

What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator (A)is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven (B)indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination (C)indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination

(C)indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination

What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator (A)is always electric; the turn-and slip indicator is always vacuum-driven. (B)indicates bank angle only; the turn-and slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination. (C)indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.

(C)indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.

In aircraft accident which resulted personnel death or injuries and damage to properties, under what conditions that constitute liability (A)intentional (B)mistake (C)intentional or negligently (D)according to international general practice if it is not intentional it is not liable

(C)intentional or negligently

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there (A)are thunderstorms in the area. (B)has been cold frontal passage. (C)is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

(C)is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift (A)is momentarily decreased (B)remains the same (C)is momentarily increased

(C)is momentarily increased

During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift (A)is momentarily decreased (B)remains the same. (C)is momentarily increased.

(C)is momentarily increased.

During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift (A)is momentarily decreased. (B)remains the same. (C)is momentarily increased.

(C)is momentarily increased.

(Figure 1) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. this is when the aircraft(如圖A23_Fig1) (A)passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure (B)is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol (C)is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol

(C)is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol

According to the figure 3,"the ISOL CB encountered if landing at ZGGG" means:(如圖A24_Fig3) (A)cumulonimbus clouds spread up in line (B)cumulonimbus cover all the mark area (C)isolated cumulonimbus (D)cumulonimbus weakening

(C)isolated cumulonimbus

A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the (A)right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis (B)left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis (C)left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis

(C)left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis

Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at . (A)twice the length of the wingspan above the surface. (B)a higher-than-normal angle of attack. (C)less than the length of the wingspan above the surface

(C)less than the length of the wingspan above the surface

Before each flight there should be a complete record of defect and malfunctions corrective actions, record of defects defferred, all kinds of maintenance services and other maintenance events. These records are endorsed by and accepted by the captain before each flight. (A)any mechanic who is directly involved in the maintenance work (B)flight engineer when there is no appropriate ground mechanic present (C)licensed responsible mechanic the holder of ground mechanic license and (D) the supervisor or manager

(C)licensed responsible mechanic the holder of ground mechanic license and

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the (A)applicable airworthiness certificate (B)life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe (C)life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance

(C)life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance

"For longitudinal stability, the relation between LIFT force center and C.G. for transport airplane is ?" (A)lift force center is forward of C.G. (B)lift force center overlap with C.G. (C)lift force center is aftward of C.G.

(C)lift force center is aftward of C.G.

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a (A)strong headwind. (B)light, quartering headwind (C)light, quartering tailwind

(C)light, quartering tailwind

The definition of the instruction "MONITOR" is: (A)you are being watched (B)establish communications on frequency... (C)listen out on frequency... (D)watch out for visual signals on frequency

(C)listen out on frequency...

According to SHEL model, regulations, manuals and SOPs are the issues of (A)liveware-liveware interface (B)liveware-hardware interface (C)liveware-software interface (D)liveware-environment interface

(C)liveware-software interface

The CG of an airplane is computed along the (A) lateral axis. (B)vertical axis. (C)longitudinal axis.

(C)longitudinal axis.

The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: (A)distress (B)hi-jacking (C)loss of comms (D)urgency

(C)loss of comms

The purpose of a constant speed drive for an ac generator is to (A)control field strength. (B)regulate generator voltage. (C)maintain a uniform frequency.

(C)maintain a uniform frequency.

Aircraft owner or operation, when contracted foreign MRO conducting aircraft maintenance modification or fabrication, shall obtain _______ from CAA (A)airworthiness certificate (B)registration certificate (C)maintenance authorization certificate (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)maintenance authorization certificate

Small aircraft refers to (A)maximum take-off weight is 3,700 kg or less (B)maximum take-off weight is 4,700 kg or less (C)maximum take-off weight is 5,700 kg or less (D) maximum take-off weight is 6,700 kg or less

(C)maximum take-off weight is 5,700 kg or less

Aircraft operator shall establish _______ for each type of aircraft to ensure its safe operation even when a position of a system or equipment fails (A)maintneance program (B)maintenance manual (C)minimum equipment list manual (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)minimum equipment list manual

The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the (A)throttle (B)manifold pressure (C)mixture control

(C)mixture control

When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, bur aircraft control remains positive, that should be reported as (A)light (B)severe (C)moderate

(C)moderate

Air transport operator's fleet manager shall have which of the following qualifications (A)more than 1 year experience as PIC of large aircraft (B)more than 2 years experience as PIC of large aircraft (C)more than 3 years experience as PIC of large aircraft (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)more than 3 years experience as PIC of large aircraft

"If the nosewheel of an airplane moves forward upon gear retraction, the CG will?" (A) move aft. (B) not move. (C)move forward.

(C)move forward.

If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude ? The angle of attack (A)and angle of bank must be decreased (B)must be increased or angle of bank decreased (C)must be decreased or angle of bank increased

(C)must be decreased or angle of bank increased

If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The angle of attack (A)and angle of bank must be decreased. (B)must be increased or angle of bank decreased. (C)must be decreased or angle of bank increased.

(C)must be decreased or angle of bank increased.

The ATC message "DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED" signifies that: (A)all aircraft are to end their transmission (B)all aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency (C)normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

(C)normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

Hours of observation for lately hired pilots to gain en route flight experience shall (A)be account for 50% (B)be divided by number of pilot (C)not be counted as en route operating experience (D)be decided by PIC according individual performance

(C)not be counted as en route operating experience

The air transport operator's business permit and operation's specification may __________ when expires (A)continue to operate for 6 months (B)continue to operate for a year (C)not continue to operate (D)verbally request an extension

(C)not continue to operate

Light beacons producing red flashes indicate (A)end of runway warning at departure end (B)a pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling (C)obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation

(C)obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation

The name or suffix on the callsign of an aeronautical station may be omitted: (A)Never (B)provided that the aircraft is in visual contact with the aerodrome (C)only after satisfactory communications have been established and providing there will be no confusion

(C)only after satisfactory communications have been established and providing there will be no confusion

While taxing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned (A)neutral at all times (B)toward the direction from which the wind is blowing (C)opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing

(C)opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing

While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned (A)neutral at all times. (B)toward the direction from which the wind is blowing. (C)opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing.

(C)opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing.

The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it (A)permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight (B)prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight (C)permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight

(C)permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining (A)who was responsible for any accident or incident. (B)evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. (C)possible causes of accidents or incidents.

(C)possible causes of accidents or incidents.

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as (A)instantaneous combustion (B)detonation (C)pre-ignition

(C)pre-ignition

The communication problem caused by personality differences is an issue of (A)physical separation (B)organizational factors (C)psychological isolation (D)regulatory factors

(C)psychological isolation

When performing duties, a pilot must carry with him (A)rating certificate and medical certificate for custom inspection (B)rating certificate and medical certificate for airport security's inspection (C)rating certificate and medical certificate for CAA's inspection (D)rating certificate and medical certificate for company operation's inspection

(C)rating certificate and medical certificate for CAA's inspection

After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot (A)requests an amended clearance (B)is operating VFR on top (C)receives an amended clearance or has an emergency

(C)receives an amended clearance or has an emergency

If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will (A)increase as well as the stall speed. (B)decrease and the stall speed will increase. (C)remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.

(C)remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.

If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60°banked turn, the load factor will (A)increase as well as the stall speed. (B)decrease and the stall speed will increase. (C)remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.

(C)remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.

If the airspeed is increased from 110 knots to 150 knots during a level 45° banked turn, the load factor will (A)increase as well as the stall speed. (B)decrease and the stall speed will increase. (C)remain the same but the radius turn will increase.

(C)remain the same but the radius turn will increase.

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will (A)decrease as the true airspeed decreases (B)decrease as the true airspeed increase (C)remain the same regardless of altitude.

(C)remain the same regardless of altitude.

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will (A)increase if the CG is moved forward (B)change with an increase in gross weight (C)remain the same regardless of gross weight

(C)remain the same regardless of gross weight

Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel (A)decreases while the volume of air decreases (B)remains constant while the volume of air decreases (C)remains constant while the density of air decreases

(C)remains constant while the density of air decreases

Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by? (A) stating 'Have Numbers'. (B)stating 'Have Weather'. (C)repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

(C)repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot ? (A)request an amended clearance (B)is operating VFR on top (C)request an amended clearance or has an emergency

(C)request an amended clearance or has an emergency

(Refer to figure 16 0n page 2-9)at the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330 magnetic bearing to the NDB at a 30 angle, the aircraft should be turned?(如圖A21_Fig16) (A)left to heading of 270 (B)right to heading330 (C)right to heading 360

(C)right to heading 360

With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use (A)aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tail wheel- and nose wheel-type airplanes (B)right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes (C)rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional-and nose wheel-type airplane

(C)rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional-and nose wheel-type airplane

When planning for an emergency landing at night, one of the primary consideration should include? (A)landind without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touch down (B)turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing (C)selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible

(C)selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible

Pilot flew over prohibited area. To this violation the penalty shall be (A)sentence to less than 3 month imprisonment (B)sentence to less than 6 month imprisonment (C)sentence to less than 2 year imprisonment (D)sentence to less than 1 year imprisonment

(C)sentence to less than 2 year imprisonment

The total time from the moment an aircraft lifts off the ground until the moment it touches down at the end of the flight. It is for calculation and record keeping of service time of the aircraft, engine, propeller, installations and equipment thereof, unless the maintenance manual requires otherwise. This time is called: (A)flight time (B)instrument time (C)service time (D)duration time

(C)service time

Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence ? (A)change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed (B)control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude (C)set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude

(C)set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude

'(Refer to figure K )this depiction indicates(如圖A24_FigK) (A)light icing (B)moderate icing (C)severe icing

(C)severe icing

'(Refer to figure O )this depiction indicates(如圖A24_FigO) (A)light turbulence (B)moderate turbulence (C)severe turbulence

(C)severe turbulence

Air transport aircraft engaging in domestic flights due to short haul or inadequate refueling installations at various airports may conduct flight operations in accordance with CAA approved (A)fuel policy (B)maintenance program (C)simplified operating flight plan (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(C)simplified operating flight plan

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to (A)rise into the traffic pattern. (B)rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway. (C)sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

(C)sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

(Actual Navigation Performance, ANP)An aircraft's actual navigation performance ANP must be _______the airway's RNP to fly along that airway (A)greater than (B)unequal to (C)smaller or equal to (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(C)smaller or equal to

When discussing culture, values belong to the issue of (A)economic and political context (B)geographic and physical context (C)social context (D)airline operating context

(C)social context

The development of thermals depends upon (A)a counterclockwise circulation (B)temperature inversions. (C)solar heating.

(C)solar heating.

Defines Vy as : (A)speed for best rate of descent (B)speed for best angle of climb (C)speed for best rate of climb

(C)speed for best rate of climb

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the (A)position of the CG. (B)abruptness at which the load is applied. (C)speed of the airplane.

(C)speed of the airplane.

Holder type rating certificate, when making major design change aeronautic product, shall apply and obtain ________-Any person who alters a type certificated aviation product by introducing a major change shall apply for ________ (A)airworthiness certificate (B)manufacturing production certificate (C)supplemental type certificate (D)The ohter answers are wrong.

(C)supplemental type certificate

Aircraft operator, when conducting training exercises, shall comply with the requirement (A)that emergency procedures may not exercised when carrying passengers (B)that emergency procedures may not exercised when carrying more than 50 passengers (C)that emergency procedures may not exercised when carrying either passengers or cargo (D)that emergency procedures may not exercised when the flight it at an altitude lower than 10,000 ft.

(C)that emergency procedures may not exercised when carrying either passengers or cargo

If flying a published GPS departure, (A)the data base will contain all of the transition or departures From all runways. (B)and if RAIM is available, manual intervention by the pilot should not be required. (C)the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sensitivity.

(C)the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sensitivity.

Follow up the above question. When shall the flight execute approach and landing (A)estimated approach time of the flight plan (B)the latest ATC clearance instructed approach time (C)the above two answers are correct (D)any optimum time of controlling the aircraft

(C)the above two answers are correct

An advantage of a stabilizer and elevator located at the top of the vertical fin is that (A) the structural weight is decreased. (B) the cruise speed is more fuel efficient. (C)the horizontal tail is above the wing turbulence.

(C)the horizontal tail is above the wing turbulence.

(Refer to Figure 1.)The primary purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease(如圖 A22_Fig1) (A)the drag. (B)landing speed. (C)the lift of the wing.

(C)the lift of the wing.

Clearance limit is defined as: (A)the height below which you will hit the first obstacle (B)the flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance (C)the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance (D)the time at which the ATC clearance expires

(C)the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

"When two different weights of objects balance, the heavier one must be" (A)the lesser moment. (B)the more moment. (C)the shorter arm. (D)the longer arm.

(C)the shorter arm.

For decision makers, to accept that hazard cannot be eliminated nor controlled and to teach operational personnel to live with it belong to which level of action (A)the first level of action (B)the second level of action (C)the third level of action (D)the fourth level of action

(C)the third level of action

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when (A)there is an explosive increase of fuel caused by too rich a fuel/air mixture (B)the spark plugs receive an electrical jolt caused by a short in the wiring (C)the unburned fuel/air charge in the cylinders is subjected to instantaneous combustion

(C)the unburned fuel/air charge in the cylinders is subjected to instantaneous combustion

An air transport operator shall establish which of the following programs for the flight operations related personnel for CAA's approval and implementation thereafter (A)business operating program (B)personnel promotion program (C)training program (D)operating program

(C)training program

When making a blind transmission , you should: (A)transmit each word twice (B)repeat the message on 121.5 MHz (C)transmit the message twice (D)wait for visual signal

(C)transmit the message twice

Air transport long range over water flight refers to (A)twin engine fixed wing aircraft commenced a flight to a destination with alternate available. The distance of the flight from shore is 200NM or more, or 60 minute flight at cruising speed from the shore when one engine is inoperative (B)twin engine fixed wing aircraft commenced a flight to a destination with alternate available. The distance of the flight from shore is 300NM or more, or 90 minute flight at cruising speed from the shore when one engine is inoperative (C)twin engine fixed wing aircraft commenced a flight to a destination with alternate available. The distance of the flight from shore is 400NM or more, or 120 minute flight at cruising speed from the shore when one engine is inoperative (D)twin engine fixed wing aircraft commenced a flight to a destination with alternate available. The distance of the flight from shore is 500NM or more, or 180 minute flight at cruising speed from the shore when one engine is inoperative

(C)twin engine fixed wing aircraft commenced a flight to a destination with alternate available. The distance of the flight from shore is 400NM or more, or 120 minute flight at cruising speed from the shore when one engine is inoperative

'(Refer to figure H )at which flight level is the cloud base?(如圖A24_FigH) (A)FL 380 (B)FL 270 (C)unknown

(C)unknown

Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform type clouds, good visibility, rain showers and possible clear-type icing in clouds? (A)Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism. (B)Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting. (C)unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.

(C)unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.

To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should? (A)slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other side at intervals (B)concerntrate on any peripheral movement detected (C)use a serious of short, regular spaced eye movements that bring successive area of the sky into the central visual field

(C)use a serious of short, regular spaced eye movements that bring successive area of the sky into the central visual field

The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by (A)changes in air density. (B)variations in flight altitude. (C)variations in airplane loading

(C)variations in airplane loading

The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by (A)changes in air density. (B)variations in flight altitude. (C)variations in airplane loading.

(C)variations in airplane loading.

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing for form is (A)small temperature/ dewpoint spread. (B)stratiform clouds. (C)visible moisture.

(C)visible moisture.

The total piston displacement of a reciprocating engine is the (A)relationship of horsepower output per cubic inch of cylinder volume. (B) volume displaced by one piston during one revolution of the crankshaft. (C)volume displaced by the sum total of all pistons during one revolution of the crankshaft.

(C)volume displaced by the sum total of all pistons during one revolution of the crankshaft.

Members of flight crew while on duty positions are required (A)during take-off or landing those who are not working may not in position (B)In route, may leave position provided works are not jeopardized (C)while in position shall have seat belts fastened, during take-off or landing shall have shoulder harness secured (D)while in position may read news papers

(C)while in position shall have seat belts fastened, during take-off or landing shall have shoulder harness secured

Leaving the carburetor heat on during takeoff (A)leans the mixture for more power on takeoff (B)will decrease the takeoff distance (C)will increase the ground roll

(C)will increase the ground roll

In case of carrying Ballast Fuel, what weight should the ballast fuel be included ?" (A)aircraft basic weight (B)take off fuel (C)zero fuel weight

(C)zero fuel weight

The validity of ALTP's licence and rating(s) are (A)1 year (B)3 years (C)4 years (D) 5 years

(D) 5 years

According to the Civil Aviation Law, the Pilot-in-command while on duty (A) has the authority to command and direct airmen on board the aircraft (B)has the authority to command and direct all personnel on board the aircraft (C)has the authority when necessary to direct or restrict passenger's activities (D) all the above answers are correct

(D) all the above answers are correct

Aircraft's activities in the vicinity of an airport shall comply with the following rules (A)while on the ground shall be cautious of traffic to avoid collision (B)flight pattern of an airport, prior landing or after take-off shall make left turn unless required otherwise (C)except for take-off or landing aircraft shall not fly at less than 3,000 ft actual altitude (D) all the above answers are correct

(D) all the above answers are correct

ALTP's age requirement, when the upper limit is not extended , is (A)not less than 20 years old and not more than 57 years old (B)not less than 20 years old and not more than 60 years old (C) not less than 23 years old and not more than 57 years old (D) not less than 23 years old and not more than 60 years old

(D) not less than 23 years old and not more than 60 years old

The term special flight is referred to (A)scheduled passenger and cargo flight (B)extra passenger or cargo flight (C)chartered flight (D) test flight

(D) test flight

Air transport aircraft flight over land area where is difficult to conduct search and rescue operations. The aircraft shall be equipped with _____ set(s) CAA approved emergency search and rescue radio transmitter or emergency position locater transmitter (A)4 (B)3 (C)2 (D)1

(D)1

Members of flight crew may not fly a total time exceeding ____ hours in a month (A)70 (B)80 (C)100 (D)120

(D)120

Flight time limitation for reinforced flight crew on aircraft providing sleeping berth during 24 consecutive hours may not exceed _____ hours (air transport) (A)10 (B)12 (C)14 (D)16

(D)16

Duty time limitation for reinforced flight crew is ____ consecutive hours (air transport) (A)12 (B)14 (C)16 (D)18

(D)18

Flight time limitation for double flight crew on aircraft providing sleeping berth during 24 consecutive hours may not exceed _____ hours (air transport) (A)12 (B)14 (C)16 (D)18

(D)18

For double flight crew, in 24 consecutive hours, they have flown less than 16 hours, how many consecutive hours of rest period shall be given (air transport) (A)10 (B)12 (C)14 (D)18

(D)18

For standard flight crew when complete a mission in consecutive 24 hours, in which they flew more than 8 hours but less than 10 hours, how many consecutive hours of rest period shall be given (air transport) (A)8 (B)10 (C)16 (D)18

(D)18

Aircraft with a maximum take off weight between 5,700 to 15,000 kilo or a passenger-seating capacity between 19 20to 30 shall be equipped with the second generation of TCAS to comply with ICAO annex10 requirement before 1 January ______ (A)2002 (B)2003 (C)2004 (D)2005

(D)2005

Duty time limitation for double flight crew is ____ consecutive hours (air transport) (A)16 (B)18 (C)22 (D)24

(D)24

For reinforced flight crew, within 24 consecutive hours, they have flown more than 12 hours, how many consecutive hours of rest period shall be given (air transport) (A)16 (B)20 (C)22 (D)24

(D)24

An air transport aircraft with what seating capacity shall be equipped with first aid kit (A)150 seats (B)200 seats (C)221 seats (D)251 seats

(D)251 seats

For standard crew, in 7 consecutive days how many consecutive hours of rest period shall be given (air transport) (A)18 (B)20 (C)24 (D)30

(D)30

Worked as member of double flight crew in consecutive 7 days, how many consecutive hours of rest period shall be given (air transport) (A)18 (B)20 (C)24 (D)30

(D)30

Worked as member of reinforced crew in consecutive 7 days, how many consecutive hours of rest period shall be given (air transport) (A)18 (B)20 (C)24 (D)30

(D)30

Cross country flight means that the distance of a flight from the point of take-off to the point of landing is greater than (A)1,000 kilometers (B) 500 kilometers (C)300 kilometers (D)30 kilometers

(D)30 kilometers

Aircraft airworthiness ratings are classified into ____ categories (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(D)4

Aircraft with a seating capacity of 251 or more shall be equipped with how many first aid kits (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(D)4

An aircraft with seating capacity of 201-300 shall be equipped with ___ portable fire extinguisher (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

(D)4

Aircraft operates at an altitude above __________ft. shall be equipped with cosmic radiation detect devices in the cockpit to register accumulated doses from each flight. (A)35000 (B)40000 (C)45000 (D)49000

(D)49000

In an aircraft, the ratio for passenger seats to cabin attendant is ______ to one (A)20 (B)30 (C)40 (D)50

(D)50

Records of daily maintenance and routine maintenance release shall be written with indelible ink and kept for at least _____ months (A)3 (B)4 (C)5 (D)6

(D)6

Emergency evacuation demonstration on an aircraft with 44 or more passenger seating shall be completed within ______ seconds. (A)45 (B)60 (C)75 (D)90

(D)90

Which of the following aircraft is classified as general purpose (A)maximum take off weight is less than 5,700kg (B)aviation authority of the country of the original manufacturer rated as general purpose or commuter (C)may not conduct aerobatic flight (D)All of the answers are correct.

(D)All of the answers are correct.

Which discipline focuses on human body sizes and muscles strength? (A)Psychology (B)Human physiology (C)Medicine (D)Anthropometry

(D)Anthropometry

Helicopter first airworthiness certificate after Jan 1, 1989 with a maximum take off weight of 7,000 kg or more, shall be equipped with ______ type flight data recorder (A)I (B)II (C)III (D)IV

(D)IV

Twin-turbo engine helicopter manufactured after Oct. 11, 1991 with a seating capacity of 10 or more, shall be equipped with _____ type flight data recorder (A)I (B)II (C)III (D)IV

(D)IV

The central component of the SHEL model is (A)Situation (B)Hardware (C)Environment (D)Liveware

(D)Liveware

Utilization of air space and delineation of controlled area, restricted area and forbidden area are established by (A)Ministry of Transportation and Communications (B)Ministry of National Defense (C)Ministry of Interior (D)Ministry of Transportation and Communications in co-ordination with Ministry of National Defense

(D)Ministry of Transportation and Communications in co-ordination with Ministry of National Defense

Word for the expression"Permission not granted" is: (A)WILCO (B)NOT APPROVED (C)NEVER (D)NEGATIVE

(D)NEGATIVE

Except special circumstances, aliens in the Republic of China may (A)only own small aircraft (B)own ultra light aircraft (C)own light aircraft (D)Not own aircraft

(D)Not own aircraft

The correct call to make asking for radio check on the ground is: (A)G-ABCD RADIO CHECK (B)STEPHENVILLE TOWER, G-ABCD HOW DO YOU READ 118.7 (C)STEPHENVILLE TOWER, G-ABCD READABILITY CHECK, 118.7 (D)STEPHENVILLE TOWER, G-ABCD RADIO CHECK, 118.7

(D)STEPHENVILLE TOWER, G-ABCD RADIO CHECK, 118.7

The suffix in the callsign of an aerodrome control service would be: (A)CONTROL (B)APRON (C)GROUND (D)TOWER

(D)TOWER

Aircraft operator shall establish alcoholic test standards to check (A)dispatcher and maintenance personnel (B)cabin crew (C)flight crew (D)The ohter answers are correct

(D)The ohter answers are correct

The responsibilities of a dispatcher include (A)providing PIC with all necessary information to complete the preparation of the flight (B)assisting PIC to complete the flight plan (C)providing PIC with all required information (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct

Air transport PIC's responsibilities include (A)in flight is responsible for the control of the aircraft and the safety of all personnel on board, and the handling of any emergency (B)to ensure compliance with every item required try procedure or checklist (C)at the end of a flight, is responsible to notify the operator the status of the aircraft including any, known or suspected, deficiencies. Also endorse entries in the log book (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Air transport aircraft engaging in operations shall carry which of the following documents in addition to the documents required by article 38 of the Civil Aviation Law (A)flight handbook (B)operations handbook (C)minimum equipment list (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Air transport aircraft operator shall clearly indicate to the passengers (A)when to fasten seat belts, remain seated or straighten up the back of seat (B)when and how to use the oxygen mask (C)how to use the life vest or individual floatation devices and their locations (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Air transport aircraft operator shall have what kind of qualified full time managers in his company (A)flight operations manager (B)fleet manager (C)maintenance manager (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Air transport aircraft shall be equipped with which of the follows for night flight (A)taxi lights (B)two landing lights or one landing light that has two independent filaments (C)navigation lights and collision avoidance lights (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Air transport aircraft which a seating capacity over 20, when applying airworthiness certificate shall be equipped with (A)digital flight data recorder (B)cockpit voice recorder (C)under water position transmitter (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Air transport land on amphibious fixed wing aircraft shall provide each one on board the aircraft with life vest and floatation device when engaged n flight under which of the following conditions (A)fly to a distance of 5NM from shore (B)fly over water to a distance from shore out of reach by gliding (C)flight pattern of take off and landing over water (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Air transport operator when establish airport minima shall take the following factors into account (A)performance and characteristics of type of aircraft (B)composition of flight crew and their capability and experience (C)equipment including navigational aids flight director, approach misapproach guidance (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft engage in flight operations shall have which of the following documents available (A)airworthiness certificates (B)aicraft radio station license (C)aircraft registration (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft engage in flight operations shall have which of the following documents available (A)journal of flight (B)passenger manifest (C)list of cargo and mail (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft maintenance capability hand book and related manuals established by operator shall include _____ to meet maintenance operating requirement of aircraft operator (A)amendment, distribution, issue and page control of hand book (B)procedure of incident notification (C)aircraft weight and balance control (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft maintenance capability hand book and related manuals established by operator shall include _____ to meet maintenance operating requirement of aircraft operator (A)maintenance organization and responsibilities of maintenance (B)procedures of maintenance and airworthiness release (C)mandatory inspection items and inspection procedures (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft operates above flight level of 29,000 ft and the minimum vertical separation is 1,000 ft. The aircraft shall be equipped to meet which of the following requirement (A)display at what flight level the aircraft is flying (B)to maintain automatically at the selected flight level (C)to warn the flight crew automatically before the aircraft deviates from the flight level less than 300 ft (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft operates above flight level of 29,000 ft. and the minimum vertical separation of flight level is 1,000 ft. The aircraft shall be equipped to meet which of the following requirement (A)to display at what flight level the aircraft is flying (B)to maintain automatically at the selected flight level (C)to warn the flight crew before the aircraft deviates from the selected flight level less than 300 ft (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft operates at night shall have which of the following equipments (A)taxi lights (B)illuminating instruments and instrument panel (C)navigation lights and collision prevention lights (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft operates at night shall have which of the following equipments (A)two or one landing light, but each light has two independent filaments (B)cabin lighting system (C)a flash light available at each crew member position (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft owner or operator when contract foreign maintenance institute conducting maintenance to modification of power plant, propeller and parts and components, shall have ______ issued certificate and appropriate rating (A)FAA (B)JAA (C)CAA (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft owner or operator, when applying maintenance authorization certificate shall present which of the following documents to CAA (A)local aviation authority issued certificate to verify its routine maintenance authorization on rated type of aircraft, FAA or JAA issued certificate to verify its appropriate maintenance authorization on rated type of aircraft (B)ground mechanic license holder with civil aviation authority issued appropriate rating to conduct maintenance and sign airworthiness release (C)records of applicant's CAA approved training course (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft shall be weighed once every two years. Under which of the following occasions shall the aircraft be reweighed (A)overhaul (B)major repair (C)major modification (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Aircraft shall have complete airframe, power plant propeller ________ records. (A)hours used (B)transfer of ownership (C)history (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Airworthiness certificate shall include (A)basic on which maintenance is conducted and summary of work (B)completion date of work and signed by authorization person (C)number of certificate and rating and signature of person responsible for airworthiness (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Airworthiness certificates include (A)aircraft airworthiness certificates (B)aircraft special airworthiness certificate (C)aircraft export airworthiness certificate (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Alternate airport includes (A)departure alternate airport (B)en-route alternate airport (C)destination alternate airport (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Before a flight, the PIC shall review and endorse (A)maintenance release (B)weight and balance (C)cargo loading and secure (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

During flight aircraft shall carry (A)registration certificate, airworthiness certificate, radio station license (B)flight log book (C)passenger's manifest, bill of laden and mail manifest (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

During flight in case of emergency that endangers the safety of personnel or aircraft (A)It is the PIC's responsibility to use all measures to handle the situation (B)when handling with this emergency, the PIC discovered that some of the measures taken coved be in conflict with the local rules. The PIC shall notify the local authority immediately (C)the PIC shall also notify CAA (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Flight crew away from home station, because of delayed flight passed their duty time limitation (A)The PIC may decide to terminate the flight after taking every aspect into consideration (B)the PIC may decide to continue the flight after taking every aspect into consideration (C)the PIC may decide to extend the crew's duty time for two hours if it is day time operation (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Members of cabin crew shall have annual refresh training to familiarize (A)themselves with their duties and job in the event of emergency situations in flight or emergency evacuation (B)themselves with the procedures of emergency rescue operations (C)themselves with the procedures of high altitude loss of cabin pressure or insufficient oxygen supply (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Operator of an aircraft is referred to (A)natural person (B) legal person (C)government organization (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Records of maintenance release shall include (A)initiation to conduct maintenance (B)summary of maintenance performed (C)maintenance completion date and the person who signed the release (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Routine maintenance of an aircraft means (A)preflight and post flight inspections (B) daily and over night inspection (C)transit maintenance (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Standards for screening intoxicant, drug and alcohol include (A)urine specimen test negative (B)blood content of alcohol density less than 0.04﹪ (C)breather test alcohol density less than 0.2mg/L (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

The definition of cruise pilot is (A)qualified as a pilot (B)on who has completed cruise pilot training (C)one may perform pilot duties of that type of aircraft during cruise flight but may not act as a pic-in-command nor perform take-off or landing form in left seat. (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Under what conditions aircraft registration certificate nullifies (A)When ownership of aircraft transferred (B)When aircraft damaged beyond repairment (C)When aircraft lost nationality (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Under which of the following conditions airworthiness certificate became inefficientive? (A)validity expires (B)registration certificate invalid (C)aircraft no longer meets airworthiness requirement (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Under which of the following conditions the airworthiness certificate of an aircraft became in ineffective (A)validity expires (B)registration certificate becomes ineffective (C) aircraft does not meet airworthiness requirements (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

What information shall be entered onto aircraft history log book (A)implementational of technical alterations and scheduled replacement of parts (B)status of major replement of parts (C)calibration and test of avionics and instruments (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

What information shall be entered onto aircraft history log book (A)nationality and designated number (B)name and address of owner or operator (C)status of periodical maintenance, inspection overhaul, modification and unscheduled inspections (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

What information shall be entered onto aircraft history log book (A)serial number, date manufacture and type of aircraft (B)daily hours of flights and numbers of landing (C)major deficiency, major repair or major modification (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following aircraft is classified as "air transport category" (A)maximum take off weight is more than 5,700kg (B)equipped with more than two engines (C)aviation authority of the country of the original manufacturer rated as air transport category (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following characteristics is classified as aerobatic aircraft (A)maximum take off weight is less than 5,700kg (B)aviation authority of the country of the original manufacturer rated as aerobatic aircraft (C)may not engage in passenger, cargo or charter operations (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following condition entail the application of a special airworthiness certificate (A)test flight after production, assembly, major repair, major modification of an aircraft (B)test flight of new design, new equipment, new technical operation or research and development of an aircraft (C)test flight before an aircraft resumes operation, because of special circumstance, it is necessary to fly to another station to conduct maintenance or one way ferry flight for registration (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following conditions is considered not airworthy (A)not comply with maintenance program (B)not meet the aircraft type design (C)not comply with airworthiness deceptive within required time frame (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following conditions renders an aircraft unairworthy (A)inspection conducted by CAA, authorized inspection institute confirms that the aircraft does not meet the standards of original rating (B)the owner or operator has not complied with standing requirement properly maintain the aircraft, or has not satisfactorily completed airworthiness directives issued by CAA or the aviation authority of the country of the original manufacturer of the aircra (C)without CAA approval, the owner or operator changes the purpose, performance, characteristics of the aircraft (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following hazards the Ground Proximity Warning System shall have functions to provide, automatically and timely, clear warning of ? (A)too great a descent rate (B)too great a closing rate to ground (C)too low a glide path on the instrument approach (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following is aircraft product? (A)aircraft (B)aircraft power plant engine (C)propeller (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following is major modification (A)a modification that affects aircraft characterization (B)a modification that affect aircraft performance (C)a modification that affects aircraft basic weight and balance (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following is major repair (A)a repair that affects aircraft characteristics (B)a repair that affects aircraft performance (C)a repair that affects aircraft basic weight and balance (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following is service difficulty report (SDR) item (A)fire occurred during flight and function of fire warning system (B)engine out resulted from extinguishing fire during flight (C)structure of aircraft requires major repair (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

Which of the following is the exporting country's certify document attached with aeronautics products aviation products, parts or material (A)export airworthiness certificate (B)FAA Form 8130-3 (C)JAA Form One (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

after which at the following maintenance work, an aircraft shall have a functional check flight (A)after a long period storage or resume operations after grounded for over 90 days (B)upon CAA's require on the ground of airworthiness certification or flight safety necessity (C)replace a control surface or the entire control cable of any axis of the flight control system (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The ohter answers are correct.

A flight of a turbine-engined airplane for which alternate airport is required, the flight shall carry the operating flight plan required amount of fuel to fly to the destination airport for approach or missed approach. The flight shall also carry which of the following fuel (air transport) (A)fuel required to fly to the alternate airport (B)30 minute fuel for holding at cruising speed at 1,500 ft over the alternate airport under standard air temperature and approach and landing. (C)fuel for coping with any contingency the operator considered possible (D)The other answers are correct.

(D)The other answers are correct.

Air transport PIC shall check and confirm which of the following status before the flight (A)aircraft is in airworthy condition (B)aircraft is properly maintenance released (C)aircraft meets weight and balance requirement (D)The other answers are correct.

(D)The other answers are correct.

Air transport helicopter operator when selecting a sea borne alternate heliport, shall consider the dependability of the helicopter to decide the major control systems and mechanism of the adaptability of the alternate heliport. In addition, the operator shall take which of the following into account (A)use the sea borne alternate heliport only when the flight has passed the point of no return and before then may only use land borne alternate (B)before reaching the sea borne alternate, the helicopter can maintain safe operation with one engine fail (C)has sufficient fuel to fly to a land borne alternate shall not use sea borne alternate (D)The other answers are correct.

(D)The other answers are correct.

Air transport operator when establishing airport minima shall take the following factors into account (A)length, width and characteristics of runway or safe distance necessary for helicopter take-off and land (B)visual or non visual ground nor aids and their characteristics (C)obstacles in the perimeter of approach and misapproach, altitude of clearing obstacles for instrument approach (D)The other answers are correct.

(D)The other answers are correct.

Aircraft shall carry sufficient fuel and oil when calculating fuel consumption shall take the following factors into account (A)weather forecast (B)anticipated ATC delay (C)IFR approach or missed approach at destination (D)The ohter answers are correct.

(D)The other answers are correct.

Airport minima provides take-off and landing limitations of the airport. The standards include (A)RVR (B)visibility, decision height (C)minimum descending altitude (D)The other answers are correct.

(D)The other answers are correct.

Personnel of air transport company who may control taxiing aircraft on the ground in the air side of an airport shall meet which of the following qualifications (A)authorized by the operator (B)capable of radio communications (C)trained by qualified instructor on the subjects of general lay-out of the airport, roads, signage, lights and ATC signals, directions, phraseology, procedures applicable operating standards to ensure aircrafts safe movement on airport (D)The other answers are correct.

(D)The other answers are correct.

Transport aircraft operator shall ensure that passengers clearly understand locations and usage of which of the following equipment and have placards available (A)seat belts (B)emergency exits (C)life vests (D)The other answers are correct.

(D)The other answers are correct.

when reviewing air transport operator's airport minima CAA shall take the following factors into account (A)the accuracy and reliability of the instrument that locate the position of the aircraft (B)tolerance of altimeter indication (C)air space restriction (D)The other answers are correct.

(D)The other answers are correct.

When discussing culture, operation procedures and manuals belong to the issue of (A)economic and political context (B)geographic and physical context (C)social context (D)airline operating context

(D)airline operating context

When a repair station completes a repair of a component, which of the following documents may be used to approve for return to service? (A)airworthiness certificate (B)registration certificate (C)radio station license (D)airworthiness authorization approval tag

(D)airworthiness authorization approval tag

Aircraft that operates above 29,000 ft flight level with minimum vertical separation of 1,000 ft, shall be equipped with (A)flight level indicator (B)automatic mechanism to maintain at selected flight level (C)a warning when 300 ft deviation happens (D)all of the above

(D)all of the above

To fulfill the purpose of investigation, the investigating authority must take (A)pilot view (B)passenger view (C)airlines view (D)all-encompassing view

(D)all-encompassing view

The ways to acquire current qualification to an airport or route include (A)to exercise as pilot or observer in the cockpit or in a simulator (B)to receive training rides from qualified instructor pilot or check pilot and completed take-off and landing (C)to complete CAA approved in-depth route map training (D)any one of the above will serve the purpose

(D)any one of the above will serve the purpose

The term " special flight " refers to (A)aircraft test flight or aerobatic flight (B)aircraft maintenance overdue of ferry flight (C)flight carrying VIP passengers (D)approved single flight for the purpose of aircraft functional test, aerobatics, maintenance overdue or release and ferry flight

(D)approved single flight for the purpose of aircraft functional test, aerobatics, maintenance overdue or release and ferry flight

Setting a Squawk of 7500 indicates that you: (A)have an emergency (B)have a radio failure (C)are not receiving a radar service (D)are being Hi-jacked

(D)are being Hi-jacked

What can be best expressed as an indication of frustration over the operation of automated systems? (A)loss of system awareness (B)systematic decision error (C)distrust (D)attitude towards automation

(D)attitude towards automation

According to the figure 3'What is the altitude range of the cloud heights aboveROAH ?(如圖A24_Fig3) (A)between 240 and 360hPa (B)between 240 and 360mm (C)between 10,000 meters and 25,000 meters (D)between FL 100 and 250

(D)between FL 100 and 250

Which of the following Classes Air Transport helicopter may take off, landing and operate at elevated heliport or deck (A)Class 1 (B)Class 2 (C)Class 3 (D)both answers of A and B are correct

(D)both answers of A and B are correct

Which of the following is not included in CRM training phases: (A)awareness phase (B)practice and feedback phase (C)continual reinforcement phase (D)breakthrough phase

(D)breakthrough phase

When a culture gives the appearance of adopting a dominant culture, it is a phenomenon of (A)assimilation (B)integration (C)separation (D)cosmetic compliance

(D)cosmetic compliance

CRM trainings include three phases, and the first phase focuses on the importance of (A)operational skills (B)technical knowledge (C)regulations (D)crew co-ordination

(D)crew co-ordination

All flight operations related personnel of an air transport company shall have their training program to include (A)management training (B)quality assurance training (C)self disciplinary training (D)crew resource management training

(D)crew resource management training

Air transport operator shall keep ______ records of members of flight crew (A)flying time、rest period (B)duty time、rest period (C)rest period、class time (D)flying time、duty time

(D)flying time、duty time

Often, the last barrier that stops the sequence of events from causing an accident is (A)regulation (B)weather (C)equipment (D)human

(D)human

When members of flight crew's physical fitness certificate noted corrective lenses are required (A)the certificate holder may carry with him corrective lenses at his own discretion since he feels fine (B)the certificate holder must have a pair of corrective lenses with him during flight (C)in addition to the corrective lenses the certificate holder shall have a pair of sun glass available (D)in addition to the corrective lenses in use the certificate holder shall have a spare

(D)in addition to the corrective lenses in use the certificate holder shall have a spare

The information transmition between human and machine is an issue of (A)over-reliance (B)systematic decision error (C)distrust (D)interface design

(D)interface design

Civil aircraft cross wind component limitations for take-off and landing (A) is enforced by the airport flight operations (B) is enforced by the control tower (C)is enforced by the airport weather station (D)is decided by the pilot in accordance with cross wind limitation for applicable type of aircraft in the company's flight operation manual after taking into account the wind speed and direction information provided by the airport and control tower.

(D)is decided by the pilot in accordance with cross wind limitation for applicable type of aircraft in the company's flight operation manual after taking into account the wind speed and direction information provided by the airport and control tower.

According to SHEL model, weather, terrain and physical facilities are the issues of (A)liveware-liveware interface (B)liveware-hardware interface (C)liveware-software interface (D)liveware-environment interface

(D)liveware-environment interface

When a culture is unable to adopt a dominant culture and has no other option, it is a phenomenon of (A)assimilation (B)integration (C)separation (D)marginalization

(D)marginalization

Which of the following handbooks that assists the PIC to decide to lug in a flight and take-off or to continue the flight after landing at intermediate destination(s) in case of certain instrument, equipment or system failed (A)aircraft characteristics (B)aircraft operating (C)aircraft differential configuration (D)minimum equipment

(D)minimum equipment

What might happend when too many possibilities are offered by automation? (A)over-reliance (B)systematic decision error (C)distrust (D)mode confusion

(D)mode confusion

When operational personnels perceive loss in the value of professional skills, it is an issue of (A)loss of system awareness (B)systematic decision error (C)distrust (D)motivation and job satisfaction

(D)motivation and job satisfaction

Which is not the characteristic of a safe culture? (A)top management emphasizes safety (B)top management do not avoid criticism (C)personnel are well trained and well educated (D)people respect seniors

(D)people respect seniors

Which of the following certificate issued by CAA to airman for the purpose of confirming the holder has met certain requirements and the capability to perform duties professionally (A) physical certificate B airman identification (B)airman identification (C)license (D)rating

(D)rating

Flight crew on duty exceeded period limitation because of delayed flight. The operator shall (A)ask the crew to continue and complete the mission (B)mandate the crew to continue and complete the mission (C)fire those who refuse to continue (D)redispatch a fresh crew

(D)redispatch a fresh crew

Which is not a trait of a safe organization? (A)enjoy an open corporate culture (B)have appropriate risk manegement structure (C)regard safety as a major contributor to productivity (D)rely on regulatory rather than internal responsibility

(D)rely on regulatory rather than internal responsibility

A scheduled flight, before take-off it is discovered that its VHF system failed. Locally there is no spare or repair capability available. The flight shall (A)take-off without passengers and repair VHF at other airport (B)request airport's approval to proceed with taking-off (C)request VFR flight by the pilot-in-command (D)resume flight after the VHF is repaired

(D)resume flight after the VHF is repaired

In the "SHEL" moel, liveware means (A)machinery, equipment, etc. (B)documentation, procedures, symbols, etc. (C)both internal and external to the workplace (D)the human element

(D)the human element

Which is particular effective as a third-person perspective feedback tool for LOFT exercises? (A)aircraft (B)simulators (C)computers (D)videotape

(D)videotape

What minimum floor load limit must an aircraft have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet size is 100 inches wide and 100 inches long, Pallet weight = 190 lb, Tiedown devices = 60 lb, Cargo weight = 10,000 lb. (A)148 lb/sq ft. (B)138 lb/sq ft. (C)128 lb/sq ft.

A)148 lb/sq ft

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? (A)15 c and 29.92"Hg. (B)59 F and 1013.2" Hg. (C)15 C and 29.92 Mb.

A)15 c and 29.92"Hg.

(Refer to figure 31 on page 12-35.) What is headwind component for a RWY 13 takeoff if the surface wind is 190 at 15 knots ?(如圖A21_Fig31) (A)7 knots. (B)13 knots. (C)15 knots.

A)7 knots.

While cruising at 135 knots and on constant headin, the ADF needle decreases from a relative bearing of 315 to 270 in 7 minutes. The approximate time and distance to the station being used is (A)7 minutes and 16 miles. (B)14 minutes and 28 miles. (C)19 minutes and 38 miles.

A)7 minutes and 16 miles.

How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan? (A)A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions. (B)A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and fixes used. (C)A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting points.

A)A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions.

An alternate airport for departure is required (A)A- if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. (B)B- when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. (C)C- when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).

A)A- if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.

What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? (A)Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. (B)When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. (C)When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

A)Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.

What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback? (A)Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. (B)If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient. (C)Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.

A)Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors.

What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan? (A)File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi. (B)File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi. (C)File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi.

A)File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi.

When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason? (A)Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control (B)Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane (C)Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible

A)Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact? (A)Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. (B)Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. (C)Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

A)Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach.

The trailing edge of M.A.C. is abbreviated to: (A)TEMAC (B)MAC (C)LEMAC

A)TEMAC

What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? (A)Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. (B)Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. (C)Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.

A)Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.

The first phase of CRM training is: (A)awareness phase (B)practice and feedback phase (C)continual reinforcement phase (D)breakthrough phase

A)awareness phase

An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be (A)conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. (B)carrying passengers, but not if it is 'all cargo.' (C)C- conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather.

A)conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route.

The maintenance training program established by the aircraft operator shall include __________ to promote coordination and cooperation between maintenance personnel and flight crew and to reduce any unsafe occurrences because of human errors (A)crew resource management program (B)technical training program (C)tool training (D)The ohter answers are correct.

A)crew resource management program

Export airworthiness certificate only serves to certify the aircraft meets airworthiness requirement, may not be used to certify (A)for business flight (B)ownership (C)airworthiness (D)The ohter answers are wrong

A)for business flight

Aircraft operator shall establish a __________ and mandatory inspection items to train and qualify inspection personnel. Upon authorization these personnel will conduct inspections on aircraft maintenance, overhaul or modification in accordance with aircraft maintenance capability manual (A)inspection system (B)examination system (C)audit system (D)The ohter answers are correct.

A)inspection system

The ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing load and gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as (A)load factor and directly affects stall speed (B)aspect load and directly affects stall speed (C)load factor and has no relation with stall speed

A)load factor and directly affects stall speed

Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines (A)may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. (B) may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. (C)C- may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.

A)may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.

The action that you carry out in response to the instruction "SQUAWK IDENT" is to: (A)press the special identification (Ident) button on the control panel (B)reset the numbers on the control panel (C)move the switch on the control unit to the ALT position

A)press the special identification (Ident) button on the control panel

The main reason of carrying Ballast Fuel is because of (A)the C.G. out of trim (B)the weight out of limit (C)fuel not enough

A)the C.G. out of trim

When an airworthiness certificate expires, the holder shall return the certificate to CAA within _______ days upon its expiry (A)10 (B)20 (C)30 (D)40

B)20

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan? (A)The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. (B)All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. (C)The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.

B)All radio fixes over which the flight will pass.

Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided? (A)Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure (B)Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered (C)Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable

B)Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered

What is the primary purpose of a STAR? (A)Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. (B)Simplify clearance delivery procedures. (C)Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

B)Simplify clearance delivery procedures.

Which is true regarding tracking on a desired bearing when using ADF during crosswind conditions? (A)To track outbound, heading corrections should be made away from ADF pointer. (B)When on the desired track outbound with the proper drift correction established, the ADF pointer will be deflected to windward side of the tail position. (C)When on the desired track inbound with proper drift correction established, the ADF pointer will be deflected to the windward side of the nose position.

B)When on the desired track outbound with the proper drift correction established, the ADF pointer will be deflected to windward side of the tail position

The person who certifies aircraft airworthiness shall be the holder of __________ to conduct various maintenance works and sign release in accordance with aircraft maintenance capability manual's authorization (A)a valid engineer's certificate (B)a valid ground mechanic license and appropriate rating (C)a valid dispatcher's certificate (D)The ohter answers are correct.

B)a valid ground mechanic license and appropriate rating

Aircraft operator shall establish __________ which is forwarded to CAA for file and basis of conducting aircraft maintenance operations (A)flight manual (B)aircraft maintenance capability manual (C)operating manual (D)The ohter answers are wrong

B)aircraft maintenance capability manual

Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water, (A)in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore (B)beyond power-off gliding distance from shore (C)more than 50 statute miles from shore

B)beyond power-off gliding distance from shore

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on (A)a properly functioning cowl flap augmenter (B)the circulation of lubricating oil (C)the proper freon/compressor output ratio

B)the circulation of lubricating oil

DOW (Dry Operating Weight)

BEW+CREW

To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word 'LIFEGUARD' should be entered in which section of the flight plan? (A)Aircraft type/special equipment block. (B) Pilot's name and Aircraft type. (C) Pilot's name and address block.

C) Pilot's name and address block.

"GIVEN: Empty weight 1100 with Arm 35 Pilot (fwd seat) weight 170 with Arm -40 Passenger (aft seat) weight 160 with Arm +5 Ballast weight 50 with Arm -50 the CG is located at station" (A)19.27 (B)18.27 (C)20.27 (D)17.27

C)20.27

(Refer to figure 16 0n page 2-9)at the position indicated by instrument group 1, what would be the relative bearing if the aircraft were turned to a magnetic heading of 090?(如圖A21_Fig16) (A)150。 (B)190。 (C)250

C)250

"Given: MZFW=130634, MLDW=145149, MTOW=170000, DOW=89886, TIF=23000, TOF=40000, what is the maximum allowed traffic load for this flight ?" (A)40748 (B)40114 (C)38263

C)38263

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to (A)10 NM, up to and including 3000 feet AGL (B)30 SM, and be transponder equipped (C)4 NM, up to and including 2500 feet AGL

C)4 NM, up to and including 2500 feet AGL

How much can we attribute jet transport accidents to flight crew error? (A)0% (B)20% (C)65% (D)99%

C)65%

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of (A) 40 knots. (B)80 knots. (C)90 knots.

C)90 knots.

What does the term 'minimum fuel' imply to ATC? (A)Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. (B)Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. (C)Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

C)Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

The leading edge of M.A.C is abbreviated to: (A)TEMAC (B)MAC (C)LEMAC

C)LEMAC

Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? (A)Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. (B)Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, average TAS exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. (C)Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average TAS exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

C)Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average TAS exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for (A)installation and instrument error. (B)non-standard temperture. (C)altitude and non-standard temperture.

C)altitude and non-standard temperture.

The requirement for refueling an aircraft while it is loading or unloading passengers (A)there are qualified personnel stand by to provide direction or guidance for emergency evacuation (B)there are two way communications established between crew members on the aircraft and refueling ground crew (C)both of the above answers (D)and passengers consented to the refueling operation

C)both of the above answers

Aircraft operator shall establish __________ to ensure his maintenance personnel are properly trained, initial and continuous training, to meet the requirement for conducting their duty (A)maintenance dependability program (B)maintenance program (C)maintenance personnel training plan (D)The ohter answers are wrong

C)maintenance personnel training plan

Immediately before a flight, the PIC discovered that one of his crew members suffered injury, illness or under the influence of intoxication of alcohol or drug, the PIC shall (A)seek other fellow crew's help to alleviate the suffering member's work load (B)adjust working schedule let the sufferer to have a rest first (C)stop his or her flight duty right there and ask a replacement (D)enforce him(her) to carry on work

C)stop his or her flight duty right there and ask a replacement

The staling speed of an airplane is most affected by (A)changes in air density (B)variations in flight attitude (C)variations in airplane loading

C)variations in airplane loading

The cockpit door of passenger carrying aircraft shall be closed (A)during flight (B)during take off (C)during landing (D)during all the above mentioned time

D)during all the above mentioned time

MZFW (Max Zero Fuel Weight)

DOW+PLD

OP (Operating Weight)

DOW+TOF

MLW (Max Landing Weight)

MTOW-T/F

Taxi fuel

MTOW-T/F-TOF

MTW (Max Taxi Weight)

MZFW+ Ramp fuel

MTOW (Max Takeoff Weight)

MZFW+TOF-TF

Traffic load

MZFW-DOW

When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern? (A)3 degree per second or 25 degree bank, whichever is less. (B)3 degree per second or 30 degree bank, whichever is less. (C)1-1/2 degree per second or 25 degree bank, whichever is less.

(A)3 degree per second or 25 degree bank, whichever is less.

GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change : 15 degree , Elapsed time between bearing change : 6 min Rate of fuel consumption : 8.6 gal/hr Calculate the approximate fuel required to fly to the station. (A)3.44 gallons. (B)6.88 gallons. (C)17.84 gallons.

(A)3.44 gallons

GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change : 15 degree , Elapsed time between bearing change : 7.5 min , True airspeed : 85 kts , Rate of fuel consumption : 9.6 gal/hr The time, distance, and fuel required to fly to the station is (A)30 minutes; 42.5 miles; 4.80 gallons. (B)32 minutes; 48 miles; 5.58 gallons. (C)48 minutes; 48 miles; 4.58 gallons.

(A)30 minutes; 42.5 miles; 4.80 gallons.

GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change : 10 degree , Elapsed time between bearing change : 4 min , Rate of fuel consumption : 11 gal/hr . Calculate the fuel required to fly to the station. (A)4.4 gallons. (B)8.4 gallons. (C)12 gallons.

(A)4.4 gallons

While maintaining a magnetic heading of 270 degree and a true airspeed of 120 knots, the 360 radial of a VOR is crossed at 1237 and the 350 radial is crossed at 1244. The approximate time and distance to this station are (A)42 minutes and 84 NM. (B)42 minutes and 91 NM. (C)44 minutes and 96 NM.

(A)42 minutes and 84 NM.

While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 100 doubles in 5 minutes. If the true airspeed is 105 knots, the time and distance to the station being used is approximately (A)5 minutes and 8.7 miles. (B)10 minutes and 17 miles. (C)15 minutes and 31.2 miles.

(A)5 minutes and 8.7 miles.

While maintaining a constant heading, the ADF needle increases from a relative bearing of 0450 to 0900 in 5 minutes. The time to the station being used is (A)5 minutes. (B)10 minutes. (C)15 minutes.

(A)5 minutes.

(Refer to figure 10 below.) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV ?(如圖A21_Fig10) (A)5.0 NM. (B)7.5 NM. (C)10.0 NM.

(A)5.0 NM.

If an airplane is consuming 14.8 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 7,500 feet and the groundspeed is 167 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 560 NM? (A)50 gallons. (B)53 gallons. (C)57 gallons.

(A)50 gallons.

If fuel consumption is 14.7 gallons per hour and groundspeed is 157 knots, how much fuel is required for an airplane to travel 612 NM? (A)58 gallons. (B)60 gallons. (C)64 gallons.

(A)58 gallons.

While cruising at 135 knots and on a constant heading, the ADF needle decreases from a relative bearing of 315 degree to 270 degree in 7 minutes. The approximate time and distance to the station being used is (A)7 minutes and 16 miles. (B)14 minutes and 28 miles. (C)19 minutes and 38 miles.

(A)7 minutes and 16 miles.

Inbound on the 090 radial, a pilot rotates the OBS 010 degree to the left, turns 010 degree to the right, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot determines that the elapsed time for the CDI to center is 8 minutes. Based on this information, the ETE to the station is (A)8 minutes. (B)16 minutes. (C)24 minutes.

(A)8 minutes

(Refer to figure 7 below.) If the time flown between aircraft positions 2 and 3 is 8 minutes, what is the estimated time to the station?(如圖A21_Fig7) (A)8 minutes. (B)16 minutes. (C)48 minutes.

(A)8 minutes.

If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker? (A)A series of two dot combinations and a white marker beacon light. (B)Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second and a white marker beacon light. (C)A series of two dash combinations and a white marker beacon light.

(A)A series of two dot combinations and a white marker beacon light.

(Refer to Fig. 14) The Cugar Four Arrival ends(如圖A21_Fig14) (A)At BANTY INT. (B)At IAH VORTAC. (C)When cleared to land

(A)At BANTY INT.

(Refer to figure 8.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?(如圖A21_Fig8) (A)Bottom yellow. (B)Top red. (C)Middle yellow.

(A)Bottom yellow

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? (A)Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. (B)Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. (C)Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

(A)Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC? (A)High altitudes close to the VORTAC. (B)Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. (C)Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

(A)High altitudes close to the VORTAC.

(Refer to figure 12 below.) You receive this ATC clearance: "...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?(如圖A21_Fig12) (A)Parallel only. (B)Direct only. (C)Teardrop only.

(A)Parallel only.

(Refer to figure 13.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding paftern?(如圖A21_Fig13) (A)Teardrop only. (B)Parallel only. (C)Direct only.

(A)Teardrop only.

(Refer to figure 8.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?(如圖A21_Fig8) (A)Top red. (B)Middle yellow. (C)Bottom yellow.

(A)Top red.

(Refer to figure 3, point 6,on the outside back cover.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of(如圖A21_Fig3) (A)both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. (B)8,000 feet MSL. (C)2,100 feet AGL.

(A)both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 1, point 9, on the inside front cover.) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which(如圖A21_Fig1) (A)there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. (B)the flight of aircraft is prohibited. (C)the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.

(A)there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.

(Refer to figure 8.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found(如圖A21_Fig8) (A).upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control. (B).at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. (C).near the approach end of ILS runways.

(B).at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

(Refer to figure 9.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?(如圖A21_Fig9) (A)285 degree. (B)055 degree. (C)235 degree.

(B)055 degree

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed (A)1 minute. (B)1-1/2 minutes. (C)1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.

(B)1-1/2 minutes.

Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? (A)108.10 to 118.1 0 MHz. (B)108.1 0 to 111.95 MHz. (C)108. 1 0 to 117.95 MHz.

(B)108.1 0 to 111.95 MHz.

GIVEN: True course : 345 degree , True heading : 355 degree , True airspeed : 85 kts , Groundspeed : 95 kts . Determine the wind direction and speed. (A)095 degree and 19 knots. (B)113 degree and 19 knots. (C)238 degree and 18 knots.

(B)113 degree and 19 knots.

Inbound on the 315 radial, a pilot selects the 320 radial, turns 5 degree to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 12 minutes. The ETE to the station is (A)10 minutes (B)12 minutes (C)24 minutes.

(B)12 minutes

(Refer to figure 6 below.) If the time flown between aircraft positions 2 and 3 is 13 minutes, what is the estimated time to the station?(如圖A21_Fig6) (A)7.8 minutes. (B)13 minutes. (C)26 minutes.

(B)13 minutes.

GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change : 5 degree , Elapsed time between bearing change : 6 min , Rate of fuel consumption : 12 gal/hr , The fuel required to fly to the station is (A)8.2 gallons. (B)14.4 gallons. (C)18.7 gallons.

(B)14.4 gallons.

If the relative bearing change from 090 degree to 100 degree in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time. The time en route to the station would be (A)12 minutes. (B)15 minutes. (C)18 minutes.

(B)15 minutes.

Inbound on the 040 radial, a pilot selects the 055 radial, turns 15 degree to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 15 minutes. Based on this information, the ETE to the station is (A)8 minutes. (B)15 minutes. (C)30 minutes.

(B)15 minutes.

An airplane departs an airport under the following conditions: Airport elevation 1,500 ft , Cruising altitude 9,500 ft , Rate of climb 500 ft/min, Average true airspeed 160 kts , True course 145° , Average wind velocity 080° at 15 kts , Variation 5°E , Deviation -3° , Average fuel consumption 14 gal/hr. Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the climb. (A)14 minutes, 128 degree , 35 NM, 3.2 gallons. (B)16 minutes, 132 degree , 41 NM, 3.7 gallons. (C)16 minutes, 128 degree , 32 NM, 3.8 gallons.

(B)16 minutes, 132 degree , 41 NM, 3.7 gallons.

An airplane departs an airport under the following conditions: Airport elevation 1,000 ft, Cruise altitude 9,500 ft , Rate of climb 500 ft/min , Average true airspeed 135 kts , True course 215 degree , Average wind velocity 290 at 20 kts , Variation 3°W , Deviation -2°, Average fuel consumption 13 gal/hr. Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the climb. (A)14 minutes, 234 degree , 26 NM, 3.9 gallons. (B)17 minutes, 224 degree , 36 NM, 3.7 gallons. (C)17 minutes, 242 degree , 31 NM, 3.5 gallons.

(B)17 minutes, 224 degree , 36 NM, 3.7 gallons.

(Refer to figure 9.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055 degree radial of the station and heading away from the station?(如圖A21_Fig9) (A)1 (B)2 (C)3

(B)2

What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet? (A)0 DME miles. (B)2 DME miles. (C)2.3 DME miles.

(B)2 DME miles.

(Refer to figure 3, point 1, on the outside back cover.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?(如圖A21_Fig3) (A)2,503 feet MSL. (B)2,901 feet MSL. (C)3,297 feet MSL.

(B)2,901 feet MSL.

The ADF is tuned to a non-directional radio beacon and the relative bearing changes from 090 degree to 100 degree in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time. If the true airspeed is 90 knots, the distance and time en route to that radio beacon would be (A)15 miles and 22.5 minutes (B)22.5 miles and 15 minutes (C)32 miles and 18 minutes

(B)22.5 miles and 15 minutes

(Refer to figure 9.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 degree FROM the station? (Wind 050 degree at 20 knots.)(如圖A21_Fig9) (A)2 (B)3 (C)4

(B)3

(Refer to figure 1, point 1, on the inside front cover.) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at(如圖A21_Fig1) (A)the surface. (B)3,823 feet MSL (C)700 feet AGL

(B)3,823 feet MSL

The ADF indicates a wingtip bearing change of 10 degree in 2 minutes of elapsed time, and the TAS is 160 knots. What is the distance to the station? (A)15 NM. (B)32 NM. (C)36 NM.

(B)32 NM.

While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 15 degree doubles in 6 minutes. The time to the station being used is (A)3 minutes. (B)6 minutes. (C)12 minutes.

(B)6 minutes.

(Refer to figure 1, point 5, on the inside front cover.) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (005) is(如圖A21_Fig1) (A)the surface. (B)700 feet AGL (C)1,200 feet AGL

(B)700 feet AGL

(Refer to figure 1, point 8. on the inside front cover.) The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is(如圖A21_Fig1) (A)1,200 feet MSL. (B)700 feet AGL (C)1,200 feet AGL

(B)700 feet AGL

(Refer to table 135 and 138 on on figure 15.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?(如圖A21_Fig15) (A)710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. (B)710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. (C)430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.

(B)710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.

(Refer to figure 1, point 4, on the inside front cover.) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation?(如圖A21_Fig1) (A)376 feet. (B)835 feet. (C)1,135 feet.

(B)835 feet.

(Refer to figure 12 above.) You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?(如圖A21_Fig12) (A)Teardrop only. (B)Direct only. (C)Parallel only.

(B)Direct only.

(Refer to figure 12.) You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?(如圖A21_Fig12) (A)Parallel only. (B)Direct only. (C)Teardrop only.

(B)Direct only.

An off-route altitude which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United States is called (A)Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA). (B)OROCA. (C)Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).

(B)OROCA.

When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? (A)When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa. (B)When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. (C)When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to halfscale right, or vice versa.

(B)When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.

When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flight, it is important to (A)make 90 degree left and right turns to scan for other traffic. (B)exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions. (C)pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial.

(B)exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.

(Refer to figure 2, point 2, on the inside back cover.) The 16 indicates(如圖A21_Fig2) (A)an antenna top at 1,600 feet AGL. (B)the maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle. (C)the minimum safe sector altitude for that quadrangle.

(B)the maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle.

What functions are provided by ILS? (A).Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. (B).Azimuth, range and vertical angle. (C).Guidance, range, and visual information.

(C).Guidance, range, and visual information.

(Refer to figure 8.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. this is when the aircraft(如圖A21_Fig8) (A).passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure. (B).is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol. (C).is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.

(C).is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.

GIVEN : Wind 175 degree at 20 kts , Distance 135 NM , True course 075 degree , True airspeed 80 kts , Fuel consumption 105 lb/hr . Determine the time en route and fuel consumption. (A)1 hour 28 minutes and 73.2 pounds. (B)1 hour 38 minutes and 158 pounds. (C)1 hour 40 minutes and 175 pounds.

(C)1 hour 40 minutes and 175 pounds.

GIVEN: Distance off course : 9 mile , Distance flown : 95 mile , Distance to fly : 125 mile. To converge at the destination, the total correction angle would be (A)4 degree (B)6 degree (C)10 degree

(C)10 degree

You have flown 52 miles, are 6 miles off course, and have 118 miles yet to fly. To converge on your destination, the total correction angle would be (A)3 degree. (B)6 degree. (C)10 degree

(C)10 degree

GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change : 5 degree Time elapsed between bearing change : 5 min True airspeed : 115 kts The distance to the station is (A)36 NM. (B)57.5 NM. (C)115 NM.

(C)115 NM

(Refer to figure 2, point 1, on the inside back cover.) this thin black shaded line is most likely(如圖A21_Fig2) (A)an arrival route. (B)a military training route. (C)a state boundary line.

B)a military training route.

An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions: Cruising altitude 10,500 ft , Airport elevation 1,700 ft , Descends to 1,000 ft AGL , Rate of descent 600 ft/min , Average true airspeed 135 kts , True course 263 degree , Average wind velocity 330 degree at 30 kts , Variation 7 degree E , Deviation +3 degree , Average fuel consumption 11.5 gal/hr . Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the descent. (A)9 minutes, 274 degree, 26 NM, 2.8 gallons. (B)13 minutes, 274 degree , 28 NM, 2.5 gallons. (C)13 minutes, 271 degree, 26 NM, 2.5 gallons.

(C)13 minutes, 271 degree, 26 NM, 2.5 gallons.

An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions: Cruising altitude 7,500 ft , Airport elevation 1,300 ft , Descends to 800 ft AGL Rate of descent 300 ft/min , Average true airspeed 120 kts , True course 165 degree, Average wind velocity 240° at 20 kts, Variation 4°E, Deviation -2°, Average fuel consumption 9.6 gal/hr Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the descent. (A)16 minutes, 1680, 30 NM, 2.9 gallons. (B)18 minutes, 1640, 34 NM, 3.2 gallons. (C)18 minutes, 1680, 34 NM, 2.9 gallons.

(C)18 minutes, 1680, 34 NM, 2.9 gallons.

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn the maximum speed that should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn is (A)180 knots IAS. (B)200 knots TAS. (C)200 knots IAS.

(C)200 knots IAS.

(Refer to figure 136 and 138 on Fig. 15) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?(如圖A21_Fig15) (A)21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. (B)28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. (C)21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

(C)21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airports should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed? (A)250 knots. (B)260 knots. (C)230 knots.

(C)230 knots.

Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport (civil/Navy) between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is (A)200 knots. (B)265 knots. (C)230 knots.

(C)230 knots.

The ADF is tuned to a non-directional radio beacon and the relative bearing change from 0850 to 0900 in 2 minutes of elapsed time. The time en route to the station would be (A)15 minutes. (B)18 minutes. (C)24 minutes.

(C)24 minutes.

(Refer to figure 1, point 4, on the inside front cover.) The highest obstruction with high intensity lighting within 10 NM of Lincoln Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground?(如圖A21_Fig1) (A)1,254 feet. (B)662 feet. (C)299 feet.

(C)299 feet.

With a TAS of 115 knots, the relative bearing on an ADF changes from 090 degree to 095 degree in 1.5 minutes of elapsed time. The distance to the station would be (A)12.5 NM. (B)24.5 NM. (C)34.5 NM.

(C)34.5 NM.

If an airplane is consuming 9.5 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6,000 feet and the groundspeed is 135 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 490 NM? (A)27 gallons. (B)30 gallons. (C)35 gallons.

(C)35 gallons.

(Refer to figure 10.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?(如圖A21_Fig10) (A)166 (B)346 (C)354

(C)354

If an airplane is consuming 12.5 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 8,500 feet and the groundspeed is 145 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 435 NM? (A)27 gallons. (B)34 gallons. (C)38 gallons.

(C)38 gallons.

(Refer to figure 10.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?(如圖A21_Fig10) (A)1 degree (B)2 degree (C)4 degree

(C)4 degree

(Refer to Fig. 14) While arcing left on the IAH 10 DME Arc, the pilot experiences a left crosswind component. Where should the bearing pointer be referenced, relative to the 90 deg. (wingtip) position to maintain the 10 DME range?(如圖A21_Fig14) (A)on the left wingtip reference. (B)Behind the left wingtip reference. (C)Ahead of the left wingtip reference.

(C)Ahead of the left wingtip reference.

(Refer to figure 8.) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?(如圖A21_Fig8) (A)Top red. (B)Middle yellow. (C)Bottom yellow.

(C)Bottom yellow.

(Refer to figure 13 below.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?(如圖A21_Fig13) (A)Parallel or teardrop. (B)Parallel only. (C)Direct only.

(C)Direct only.

(Refer to figure 13.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding paftern?(如圖A21_Fig13) (A)Teardrop only. (B)Parallel only. (C)Direct.

(C)Direct.

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? (A)inner marker. (B)Middle corn ass locator. (C)Outer compass locator.

(C)Outer compass locator.

(Refer to Fig. 14) What action should the pilot take if communications were lost during the Cugar Four Arrival, after turning on the 305 radial of IAH?(如圖A21_Fig14) (A)Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then outbound on the IAH R-125 for a procedure turn for final approach. (B)From BANTY INT, proceed to the IAF on the IAH R-290, then continue on the IAH 10 DME Arc to final approach. (C)Proceed direct to IAH VORTAG, then to either IAF on the IAH 10 DME Arc to final approach.

(C)Proceed direct to IAH VORTAG, then to either IAF on the IAH 10 DME Arc to final approach.

(Refer to figure 12.) You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?(如圖A21_Fig12) (A)Parallel only. (B)Direct only. (C)Teardrop only.

(C)Teardrop only.

(Refer to figure 1, point 6, on the inside front cover.) Mosier Airport is(如圖A21_Fig1) (A)an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots. (B)a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace. (C)a nonpublic use airport.

(C)a nonpublic use airport.

True course measurements on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint of the course because the (A)values of isogonic lines change from point to point. (B)angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of latitude vary from point to point. (C)angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point

(C)angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point

(Refer to figure 1, point 7, on the inside front cover.) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is(如圖A21_Fig1) (A)700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. (B)1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. (C)both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.

(C)both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.

What type navigation system is Inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position (A)from information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. (B)from radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. (C)by signals from self-contained gyros and accelerometers.

(C)by signals from self-contained gyros and accelerometers.

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the begin for the second leg outbound? (A)Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first. (B)At the end of a 1 -minute standard rate turn after station passage. (C)when Abeam the holding fix.

(C)when Abeam the holding fix.

GIVEN: True course : 105 degree , True heading : 085 degree , True airspeed : 95 kts , Groundspeed : 87 kts. Determine the wind direction and speed. (A)020 degree and 32 knots. (B)030 degree and 38 knots. (C)200 degree and 32 knots.

(A)020 degree and 32 knots.

(Reter to figure 9.) Which RMI Illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and proceeding TO the station?(如圖A21_Fig9) (A)1 (B)2 (C)3

(A)1

Inbound on the 190 radial, a pilot selects the 195 radial, turns 5 degree to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 10 minutes. The ETE to the station is (A)10 minutes. (B)15 minutes. (C)20 minutes.

(A)10 minutes.

(Refer to figure 4 below.) If the time flown between aircraft positions 2 and 3 is 13 minutes, what is the estimated time to the station?(如圖A21_Fig4) (A)13 minutes. (B)17 minutes. (C)26 minutes.

(A)13 minutes.

(Refer to figure 5 .) !f the time flown between aircraft positions 2 and 3 is 15 minutes, what is the estimated time to the station ?(如圖A21_Fig5) (A)15 minutes. (B)30 minutes. (C)60 minutes.

(A)15 minutes.

(Refer to figure 10.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?(如圖A21_Fig10) (A)174 (B)166 (C)335

(A)174

The ADF is tuned to a non-directional radio beacon and the relative bearing changes from 095 degree to 1 00 degree in 1.5 minutes of elapsed time. The time en route to that station would be (A)18 minutes. (B)24 minutes. (C)30 minutes.

(A)18 minutes

If fuel consumption is 80 pounds per hour and groundspeed is 180 knots, how much fuel is required for an airplane to travel 460 NM? (A)205 pounds. (B)212 pounds. (C)460 pounds.

(A)205 pounds.

If an airplane is consuming 95 pounds of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6,500 feet and the groundspeed Is 173 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 450 NM? (A)248 pounds. (B)265 pounds. (C)284 pounds.

(A)248 pounds.

The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is (A)265 knots. (B)230 knots. (C)156 knots.

(A)265 knots.

What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 ft MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing, and ATC is notified? (A)265 knots. (B)230 knots. (C)250 knots.

(A)265 knots.

The ADF is tuned to nondirectional radio beacon and the relative bearing change from 270 degree to 265 degree in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time. The time enroute to that beacon would be (A)9 minutes. (B)18 minutes. (C)30 minutes.

C)30 minutes.

The relative bearing on an ADF changes from 265 degree to 260 degree in 2 minutes of elapsed time. If the groundspeed is 145 knots, the distance to that station would be (A)26 NM. (B)37 NM. (C)58 NM.

C)58 NM.