Ch. 4: Adaptive Immunity, Ch. 3: Innate Immunity, Ch. 2: Nature of Antigens & the MHC, Ch. 1: Intro to Immunity & the Immune System
The inheritance of certain MHC antigens can result in which of the following? a. All of the above b. Increased resistance to certain infectious organisms c. Predisposition to particular autoimmune diseases d. Diminished immune responses to particular antigens
a. All of the above
All of the following are commonly found within non-lymphoid tissues EXCEPT: a. B cells. b. mast cells. c. dendritic cells. d. macrophages.
a. B cells.
Predominant cell types involved in the humoral immune response are: a. B cells. b. eosinophils. c. macrophages. d. neutrophils.
a. B cells.
All of the following cells are considered part of natural immunity EXCEPT: a. B lymphocytes. b. eosinophils. c. neutrophils. d. monocytes.
a. B lymphocytes.
Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made? a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Lymph nodes
a. Bone marrow
Where does antigen-independent maturation of B lymphocytes take place? a. Bone marrow b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Lymph nodes
a. Bone marrow
Which marker is found on the group of T cells that assists B cells in making antibody? a. CD4 b. CD5 c. CD2 d. CD19
a. CD4
Class II MHC molecules are recognized by which of the following? a. CD4+ T cells b. CD8+ T cells c. Natural killer cells d. Neutrophils
a. CD4+ T cells
The action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody because a. CRP acts before the antibody appears. b. only the antibody triggers the complement cascade. c. binding of the antibody is calcium-dependent. d. only CRP acts as an opsonin.
a. CRP acts before the antibody appears.
HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV
a. Class I
Clonal deletion of T cells as they mature is important in which of the following processes? a. Elimination of autoimmune responses b. Positive selection of CD3/TCR receptors c. Allelic exclusion of chromosomes d. Elimination of cells unable to bind to MHC antigens
a. Elimination of autoimmune responses
Which of the following is a low-molecular-weight molecule that has one binding site for an antibody? a. Hapten b. Adjuvant c. Immunogen d. Antigen
a. Hapten
Which acute-phase reactant helps to prevent formation of peroxides and free radicals that may damage tissues? a. Haptoglobin b. Fibrinogen c. Ceruloplasmin d. Serum amyloid A
a. Haptoglobin
Naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B antibodies are thought to be the result of exposure to which of the following? a. Heterophile antigens b. Alloantigens c. Haptens d. Autoantigens
a. Heterophile antigens
Which of the following is directly used in oxidative killing of target cells? a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Defensin c. Lysozyme d. TNF-alpha
a. Hydrogen peroxide
Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity? a. Innate b. Cross c. Adaptive d. Auto
a. Innate
The cells that Metchnikoff first observed are associated with which phenomenon? a. Innate immunity b. Adaptive immunity c. Humoral immunity d. Specific immunity
a. Innate immunity
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic or function of the spleen? a. Less than 25 mm in size b. Filters infectious agents and foreign matter from the blood c. Removes old red blood cells from the circulation d. Is considered a secondary lymphoid organ
a. Less than 25 mm in size
A plasma cell differs from a B cell in which way? a. Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody. b. Plasma cells are an immature form in B-cell development. c. Plasma cells are only found in peripheral blood. d. Plasma cells secrete cytokines.
a. Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody.
Humoral immunity refers to which of the following? a. Production of antibody by plasma cells b. Production of cytokines by T cells c. Elimination of virally infected cells by cytotoxic cells d. Downregulation of the immune response
a. Production of antibody by plasma cells
Adjuvants act by which of the following methods? a. Protects antigen from being degraded b. Facilitates rapid escape from the tissues c. Limits the area of the immune response d. Decreases number of APCs
a. Protects antigen from being degraded
Which would be the most effective immunogen? a. Protein with a molecular weight of 200,000 b. Nylon polymer with a molecular weight of 250,000 c. Polysaccharide with a molecular weight of 220,000 d. Protein with a molecular weight of 175,000
a. Protein with a molecular weight of 200,000
Where do lymphocytes mainly come in contact with antigens? a. Secondary lymphoid organs b. Bloodstream c. Bone marrow d. Thymus
a. Secondary lymphoid organs
Which type of leukocyte is identified by an ability to form rosettes with sheep red blood cells? a. T cell b. Natural killer cell c. B cell d. Plasma cell
a. T cell
Which type of helper T cell promotes cytotoxic activity? a. Th1 b. Th9 c. Th2 d. Treg
a. Th1
Which of the following is NOT a component or characteristic of natural (innate) immunity? a. The response involves antibodies. b. The response involves phagocytosis. c. Repeated exposure to a pathogen does not change the response. d. The response involves acute-phase reactants.
a. The response involves antibodies.
Which of the following is true of class II MHC (HLA) antigens? a. They are found on B cells and macrophages. b. They are found on all nucleated cells. c. They all originate at one locus. d. They are coded for on chromosome 9.
a. They are found on B cells and macrophages.
Which of the following is a characteristic of opsonins? a. They are molecules that coat bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis. b. They are carbohydrates that stimulate T cells. c. They are expressed on the surface of neutrophils. d. They are produced by NK cells.
a. They are molecules that coat bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis.
In relation to a human, alloantigens would need to be considered in which of the following events? a. Transplantation of a kidney from one individual to another b. Vaccination with the polysaccharide coat of a bacterial cell c. Oral administration of a live but heat-killed virus particle d. Grafting skin from one area of the body to another
a. Transplantation of a kidney from one individual to another
What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle? a. Unstimulated B cells b. Germinal centers c. Plasma cells d. Memory cells
a. Unstimulated B cells
A T cell that is rarely found in secondary lymphoid organs and recognizes a limited number of native epitopes is known as: a. a gamma-delta T cell. b. a helper T cell. c. a cytotoxic T cell. d. an alpha-beta T cell.
a. a gamma-delta T cell.
Serum proteins that increase in concentration within 24 to 48 hours of the onset of infection or injury are called: a. acute-phase proteins. b. complement proteins. c. immunoglobulins. d. reagins.
a. acute-phase proteins.
Which enzyme protects host cells rather than destroying invading cells? a. alpha-1 antitrypsin b. lysozyme c. myeloperoxidase d. granzyme
a. alpha-1 antitrypsin
A substance used to enhance antibody formation is called: a. an adjuvant b. an immunogen c. a carrier d. a hapten
a. an adjuvant
A processed antigen first encounters and binds to MHC class II molecules in the: a. endosomal compartment b. membrane surface c. nucleus d. endoplasmic reticulum
a. endosomal compartment
The antigens that bind MHC class II antigens are first "processed" by: a. enzymes in the endosome. b. the proteasome. c. transporters associated with antigen processing. d. the endoplasmic reticulum
a. enzymes in the endosome.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic shared by class I and class II MHC molecules? a. expressed constitutively on all nucleated cells b. expressed co-dominantly c. members of the immunoglobulin superfamily d. involved in antigen recognition
a. expressed constitutively on all nucleated cells
B cells that are actively responding to antigen can be found in the: a. germinal centers. b. primary follicles. c. peripheral blood. d. bone marrow.
a. germinal centers.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neutrophils? a. granules that become bright orange with Wright stain b. capable of diapedesis c. segmented nucleus d. congregate in the marginating pool in blood vessels
a. granules that become bright orange with Wright stain
Antigens found in different species that trigger a similar antibody response are called: a. heterophile antigens. b. autoantigens. c. haptens. d. alloantigens.
a. heterophile antigens.
The ability of an individual to resist infection by means of normally present body functions is called a. innate immunity. b. humoral immunity. c. adaptive immunity. d. cross-immunity.
a. innate immunity.
All of the following are considered part of natural immunity EXCEPT: a. lymphocytes. b. neutrophils. c. eosinophils. d. acute-phase reactants.
a. lymphocytes.
The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is a. opsonization. b. agglutination. c. solubilization. d. chemotaxis.
a. opsonization.
Oxygen-independent bacterial killing in the phagolysosome involves: a. pH-activated defensins b. hypochlorite c. opsonins d. pentraxins
a. pH-activated defensins
T cells are mainly concentrated in which region of the lymph nodes? a. paracortex b. primary follicles c. medulla d. secondary follicles
a. paracortex
The main function of T cells in the immune response is to a. produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity. b. produce antibodies. c. participate actively in phagocytosis. d. respond to target cells without prior exposure.
a. produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity.
Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell? a. μ chains in the cytoplasm b. Complete IgM on the surface c. Presence of CD21 antigen d. Presence of CD25 antigen
a. μ chains in the cytoplasm
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of adaptive immunity? a. Ability to fight infection b. Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen c. A similar response to all pathogens encountered d. Process of phagocytosis to destroy a pathogen
b. Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen
The ability to respond to antigen depends on which of the following factors? a. Genetic predisposition b. All of the above c. Age d. Proper nutrition
b. All of the above
A 40-year-old male who is a smoker develops symptoms of premature emphysema. The symptoms may be caused by a deficiency of which of the following acute-phase reactants? a. Haptoglobin b. Alpha1-antitrypsin c. Fibrinogen d. Ceruloplasmin
b. Alpha1-antitrypsin
Which of the following best describes a hapten? a. Cannot react with antibody b. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier c. Has multiple determinant sites d. A large chemically complex molecule
b. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier
When does genetic rearrangement for coding of antibody light chains take place during B-cell development? a. Before the pre-B cell stage b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell c. Not until the cell becomes a mature B cell d. When the B cell becomes a plasma cell
b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell
Which is characteristic of class I MHC molecules? a. Consists of one α and one β chain b. Binds peptides made within the cell c. Able to bind whole proteins d. Coded for by DR, DP, and DQ genes
b. Binds peptides made within the cell
What is the purpose of the invariant chain in antigen processing associated with class II MHC molecules? a. Helps transport peptides to the binding site b. Blocks binding of endogenous peptides c. Binds to CD8+ T cells d. Cleaves peptides into the proper size for binding
b. Blocks binding of endogenous peptides
Which of the following antigens are found on the T-cell subset known as helper/inducers? a. CD3 b. CD4 c. CD8 d. CD11
b. CD4
Which of the following is found on the T cell subset known as helpers? a. CD19 b. CD4 c. CD8 d. CD56
b. CD4
Which MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4+ T cells? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. No MHC molecule is necessary.
b. Class II
The presence of human microbiota (normal flora) acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following methods? a. Maintaining an acid environment b. Competing with potential pathogens c. Keeping phagocytes in the area d. Coating mucosal surfaces
b. Competing with potential pathogens
Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue? a. Neutrophil b. Dendritic cell c. Eosinophil d. Basophil
b. Dendritic cell
Which acute-phase reactant is an important clotting factor? a. Haptoglobin b. Fibrinogen c. Ceruloplasmin d. Alpha-2 macroglobulin
b. Fibrinogen
Characteristics of MHC class II molecules include which of the following? a. Combine with antigen made inside the cell b. Have alpha and beta chains of approximately equal size c. Have an alpha chain and beta-2 microglobulin d. Interact with CD8+ T cells
b. Have alpha and beta chains of approximately equal size
Which of these are found on a mature B cell? a. IgG and IgD b. IgM and IgD c. Alpha and beta chains d. CD3
b. IgM and IgD
Acute-phase reactants are elevated in a patient's serum. What does this result, on its own, indicate about the patient? a. There is a parasitic infection and not a viral infection. b. Inflammation of an unknown cause is present. c. The patient has a leukemia but not a lymphoma. d. The patient has a bacterial infection.
b. Inflammation of an unknown cause is present.
How does innate immunity differ from adaptive immunity? a. Innate immunity requires prior exposure to a pathogen. b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions. c. Innate immunity develops later than adaptive immunity. d. Innate immunity is more specific than adaptive immunity.
b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions.
Which of the following is characteristic of mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue? a. It clears pathogens from the bloodstream. b. It includes the tonsils and the appendix. c. It is one of the primary lymphoid organs. d. It includes the liver and spleen.
b. It includes the tonsils and the appendix.
Where does the specific immune response to a foreign antigen mainly occur? a. Skin b. Lymph nodes c. Bone marrow d. Blood
b. Lymph nodes
Which of the following are components of both innate and adaptive immune responses? a. B cells b. Macrophages c. T helper cells d. Immunoglobulins
b. Macrophages
Which of the following best describes diapedesis? a. Engulfment of target cells b. Movement through blood vessel walls as cells exit the circulation c. Movement toward increasing concentrations of a cytokine d. Attachment of immunoglobulin to target cells
b. Movement through blood vessel walls as cells exit the circulation
Which of the following is a part of humoral immunity? a. Cells involved in phagocytosis b. Neutralization of toxins by serum c. Macrophages and mast cells in the tissue d. T and B cells in lymph nodes
b. Neutralization of toxins by serum
What is the major function of C-reactive protein? a. Promoting clot formation b. Opsonization c. Binding hemoglobin d. Causing vasodilation
b. Opsonization
Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of B cells? a. Act as helper cells b. Presence of surface antibody c. Able to kill target cells without prior exposure d. Active in phagocytosis
b. Presence of surface antibody
Which of the following occurs during the oxidative burst? a. Increased release of carbon dioxide b. Pseudopodia extending around a particle c. The release of granules from a cell d. A decrease in oxygen consumption
b. Pseudopodia extending around a particle
Helper T cells that promote a humoral immune response include which of the following? a. Th17 b. Th2 c. Th1 d. All of the above
b. Th2
Oxidative killing involves which of the following? a. Activation of complement b. The hexose monophosphate shunt c. Perforin and granzymes d. Direct cytokine-mediated killing
b. The hexose monophosphate shunt
Which best describes lymph nodes? a. They are approximately 12 cm in size. b. They are concentrated where appendages join the thorax of the body. c. They are considered primary or central lymphoid organs. d. They line the interior of small blood vessels.
b. They are concentrated where appendages join the thorax of the body.
Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against which type of pathogen? a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Fungi d. Parasites
b. Viruses
MHC molecules containing beta-2-microglobulin: a. participate in the activation of CD4 T cells. b. are determined by MHC-A, MHC-B, and MHC-C genes. c. contain alpha and beta transmembrane polypeptides. d. are determined by MHC-DR genes
b. are determined by MHC-A, MHC-B, and MHC-C genes.
Hematopoietic stem cells are located in the: a. thymus b. bone marrow c. lymph nodes d. spleen
b. bone marrow
How are immunoglobulin and T-cell receptors similar? a. both are required for antigen presentation b. both have multiple gene segments encoding the variable region c. both can capture numerous different antigens d. both have an antigen-binding site that recognizes conformational epitopes
b. both have multiple gene segments encoding the variable region
The purpose of the invariant chain is to block the peptide-binding site of: a. class I MHC molecules. b. class II MHC molecules. c. antibody molecules. d. T-cell receptors.
b. class II MHC molecules.
Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes a. cytokines. b. clusters of differentiation (CD). c. neutrophilic granules. d. opsonins.
b. clusters of differentiation (CD).
A heterophile antigen is one that a. is a self-antigen. b. exists in unrelated plants or animals. c. has been used previously to stimulate antibody response. d. is from the same species but is different from the host.
b. exists in unrelated plants or animals.
When a child inherits one set of six HLA genes together from one parent, this is called a(n) a. genotype. b. haplotype. c. phenotype. d. allotype.
b. haplotype.
The phagosome of a macrophage is a membrane-bound vesicle that contains: a. reactive oxygen intermediates. b. ingested pathogens. c. enzymes. d. perforin and granzymes.
b. ingested pathogens.
Natural killer cells recognize and kill abnormal host cells that are: a. expressing MHC class I b. lacking expression of MHC class I c. opsonized with IgE d. presenting antigen bound to MHC class II
b. lacking expression of MHC class I
The term "human leukocyte antigen" is synonymous with: a. chromosome. b. major histocompatibility complex. c. allele. d. haplotype.
b. major histocompatibility complex.
Which white cell in the peripheral blood migrates into tissue to become a macrophage? a. eosinophil b. monocyte c. basophil d. neutrophil
b. monocyte
C-reactive protein, complement components, and antibodies are all: a. enzymes. b. opsonins. c. pathogen-recognition receptors. d. acute-phase reactants.
b. opsonins.
Toll-like receptors bind to: a. acute-phase proteins b. pathogen-associated molecular patterns c. cytokines d. the Fc portion of IgG
b. pathogen-associated molecular patterns
Which cell is capable of producing antibody? a. CD4+ T cell b. plasma cell c. neutrophil d. macrophage
b. plasma cell
Pathogen recognition receptors act by a. recognizing molecules common to both host cells and pathogens. b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens. c. helping to spread infection because they are found on pathogens. d. all recognizing the same pathogens.
b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens.
All of the following are characteristic of acute-phase reactants EXCEPT: a. they enhance phagocytosis b. they are used to diagnose a specific disease c. they are constituents that increase rapidly in response to infection d. they limit destruction of host tissue
b. they are used to diagnose a specific disease
T cells mature in the: a. bone marrow b. thymus c. lymph nodes d. spleen
b. thymus
Which of the following individuals would likely respond most strongly to a bacterial infection? a. An adult who is 75 years of age b. A malnourished 40-year-old c. A weightlifter who is 35 years old d. A newborn baby
c. A weightlifter who is 35 years old
Which statement best describes the specific antigen receptor that is a part of CD3 found on T cells? a. All eight chains are specific for antigen. b. It is found only on T helper cells. c. Alpha and beta chains bind antigen. d. It appears in the double-negative stage.
c. Alpha and beta chains bind antigen.
Granzymes activate which of the following in a target cell? a. Cytokine secretion b. Phagocytosis c. Apoptosis d. Complement activation
c. Apoptosis
T cells differ from B cells in which of the following ways? a. T cells express CD19, CD3, and CD4. b. B cells express surface immunoglobulin and CD3. c. B cells express CD19 but not CD3. d. T cells express surface immunoglobulin.
c. B cells express CD19 but not CD3.
What is the function of the acute-phase protein haptoglobin? a. Acts as a chemotaxin b. Forms clots c. Binds hemoglobin d. Acts as an opsonin
c. Binds hemoglobin
How are cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells similar? a. Both recognize peptide plus MHC class I. b. Both kill target cells lacking MHC class I. c. Both induce apoptosis in the target cell. d. Both require antibody to be bound to the target cell.
c. Both induce apoptosis in the target cell.
Which of the following would represent a double-negative thymocyte? a. CD2-CD3+CD4-CD8+ b. CD2-CD3-CD4+CD8- c. CD2+CD3+CD4-CD8- d. CD2-CD3-CD4+CD8-
c. CD2+CD3+CD4-CD8-
Which cells are responsible for killing virally infected host cells and tumor cells? a. B cells b. CD4 T cells c. CD8 T cells d. Plasma cells
c. CD8 T cells
An individual is recovering from a bacterial infection and tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium. Which of the following statements is true of this situation? a. Class I molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD8+ T cells. b. Class I molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells. c. Class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells. d. B cells have recognized bacterial antigen without help from T cells.
c. Class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells.
Which of the following can be attributed to antigen-stimulated T cells? a. Humoral response b. Plasma cells c. Cytokines d. Antibody
c. Cytokines
Which of the following cells that participate in cell-mediated immunity are antigen specific and directly cytotoxic for target cells? a. Macrophages b. Th1 cells c. Cytotoxic T cells d. Natural killer cells
c. Cytotoxic T cells
A cell flow cytometry pattern belonging to a 3-year-old patient showed the following: normal CD4+ T-cell count, normal CD19+ B-cell count, low CD8+ T-cell count. Which type of immunity would be affected? a. Production of antibody b. Formation of plasma cells c. Elimination of virally infected cells d. Downregulation of the immune response
c. Elimination of virally infected cells
Which of the following can be attributed to Pasteur? a. Discovery of opsonins b. Observation of phagocytosis c. First attenuated vaccines d. Theory of humoral immunity
c. First attenuated vaccines
Characteristics of heterophile antigens include which of the following? a. One's own self-antigens b. All of the above c. Found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-react with the same antibody d. Any antigens used for immunization
c. Found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-react with the same antibody
Which is the most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the elimination of microorganisms? a. Proteolytic enzymes b. Hydrogen ions c. Hypochlorite ions d. Superoxides
c. Hypochlorite ions
Which of the following statements best describes a lymph node? a. It is considered a primary lymphoid organ. b. It removes old RBCs. c. It collects fluid from the tissues. d. It is where B cells mature.
c. It collects fluid from the tissues.
Which of the following plays an important role as an external defense mechanism? a. Phagocytosis b. C-reactive protein c. Lysozyme d. Complement
c. Lysozyme
In the thymus, positive selection of immature T cells is based upon recognition of which of the following? a. Self-antigens b. Stress proteins c. MHC antigens d. μ chains
c. MHC antigens
Which best explains the difference between immunogens and antigens? a. Only antigens are large enough to be recognized by T cells. b. Only immunogens can react with antibody. c. Only immunogens can trigger an immune response. d. Only antigens are recognized as foreign.
c. Only immunogens can trigger an immune response.
Which of the following statements best characterizes adaptive immunity? a. Relies on normally present body functions b. Response is similar for each exposure c. Specificity for each individual pathogen d. Involves only cellular immunity
c. Specificity for each individual pathogen
The cells that primarily function by secreting large amounts of cytokines are: a. B cells. b. plasma cells. c. T helper cells. d. cytotoxic T cells.
c. T helper cells.
Which of the following best describes the role of TAP? a. They bind to class II molecules to help block the antigen-binding site. b. They bind to class I proteins in proteasomes. c. They transport peptides into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. d. They help cleave peptides for transport to endosomes.
c. They transport peptides into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum.
Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ? a. Lymph node b. Spleen c. Thymus d. MALT
c. Thymus
"Cluster of differentiation" refers to: a. aggregates of differentiating stem cells. b. groups of antigens that identify a cell as foreign. c. a category of cell surface proteins used to identify cell types. d. the cells that congregate in germinal centers.
c. a category of cell surface proteins used to identify cell types.
A substance that is too small to stimulate antibody production by itself unless it is attached to larger carrier molecule is called: a. an alloantigen b. an autoantigen c. a hapten d. a cross-reacting antigen
c. a hapten
Aluminum salt in the hepatitis vaccine functions as: a. an immunogen. b. a hapten. c. an adjuvant. d. a carrier.
c. an adjuvant.
A macromolecule that is capable of eliciting an immune response in an immunocompetent host is called: a. an antibody. b. a hapten. c. an antigen. d. an acute-phase reactant.
c. an antigen.
Pasteur's discovery that older bacterial cultures would not cause disease in chickens but would protect them from subsequent infection with more virulent strains is an example of: a. cross-immunity b. passive immunity c. attenuated vaccine d. natural immunity
c. attenuated vaccine
Antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells requires: a. no MHC molecules. b. class I MHC molecules. c. class II MHC molecules. d. class III MHC molecules.
c. class II MHC molecules.
A determinant site on an antigen that is produced by the folding of the primary chain is known as a: a. monovalent epitope b. hapten c. conformational epitope d. linear epitope
c. conformational epitope
Endogenous peptides binding to MHC-A, MHC-B, or MHC-C molecules on the surface of hepatocytes are critical for the response by: a. T helper cells. b. macrophages. c. cytotoxic T cells. d. B lymphocytes.
c. cytotoxic T cells.
The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the following except a. increased blood supply to the area. b. migration of WBCs. c. decreased capillary permeability. d. appearance of acute-phase reactants.
c. decreased capillary permeability.
Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except a. monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents. b. tracking the progress of an organ transplant. c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection. d. determining active phases of rheumatoid arthritis.
c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.
For diapedesis to occur: a. NADPH must be activated. b. CD16 receptors must be bound. c. endothelial cells must contract. d. microbes must be phagocytized.
c. endothelial cells must contract.
All of the following are characteristics of a strong immunogen EXCEPT: a. it is protein in nature. b. it is foreign to the host. c. it is a repeating polymer. d. it is a large molecule.
c. it is a repeating polymer.
Contact with antigen and activation of B cells normally occurs in the: a. peripheral blood. b. thymus. c. lymph nodes. d. connective tissue.
c. lymph nodes.
Which of the following is characteristic of natural immunity? a. it involves specificity b. it involves memory c. mechanisms are always present and fully functional d. T lymphocytes play a major role
c. mechanisms are always present and fully functional
All of the following are involved in adaptive immunity EXCEPT: a. specificity. b. lymphocytes. c. neutrophils. d. memory.
c. neutrophils.
Which of the following would be the most effective immunogen? a. one that is genetically foreign and has a single epitope b. one with a molecular weight of less than 10,000 Da c. one with multiple epitopes with many specificities d. one with multiple epitopes with a single repeated specificity
c. one with multiple epitopes with many specificities
The defense mechanism carried out by natural killer cells involves: a. MHC class II-mediated killing. b. phagocytosis. c. perforin- and granzyme-mediated killing. d. recognition of a specific antigen.
c. perforin- and granzyme-mediated killing.
Mutations causing deficiencies in CD40L expression lead to an inability of helper T cells to: a. activate macrophages, resulting in an inability to clear extracellular pathogens. b. migrate to the site of an infection by chemotaxis, resulting in a slowed response. c. promote class-switching, resulting in high IgM and low IgA and IgG concentrations. d. kill tumor cells, resulting in an increased risk of cancer.
c. promote class-switching, resulting in high IgM and low IgA and IgG concentrations.
After a macrophage phagocytizes, kills, and digests a microbe: a. all of the microbial debris is expelled by exocytosis b. all of the microbial peptides are broken down into amino acids that are recycled by the macrophage into new proteins c. some microbial peptides are bound by MHC class II d. some microbial peptides are bound by Fc
c. some microbial peptides are bound by MHC class II
A primary site of antigen trapping and presentation to immune cells is the: a. thymus. b. bone marrow. c. spleen. d. brain.
c. spleen.
Immunity can be defined as a. the study of medicines used to treat diseases. b. a specific population at risk for a disease. c. the condition of being resistant to disease. d. the study of the noncellular portion of the blood.
c. the condition of being resistant to disease.
Which of the following is NOT a component of natural (innate) immunity? a. the response involves acute-phase reactants b. the response involves phagocytosis c. the response involves antibodies d. repeated exposure to a pathogen does not change the response
c. the response involves antibodies
Which of the following is a characteristic of natural killer cells? a. they mature in the thymus b. they are part of the adaptive immune system c. they are a type of lymphocyte d. they are smaller than B and T cells
c. they are a type of lymphocyte
T lymphocytes undergo antigen-independent maturation in the: a. bone marrow. b. spleen. c. thymus. d. lymph node.
c. thymus.
The function of CD4+ T cells is: a. to kill virally infected cells b. phagocytosis c. to help B cells make antibody d. production of opsonins
c. to help B cells make antibody
Which best describes an epitope? a. A peptide that must be at least 10,000 MW b. An area of an immunogen recognized only by T cells c. A segment of sequential amino acids only d. A key portion of the immunogen
d. A key portion of the immunogen
If a mother is MHC A3A14/B5B15/Cw3Cw4 and her child is A3A9/B5B27/Cw4Cw7, which of the following men is the most likely candidate for the father? a. A5A9/B17B27/Cw3Cw5 b. A4A15/B2B27/Cw1Cw5 c. A9A11/B15B21/Cw1Cw4 d. A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7
d. A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7
Which of the following are characteristics of acute-phase reactants? a. Rapid increase following infection b. Enhancement of phagocytosis c. Nonspecific indicators of inflammation d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following best describes the T-cell receptor for antigen? a. It consists of IgM and IgD molecules. b. It is the same for all T cells. c. It is present in the double-negative stage. d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.
d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.
A critical receptor involved in the second signal for T-dependent B-cell activation is: a. surface IgM. b. CD3. c. CD19. d. CD40.
d. CD40.
Perforin and granzymes are used by which cells to kill target cells? a. CD8 T cells and CD4 T cells b. CD4 T cells and natural killer cells c. Natural killer cells and B cells d. CD8 T cells and natural killer cells
d. CD8 T cells and natural killer cells
The receptor for antigen on a mature naïve B cell is: a. class II MHC. b. class I MHC. c. IgG. d. IgM.
d. IgM.
Where do germinal centers occur? a. In the thymus b. In the bone marrow c. In peripheral blood d. In lymph nodes
d. In lymph nodes
Which would be characteristic of a T-independent antigen? a. The IgG antibody is produced exclusively. b. A large number of memory cells are produced. c. Antigens bind only one receptor on B cells. d. It consists of a limited number of repeating determinants.
d. It consists of a limited number of repeating determinants.
Where does the major portion of antibody production occur? a. Peripheral blood b. Bone marrow c. Thymus d. Lymph nodes
d. Lymph nodes
Which of the following must be matched between donor and recipient as closely as possible to avoid rejection of a tissue transplant? a. Haptens b. Transporters associated with antigen processing c. Beta-2 microglobulins d. MHC molecules
d. MHC molecules
A lymphocyte exhibits the following markers: CD19, IgM, IgD. What is its likely identity? a. Immature B cell b. Double-negative T cell c. Double-positive T cell d. Mature B cell
d. Mature B cell
Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in tissues? a. Neutrophil b. Eosinophil c. Basophil d. Monocyte
d. Monocyte
Which type of cell has a diameter between 10 and 15 micrometers, has a multi-lobed nucleus, and usually comprises more than 50% of circulating leukocytes? a. Lymphocyte b. Basophil c. Monocyte d. Neutrophil
d. Neutrophil
Class I MHC antigens E and G serve which function? a. Enhance the response by macrophages b. Transport antigen for recognition by CD4+ T cells c. Bind to A, B, and C antigens to protect the binding site d. Protect fetal tissue from destruction by NK cells
d. Protect fetal tissue from destruction by NK cells
Which of the following is an acute-phase protein? a. Cardiolipin b. Reagin c. Streptolysin O d. Serum amyloid A
d. Serum amyloid A
Which is a characteristic of resident bacteria (microbiota) in the gastrointestinal tract? a. Develop when a person has an immunodeficiency b. Cause gastrointestinal disease c. Consist of a single species that is tolerated by the host d. Supplant pathogenic bacteria
d. Supplant pathogenic bacteria
Which statement best describes NK cells? a. Their response against pathogens is very specific. b. They only react when an abundance of MHC antigens is present. c. They react when both an inhibitory and activating signal is triggered. d. They are able to kill target cells without previous exposure to them.
d. They are able to kill target cells without previous exposure to them.
Which statement best describes Toll-like receptors (TLRs)? a. They protect adult flies from infection. b. They are found on all host cells. c. They only play a role in adaptive immunity. d. They enhance phagocytosis.
d. They enhance phagocytosis.
Which of the following statements is true of NK cells? a. They rely upon memory for antigen recognition. b. They have the same CD groups as B cells. c. They are found mainly in lymph nodes. d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.
d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.
How do cytotoxic T cells kill target cells? a. They produce antibodies that bind to the cell. b. They engulf the cell by phagocytosis. c. They stop protein synthesis in the target cell. d. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.
d. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.
Which of the following can be measured as an indicator of inflammation? a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate b. body temperature c. number of circulating leukocytes d. all of these
d. all of these
A 50-kDa protein from a bacterial cell that has numerous different epitopes would be called: a. a hapten and an antigen. b. a hapten but not an antigen. c. an antigen but not an immunogen. d. an immunogen and an antigen.
d. an immunogen and an antigen.
Antigen-independent differentiation of B cells occurs in the: a. Peyer's patches. b. lymph node. c. spleen. d. bone marrow.
d. bone marrow.
The process by which leukocytes are attracted to a specific area by chemical messengers is called: a. opsonization b. degranulation c. diapedesis d. chemotaxis
d. chemotaxis
The most effective phagocytic and antigen-presenting cell is the: a. monocyte b. neutrophil c. macrophage d. dendritic cell
d. dendritic cell
The purpose of negative selection of B cells is to? a. eliminate B cells that don't express mu b. direct more B cells to become plasma cells c. prevent activation of B cells in the bone marrow d. eliminate B cells that are specific for self-antigens
d. eliminate B cells that are specific for self-antigens
Inappropriately administered antibiotic therapy can sometimes cause disease, most often by: a. being toxic to host tissues. b. altering local pH. c. depressing adaptive immune responses. d. eliminating normal protective flora.
d. eliminating normal protective flora.
A blood cell that has reddish staining granules and is able to kill large parasites describes a. basophils. b. monocytes. c. neutrophils. d. eosinophils.
d. eosinophils.
All of the following are characteristics of an effective immunogen except a. internal complexity. b. large molecular weight. c. the presence of numerous epitopes. d. found on host cells.
d. found on host cells.
Acquired (adaptive) immunity can be characterized as: a. immediately responsive. b. nonspecifically activated. c. neutrophil dependent. d. involving memory.
d. involving memory.
A white blood cell that is 16 to 18 micrometers in diameter, has a horseshoe-shaped nucleus, and is capable of phagocytosis is a: a. neutrophil. b. eosinophil. c. basophil. d. monocyte.
d. monocyte.
The ability to resist infection through normally present body functions best characterizes: a. autoimmunity b. acquired immunity c. alloimmunity d. natural immunity
d. natural immunity
A cell characterized by a nucleus with two to five lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 µm, and a large number of neutral staining granules is identified as a(n) a. eosinophil. b. monocyte. c. basophil. d. neutrophil.
d. neutrophil.
Eosinophils are involved in the immune response against: a. viruses. b. extracellular bacteria. c. intracellular bacteria. d. parasites that cannot be phagocytized.
d. parasites that cannot be phagocytized.
Proteins that form channels in target cell membranes are called: a. pentraxins b. opsonins c. granzymes d. perforins
d. perforins
The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a a. phagosome. b. lysosome. c. vacuole. d. phagolysosome
d. phagolysosome
Class II molecules bind to what kind of peptides? a. native peptides b. any of the above c. processed endogenous d. processed exogenous
d. processed exogenous
In antigen processing, the function of transporters associated with antigen-processing proteins is to: a. recognize and digest exogenous protein. b. help digest large proteins. c. bind to MHC class II molecules in the endoplasmic reticulum. d. transport digested proteins to MHC class I molecules.
d. transport digested proteins to MHC class I molecules.
