Ch. 9 and 10
What is the role of calcium ions in muslce contraction? a) form hydoxyapatite cyrstals b) reestablish glycogen stores c) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition d) increase levels of myoglobin
) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
The giant protein titin maintains the organization of the ________ assisting in muscle stretching
A band
Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?
D) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
Which of the following is not a connective tissue sheath that wraps individual muscle fibers?
D) aponeurosis
A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called?
D) buccinator
A cute, little curly-haired child is sitting behind you in church. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use?
D) genioglossus
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?
D) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.
D) lactic acid
Which of the following is not a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process?
D) latissimus dorsi
Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?
D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.
D) myofibrils
Which of the following muscles fixes and depresses the ribs and stabilizes the pelvis during walking?
D) rectus abdominis
The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________.
D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration
Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis.
D) sternocleidomastoid
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
Which of the following is not a component of the standard treatment for muscle strain?
D) stretching of the muscle
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?
D) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
What is the major factor controlling how levers work?
D) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon?
D) the gastrocnemius
What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?
D) the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants?
D) the vastus lateralis
23. A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called? a. Platysma b. Masseter c. Zygomaticus d. Buccinator
D. Buccinator
14. A cute curly haired girl is sitting behind you in church. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use? a. Orbicularis oris b. Stylohyoid c. Hyoglossus d. Genioglossus
D. Genioglossus
33. Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh? a. Biceps femoris b. Vastus medialis c. Soleus d. Iliopsoas and rectus femoris
D. Iliopsoas and rectus femoris
4. Which of the following is not a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process? a. Diaphragm b. External intercostal c. Internal intercostal d. Latissimus dorsi
D. Latissimus dorsi
24. Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis. a. Serratus anterior b. Zygomaticus c. Platysma d. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Sternocleidomastoid
3. What is the major factor controlling how levers work? a. The structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever. b. The weight of the load c. The direction of the load is being moved d. The difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
D. The difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
17. Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon? a. The semitendinosus b. The sartorius c. The tibialis anterior d. The gastrocnemius
D. The gastrocnemius
5. What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle? a. The length b. The shape c. The number of neurons innervating it d. The total number of muscle cells available for contraction
D. The total number of muscle cells available for contraction
39. Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants? a. The vastus intermedius b. The vastus medialis c. Rectus femoris d. The vastus lateralis
D. The vastus lateralis
19. Which of the following muscles fixes and depresses the ribs and stabilizes the pelvis during walking? a. Internal oblique b. External oblique c. Transversus abdominis d. Rectus abdominis
D.Rectus abdominis
Which below is not a part of the myofibril structure F
Dark D bands
The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term leveator mean? The muscle
Elevates it's attachment
Which below is not a functional characteristic of muscle tissue? F
Enhancibility
What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop
Extensor digitorum longus
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.
False
A pair of tweezers is a good example of a second-class lever.
False
Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same.
False
Both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage.
False
During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement.
False
Muscle contraction will always promote movement of body parts regardless of how they are attached.
False
Muscle contraction will always promote movement of body parts regardless of how they are attached. True / False
False
Muscles that help to maintain posture are often called synergists.
False
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.
False
The deltoid is a prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction.
False
During isotonic contraction, the heavier the load, the faster the velocity of contraction. True / False
False Isotonic - muscle lengh changes and moves the load. iso = same ton = tension
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate. True / False
False Motor unit not motor end plate.
During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement. True / False
False Muscles act to hold joints in stationary positions while movement occurs at other joints.
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract. True / False
False When a motor neuron fires (transmits an action potential), all the muscle fibers it innervates conract. innervate = stimulate to action.
Which type of muscle fiber will predominate in a person that runs or swims as fast as possible for 5 minutes, stops, waits a minute, and continues this process 10 times? R
Fast oxidative fibers
Which type of letter is a pair of scissors
First class
What are caveoli?
Folds on the surface of smooth muscle cells that correspond to T tubules in skeletal muscle cells.
You make a silly comment and stick out your tongue. What time muscles did you use
Genioglossus
Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings
Gracilis
What is not a general function of muscle tissue?R
Holding axons to the ligaments
Paralysis of which muscle would make it so an individual could not flex their thigh
Iliopsoas and rectus femoris
Gary was injured in an automobile accident that severed the motor neurons innervating his quadriceps. Even though he has had extensive physical therapy, he is still suffering muscle atrophy. Why is the therapy not working?
In denervation atrophy, fibrous connective tissue replaces the muscle tissue that was lost. When atrophy is complete, fibrous tissue cannot be reversed to muscle tissue.
Which of the following statements is true
Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei
Which muscles contract to enable a forceful exhalation
Internal intercostals and the rectus abdominis
The____ runs deep to the external oblique
Internal oblique
Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris
It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips
While found in the same location, the ---blank ---is not part of the rotator cuff. It acts as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi to extend medially rotate and adduct the humerus
Teres major
Which of these muscles allows you to cross one leg over the other
The sartorius
Which group of muscle flexes and rotates the neck
The scalenes
Muscle cells store more creatine phosphate than ATP resulting in the muscle having a reserve source of energy.
True
Muscle power does not depend on the direction of the fascicles.
True
Muscle spasms of the back often are due to the erector spinae contraction.
True
Muscle tone is the small amount of tautness or tension in the muscle due to weak, involuntary contractions of its motor units.
True
Muscle tone is the small amount of tautness or tension in the muscle due to weak, involuntary contractions of its motor units. True / False
True
Muscles are only able to pull, they never push.
True
Muscles connecting to the hyoid bone are important for swallowing and speech.
True
Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators.
True
One of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat.
True
Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle.
True
Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum = mechanical advantage; effort nearer than load to fulcrum = mechanical disadvantage.
True
Smooth muscles relax when intercellular Ca2+ (calcium ion) levels drop but may not cease contractions. True / False
True
Smooth muscles relax when intracellular Ca2+ levels drop but may not cease contractions.
True
The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power.
True
The broadest muscle of the back is the latissimus dorsi.
True
The calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon) is the largest, strongest tendon in the body.
True
The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily.
True
The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.
True
The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment. True / False
True
The major head flexors are the sternocleidomastoid muscles, with the help of the muscles attached to the hyoid bone.
True
The muscle that prevents the biting of the cheek when chewing is the buccinator.
True
The muscles of facial expression insert into skin or other muscles, not bones.
True
The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius during plantar flexion.
True
The thin filaments (actin) contain a polypeptide subunit G actin that bears active sites for myosin attachment.
True
The thin filaments (actin) contain a polypeptide subunit G actin that bears active sites for myosin attachment. True / False
True
When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands do not diminish in length.
True
When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands move closer together but do not diminish in length. True / False
True
Eccentric contractions are more forceful than concentric contractions. True / False
True Eccentric contractions - muscle generates force as it lengthens in your calf muscles as you walk up a hill. Concentric contractions - muscle shortens and does work, such as picking up a book or kicking a ball.
A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric. True / False
True Isometric - tension may build to the muscle's peak, tension producing capacity, but the muscle neither shortens or lengthens. iso = same metric = measure
A resting potential is caused by a differnece in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell. True / False
True Like the plasma membranes of all celss, a resting sarcolemma is polarized. There is pltential difference across the membrane and the inside is negative relative to the outer membrane face.
One of the important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is a production of heat. True / False
True Muscles perform at least four functions: movement, maintains posture, stabilize joints and generates heat.
The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.
the site of calcium regulation differs
The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily. True / False
True Neurotransmitters are endogenous chemicals which transmit signals from a neuron to a target cell across a synapse.[1] Neurotransmitters are packaged into synaptic vesicles clustered beneath the membrane on the presynaptic side of a synapse, and are released into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptors in the membrane on the postsynaptic side of the synapse. Release of neurotransmitters usually follows arrival of an action potential at the synapse, but may also follow graded electrical potentials.
Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle. True / False
True Peristalsis - the wavelike muscular contraction of the intestine or other tubular structure that propel the contents onward by alternate contraction and relaxation.
Single-unit smooth muscle is found in the intestines. True / False
True Single-unit smooth muscle, commonly called visceral muscle because it is in the walls of all hollow organs except the heart.
Although there are "no" sacromeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments. True / False
True sacromere = muscle segment The smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber.
After removal of an elbow cast, Lauren noticed her arm was immovable. What happened to her arm?
Two things have occurred to Lauren while she was convalescing from her injury. First, the immobilization of the arm caused some muscle mass to atrophy. Second, the loss of muscle was replaced with tough connective tissue that locked her arm in place. With therapy the tissue can be stretched or torn enough to return the full range of motion.
Which of the following muscles commonly serves as the site of intramuscular injections, especially in infants
Vastus lateralis
Distance cyclists are known for their great quads. Which of these muscles is one of the quadriceps
Vastus medialis
Which of the following does not act as a stimulus to initiate a muscle contraction?
a change of temperature
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?
a long, relaxing swim
The giant protein titin maintains the orgainzation of the ___ assisting in muscle stretching. a) A band b) I band c) Z disc d) M line
a) A band
Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances? a) Ca2+ and ATP b) Ca2+ only c) ATP only d) ATP and glucose
a) Ca2+ and ATP
Activate synaptic vesicles in axon terminals. a) Calcium ions b) Creatine phosphate c) Sodium-potassium ions d) Acetylcholine e) Acetylcholinesterase
a) Calcium ions Calcium is essential for living organisms, particularly in cell physiology, where movement of the calcium ion Ca2+ into and out of the cytoplasm functions as a signal for many cellular processes.
Serves as the actual "trigger" for muscle contraction by removing the inhibition of the troponin molecules. a) Calcium ions b) Creatine phosphate c) Sodium-potassium ions d) Acetylcholine e) Acetylcholinesterase
a) Calcium ions Calcium is essential for living organisms, particularly in cell physiology, where movement of the calcium ion Ca2+ into and out of the cytoplasm functions as a signal for many cellular processes.
Which of the following is true about smooth muscle contraction? a) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers. b) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements. c) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle. d) Smooth muslce has well-developed T tubules a the site of invagination.
a) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
The tissue that bonds muscles into functional groups. a) Epimysium b) Endomysium c) Muscle Fiber d) Fascicle e) Perimysium
a) Epimysium "outside the muscle" An "overcoat" of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the whole muscle.
Have very fast-acting myosin ATPases and depend upon anaerobic metabolism during contraction. a) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
a) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers
Contain abundant amounts of glycogen. a) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
a) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers glycogen - one form in which body fuel is stored. Stored primarily in liver and broken down into glucose when needed by the body.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? a) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction. b) T tubules may be sliding during isotonic contraction. c) The I band lengthens during isotonic contraction. d) Myofilaments slide during isometric contractions.
a) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.
The phenomenon in which the contraction strength of a muscle increases, due to increased Ca2+ availability and enzyme efficiency during the warm-up. a) Treppe b) Tetanus c) Wave summation d) Multiple motor unit summation e) Maximal stimulus
a) Treppe Ca = calcium Ca2+ = calcium ion The gradual increase in muscular contraction following rapidly repeated stimulation. Called also staircase phenomenon.
A sarcomere is defined as the segment between two neighbouring Z-lines (or Z-discs, or Z bodies). In electron micrographs of cross-striated muscle, the ___. a) Z disc b) H zone c) I band d) A band e) M line
a) Z disc (from the German "Zwischenscheibe", the band in between the I bands) appears as a series of dark lines.
A sacromere is the distance between two ___. a) Z discs b) I band c) Myosin d) A band
a) Z discs A sarcomere is defined as the segment between two neighbouring Z-lines (or Z-discs, or Z bodies). In electron micrographs of cross-striated muscle, the Z-line (from the German "Zwischenscheibe", the band in between the I bands) appears as a series of dark lines.
What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called? a) a sarcromere b) a myofilament c) a myofibril d) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
a) a sarcomere
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ___. a) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping b) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past c) actin and myosin shortening but not sliding past each other d) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments
a) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ___. a) changes in length and moves the "load" b) does not change in length but increases tension c) never converts pyruvate to lactate d) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP
a) changes in length and moves the "load"
What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors? a) motor end plate b) end of the muscle fiber c) part adjacent to another muscle cell d) any part of the sarcolemma
a) motor end plate
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions? a) motor neuron action potential, meurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, AtP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments b) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor reuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke c) muslce cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, atp-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments d) neurotransmitter rlease, motor neuron cation potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
a) motor neuron action potential, meurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, AtP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage? a) sacroplasmic reticulum b) mitochondria c) intermediate filament network d) myofibrillar network
a) sacroplasmic reticulum SR is an elaborate smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Its interconnecting tubules surrounds each myofibril the way a sleeve surrounds your arm.
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ___. a) secretion b) contractility c) extensibility d) excitability
a) secretion
Which of the following are composed of myosin? a) thick filaments b) thin filaments c) all myofilaments d) Z discs
a) thick filaments Thick filaments containing myosin (red). Thin filaments containing actin (blue).
Fill in the blank: In the synaptic cleft of a neuromuscular junction, an enzyme called ________ is always present.
acetylcholinesterase
After nervous stimulation stops, ACh in the synaptic cleft is prevented from continuing stimulation of contraction by ________.
acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlap
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
actin filaments
What leads to the release of calcium at the neuromuscular junction?
action potential
Which below is an attachment where the muscle's connective tissue wrapping extend beyond the muscle as a sheetlike structure?R
aponeurosis
Used to convert ADP to ATP by trnsfer of high-energy phosphate group. A reserve high-energy compound. a) Calcium ions b) Creatine phosphate c) Sodium-potassium ions d) Acetylcholine e) Acetylcholinesterase
b) Creatine phosphate Phosphocreatine, also known as creatine phosphate or PCr (Pcr). Excerciese vigorously, the demand for ATP soars and the ATP stored in working muscles is consumed within a few twitches. The creatine phosphate (CP), a unique high-energy molecule stored in muscles, is tapped to regenerate ATP while the metabolic pathways are adjusting to the suddenly higher demands of ATP. The result of coupling CP with ADP is almost instant transfer of energy and a phosphate group from CP to ADP to form ATP.
Within the muscle. EEPFM epi, endo, peri, fas, mus a) Epimysium b) Endomysium c) Muscle Fiber d) Fascicle e) Perimysium
b) Endomysium A whispy sheath of connective tissue that surrounds each individual muscle fiber. It consists of fine areolar connective tissue.
Within the A-band is a paler region called the ___. (a) Z disc b) H zone c) I band d) A band e) M line
b) H zone From the German "Heller", bright). Named for their properties under a polarization microscope. Thick filaments only.
The ___ contains only the actin filaments. a) Z discs b) I band c) Myosin d) A band
b) I band Surrounding the Z-line is the region of the I-band (for isotropic).
A relatively high percentage are found in successful marathon runners. a) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
Abundant in muscles used to maintain posture. a) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
Depends on oxygen delivery and aerobic mechanisms. a) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
Red fibers, the smallest of the fiber types. a) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
b) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
Continued sustained smooth contraction due to rapid stimulation. a) Treppe b) Tetanus c) Wave summation d) Multiple motor unit summation e) Maximal stimulus
b) Tetanus tetan = rigid A state of continuous muscular contraction, especially when induced artificially by rapidly repeated stimuli.
What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? a) Tropomyosin is the name of a contracting unit. b) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules c) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on teh myosin molecules. d) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.
b) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules Tropomyosin a rod-shaped protein, spiral about the actin core and help stiffen and stabilize it.
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers? a) a sprint by an Olympic runner b) a long, relaxing swim c) plaoying baseball or basketball d) mountain climbing
b) a long, relaxing swim
Most skeletal muscle contain ___. a) muscle fibers of the same type b) a mixture of fiber types c) a predominance of slow oxidative fibers d) a prejdominance of fast oxidative fibers
b) a mixture of fiber types
The term aponeurosis refers to ___. a) the bands of myofibrils b) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element c) the rough endoplasmic reticulum d) the tropomyosin-troponin complex
b) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
During muscle contraction, myosin across bridges attach to which active sites? a) myosin filaments b) actin filaments c) Z discs d) thick filaments
b) actin filaments
Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cells? a) perimysium b) endomysium c) epimysium d) fascicle
b) endomysium Endomysium = within the muscle. Is a whispy sheath of connective tissue that surrounds each individual muscle fiber.
What is the functional role fo theT tubules? a) stabilize the G and F actin b) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction c) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle d) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction
b) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
An enaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the productionof two net ATPs per glucose plus tow pyruvic acid molecules is ___. a) the citric acid cycle b) glycolysis c) hydrolysis d) the electron transport chain
b) glycolysis
Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ___. a) intense exercise of long duration b) intense exercise of short duration c) slow exercise of long duration d) slow exercise of short duration
b) intense exercise of short duration
What controls the force of muscle contraction? a) wave summation b) multimotor unit summation c) treppe d) concentric contractions
b) multimotor unit summation Recruitment also called multimotor unit summation. Recruitment is achieved by delivering shocks of increasing voltage to the muscle, calling more and more muscle fibers into play.
Smooth muscles taht act like skeletal muscles but are controlled by autonomic nerves and hormones are ___. a) single-unit muscles b) multiunit muscles c) red muscles d) white muscles
b) multiunit muscles
Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sacromeres, and rare gap junctions? a) visceral smooth muscle b) multiunit smooth muscle c) cardiac muscle d) skeletal muscle
b) multiunit smooth muscle
Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overalpped, ___. a) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin b) no muscle tension could be generated c) maximum for ce production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel d) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract
b) no muscle tension could be generated
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? a) relaxation period b) refractory period c) latent period d) fatigue period
b) refractory period During repolarization, a muscle fiber is in the refractory period, because the cell cannot be stimulated again until repolarization is complete. Repolarization - the sarcolemma is restored to its initial polarized state. sarcolemma = plasma membrane
The muscle cell membrane is called the ___. a) endomysium b) sarcolemma c) perimysium d) epimysium
b) sarcolemma
What produces the striations of a skeletal muslce cell? a) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma b) the arrangement of myofilaments c) the sarcoplasmic reticulum d) the T tubules
b) the arrangement of myofilaments
What does oxygen deficit reporesent? a) amount of energy needed for exertion b) the differnce between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amound actually used. c) the amount of oxygen taken into the body prior to exertion d) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediatly after the exertion
b) the differnce between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amound actually used.
Smooth muscle is charaterized by all of the following except ___. a) it appears to lack troponin b) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments c) there are no sarcomeres d) there are noncontractile intermediate filaments taht attach to dense bodies within the cell
b) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
Fill in blank: The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing.
buccinator
Which of the following statements is false or incorrect? a) Cardiac muscle contracts when stimulated by its own autorhythmic muscle cells. b) Under normal resting conditions, cardiac muscle tissue contracts and relaxes about 75 times per minute. c) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP. d) Cardiac muscle fibers can use lactic acid to make ATP
c) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP.
Surrounding the Z-line is the region of the ___. ZHIAM a) Z disc b) H zone c) I band d) A band e) M line
c) I band I-band (for isotropic) Isotropy is uniformity in all directions; it is derived fromt he Greek iso (equal) and tropos (direction). Thin filaments only.
Skeletal and smooth muscle cells (but not cardiac muscle cells) are elongated and called___. a) Epimysium b) Endomysium c) Muscle Fiber d) Fascicle e) Perimysium
c) Muscle Fiber
The thicker filaments are the ___ filaments. a) Z discs b) I band c) Myosin d) A band
c) Myosin Myosin filaments are bipolar and extend throughout the A-band. They are crosslinked at the centre by the M-band.
Diffusion across the cell membrane results in depolarization. a) Calcium ions b) Creatine phosphate c) Sodium-potassium ions d) Acetylcholine e) Acetylcholinesterase
c) Sodium-potassium ions Like the plasma membranes of all celss, a resting sarcolemma is polarized. There is pltential difference across the membrane and the inside is negative relative to the outer membrane face.
Which of the following statements is true? a) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei. b) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules. c) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei. d) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.
c) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
The situation in which contractions become stronger due to stimulation before complete relaxation occurs. a) Treppe b) Tetanus c) Wave summation d) Multiple motor unit summation e) Maximal stimulus
c) Wave summation Temporal aka wave summation, occurs because the second contraction occurs before the muscle has completely relaxed.
Muslce tone is ___. a) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements b) the feeling of well-being following exercise c) a state of susteained partial contraction d) the condition of athletes after intensive training
c) a state of susteained partial contraction
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction? a) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae b) the tropoyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved c) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh d) the actin potential stips going down the overloaded T tubules
c) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
Which of the following is "not" a way muscle contractions can be graded? a) changing the frequency of stimulation b) changing the strength of the stimulas c) changing the type of muscle fibers involved in the contraction d) changing the type of neurotransmitter released by the motor neuron
c) changing the type of muscle fibers involved in the contraction
Which of the following is "not" a result of resistance exercise? a) increase in the efficiency of the respiratory system b) increase in the efficiency of the circulatory system c) increase in the number of muscle cells d) increase in thenumber of myofibrils within the muscle cells
c) increase in the number of muscle cells
Which of the choices below does "not" describe how recovery oxygen uptake (oxygen deficit) restores metabolic conditions? a) converts lactic acid back into glycogen stores in the liver b) resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP in muscle fibers c) increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle d) replaces the oxygen removed from myoglobin
c) increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle
The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ___. a) increasing stimulus above the threshold b) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus c) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus d) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers
c) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
Immediately following the arival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ___ period during which the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur. a) contraction b) relaxation c) latent d) refractory
c) latent Latent period - the first few millaseconds following stimulation when excitation-contraction coupling is occuring.
Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction? a) number of muscle fibers stimulated b) size of the muscle fibers stimulated c) load on the fiber d) muscle length
c) load on the fiber
The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ___. a) hemoglobin b) ATP c) myoglobin d) immunoglonin
c) myoglobin
Rigor mortis occurs because ___. a) the cells are dead b) sodium oions leak out of the muscle c) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules d) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
c) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate? a) skeletal b) cardiac c) smooth d) no muscle can regenerate
c) smooth
Myoglobin ___. a) breaks down glycogen b) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP c) stores oxygen in muscle cells d) produces the end plate protential
c) stores oxygen in muscle cells
The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ___. a) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism b) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium c) the site of calcium regulation differs d) ATP energizes the sliding process
c) the site of calcium regulation differs
Which of the following describes the cells of single-unit visceral muscle? a) they contract all at once. b) They are chemically coupled to one another by gap junctions. c) they exhibit spontaneous action potentials. d) They consist of muscle fibers that are structurally independent of each other.
c) they exhibit spontaneous action potentials.
The warm-up period required of athletes in order to bring their muscles to peak performance is called ___. a) twitch b) wave summation c) treppe d) incomplete tetanus
c) treppe
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.
changes in length and moves the "load"
Fill in the blank: The time in which cross bridges are active is called the period of ________.
contraction
Following the I-band is the ___. a) Z disc b) H zone c) I band d) A band e) M line
d) A band (for anisotropic). Named for their properties under a polarizing microscope. Anisotropic is the property of being directionally dependent, as opposed to isotropy, which implies identical properties in all directions. Thick and thin filaments overlap.
Both actin and myosin are found in the ___. a) Z discs b) I band c) Myosin d) A band
d) A band Following the I-band is the A-band (for anisotropic). Named for their properties under a polarizing microscope.
The myosin filaments are located in the ___. a) Z discs b) I band c) Myosin d) A band
d) A band Myosin filaments are bipolar and extend throughout the A-band. They are crosslinked at the centre by the M-band.
A neurotransmitter released at motor end plates by the axon terminals. a) Calcium ions b) Creatine phosphate c) Sodium-potassium ions d) Acetylcholine e) Acetylcholinesterase
d) Acetylcholine The chemical compound acetylcholine (often abbreviated ACh) is a neurotransmitter in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and central nervous system (CNS) in many organisms including humans. Acetylcholine is one of many neurotransmitters in the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and the only neurotransmitter used in the motor division of the somatic nervous system. (Sensory neurons use glutamate and various peptides at their synapses.) Acetylcholine is also the principal neurotransmitter in all autonomic ganglia.
Bundles. a) Epimysium b) Endomysium c) Muscle Fiber d) Fascicle e) Perimysium
d) Fascicle A bundle of skeletal muscle fibers surrounded by perimysium, a type of connecive tissue.
How a smooth increase in muscle force is produced. a) Treppe b) Tetanus c) Wave summation d) Multiple motor unit summation e) Maximal stimulus
d) Multiple motor unit summation The force of contraction is controlled more precisely by recruitment also called multiple motor unit summation.
Whic of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction? a) triggers neurotransmitter secretion b) promotes contraction inhibitor c) removes contraction inhibitor d) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
d) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
The main effect of the warm-up period of athletes, as the muscle contractions increase in strenth, is to ___. a) increase the myoglobin content b) convert glycogen to glucose c) tone the muscles and stabilize the joints for the workout d) enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems
d) enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for engery. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ___. a) a strong base b) stearic acid c) hydorchloric acid d) lactic acid
d) lactic acid When muscles contract vigorously and contractile activity reaches about 70% of the maximum possible (anerobic conditions), most of the pyruvic acid produced during glycolysis is converted into lactic acid, and the overall process is referred to as anaerobic glycolysis.
Which of the following would be crecuited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases? a) motor units with the longest muscle fibers b) many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units c) large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons d) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
d) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ___. a) microtubules b) mitochondria c) T tubules d) myofibrils
d) myofibrils
The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ___. a) make and store phosphocreatine b) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments c) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process d) regulate intracellular calcium concentration
d) regulate intracellular calcium concentration
Creatine phosphate functions in themuscle cell by ___. a) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin b) forming a chemical compound with actin c) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments d) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
d) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue? a) the design of the fibers b) the sarcoplasmic reticulum c) the diversity of activity of muscle tissue d) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
d) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
Muscle contraction will always promote movement of body parts regardless of how they are attached
false
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract
false
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.
false
Oxygen debt refers to the oxygen required to make creatine phosphate
false
Recruitment is an option in a single-unit smooth muscle cell
false
The more slowly a skeletal muscle is stimulated, the greater its exerted force becomes
false
Whereas skeletal muscle cells are electrically coupled, smooth muscle cells appear to be chemically coupled by gap junctions.
false
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________
glycolysis
Fill in blank: The abnormal protrusion of the small intestine through a weak point in the muscle of the abdominal wall is called a ________.
hernia
Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases? ______
motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
Smooth muscles that act like skeletal muscles but are controlled by autonomic nerves and hormones are ________.
multiunit muscles
Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and rare gap junctions?
multiunit smooth muscle
With muscular dystrophy ________.
muscle fibers degenerate and atrophy
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.
myofibrils
Rigor mortis occurs because ________.
no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
An individual has just ingested a chemical that binds irreversibly to the ACh receptors in the sarcolemma. By itself it does not alter membrane potential, yet prevents normal neurotransmitter binding. Ignoring the effects on any other system, the consequence to skeletal muscle would be ________.
no contraction at all by nervous mechanisms, but contraction if stimulated by an external electrode
Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped
no muscle tension could be generated
A sarcomere is ________.
the wavy lines on the cell seen in the microscope
An elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that functions in calcium storage is the ________.
the wavy lines on the cell seen in the microscope
Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________.
there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
Which of the following are composed of myosin
thick filaments
The role of calcium ions in muscle contraction is to
treppe
A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric
true
A resting potential is caused by a difference in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.
true
Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.
true
Contractures are a result of a total lack of ATP
true
Eccentric contractions are more forceful than concentric contractions.
true
One of the important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat
true
Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle.
true
Single-unit smooth muscle is found in the intestines.
true
Smooth muscles relax when intracellular levels drop but may not cease contractions
true
The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily.
true
The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.
true
The thin filaments (actin) contain a polypeptide subunit G actin that bear active sites for myosin attachment.
true
When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands move closer together but do not diminish in length.
true
Which of the following is not a muscle that is primary involved in allowing you to breathe
Latissimus dorsi
Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle
Levator scapulae
Which below is not a part of the myofibril structure R
Light I zones
It's a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage it means that the
Load is far from the fulcrum while the effort is applied near the fulcrum
The prime mover for chewing is the ---blank---, a contender for the most powerful muscle in the body, especially if you consider the force generated at the molars
Masseter
A patient is admitted for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT). The physician orders the neuromuscular blocking agent metocurine iodide (metubine) to reduce trauma by relaxing skeletal muscles. Explain the process of muscle contraction and how a neuromuscular blocking agent such as metubine would interfere with muscle contraction
Muscle contraction begins with a stimulus to the nerve. When the impulse reaches the neuromuscular junction, depolarization occurs, resulting in an influx of calcium ions from the extracellular fluid into the terminals, which then release a neurotransmitter, acetylcholine (Ach), into the cleft. The Ach combines with receptor sites on the post-junctional muscle cell membrane, depolarizing it and facilitating the entry of sodium. Neuromuscular blocking agents act at the motor end plate by competing with the Ach for the receptor sites, or by blocking depolarization
Which of the following is most accurate?
Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction
What are NOT similarities between all types of muscle?
Muscle terminology is similar: all have chondrocytes in lacunae
Is the constant, slightly contracted state of all muscles, which does not produce active movement F
Muscle tone
What below is the contractile unit? R
not listed
In skeletal muscle contraction, calcium apparently acts to ________.
remove the blocking action of tropomyosin
The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.
sarcolemma
What is the contractile unit? F
sarcomere
Fill in the blank: Which cells help repair injured skeletal muscle fibers and allow regeneration of dead skeletal muscle?
satellite cells
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
secretion
Fill in the blank: Only ________ muscle cells are always multinucleated.
skeletal
Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?
smooth
What diffuses in and out of the sarcolemma during a muscle contraction? R
sodium and potassium
Calcium ions bind to the ________ molecule in skeletal muscle cells
stores oxygen in muscle cells
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
Which below is an attachment where the muscle's connective tissue wrapping extend beyond the muscle as a ropelike structure?F
tendon
Fill in blank: The ________ is a synergist of the latissimus dorsi; it extends, medially rotates, and adducts the humerus.
teres major
Fill in the blank: A smooth, sustained contraction from rapid stimulation is called ________
tetanus
The most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue is ________.
the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
The striations of a skeletal muscle cell are produced, for the most part, by ________.
the arrangement of myofilaments
What type of muscle assists an agonist by having the same basic action or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts
A synergist
The giant protein titin maintains the organization of the ________ assisting in muscle stretching.
A) A band
Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances?
A) Ca2+ and ATP
Which of the following is true about smooth muscle?
A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?
A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?
A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?
A) a first-class lever
What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?
A) a sarcomere
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________.
A) antagonist
What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop?
A) extensor digitorum longus
Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?
A) gracilis
Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?
A) hamstring muscles
If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________.
A) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?
A) motor end plate
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
Which of the following muscles does not act in plantar flexion?
A) popliteus
What is the primary function of wave summation?
A) produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction
The most powerful muscle in the body is the ________.
A) quadriceps femoris
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
A) secretion
Which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck?
A) the scalenes
Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?
A) tibialis anterior
Which of the following muscles is not a member of the hamstrings group?
A) vastus intermedius
20. A muscle that opposes or reverses a particular movement is a(n)________ a. Antagonist b. Fixator c. Synergist d. Agonist
A. Antagonist
2. What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop? a. Extensor digitorum longus b. Tibialis anterior c. Extensor hallucis longus d. Fibularis tertius
A. Extensor digitorum longus
1. Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors? a. First class b. Second class c. Third class d. Fourth class
A. First class
22. Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings? a. Gracilis b. Semitendinosus c. Semimembranosus d. Biceps femoris
A. Gracilis
40. Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee? a. Hamstring muscles b. Gluteal muscles c. Brachioradialis d. Soleus
A. Hamstring muscles
28. Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris? a. It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips b. It pulls the lower lip down and back c. It draws the eyebrows together d. It closes the eye
A. It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips
18. If a level operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ___ a. Load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum b. Lever system is useless c. Effort is father than the load from the fulcrum d. Load is near the fulcrum and the effort is at the distal end
A. Load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
41. Which of the following muscles does not act in plantar flexion? a. Popliteus b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor digitorum longus d. Gastrocnemius and soleus
A. Popliteus
8. The most powerful muscle in the body is the _______. a. Quadriceps femoris b. Rectus abdominis c. Gastrocnemius d. Gluteus maximus
A. Quadriceps femoris
7. When the term biceps, triceps or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the name? a. The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively b. The muscle is able to change direction 2,3 or 4 times father than other muscles, respectively c. The muscle has 2,3, or 4 functions, respectively d. The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively
A. The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively
15. Which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck? a. The scalenes b. The iliocostalis c. The spinalis d. The splenius
A. The scalenes
38. Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint? a. Tibialis anterior b. Extensor digitorum longus c. Peroneus tertius d. Peroneus longus
A. Tibialis anterior
27. Which of the following muscles is not a member of the hamstrings group? a. Vastus intermedius b. Semitendinosus c. Semimembranosus d. Biceps brachii
A. Vastus intermedius
The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.
ATP C) myoglobin
Aaron arrived at the hospital with the following symptoms: drooping eyelids; fatigue and weakness of his muscles; and difficulty talking, breathing, and swallowing. What was his diagnosis?
Aaron probably has myasthenia gravis (an autoimmune disease), which involves a shortage of ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
The muscle that provides the major force to enable a specific movement is called the
Agonist
What do the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common
All act on the tongue
What are the similarities between all types of muscle?
All of these are correct!
Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles?
B) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.
What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?
B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?
B) a long, relaxing swim
Most skeletal muscles contain ________.
B) a mixture of fiber types
The term aponeurosis refers to ________.
B) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
B) actin filaments
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?
B) an agonist
Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
B) endomysium
What is the functional role of the T tubules?
B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.
B) glycolysis
Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ________.
B) intense exercise of short duration
Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?
B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
Which of the following muscles is not a rotator cuff muscle?
B) levator scapulae
Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and rare gap junctions?
B) multiunit smooth muscle
Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.
B) no muscle tension could be generated
What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called?
B) power levers
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?
B) refractory period
The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.
B) sarcolemma
What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell?
B) the arrangement of myofilaments
What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent?
B) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other while in a sitting position?
B) the sartorius
Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?
B) the type of muscle fibers
Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________.
B) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs?
B) thigh adductors
The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?
B) to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction
6. What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? a. A synergist b. An agonist or prime mover c. An antagonist d. A fixator
B. An agonist or prime mover
32. Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly? a. Diaphragm alone b. Internal intercostals and rectus abdominus c. External intercostals and diaphragm d. Rectus abdominis and diaphragm
B. Internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
12. Which of the following muscles is not a rotator cuff muscle? a. Supraspinatus b. Levator scapulae c. Teres minor d. Subcapularis
B. Levator scapulae
30. What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called? a. Speed levers b. Power levers c. Functional levers d. Dysfunctional levers
B. Power levers
16. Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over another while in a sitting position? a. The gastrocnemius b. The sartorius c. All of the hamstrings d. The quadriceps femoris
B. The sartorius
26. Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles? a. Muscle location b. The type of muscle fibers c. The type of action they cause d. Muscle shape
B. The type of muscle fibers
10. Which of the flowing describes the suprahyoid muscles? a. They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed b. They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity c. They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing d. They are often called strap muscles
B. They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity
29. Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs? a. Quadricepts b. Thigh abductors c. Lateral rotators d. Hamstrings
B. Thigh abductors
11. The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action? a. To help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally b. To stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction c. To extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi d. To flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major.
B. To stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction
A common injury is to the quadratus lumborum. This would be to them
Back
Which of the following is not a member of the quadriceps group
Biceps femoris
Muscles like the biceps, triceps and quadriceps have been name so that you know the
Number of heads or points of origin
A patient has no peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract. Explain a possible complication of this condition.
Peristalsis is wavelike movement produced by the circular and longitudinal muscle fibers of the intestinal walls that propels the intestinal contents forward. Without peristalsis, the patient would be unable to expel their stool, leading to intestinal obstruction.
Having a six pack indicate someone has well-developed ---blank--- muscles
Rectus abdominis
Which of the following muscles fixes and depresses the ribs and stabilizes the pelvis during walking
Rectus abdominis
The quadriceps is composed of three vastus muscles and the
Rectus femoris
Which of these statements is true
Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum equals mechanical advantage, while effort nearer then load to fulcrum is a mechanical disadvantage
Depends on oxygen delivery and aerobic mechanisms
Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?
C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
First-class levers ________.
C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location
Which of the choices below does not describe how excess postexercise oxygen consumption (oxygen deficit) restores metabolic conditions?
C) increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle
The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.
C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.
C) latent
Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle
C) load on the fiber
The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.
C) myoglobin
Rigor mortis occurs because ________.
C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?
C) smooth
Myoglobin ________.
C) stores oxygen in muscle cells
Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?
C) the brachioradialis
Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?
C) the frontal belly of the epicranius
The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.
C) the site of calcium regulation differs
If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF?
C) third-class lever
21. What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts? a. An antagonist b. A prime mover c. A synergist d. An agonist
C. A synergist
37. Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh? a. Tibialis posterior b. Vastus lateralis c. Adductor magnus d. Gluteus maximus
C. Adductor magnus
35. What do the Genioglossus, Hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common? a. All names reflect direction of muscle fibers b. Each acts synergistically to elevate the jaw c. All act on the tongue d. All names indicate the relative size of the muscle
C. All act on the tongue
25. Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true? a. Muscles produce movement by pulling on bones b. The bones serve as levers c. Curing contraction the two articulating bones move equally d. The movements produced may be of graded intensity
C. Curing contraction the two articulating bones move equally
34. First class levers ______________. a. Have load at one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the idle b. Are typified by tweezers or forceps c. In the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on the specific location d. Are the type using joints forming the ball of the foot as formed in raising the body on the toes
C. In the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on the specific location
31. Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions? a. The triceps brachii b. The anconeus c. The brachioradialis d. The flexor digitorum profundus
C. The brachioradialis
13. Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead? a. The medial pterygoid b. The zygomaticus major c. The frontal belly of the epicranius d. The temporalis
C. The frontal belly of the epicranius
9. The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean? a. The muscle flexes and rotates a region. b. The muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint. c. The muscle elevates d. The muscle functions as a synergist
C. The muscle elevates
36. If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E= effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF? a. First class b. Second class c. Third class d. Fourth class
C. Third class
Which of the following is incorrect R
Cardiac muscle is voluntary
Which of the following is true about smooth muscle contraction
Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
Which below is not a tissue sheath associated with skeletal muscle? R
Chondromysium
Tennis players often complain about pain in the forearm that swings the racket. What muscles usually strained under these conditions
Brachioradialis
A nursing infant develops a powerful muscle for suckling the adults use when whistling. What is this muscle called
Buccinator
Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles
By the type of muscle fiber
What do the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common?
C) All act on the tongue.
Which of the following statements is false or incorrect? A) Cardiac muscle contracts when stimulated by its own autorhythmic muscle cells. B) Under normal resting conditions, cardiac muscle tissue contracts and relaxes about 75 times per minute. C) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP. D) Cardiac muscle fibers can use lactic acid to make ATP.
C) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP.
Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true?
C) During contraction the two articulating bones move equally.
Which of the following statements is true?
C) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?
C) The muscle elevates
Eccentric contractions are more forceful than concentric contractions.
True
The functional role of the T tubules is to ________.
enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
The main effect of the warm-up period of athletes, as the muscle contractions increase in strength, is to ________.
enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems
The cells of single-unit visceral muscle ________.
exhibit spontaneous action potentials
Fill in the blank: The ________ extends the great toe.
extensor hallucis longus
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate
false
During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement
false
During isotonic contraction, the heavier the load, the faster the velocity of contraction
false
Which of the following describes the cells of unitary smooth muscle?
C) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials.
A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a
Antagonist
Which below is not a part of a muscle fiber?R
Aponeurosis
Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles? They
Are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?
C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
Muscle tone is ________.
C) a state of sustained partial contraction
Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh?
C) adductor magnus
What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?
C) a synergist
When a geriatric client is admitted to the rehabilitation unit, an important nursing measure is to prevent the loss of muscle mass. What is the term used for loss of muscle mass and how can the patient prevent it?
Disuse atrophy is degeneration and loss of muscle mass. The size, shape, tone, and strength of muscles (including the heart) are maintained with mild exercise and increased with strenuous exercise. Promoting exercise to maintain a patient's muscle tone, joint mobility, and cardiovascular function is an important nursing function.
Which below is not a functional characteristic of muscle tissue? R
Dr. Sweet is the trickster- all of these are correct!
What is not a general function of muscle tissue?F
Dr. Sweet is the trickster: all of these are correct!
Which below is not a part of a skeletal muscle fiber?
Dr. Sweet is the trickster: all of these are correct!
Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true
During contraction, the two articulating bones move equally
The levers that operate with the mechanical advantage are called ---blank ---levers
Power
During a push-up, where the body is balanced on toes and hands, then entire body is acting as a ---blank--- lever
Second class
Fill in blank: The ________ is known as the boxer muscle.
Serratus anterior
The ---blank--- is known as the boxer muscle because it becomes very developed and people who performed the pushing action of punching
Serratus anterior
Smooth muscle is significantly different from striated muscle in several ways. Which of the following is true? ______
Smooth muscle contracts in a twisting way.
Which of the following is incorrect F
Smooth muscle does peristalsis
The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the scapular spine. The supraspinatus acts to
Stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward movement of the humerus in the glenoid joint as well as assisting in abduction of the humerus
Spasms of the strap like muscle often result in wryneck or tortucollis
Sternocleidomastoid
Electromyography is the recording and interpretation of graphic records of the electrical activity of contracting muscles.
True
Which of the following muscles produce is horizontal wrinkles in the four head
The frontal body of the epicranius
Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon
The gastrocnemius
Paralysis of which muscle would make it impossible to flex the knee
The hamstrings
In order to propel food down to the esophagus, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles are used.
True
Most superficial thorax muscles are extrinsic shoulder muscles.
True
What is the determining factor for the power of a muscle
The total number of muscle cells available for contraction
Which of the following statements is not true concerning developmental aspects of muscle?
There is no biological basis for the difference in strength between women and men.
The nurse encourages the patient to do his own activities of daily living such as bathing, feeding, dressing, and toileting activities. How do these activities promote physical conditioning?
These activities are isotonic exercises in which muscle tension is constant and then shortens to produce muscle contraction and movement. Because the muscles contract, the shape, size, and strength of the muscles are maintained as well as joint mobility.
What is the major factor controlling how levers work
They differ in the placement of the load, effort, and fulcrum
Which muscle group is damaged when someone experiences a pulled groin
Thigh adductors
If L=load, F=fulcrum, and E=effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF
Third
Most joints in the body or examples of ---blank ---levers
Third
While performing a squat, if the knee is the fulcrum of interest, the hamstrings contract to flex the lower leg, making this an example of
Third class
Lynn has been waking up each night with intense pain in her calves. She does not feel that it is serious enough to seek medical attention but would like to know what is causing the pain. What would you tell her concerning this problem? She has been playing tennis all summer for several hours each day. Could this have anything to do with the night pain?
This is due to sustained spasm, or tetanic contraction, of the gastrocnemius muscle. The causes could be low blood sugar, electrolyte depletion (particularly sodium and calcium), dehydration, or irritability of the spinal cord neurons. The fact that Lynn has been playing tennis for several hours each day may have caused an electrolyte depletion. She should increase her intake of calcium.
Contractures are a result of a total "lack" of ATP. True / False
True
Deep muscles of the thorax promote movements for breathing.
True
Fill in blank: ________ is a powerful forearm extensor.
Triceps brachii
Which of the following muscles acts as a powerful for extensor
Triceps brachii
Which below is not a tissue sheath associated with skeletal muscle?
Trick question: all of these are tissue sheaths
A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric contraction.
True
A resting potential is caused by a difference in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.
True
Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.
True
An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops.
True
An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops. True / False
True
Cardiac muscle has a limited regenerative capacity.
True
Cells of unitary smooth muscle are found in the longitudinal and circular muscle layers of the intestine.
True
Most muscles contain ________.
a mixture of fiber types
One functional unit of a skeletal muscle is ________.
a sarcomere
The term aponeurosis refers to ________.
a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
Muscle tone is ________.
a state of sustained partial contraction
The site of calcium regulation in the smooth muscle cell is ________.
calmodulin
Fill in the blank: Only ________ muscle cells commonly branch.
cardiac
Destroys ACh. a) Calcium ions b) Creatine phosphate c) Sodium-potassium ions d) Acetylcholine e) Acetylcholinesterase
e) Acetylcholinesterase An enzyme located in the synaptic cleft. Acetylcholine aka ACh.
Inside the H-zone is a thin ___. a) Z disc b) H zone c) I band d) A band e) M line
e) M line (from the German "Mittel", middle of the sarcomere).
The stimulas above which no stronger contraction can be elicited, because all motor units are firing in the muscle. a) Treppe b) Tetanus c) Wave summation d) Multiple motor unit summation e) Maximal stimulus
e) Maximal stimulus The strongest stimulus that produces increased contractile force.
Around the muscle [fasicles]. a) Epimysium b) Endomysium c) Muscle Fiber d) Fascicle e) Perimysium
e) Perimysium A sheath of connective tissue that groups individual muscle fibers (anywhere between 10 to 100 or more) into bundles of fascicles.
Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
endomysium
Which of the following is not a usual result of resistance exercise?
increase in the number of muscle cells
The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.
increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
Fill in the blank: The end of the muscle that typically moves when a muscle contracts is called the ________.
insertion
Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ________.
intense exercise of short duration
Fill in blank: The ________ is the main chewing muscle.
masseter
During vigorous excercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.
lactic acid
Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur.
latent
After nervous stimulation of the muscle cell has ceased, the calcium ________.
level in the cytoplasm drops
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods
relaxation period
Fill in blank: The ________ tightens the neck and draws the corners of the mouth downward as in expressing horror.
platysma
Fill in blank: The quadriceps femoris is composed of three "vastus" muscles and the ________.
rectus femoris
The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________.
regulate intracellular calcium concentration
