Ch 15 Brunner
A nurse is teaching a client with bone marrow suppression about the time frame when bone suppression will be noticeable after administration of floxuridine. What is the time frame the nurse should include with client teaching?
7 to 14 days Explanation: Bone marrow suppression becomes noticeable 7 to 14 days after floxuridine administration. Bone marrow recovery occurs in 21 to 28 days.
Following surgery for adenocarcinoma, the client learns the tumor stage is T3,N1,M0. What treatment mode should the nurse anticipate?
Adjuvant therapy is likely. Explanation: T3 indicates a large tumor size, with N1 indicating regional lymph node involvement so treatment is needed. A T3 tumor must have its size reduced with adjuncts like chemotherapy and radiation. Although M0 suggest no metastasis, following with adjuvant (chemotherapy or radiation therapy) treatment is indicated to prevent the spread of cancer outside the lymph to other organs. The tumor stage IV wound be indicative of palliative care. A repeated biopsy is not needed until after treatment is completed.
The nurse is providing an educational presentation on dietary recommendations for reducing the risk of cancer. Which of the following food selections would demonstrate a good understanding of the information provided in the presentation? Select all that apply.
Egg white omelet with spinach and mushrooms Steamed broccoli and carrots Turkey breast on whole wheat bread Explanation: Foods high in fat and those that are smoked or preserved with salt or nitrates are associated with increased cancer risks. An omelet made of egg whites and vegetables is a healthy low fat selection as are steamed broccoli/carrots and turkey breast on whole grain bread. A salad can be a healthy selection but Caesar salads contain much fat from the dressing and addition of cheeses and fried chicken. Salmon that is not smoked would be a good selection. Quiche usually contains high-fat milk, crème, eggs, and cheese.
The client is to receive cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) 50 mg/kg intravenously in divided doses over 5 days. The client weighs 176 pounds. How many mg of cyclophosphamide will the client receive each day? Enter the correct number ONLY.
800 Explanation: The client's weight of 176 pounds equals 80 kg. The client is to receive 50 mg of cyclophosphamide for each 1 kg of body weight. This is to be divided into 5 doses. 80 kg x 50 mg/kg = 4000 mg. 4000 mg/5 days = 800 mg.
When caring for an older client who is receiving external beam radiation, which is the key point for the nurse to incorporate into the plan of care?
Inspect the skin frequently. Explanation: Inspecting the skin frequently will allow early identification and intervention of skin problems associated with external radiation therapy. The external markings should not be removed, but clients may shower and lightly wash over the skin. Time, distance, and shielding are key in the management of sealed, internal radiation therapy and not external beam radiation. The use of disposable utensils and care items would be important when caring for clients following systemic, unsealed, internal radiation therapy.
You are presenting a class on cancer for a local community group. You inform the attendees that chemical agents in the environment are believed to account for 75% of all cancers. Which organs are most susceptible to cancer caused by these chemical agents?
Lungs, liver, and kidneys Explanation: The lungs, liver, and kidneys are affected mostly because they are involved with biotransformation and excretion of chemicals.
5-Fluorouracil (5FU) is classified as which type of antineoplastic agent?
antimetabolite Explanation: 5-FU is an antimetabolite. An example of an alkylating agent is nitrogen mustard. A nitrosourea is streptozocin. A mitotic spindle poison is vincristine (VCR).
When a client receives vincristine, an antineoplastic agent that inhibits DNA and protein synthesis, the client needs to be informed to report which symptoms that would be expected side effects of motor neuropathy? Select all that apply.
muscle weakness cramps and spasms in the legs loss of balance and coordination Explanation: Muscle weakness, cramps and leg spasms, and loss of balance and coordination are expected side effects of motor nerve damage. Burning and tingling sensations are signs of sensory nerve damage. Alopecia is hair loss, not a motor nerve damage sign.
According to the TNM classification system, T0 means there is
no evidence of primary tumor. Explanation: T0 means that there is no evidence of primary tumor. N0 means that there is no regional lymph node metastasis. M0 means that there is no distant metastasis. M1 means that there is distant metastasis.
What foods should the nurse suggest that the patient consume less of in order to reduce nitrate intake because of the possibility of carcinogenic action?
Ham and bacon Explanation: Dietary substances that appear to increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol, salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meats. Nitrates are added to cured meats, such as ham and bacon.
A client is receiving radiation therapy and asks the nurse about oral hygiene. What teaching specific to the client's situation should the nurse include?
Use a soft toothbrush and allow it to air dry before storing. Explanation: The nurse advises the client undergoing radiation therapy to use a soft toothbrush to avoid gum lacerations and allow the toothbrush to air dry before storing. Gargling after each meal, flossing before going to bed, and treating cavities immediately are general oral hygiene instructions.
A nurse is teaching a community class about how to decrease the risk of cancer. Which food should the nurse recommend?
Oranges Explanation: A diet high in vitamin C and citrus may help reduce the risk of certain cancers, such as stomach and esophageal cancers. Hot dogs and smoked and cured foods are high in nitrates, which may be linked to esophageal and gastric cancers. Steak is a high-fat food that may increase the risk of breast, colon, and prostate cancers.
Which is a growth-based classification of tumors?
Malignancy Explanation: Tumors classified on the basis of growth are described as benign or malignant. Tumors that are classified on the basis of the cell or tissue of origin are carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias.
Which primary cancer treatment goal is prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth?
Control Explanation: The range of possible treatment goals may include complete eradication of malignant disease (cure), prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth (control), or relief of symptoms associated with the disease (palliation). Prevention is not a treatment goal when the patient has already been diagnosed with cancer. Prevention of metastasis to a secondary site may be a goal.
The client is diagnosed with a benign brain tumor. Which of the following features of a benign tumor is of most concern to the nurse?
Tumor pressure against normal tissues Explanation: Benign tumors grow more slowly than malignant tumors and do not emit tumor-specific antigens or proteins. Benign tumors do not metastasize to distant sites. Benign tumors can compress tissues as it grows, which can result in impaired organ functioning.
Your patient has recently completed her first round of chemotherapy in the treatment of lung cancer. When reviewing this morning's blood work, what findings would be suggestive of myelosuppression?
Decreased platelets and red blood cells Explanation: Most chemotherapeutic agents cause myelosuppression (depression of bone marrow function), resulting in decreased production of blood cells. Myelosuppression decreases the number of WBCs (leukopenia), red blood cells (RBCs) (anemia), and platelets (thrombocytopenia), and increases the risk of infection and bleeding. It does not typically affect electrolytes, creatinine, BUN, and CRP levels.
After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should assign highest priority to which intervention?
Administering metoclopramide and dexamethasone as ordered Explanation: The nurse should assign highest priority to administering an antiemetic, such as metoclopramide, and an anti-inflammatory agent, such as dexamethasone, because it may reduce the severity of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. This intervention, in turn, helps prevent dehydration, a common complication of chemotherapy. Serving small portions of bland food, encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises, and withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours are less likely to achieve this outcome.
The nurse is conducting a screening for familial predisposition to cancer. Which element should the nurse note as a possible indication of hereditary cancer syndrome?
An aunt and uncle diagnosed with cancer Explanation: The hallmarks of hereditary cancer syndrome include cancer in two or more first-degree or second-degree relatives, early onset of cancer in family members younger than age 50, the same type of cancer in several family members, individual family members with more than one type of cancer, and a rare cancer in one or more family members.
A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and reports to the nurse that his or her mouth is painful and has difficulty ingesting food. What actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
Asks the client to open his or her mouth to facilitate inspection of the oral mucosa Instructs the client to brush the teeth with a soft toothbrush Consults with the healthcare provider about use of nystatin Explanation: The description of the client's report is stomatitis following chemotherapy treatment. The nurse should assess the oral mucosa based on the client's report of pain and difficulty eating. The client is to use a soft toothbrush to minimize trauma to the mouth. Nystatin (Mycostatin) is a topical medication that may provide healing for the client's mouth. The client avoids alcohol-based mouthwashes as these are irritants. Flossing the teeth may cause additional trauma to the mouth.
The nurse working on a bone marrow unit knows that it is a priority to monitor which of the following in a client who has just undergone a stem cell transplant?
Monitor the client closely to prevent infection. Explanation: Until transplanted stem cells begin to produce blood cells, these clients have no physiologic means to fight infection, which makes them very prone to infection. They are at high risk for dying from sepsis and bleeding before engraftment. Therefore, a nurse must closely monitor clients and take measures to prevent infection. Monitoring client's toilet patterns, physical condition, and heart rate does not prevent the possibility of the client getting an infection.
The nurse is providing client teaching for a client undergoing chemotherapy. What dietary modifications should the nurse advise?
Avoid spicy and fatty foods. Explanation: The nurse advises a client undergoing chemotherapy to avoid hot and very cold liquids and spicy and fatty foods. The nurse also encourages the client to have small meals and appropriate fluid intake.
A serum sodium concentration lower than 115 mEq/L (115 mmol/L) is associated with
seizure. Explanation: A serum sodium concentration lower than 115 mEq/L (115 mmol/L) is associated with seizures, abnormal reflexes, papilledema, coma, and death. Anorexia, weight gain, and myalgia are associated with serum sodium concentrations lower than 120 mEq/L.
A patient with a diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma is being treated with chemotherapy. During a previous round of chemotherapy, the patient's tumor responded well to treatment but the chemotherapy caused intense nausea and vomiting. How should the patient's potential nausea and vomiting be addressed during this current round of treatment?
Administer antiemetics in anticipation of the patient's nausea. Explanation: The prevention of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting is a priority. It is inappropriate to reject pharmacological treatments or to wait until the patient experiences nausea and/or vomiting before providing medication.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has a platelet count of 30,000/mm3. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
"I floss my teeth every morning." Explanation: A client with a platelet count of 30,000/mm3 is at risk for bleeding and shouldn't floss his teeth. Flossing may increase the risk of bleeding in a client with a platelet count less than 40,000/mm3. Using an electric razor is appropriate because doing so helps minimize the risk of cutting when shaving. Taking a stool softener helps decrease potential trauma to the GI tract that may cause bleeding. Removing throw rugs from the house helps prevent falls, which could lead to uncontrolled bleeding.
You are caring for a client who has just been told that they have stage IV colon cancer. The client asks you what "stage IV" means. What would be your best response?
"Stage IV means that the cancer has spread to other organs of the body." Explanation: Stage IV: Cancer has invaded or metastasized to other organs of the body. Options A and B are part of grading tumors not staging them. Option C is incorrect.
A nurse is assessing a 75-year-old woman who had a total hysterectomy when she was 30 years old and normal Pap test results for the past 10 years. The client asks about continuing the Pap test. What is the best response by the nurse?
"You may choose to discontinue this test." Explanation: The American Cancer Society recommendations for women 66+ years or older who have had normal Pap tests for 10 years and who have had a total hysterectomy may choose to stop having Pap tests for cervical cancer screening.
The oncology nurse is giving chemotherapy to a client in a short stay area. The client confides that they are very depressed. The nurse recognizes depression as which of the following?
A normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer. Explanation: Clients have many reactions, ranging from anxiety, fear, and depression to feelings of guilt related to viewing cancer as a punishment for past actions or failure to practice a healthy lifestyle. They also may express anger related to the diagnosis and their inability to be in control. While depression is understandable, it also needs to be acknowledged and treated if necessary. Depression is not a side effect of the neoplastic drugs nor is it an aberrant psychologic reaction to the chemotherapy.
Which of the following is a term used to describe the process of programmed cell death?
Apoptosis Explanation: Apoptosis is the innate cellular process of programmed cell death. Mitosis is the phase of the cell cycle in which cell division occurs. Carcinogenesis is the process by which cancer arises. Angiogenesis is the process by which a new blood supply is formed.
A client receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention should be part of this client's care plan?
Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas Explanation: Because external radiation commonly causes skin irritation, the nurse should wash the irradiated area with water only and leave the area open to air. No soaps, deodorants, lotions, or powders should be applied. A lead apron is unnecessary because no radiation source is present in the client's body or room. Skin in the area to be irradiated is marked to position the radiation beam as precisely as possible; skin markings must not be removed
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: Tis, N0, M0. What does this classification mean?
Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis Explanation: Tis, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes can't be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3.
Which oncologic emergency involves the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space?
Cardiac tamponade Explanation: Cardiac tamponade is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space. DIC is a complex disorder of coagulation and fibrinolysis that results in thrombosis and bleeding. SIADH is a result of the failure in the negative feedback mechanism that normally regulates the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Tumor lysis syndrome is a rapidly developing oncologic emergency that results from the rapid release of intracellular contents as a result of radiation- or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia.
A side-effect of chemotherapy is renal damage. To prevent this, the nurse should:
Encourage fluid intake, if possible, to dilute the urine. Explanation: To prevent renal damage, it is helpful to dilute the urine by increasing fluids as tolerated.
The client is receiving a vesicant antineoplastic for treatment of cancer. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to take immediate action?
Extravasation Explanation: The nurse needs to monitor IV administration of antineoplastics (especially vesicants) to prevent tissue necrosis to blood vessels, skin, muscles, and nerves. Stomatitis, nausea/vomiting, and bone pain can be symptoms of the disease process or treatment mode but does not require immediate action.
In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur?
Mitosis Explanation: Cell division occurs in mitosis. RNA and protein synthesis occurs in the G1 phase. DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase. DNA synthesis is complete, and the mitotic spindle forms in the G2 phase.
The nurse is caring for a client with a benign breast tumor. The tumor may have which characteristic?
Usually progressive and slow Explanation: A benign neoplasm's rate of growth is usually progressive and slow. Malignant neoplasms have undifferentiated cells, grow by invasion, and gain access to the blood and lymph channels to metastasize to other areas of the body.
A client has cancer of the neck and is receiving external beam radiation therapy to the site. The client is experiencing trauma to the irradiated skin. The nurse does all of the following. (Select all that apply.)
assesses the client for any sun exposure avoids shaving the irradiated skin Explanation: The client receiving external beam radiation therapy may experience trauma to the irradiated skin. To prevent further skin damage, the client is to avoid sun exposure and shaving the irradiated skin area. Other skin areas are not damaged, only the irradiated skin. Lukewarm water is to be used to bathe the area. Water of extreme temperature should be avoided. Many over-the-counter ointments contain metals and may cause additional skin damage.
The nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client receiving interstitial implants for prostate cancer. The nurse documents this as
brachytherapy. Explanation: Brachytherapy is the only term used to denote the use of internal radiation implants.
The root cause of cancer is damage to cellular deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) which can be caused by many factors, or carcinogens. What factors can be carcinogenic? Select all that apply.
dietary substances environmental factors viruses Explanation: Carcinogens include chemical agents, environmental factors, dietary substances, viruses, lifestyle factors, and medically prescribed interventions. Although age and gender may increase a person's risk for developing certain types of cancer, they are not carcinogens in and of themselves.
An oncologist advises a client with an extensive family history of breast cancer to consider a mastectomy. What type of surgery would the nurse include in teaching?
prophylactic Explanation: Also called preventive surgery, prophylactic surgery may be done when there is a family history or genetic predisposition, ability to detect cancer at an early stage, and client acceptance of the postoperative outcome. Local excision is done when an existing tumor is removed along with a small margin of healthy tissue. Palliative surgery relieves symptoms. Cryoablation uses cold to destroy cancerous cells.
While doing a health history, a client tells the nurse that her mother, her grandmother, and her sister died of breast cancer. The client asks what she can do to keep from getting cancer. What is the best response by the nurse?
"Cancer prevention and detection can be done with blood analysis for tumor markers to measure your risk level." Explanation: Specialized tests have been developed for tumor markers, specific proteins, antigens, hormones, genes, or enzymes that cancer cells release. The nurse cannot say that cancer can be avoided with healthy behaviors; this is inaccurate information. A family history is a reason for the client to be concerned. Cancer does not skip a generation; this response minimizes and negates the client's concern.
An oncology nurse is caring for a client who relates that certain tastes have changed. The client states that "meat tastes bad." What nursing intervention can be used to increase protein intake for a client with taste changes?
Encourage eating cheese, eggs, and legumes Explanation: The nurse encourages the clients with taste changes to eat cheese, eggs, and legumes. Encouraging the client to take in the maximum amount of fluids does not increase protein intake. The nurse advises the client to drink protein beverages. Sucking on hard candies during treatment does not increase protein intake.
Chemotherapeutic agents have which effect associated with the renal system?
Increased uric acid excretion Explanation: Chemotherapeutic agents can damage the kidneys because of their direct effects during excretion and the accumulation of end products after cell lysis. Urinary excretion of uric acid increases with the use of chemotherapeutic agents. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia can occur from the use of chemotherapeutic agents.
For a client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the care plan?
Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift Explanation: Because thrombocytopenia impairs blood clotting, the nurse should inspect the client regularly for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, purpura, epistaxis, and bleeding gums. The nurse should avoid administering aspirin because it may increase the risk of bleeding. Frequent rest periods are indicated for clients with anemia, not thrombocytopenia. Strict isolation is indicated only for clients who have highly contagious or virulent infections that are spread by air or physical contact.
The nurse is caring for a client undergoing an incisional biopsy. Which statement does the nurse understand to be true about an incisional biopsy?
It removes a wedge of tissue for diagnosis. Explanation: The three most common biopsy methods are excisional, incisional, and needle. In an incisional biopsy, a wedge of tissue is removed from the tumor and analyzed. In an excisional biopsy, the surgeon removes the tumor and the surrounding marginal tissues. Needle aspiration biopsy involves aspirating tissue fragments through a needle guided into the cancer cells.
The nurse performs a breast exam on a client and finds a firm, non-moveable lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast that the client reports was not there 3 weeks ago. What does this finding suggest?
Malignant tumor Explanation: A fast-growing lump is suggestive of a malignant tumor. Metastasis can only be determined by cytology, not by palpation.
A male client has been unable to return to work for 10 days following chemotherapy as the result of ongoing fatigue and inability to perform usual activities. Laboratory test results are WBCs 2000/mm³, RBCs 3.2 x 10¹²/L, and platelets 85,000/mm³. The nurse notes that the client is anxious. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Risk for infection related to inadequate defenses Explanation: Physiological needs, such as risk for infection, take priority over the client's other needs.
A client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a chemotherapy-induced complication?
Serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L Explanation: Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting, which may lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Signs of fluid loss include a serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L, decreased urine output (less than 40 ml/hour), and abnormally low blood pressure. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours, serum sodium level of 142 mEq/L, and a blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg aren't abnormal findings.
Which of the following would be consistent with a benign neoplasm?
Usually progressive and slow Explanation: A benign neoplasm's rate of growth is usually progressive and slow. Malignant neoplasms have undifferentiated cells, grow by invasion, and gain access to the blood and lymph channels to metastasize to other areas of the body.
The client has finished the first round of chemotherapy. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?
"I can continue taking my vitamins and herbs because they make me feel better." Explanation: Herbal products are not regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA);although some can decrease the risk of cancer, others can have serious side effects and liver toxicity. Use of vitamins and herbals should be reviewed with the oncologist. Use of clear liquids is recommended for the client experiencing nausea and vomiting. Because hair follicles are sensitive to chemotherapy drugs, it is likely for alopecia to occur especially with consecutive treatments. Chemotherapy includes cytotoxic drugs that are harmful to rapid dividing cells such as cell development in the fetus. To prevent damage to the fetus, birth control is recommended during treatment.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a malignant tumor?
It gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. Explanation: By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.
A nurse is caring for a client after a bone marrow transplant. What is the nurse's priority in caring for the client?
Monitor the client to prevent sepsis. Explanation: Until transplanted bone marrow begins to produce blood cells, clients who have undergone a bone marrow transplant have no physiologic means to fight infection, which puts them at high risk for dying from sepsis and bleeding before engraftment. Therefore, a nurse must closely monitor clients and take measures to prevent sepsis. Monitoring client's toilet patterns, physical condition, and heart rate does not prevent the possibility of the client becoming septic.
A patient is admitted for an excisional biopsy of a breast lesion. What intervention should the nurse provide for the care of this patient?
Provide time for the patient to discuss her concerns. Explanation: Patients who are undergoing surgery for the diagnosis or treatment of cancer may be anxious about the surgical procedure, possible findings, postoperative limitations, changes in normal body functions, and prognosis. The patient and family require time and assistance to process the possible changes and outcomes resulting from the surgery. The nurse serves as the patient advocate and liaison and encourages the patient and family to take an active role in decision making when possible. If the patient or family asks about the results of diagnostic testing and surgical procedures, the nurse's response is guided by the information that was conveyed previously. The nurse may be asked to explain and clarify information for patients and families that was provided initially but was not grasped because of anxiety and overwhelming feelings. It is important that the nurse, as well as other members of the health care team, provide information that is consistent from one clinician to another.
A 16-year-old female patient experiences alopecia resulting from chemotherapy, prompting the nursing diagnoses of disturbed body image and situational low self-esteem. What action by the patient would best indicate that she is meeting the goal of improved body image and self-esteem?
The patient requests that her family bring her makeup and wig. Explanation: Requesting her wig and makeup indicates that the patient with alopecia is becoming interested in looking her best and that her body image and self-esteem may be improving. The other options may indicate that other nursing goals are being met, but they don't assess improved body image and self-esteem.
The nurse is teaching a client about carcinogens. What carcinogens does the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply.
dietary substances environmental factors viruses chemical agents defective genes hormone replacement therapy Explanation: Carcinogens include chemical agents, environmental factors, dietary substances, viruses, defective genes, and medically prescribed interventions such as hormone replacement therapy.
A client, 66 years old, has just been diagnosed with multiple myeloma (a cancer of the plasma) and will be initiating chemotherapy. The nurse, in an outpatient clinic, reviews the medications the client has been taking at home. The medications include pantoprazole for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and an over-the-counter calcium supplement to prevent osteoporosis. What interventions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
instructs the client to discontinue calcium asks about nausea and vomiting teaches the client to report abdominal or bone pain Explanation: The client with cancer is at risk for hypercalcemia from bone breakdown. The client should not take an over-the-counter calcium supplement that would increase blood levels of calcium. Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia include nausea and vomiting. The client may also report abdominal or bone pain with cancer. The client should increase fluid intake to 2 to 4 L per day. Intake would have to be adjusted based on the client's other medical conditions. GERD would not negate an increase in fluid intake. The client most likely would have constipation with hypercalcemia, not diarrhea.
A decrease in circulating white blood cells (WBC) is referred to as which of the following?
leukopenia. Explanation: A decrease in circulating WBCs is referred to as leukopenia. Granulocytopenia is a decrease in neutrophils. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in the number of platelets. Neutropenia is an abnormally low absolute neutrophil count.
While administering cisplatin to a client, the nurse assesses swelling at the insertion site. What is the nurse's first action?
Discontinue the intravenous medication. Explanation: If extravasation of a chemotherapeutic medication is suspected, the nurse immediately stops the medication. Depending on the drug, the nurse may then attempt to aspirate any remaining drug, apply a warm or cold compress, administer a neutralizing solution, or all these measures.
A patient will be receiving radiation for 6 weeks for the treatment of breast cancer and asks the nurse why it takes so long. What is the best response by the nurse?
"It will allow time for the repair of healthy tissue." Explanation: In external-beam radiation therapy (EBRT), the total radiation dose is delivered over several weeks in daily doses called fractions. This allows healthy tissue to repair and achieves greater cell kill by exposing more cells to the radiation as they begin active cell division. Repeated radiation treatments over time (fractionated doses) also allow for the periphery of the tumor to be reoxygenated repeatedly, because tumors shrink from the outside inward. This increases the radiosensitivity of the tumor, thereby increasing tumor cell death.
Which type of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is characterized by cells from a donor other than the patient?
Allogeneic Explanation: If the source of donor cells is from a donor other than the patient, it is termed allogeneic. Autologous donor cells come from the patient. Syngeneic donor cells are from an identical twin. Homogenic is not a type of stem cell transplant.
Which of the following advice does the nurse offer clients who are undergoing unsealed radiation therapy to reduce exposure?
Avoid kissing and sexual contact. Explanation: Clients who are undergoing unsealed radiation therapy are advised to avoid kissing and sexual contact. Clients are encouraged to drink plenty of fluids to help flush radioactive substances. Client may be asked to apply mild moisturizers and are not asked not to eat after the therapy.
The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurse's interview with the client, she admits that she drinks around 600 mL (20 oz) of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply.
Breast cancer Esophageal cancer Liver cancer Explanation: Dietary substances that appear to increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol, salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meats. Alcohol increases the risk of cancers of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver, colorectum, and breast.
A client diagnosed with acute myelocytic leukemia has been receiving chemotherapy. During the last 2 cycles of chemotherapy, the client developed severe thrombocytopenia requiring multiple platelet transfusions. The client is now scheduled to receive a third cycle. How can the nurse best detect early signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia?
Closely observe the client's skin for petechiae and bruising. Explanation: The nurse should closely observe the client's skin for petechiae and bruising. Daily laboratory testing may not reflect the client's condition as quickly as subtle changes in the client's skin. Performing a cardiovascular assessment every 4 hours and checking the clients history for a congenital link to thrombocytopenia don't help detect early signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia.
A client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis?
Red, open sores on the oral mucosa Explanation: The tissue-destructive effects of cancer chemotherapy typically cause stomatitis, resulting in ulcers on the oral mucosa that appear as red, open sores. White, cottage cheese-like patches on the tongue suggest a candidal infection, another common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Yellow tooth discoloration may result from antibiotic therapy, not cancer chemotherapy. Rust-colored sputum suggests a respiratory disorder, such as pneumonia.
The nurse knows that interferon agents are used in association with chemotherapy to produce which effects in the client?
Shorten the period of neutropenia Explanation: Interferon agents are a type of biologic response modifiers (BRMs) used in conjunction with chemotherapy to reduce the risk of infection by shortening the period of neutropenia through bone marrow stimulation. The suppression of bone marrow creates the need for interferon use, not a result of the use. Although some BRMs can inhibit tumor growth, the primary use is for reducing neutropenia. Interferon use does not replace standard cancer treatments or decrease the need for those treatments.
A nurse is administering daunorubicin (DaunoXome) to a patient with lung cancer. Which situation requires immediate intervention?
The I.V. site is red and swollen. Explanation: A red, swollen I.V. site indicates possible infiltration. Daunorubicin is a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent and can be very damaging to tissue if it infiltrates. The nurse should immediately stop the medication, apply ice to the site, and notify the physician. Although nausea, WBC count of 1,000/mm3, and shivering require interventions, these findings aren't a high priority at this time.
A patient is scheduled for cryoablation for cervical cancer and tells the nurse, "I am not exactly sure what the surgeon is going to do." What is the best response by the nurse?
The surgeon is going to use liquid nitrogen to freeze the area." Explanation: Cryoablation is the use of liquid nitrogen or a very cold probe to freeze tissue and cause cell destruction. It is used for cervical, prostate, and rectal cancers. Chemosurgery is the use of medication. Laser surgery is the use of a laser. Radiofrequency ablation is the use of thermal energy.
Which statement is true about malignant tumors?
They gain access to the blood and lymphatic channels. Explanation: By gaining access to blood and lymphatic channels, a tumor can metastasize to other areas of the body. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rates of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.
Which is a sign or symptom of septic shock?
Altered mental status Explanation: Signs of septic shock include altered mental status, cool and clammy skin, decreased urine output, and hypotension.
A client is recovering from a craniotomy with tumor debulking. Which comment by the client indicates to the nurse a correct understanding of what the surgery entailed?
"I guess the doctor could not remove the entire tumor." Explanation: Debulking is a reference made when a tumor cannot be completely removed, often due to its extension far into healthy tissue. Without complete removal, this is not a cure and, the cancer cells will continue to replicate and require adjuvant therapies to prevent further invasion. The physician, not the nurse, will need to clarify the details of the surgery.
The nurse is caring for a client who has had a nuclear scan to aid in the diagnosis of possible cancer. The scan showed a "hot spot". What does this mean?
An area of increased concentrations of the tracer used in the scan. Explanation: Nuclear Scans: Clients ingest or receive intravenous (IV) radioisotopes (also known as tracers). After specific time intervals, images are taken of tissues that are affected by cancer or other diseases; the images distinguish tissues or portions of tissues that absorb more or less of the tracer. "Hot spots" show on an image of a tumor that has increased concentrations of the tracer, whereas "cold spots" can be the image of a tumor that has decreased concentration of the tracer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect information about hot spots.
Which procedure uses liquid nitrogen to freeze tissue, thereby destroying cells?
Cryoablation Explanation: Cryoablation uses liquid nitrogen or a very cold probe to freeze tissue, causing cell destruction. Electrosurgery, chemosurgery, and laser surgery do not use liquid nitrogen to freeze tissue.
The drug interleukin-2 is an example of which type of biologic response modifier?
Cytokine Explanation: Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.
What disadvantages of chemotherapy should the patient be informed about prior to starting the regimen?
It targets normal body cells as well as cancer cells. Explanation: Chemotherapy agents affect both normal and malignant cells; therefore, their effects are often widespread, affecting many body systems.
A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. What is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
Liver Explanation: The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. The others are the lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites.
The nurse is teaching a client about cancer prevention. The nurse evaluates teaching as most effective when a female client states that she will
Use sunscreen when outdoors. Explanation: Use of sunscreens play a role in the amount of exposure to ultraviolet light. Even decreasing the use of tobacco still exposes a person to risk of cancer. The American Cancer Society recommends adults to engage in at least 30 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity on 5 or more days each week. It is recommended to obtain a cancer history from at least three generations.
Which type of vaccine uses the client's own cancer cells, which are killed and prepared for injection back into the client?
Autologous Explanation: Autologous vaccines are made from the client's own cancer cells, which are obtained during diagnostic biopsy or surgery. Prophylactic vaccines, such as the polio vaccine, are given to prevent people from developing a disease. Therapeutic vaccines are given to kill existing cancer cells and to provide long-lasting immunity against further cancer development. Allogeneic vaccines are made from cancer cells that are obtained from other people who have a specific type of cancer.
The nurse should teach the patient who is being radiated about protecting his skin and oral mucosa. An important teaching point would be to tell the patient to:
Cleanse the skin with a mild soap, using his fingertips, not a rough wash cloth. Explanation: The patient should cleanse himself with a mild soap using his fingertips rather than a wash cloth. All the other choices will irritate the skin and fail to protect it from additional injury.
The nurse is evaluating the client's risk for cancer. The nurse should recommend the client change which lifestyle choice?
eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day Explanation: Dietary substances such as nitrate-containing and red meats appear to increase the risk of cancer. Exercising 30 minutes on 5 days or more is recommended for adults. Measures are taken to protect those people who work around radiation. Alcohol consumption recommendations include drink no more than one drink per day for women or two per day for men.
A 67-year-old client is admitted for diagnostic studies to rule out cancer. The patient is white, married, has been employed as a landscaper for 40 years, and has a 36-year history of smoking a pack of cigarettes daily. What significant risk factors does the nurse recognize this patient has? Select all that apply.
Age Cigarette smoking Occupation Explanation: Most cancer occurs in people older than 65 years. Although the overall rate of cancer deaths has declined, cancer death rates in Black men remain substantially higher than those among White men and twice those of Hispanic men. Excessive exposure to the ultraviolet rays of the sun, especially in fair-skinned people, increases the risk of skin cancers. Factors such as clothing styles (sleeveless shirts or shorts), the use of sunscreens, occupation, recreational habits, and environmental variables, including humidity, altitude, and latitude, all play a role in the amount of exposure to ultraviolet light. Tobacco smoke, thought to be the single most lethal chemical carcinogen, accounts for at least 30% of cancer deaths in humans (Fontham et al., 2009). Smoking is strongly associated with cancers of the lung, head and neck, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, cervix, kidney, and bladder and with acute myeloblastic leukemia. Marital status is not associated with risk for cancer.
A nurse assesses an oncology client with stomatitis during a chemotherapy session. Which nursing intervention would most likely decrease the pain associated with stomatitis?
Provide a solution of viscous lidocaine for use as a mouth rinse. Explanation: To decrease the pain of stomatitis, the nurse should provide a solution of viscous lidocaine for the client to use as a mouth rinse. (Commercially prepared mouthwashes contain alcohol and may cause dryness and irritation of the oral mucosa.) The nurse also may administer systemic analgesics as ordered. Stomatitis occurs 7 to 10 days after chemotherapy begins; thus, stopping chemotherapy wouldn't be helpful or practical. Instead, the nurse should stay alert for this potential problem to ensure prompt treatment. Monitoring platelet and leukocyte counts may help prevent bleeding and infection, but wouldn't decrease pain in this highly susceptible client. Checking for signs and symptoms of stomatitis also wouldn't decrease the pain.
Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching?
"I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation." Explanation: The client undergoing external radiation therapy requires further teaching when he voices a concern that he might expose his family to radiation. Internal radiation, not external radiation, poses a risk to the client's family. The client requires no further teaching if he states that he should wash his skin with mild soap and water, wear protective clothing when outside, and avoid using a heating pad.
Mrs. Unger is a 53-year-old woman who was diagnosed with breast cancer following a process that began with abnormal screen mammography results. Mrs. Unger, her oncologist, and surgeon have agreed on a mastectomy as treatment and have discussed the importance of rigorously assessing whether her cancer has metastasized. What action will best detect possible metastasis of Mrs. Unger's breast cancer?
Biopsy of the axillary lymph nodes Explanation: The transport of tumor cells through the lymphatic circulation is the most common mechanism of metastasis. Tumor emboli enter the lymph channels by way of the interstitial fluid, which communicates with lymphatic circulation. Breast tumors frequently metastasize in this manner through axillary, clavicular, and thoracic lymph channels.
Which does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) procedure?
Blood studies Explanation: Before the HSCT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the client's physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past exposure to antigens such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status. Before an HSCT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate client's family, drug, or allergy history.
A patient will be having an endoscopic procedure with a diagnostic biopsy. What type of biopsy does the nurse explain will remove an entire piece of suspicious tissue?
Excisional biopsy Explanation: Excisional biopsy is most frequently used for small, easily accessible tumors of the skin, breast, and upper or lower gastrointestinal and upper respiratory tracts. In many cases, the surgeon can remove the entire tumor as well as the surrounding marginal tissues. The removal of normal tissue beyond the tumor area decreases the possibility that residual microscopic malignant cells may lead to a recurrence of the tumor. Incisional biopsy is performed if the tumor mass is too large to be removed. In this case, a wedge of tissue from the tumor is removed for analysis. Needle biopsy is performed to sample suspicious masses that are easily and safely accessible, such as some masses in the breasts, thyroid, lung, liver, and kidney. A core needle biopsy uses a specially designed needle to obtain a small core of tissue that permits histologic analysis.
Which type of surgery is used in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer?
Palliative Explanation: Palliative surgery is performed to relieve complications of cancer. Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are likely to develop cancer. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery and is carried out in an attempt to improve function or to obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach.
A client reports a new onset of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. The health care provider orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals end-stage gallbladder cancer. What nursing intervention should be used to facilitate adaptive coping?
Refer client for professional counseling. Explanation: Referring the client for professional counseling will facilitate adaptive coping. Encouraging ventilation of negative feelings will allow for emotional expression, but may not facilitate coping. Physical well-being will increase self-esteem, but won't necessarily help the patient cope with the diagnosis. Providing written education is for client teaching, not to facilitate coping
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which assessment finding places the client at the greatest risk for an infection?
Stage 3 pressure ulcer on the left heel Explanation: A stage 3 pressure ulcer is a break in the skin's protective barrier, which could lead to infection in a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The WBC count and temperature are within normal limits. Eating 75% of meals is normal and doesn't increase the client's risk for infection. A client who is malnourished is at a greater risk for infection.
