Chapter 17
A cancer of the white blood cells is called A) leukemia. B) hemophilia. C) jaundice. D) leukocytosis. E) pernicious anemia.
A
After donating 0.5 liter of blood, one would expect A) an increased reticulocyte count. B) an increased platelet count. C) an increased neutrophil count. D) increased levels of clotting factors. E) an increased erythrocyte count.
A
An increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration is termed A) hyperchromic. B) reticulocytosis. C) anemia. D) polycythemia. E) macrocytic.
A
Granulocytes form in A) red bone marrow. B) yellow bone marrow. C) the intestines. D) the thymus. E) the spleen.
A
How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? A) The coagulation pathway would be lacking a required cofactor at many steps and coagulation would be prevented. B) There would be no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium. C) The coagulation pathway would be lacking a required cofactor at many steps. D) The coagulation pathway would be lacking a required cofactor at many steps and no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium. E) Coagulation would be prevented.
A
In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is A) red bone marrow. B) yellow bone marrow. C) the spleen. D) the liver. E) the thymus.
A
Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that A) her hemoglobin level is normal. B) she is suffering from anemia. C) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. D) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. E) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal.
A
The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) conversion of Factor X to prothrombin activator. B) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. C) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. D) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. E) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium
A
The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is A) plasmin. B) heparin. C) thrombin. D) fibrinase. E) phosphokinase.
A
The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A) neutrophils. B) lymphocytes. C) basophils. D) eosinophils. E) monocytes.
A
The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the A) hematocrit. B) packed volume. C) specific gravity. D) viscosity. E) differential cell count.
A
When blood is fractionated, its components are ________ for the purpose of analysis. A) separated B) lysed C) returned to the body D) combined E) marked
A
Which of the following is not a component of plasma? A) platelets B) albumin C) electrolytes D) amino acids E) fibrinogen
A
Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? A) reticulocytes B) platelets C) neutrophils D) erythrocytes E) lymphocytes
A
Which of these descriptions best matches the term lymphocytes? A) defend against specific pathogens or toxins B) become macrophages C) kill bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals D) release histamine E) often elevated in allergic individuals
A
White blood cells that are increased in individuals with allergic reactions are the A) eosinophils. B) monocytes. C) neutrophils. D) basophils. E) lymphocytes.
A
________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. A) Anemia B) Polycythemia C) Thrombocytopenia D) Leukemia E) Leukopenia
A
Each hemoglobin molecule contains A) one heme group. B) four iron atoms. C) four alpha chains. D) one alpha and one beta chain. E) None of the answers is correct.
B
Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood? A) 55 percent B) 45 percent C) 78 percent D) 20 percent E) 60 percent
B
People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because A) they usually have very strong immune systems. B) their blood lacks A or B antibodies. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B antibodies. D) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. E) they are usually Rh negative.
B
Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood, and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. A) 92; 7 B) 55; 92 C) 50; 50 D) 45; 55 E) 92; 55
B
Platelets are A) blue cells that have a nucleus. B) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells. C) red cells that lack a nucleus. D) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. E) tiny cells with a polynucleus.
B
Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) normoblasts. B) megakaryocytes. C) lymphoblasts. D) erythroblasts. E) myeloblasts.
B
Rouleaux refers to the ability of RBCs to A) establish a large surface area-to-volume ratio. B) form stacks. C) squeeze through small capillaries smaller than their cell diameter. D) carry hemoglobin. E) live without a nucleus.
B
The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of mature erythrocytes. A) complete blood count B) RBC count C) differential count D) reticulocyte count E) platelet count
B
The average lifespan of a red blood cell is A) about 1 year. B) 4 months. C) many years. D) 24 hours. E) 1 month.
B
The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) myeloid cells. B) reticulocytes. C) proerythroblasts. D) band forms. E) hemocytoblasts.
B
The normal pH of blood is A) neutral. B) slightly alkaline. C) slightly acidic. D) extremely acidic. E) extremely alkaline.
B
Which of the following descriptions best matches the term eosinophils? A) defend against specific pathogens or toxins and produce antibodies in response to antigens B) often elevated in allergic individuals C) release histamine D) kill bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals E) become macrophages
B
Which of the following is false concerning monocytes? A) enter tissues and wander B) about same size as basophils C) become macrophages D) are long-lived E) can phagocytize bacteria
B
Which of the following statements about blood is false? A) It is more viscous than water. B) Normal pH is 6.8 to 7.0. C) It is about 55 percent plasma. D) It contains buffers that control pH. E) None of the statements is false; all are true.
B
Which of these descriptions best matches the term platelets? A) helper cells are one type B) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium C) often elevated in allergic individuals D) produce antibodies in response to antigens E) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
B
Which plasma protein is a major contributor to the osmotic pressure of plasma? A) steroid-binding protein B) albumin C) gamma globulin D) hormone-binding protein E) fibrinogen
B
If the blood types of a donor and recipient are compatible, then A) the donor's antibodies bind with the recipient's antibodies. B) the donor's antibodies bind with the recipient's antigens. C) the donor's antigens bind with the recipient's antibodies. D) there is no reaction between antibodies and antigens. E) the donor's antigens bind with the recipient's antigens.
D
Which of the following proteins functions to store or transport oxygen? A) immunoglobulin B) albumin C) hemoglobin D) transferrin E) All of the answers are correct
C
Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? A) A B) B C) K D) D E) E
C
A hematocrit provides information on A) clotting factors. B) plasma composition. C) blood type. D) formed elements abundance. E) sedimentation rate.
D
Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the A) bone marrow. B) spleen. C) liver. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct
D
All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) phagocytic. B) granular leukocytes. C) active in fighting bacterial infections. D) important in coagulation. E) round cells with lobed nuclei.
D
All of the following blood diseases are caused by pathogens except A) malaria. B) bacteremia. C) septicemia. D) thalassemia. E) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
D
An example of a heritable blood disorder is A) sickle cell anemia. B) hemophilia. C) thalassemia. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct.
D
If bile ducts are blocked, A) more hemolysis takes place. B) bilirubin appears in the skin and eyes. C) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. D) more bilirubin appears in the plasma, and bilirubin appears in the skin and eyes. E) All of the answers are correct.
D
In which of the following would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? A) an alcoholic with a damaged liver B) a person with an iron-deficient diet C) a person suffering from hemolysis D) a person suffering from hemolysis and an alcoholic with a damaged liver E) All of the answers are correct.
D
Overall, the most common blood type is A) AB. B) A. C) B. D) O. E) There is no common pattern of blood type distribution.
D
Platelets function in all of the following except A) releasing chemicals that stimulate clotting. B) contracting after clot formation. C) forming temporary clump in injured areas. D) dissolving a formed clot. E) initiating the clotting process
D
Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) anemia. B) acidosis. C) starvation. D) hemorrhage. E) thrombocytopenia.
D
The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells. A) complete blood count B) reticulocyte count C) mean corpuscular volume D) differential count E) hematocrit
D
The chief differences between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of A) water. B) glucose. C) nitrogen wastes. D) proteins. E) electrolytes.
D
The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) packed blood. B) lymph. C) serum. D) whole blood. E) extracellular fluid
D
The function of red blood cells is to A) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. B) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. C) defend the body against infectious organisms. D) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells. E) both carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells and carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.
D
The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) fibrinogens. B) transport proteins. C) globulins. D) albumins. E) lipoproteins.
D
The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) forms thrombi. C) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. D) dissolves clots. E) forms emboli.
D
The process of red blood cell production is called A) erythrocytosis. B) hemocytosis. C) erythropenia. D) erythropoiesis. E) hematopenia.
D
The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from A) extensive breakdown of RBCs. B) destruction of hemoglobin. C) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct.
D
Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) retraction B) common C) intrinsic D) extrinsic E) fibrinolytic
D
When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect A) a drop in oxygen levels. B) a rise in hematocrit. C) the release of erythropoietin. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct.
D
Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor? A) releases histamine B) antibodies are one type C) kills bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals D) hormone that regulates blood cell formation E) often elevated in allergic individuals
D
Which of the following is false concerning neutrophils? A) can destroy bacteria B) can make cytotoxic chemicals C) produced in the bone marrow D) less abundant than lymphocytes E) can exit capillaries
D
Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false? A) Red cells are biconcave discs. B) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux. C) Red cells lack mitochondria. D) Red cells are about 18 μm in diameter. E) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen
D
White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) lymphocytes. B) monocytes. C) neutrophils. D) basophils. E) eosinophils
D
You are caring for a female adult patient who weighs 40 kg (90 lbs). Assuming no loss of blood, what would her approximate blood volume be? A) 5.6 L B) 6.6 L C) 6.0 L D) 3.8 L E) 1.8 L
D
________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Eosinophils B) Basophils C) Lymphocytes D) Monocytes E) Neutrophils
D
A person's blood type is determined largely by the A) shape of the RBCs. B) size of the RBCs. C) volume of the RBCs. D) chemical character of the hemoglobin. E) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.
E
A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is A) immunoglobulin A. B) albumin alpha. C) platelets. D) transport proteins. E) fibrinogen.
E
All the circulating red blood cells originate in the A) spleen. B) thymus. C) lymph tissue. D) heart. E) red bone marrow.
E
An elevated hematocrit value is termed A) macrocytic. B) reticulocytosis. C) anemia. D) hyperchromic. E) polycythemia.
E
Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. This means A) Bill could receive type A-negative blood in a transfusion. B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood. C) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies. D) Bill is Rh negative. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) copper. B) sodium. C) magnesium. D) calcium. E) iron.
E
Each of the following is a way that blood transports materials around the body except A) nutrients from the digestive tract to the body. B) hormones from endocrine glands to target cells. C) wastes from the cells to the kidneys. D) stored nutrients from the liver to the tissues. E) carbon dioxide from the lungs to the tissues.
E
Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? A) vitamin K deficiency B) iron deficiency C) lack of intrinsic factor D) vitamin B6 deficiency E) vitamin B12 deficiency
E
Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a kidney-derived hormone called A) colony-stimulating factor. B) testosterone. C) estrogen. D) fibrin. E) erythropoietin (EPO).
E
Erythropoiesis is stimulated when A) oxygen levels in the blood decrease. B) oxygen levels in the blood increase and blood flow to the kidney declines. C) oxygen levels in the blood increase. D) blood flow to the kidney declines. E) oxygen levels in the blood decrease and blood flow to the kidney declines.
E
Hematology can detect A) anemia. B) infection. C) diminished erythropoiesis. D) clotting disorders. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if A) both the father and the mother are Rh positive. B) an Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus. C) both the father and the mother are Rh negative. D) the mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative. E) an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
E
Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. A) testosterone B) fibrin C) erythropoietin (EPO) D) estrogen E) colony-stimulating factor
E
Platelet factor (PF-3) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) fibrinolytic B) extrinsic C) retraction D) common E) intrinsic
E
Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone A) thymosin. B) albumin. C) angiotensin. D) renin. E) erythropoietin.
E
Sensitization during hemolytic disease of the newborn refers to A) the fetal immune system producing antibodies against the fetus' RBCs. B) the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the mother's RBCs. C) the fetal immune system producing antibodies against the mother's RBCs. D) spontaneous miscarriage of a woman's first baby due to blood incompatibilities. E) the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the fetus' RBCs.
E
The most abundant component of plasma is A) nutrients. B) ions. C) proteins. D) gases. E) water.
E
The waste product bilirubin is produced from A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. C) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells. D) heme molecules plus iron. E) heme molecules lacking iron.
E
Which of the following is a function of the blood? A) transport of nutrients and wastes B) defense against toxins and pathogens C) transport of body heat D) transport of gases E) All of the answers are correct.
E
Which of the following is true of basophils? A) contain dense blue stained granules in the Wright stain B) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs C) promote inflammation D) granules contain histamine E) All of the answers are correct.
E
Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from A) a superficial artery. B) the heart. C) an arteriole. D) a capillary. E) a superficial vein.
E
________ transport(s) oxygen and CO2 in the RBCs. A) Mitochondria B) Ribosomes C) DNA D) Components of the cytoskeleton E) Hemoglobin molecules
E
A person with Type A blood has A) anti-B antibodies in the plasma and anti-A antibodies on the red blood cells. B) anti-A antibodies on the red blood cells. C) antigen A on the RBCs and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. D) antigen A on the RBCs. E) anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
C
A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to A) initiate clot formation. B) recruit neutrophils to an infection. C) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. D) cause clots to form faster. E) mimic erythropoietin.
C
A typical adult hematocrit is around A) 75. B) 85. C) 45. D) 25. E) 65.
C
All of the following blood disorders are due to specific issues with RBCs except A) pernicious anemia. B) thalassemia. C) myeloid leukemia. D) malaria. E) iron deficiency anemia
C
An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in A) renal anemia. B) increased sensitivity to vitamin K. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased iron absorption. E) decreased erythropoiesis.
C
Below are some of the factors involved in the extrinsic and common clotting pathway. 1. calcium 2. tissue factor (III) 3. prothrombin 4. factor X 5. fibrin 6. clotting factor VII What answer corresponds to the correct order in which they occur? A) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4, 6 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 C) 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5 D) 2, 6, 4, 5, 1, 3 E) 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2
C
How does a treatment with RhoGAM prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? A) It prevents maternal anti-Rh antibodies from crossing the placenta. B) It destroys maternal RBCs that enter the fetal circulation. C) It destroys fetal RBCs that enter the maternal circulation. D) It destroys fetal anti-Rh antibodies. E) It destroys maternal anti-Rh antibodies
C
In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in A) lymphoid tissue. B) the spleen. C) red bone marrow. D) the liver. E) yellow bone marrow
C
Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) stored in yellow bone marrow. B) excreted by the intestines. C) recycled to the red bone marrow. D) excreted by the kidneys. E) excreted by the liver.
C
Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the A) transport proteins. B) fibrinogens. C) immunoglobulins. D) platelets. E) albumins.
C
The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by A) prothrombin activator. B) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. C) thrombin. D) factor VIII. E) plasmin.
C
The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if A) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. B) the diet is deficient in iron. C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. E) hemolysis is prevented by a bad gene.
C
The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) release of heparin from the liver. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. E) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.
C
The function of hemoglobin is to A) aid in the process of blood clotting. B) defend against infection. C) carry oxygen. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct.
C
The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. C) activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen. D) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. E) release of heparin from the liver.
C
The process of white blood cell production goes on in all of the following except A) the spleen. B) the thymus. C) the kidney. D) the lymph nodes. E) red bone marrow.
C