Chapter 25 1213

ANS: A, C Because the contrast media is iodine based and may cause dehydration and decreased renal blood flow, asking about iodine allergies (such as allergy to shellfish) and monitoring renal function before the CT scan are necessary. The other actions are not contraindications for CT of the chest, although they may be for other diagnostic tests, such as magnetic resonance imaging or pulmonary spirometry.

1. A patient is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest with contrast media. Which assessment findings should the nurse report to the health care provider before the patient goes for the CT (select all that apply)? a. Allergy to shellfish b. Patient reports claustrophobia c. Elevated serum creatinine level d. Recent bronchodilator inhaler use e. Inability to remove a wedding band

c. Fine crackles are described as a series of short-duration, discontinuous, high-pitched sounds heard just before the end of inspiration.

A 67-yr-old male patient had a right total knee replacement 2 days ago. Upon auscultation of the patient's posterior chest, the nurse detects discontinuous, high-pitched breath sounds just before the end of inspiration in the lower portion of both lungs. Which statement most appropriately reflects how the nurse should document the breath sounds? a. "Bibasilar wheezes present on inspiration." b. "Diminished breath sounds in the bases of both lungs." c. "Fine crackles posterior right and left lower lung fields." d. "Expiratory wheezing scattered throughout the lung fields."

ANS: B Kussmaul (deep and rapid) respirations are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate result indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, a low oxygen saturation rate, and a decrease in venous O2 pressure would not be caused by acidosis.

A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3- 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding? a. Intercostal retractions c. Low oxygen saturation (SpO2) b. Kussmaul respirations d. Decreased venous O2 pressure

a. Baseline data with the most information is best obtained by auscultation of the posterior chest, especially in female patients because of breast tissue interfering with the assessment or if the patient may tire easily (e.g., shortness of breath, dyspnea, weakness, fatigue). Usually auscultation proceeds from the lung apices to the bases unless it is possible the patient will tire easily. In this case, the nurse should start at the bases.

A frail 82-yr-old female patient develops sudden shortness of breath while sitting in a chair. What location on the chest should the nurse begin auscultation of the lung fields? a. Bases of the posterior chest area b. Apices of the posterior lung fields c. Anterior chest area above the breasts d. Midaxillary on the left side of the chest

ANS: B Spiral computed tomography scans are the most commonly used test to diagnose pulmonary emboli and contrast media may be given IV. Bronchoscopy is used to detect changes in the bronchial tree, not to assess for vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography scans are most useful in determining the presence of malignancy and a radioactive glucose preparation is used. For spirometry, the patient is asked to inhale deeply and exhale as long, hard, and fast as possible.

A patient admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus. How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis? a. Ensure that the patient has been NPO. b. Start an IV so contrast media may be given. c. Inform radiology that radioactive glucose preparation is needed. d. Instruct the patient to expect to inspire deeply and exhale forcefully.

ANS: C Although the O2 saturation is adequate, the left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve will decrease the amount of O2 delivered to tissues, so high oxygen concentrations should be given. A head-to-toe assessment and repeat ABGs may be implemented later. Bronchodilators are not needed for metabolic alkalosis and there is no indication that the patient is having difficulty with airflow.

A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department and pulse oximetry (SpO2) indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse expect to take next? a. Complete a head-to-toe assessment. b. Administer an inhaled bronchodilator. c. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen. d. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).

ANS: C Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Because the patient is likely to be distracted just before discharge, giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal. The patient is likely to be anxious and even more hypoxemic than usual on the day of admission, so teaching about discharge should be postponed.

A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching? a. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching. b. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge. c. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching. d. Start giving the patient discharge teaching during the admission process.

ANS: C Risk for aspiration and maintaining an open airway is the priority. Because a local anesthetic is used to suppress the gag and cough reflexes during bronchoscopy, the nurse should monitor for the return of these reflexes before allowing the patient to take oral fluids or food. The patient does not need to be on bed rest, and the head of the bed does not need to be in the high-Fowler's position.

A patient with a chronic cough is scheduled to have a bronchoscopy with biopsy. Which intervention will the nurse implement directly after the procedure? a. Encourage the patient to drink clear liquids. b. Place the patient on bed rest for at least 4 hours. c. Keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns. d. Maintain the head of the bed elevated 90 degrees.

D. PET is used to distinguish benign and malignant pulmonary nodules. Because malignant lung cells have an increased uptake of glucose, the PET scan (which uses an IV radioactive glucose preparation) can demonstrate increased uptake of glucose in malignant lung cells. This differentiation cannot be made using CT, a pulmonary angiogram, or thoracentesis.

A patient with a recent history of a dry cough has had a chest x-ray that revealed the presence of nodules. In an effort to determine whether the nodules are malignant or benign, what is the primary care provider likely to order? a. Thoracentesis b. Pulmonary angiogram c. CT scan of the patient's chest d. Positron emission tomography (PET)

ANS: A Because iodine-based contrast media is used during a spiral CT, the patient may need to have the CT scan without contrast or be premedicated before injection of the contrast media. The increased pulse, low oxygen saturation, and tachypnea all indicate a need for further assessment or intervention but do not indicate a need to modify the CT procedure.

A patient with acute dyspnea is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan. Which information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider before the CT? a. Allergy to shellfish c. Respiratory rate of 30 b. Apical pulse of 104 d. O2 saturation of 90%

ANS: B When a patient has severe respiratory distress, only information pertinent to the current episode is obtained, and a more thorough assessment is deferred until later. Obtaining a comprehensive health history or full physical examination is unnecessary until the acute distress has resolved. Brief questioning and a focused physical assessment should be done rapidly to help determine the cause of the distress and suggest treatment. Checking for allergies is important, but it is not appropriate to complete the entire admission database at this time. The initial respiratory assessment must be completed before any diagnostic tests or interventions can be ordered

A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient? a. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment. b. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress. c. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment. d. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.

a. Priorities for assessment are the patient's airway and breathing, both of which may be compromised after bronchoscopy by laryngeal edema. These assessment parameters supersede the importance of loss of consciousness (LOC), pain, heart rate, and blood pressure, although the nurse should also be assessing these.

A patient with recurrent shortness of breath has just had a bronchoscopy. What is a priority nursing action immediately after the procedure? a. Monitor the patient for laryngeal edema. b. Assess the patient's level of consciousness. c. Monitor and manage the patient's level of pain. d. Assess the patient's heart rate and blood pressure.

b. Because thoracentesis involves the introduction of a catheter into the pleural space, there is a risk of pneumothorax. Thoracentesis does not carry a significant potential for causing bronchospasm, pulmonary edema, or respiratory acidosis.

After assisting at the bedside with a thoracentesis, the nurse should continue to assess the patient for signs and symptoms of what? a. Bronchospasm b. Pneumothorax c. Pulmonary edema d. Respiratory acidosis

d. These manifestations are associated with aspiration, which more easily occur in the right lung as the right mainstem bronchus is shorter, wider, and straighter than the left mainstem bronchus. Aspiration occurs more easily in the older patient related to decreased respiratory defense mechanisms (e.g., decreases in immunity, ciliary function, cough force, sensation in pharynx). Changes of aging include a decreased response to hypercapnia, decreased number of functional alveoli, and increased calcification of costal cartilage, but these do not increase the risk of aspiration

After swallowing, a 73-yr-old patient is coughing and has a wet voice. What changes of aging could be contributing to this abnormal finding? a. Decreased response to hypercapnia b. Decreased number of functional alveoli c. Increased calcification of costal cartilage d. Decreased respiratory defense mechanisms

ANS: C Because the cough and gag are decreased after bronchoscopy, this patient should be assessed for airway patency. The other patients do not have clinical manifestations or procedures that require immediate assessment by the nurse.

After the nurse has received change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with pneumonia who has crackles in the right lung base b. A patient with chronic bronchitis who has a low forced vital capacity c. A patient with possible lung cancer who has just returned after bronchoscopy d. A patient with hemoptysis and a 16-mm induration after tuberculin skin testing

c. Tracheal deviation is a medical emergency when it is caused by a tension pneumothorax. Tactile fremitus increases with pneumonia or pulmonary edema and decreases in pleural effusion or lung hyperinflation. Diminished chest movement occurs with barrel chest, restrictive disease, and neuromuscular disease.

During the assessment in the emergency department, the nurse is palpating the patient's chest. Which finding is a medical emergency? a. Increased tactile fremitus b. Diminished chest movement c. Tracheal deviation to the left d. Decreased anteroposterior (AP) diameter

b, d-Tripod position and accessory muscle use indicate moderate to severe respiratory distress. Cyanosis may be related to anemia, decreased oxygen transfer in the lungs, or decreased cardiac output. Therefore, it is a nonspecific and unreliable indicator of only respiratory distress. Kussmaul respirations occur when the patient is in metabolic acidosis to increase CO2 excretion. Increased AP diameter occurs with lung hyperinflation from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, cystic fibrosis, or with advanced age.

In assessment of the patient with acute respiratory distress, what should the nurse expect to observe (select all that apply.)? a. Cyanosis b. Tripod position c. Kussmaul respirations d. Accessory muscle use e. Increased AP diameter

ANS: A Crackles are low-pitched, bubbling sounds usually heard on inspiration. Wheezes are high-pitched sounds. They can be heard during the expiratory or inspiratory phase of the respiratory cycle. The lower third of both lungs are the bases, not apices. Pleural friction rubs are grating sounds that are usually heard during both inspiration and expiration.

On auscultation of a patient's lungs, the nurse hears low-pitched, bubbling sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs. How should the nurse document this finding? a. Inspiratory crackles at the bases b. Expiratory wheezes in both lungs c. Abnormal lung sounds in the apices of both lungs d. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes

ANS: A The increase in respiratory rate indicates respiratory distress and a need for rapid interventions such as administration of O2 or medications. The other findings are common chronic changes occurring in patients with COPD.

The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the past 3 days. Which finding is important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Respirations are 36 breaths/min. b. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1. c. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally. d. Hyperresonance to percussion is present.

ANS: C For spirometry, the patient should inhale deeply and exhale as long, hard, and fast as possible. The other actions are not needed. The administration of inhaled bronchodilators should be avoided 6 hours before the procedure.

The nurse teaches a patient about pulmonary spirometry testing. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates teaching was effective? a. "I should use my inhaler right before the test." b. "I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test." c. "I will inhale deeply and blow out hard during the test." d. "My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes."

ANS: D These ABGs indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis and should be reported to the health care provider. The other values are normal, close to normal, or compensated.

The laboratory has just called with the arterial blood gas (ABG) results on four patients. Which result is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider? a. pH 7.34, PaO2 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, and O2 sat 97% b. pH 7.35, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 95% c. pH 7.46, PaO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and O2 sat 98% d. pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%

ANS: D The increased need for a rapid-acting bronchodilator should alert the patient that an acute attack may be imminent and that a change in therapy may be needed. The patient should be taught to contact a health care provider if this occurs. The other data do not indicate any need for additional teaching.

The nurse admits a patient who has a diagnosis of an acute asthma attack. Which statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use? a. "I have not had any acute asthma attacks during the past year." b. "I became short of breath an hour before coming to the hospital." c. "I've been taking Tylenol 650 mg every 6 hours for chest wall pain." d. "I've been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days."

ANS: D All the values are abnormal, but the low PaO2 indicates that the patient is at the point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve where a small change in the PaO2 will cause a large drop in the O2 saturation and a decrease in tissue oxygenation. The nurse should intervene immediately to improve the patient's oxygenation.

The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action? a. The bicarbonate level (HCO3-) is 31 mEq/L. b. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%. c. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg. d. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg.

ANS: C Fine crackles are likely to be heard in the early phase of heart failure. Fine crackles are discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration. Course crackles are a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration. Wheezes are continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration.

The nurse completes a shift assessment on a patient admitted in the early phase of heart failure. When auscultating the patient's lungs, which finding would the nurse most likely hear? a. Continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration b. Continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration c. Discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration during inspiration d. A series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration

b. Postoperatively, there is an increased risk for atelectasis from anesthesia as well as restricted breathing from pain. Without deep breathing to stretch the alveoli, surfactant secretion to hold the alveoli open is not promoted. Pneumonia will occur later after surgery. Pleural effusion occurs because of blockage of lymphatic drainage or an imbalance between intravascular and oncotic fluid pressures, which is not expected in this case.

The nurse is caring for a patient who had abdominal surgery yesterday. Today the patient's lung sounds in the lower lobes are diminished. The nurse knows this could be related to the occurrence of a. pain. b. atelectasis. c. pneumonia. d. pleural effusion.

B. After obtaining blood for an arterial blood gas measurement, the nurse should hold pressure on the puncture site for 5 minutes by the clock to be sure that bleeding has stopped. An artery is an elastic vessel under much higher pressure than veins, and significant blood loss or hematoma formation could occur if the time is insufficient.

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder (COPD) and pneumonia who has an order for arterial blood gases to be drawn. What is the minimum length of time the nurse should plan to hold pressure on the puncture site? a. 2 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes

c. An area of induration 10 mm or larger would be a positive reaction in a person with end-stage renal disease. Reddened, flat areas do not indicate a positive reaction. A wheal appears when the TST is administered that indicates correct administration of the intradermal antigen. Presence of acid-fast bacilli in the sputum indicates active tuberculosis.

The nurse is interpreting a tuberculin skin test (TST) for a 58-yr-old female patient with end-stage renal disease secondary to diabetes mellitus. Which finding would indicate a positive reaction? a. Acid-fast bacilli cultured at the injection site b. 15-mm area of redness at the TST injection site c. 11-mm area of induration at the TST injection site d. Wheal formed immediately after intradermal injection

a. Important assessments obtained during a focused respiratory assessment include auscultation of lung (breath) sounds. Assessment of tactile fremitus has limited value in acute respiratory distress. It is not necessary to assess for both anterior and posterior chest expansion. Percussion of the chest wall is not essential in a focused respiratory assessment.

The nurse is obtaining a focused respiratory assessment of a 44-yr-old female patient who is in severe respiratory distress 2 days after abdominal surgery. What is most important for the nurse to assess? a. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds b. Percussion of anterior and posterior chest wall c. Palpation of the chest bilaterally for tactile fremitus d. Inspection for anterior and posterior chest expansion

ANS: B Listening only during inspiration indicates the student needs a review of respiratory assessment skills. At each placement of the stethoscope, listen to at least one cycle of inspiration and expiration. During chest auscultation, instruct the patient to breathe slowly and a little deeper than normal through the mouth. Auscultation should proceed from the lung apices to the bases, comparing opposite areas of the chest, unless the patient is in respiratory distress or will tire easily.

The nurse observes a student who is listening to a patient's lungs. Which action by the student indicates a need to review respiratory assessment skills? a. The student compares breath sounds from side to side at each level. b. The student listens during the inspiratory phase, then moves the stethoscope. c. The student starts at the apices of the lungs, moving down toward the lung bases. d. The student instructs the patient to breathe slowly and deeply through the mouth.

ANS: B The drop in SpO2 to 85% indicates that the patient is hypoxemic and needs supplemental O2 when exercising. The other actions are also important, but the first action should be to correct the hypoxemia.

The nurse observes that a patient with respiratory disease experiences a decrease in SpO2 from 93% to 88% while the patient is ambulating. What is the priority action of the nurse? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Administer PRN supplemental O2. c. Document the response to exercise. d. Encourage the patient to pace activity.

ANS: D To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as "99." After noting absent fremitus, the nurse should then auscultate the lungs to assess for the presence or absence of breath sounds. Absent fremitus may be noted with pneumothorax or atelectasis. The vibration is increased in conditions such as pneumonia, lung tumors, thick bronchial secretions, and pleural effusion. Turning, coughing, and deep breathing is an appropriate intervention for atelectasis, but the nurse needs to first assess breath sounds. Fremitus is decreased if the hand is farther from the lung or the lung is hyperinflated (barrel chest). The anterior of the chest is more difficult to palpate for fremitus because of the presence of large muscles and breast tissue.

The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says "99" and notes absent fremitus. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Palpate the anterior chest and observe for barrel chest. b. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe. c. Review the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia. d. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally.

ANS: D The upright position with the arms supported increases lung expansion, allows fluid to collect at the lung bases, and expands the intercostal space so that access to the pleural space is easier. The other positions would increase the work of breathing for the patient and make it more difficult for the health care provider performing the thoracentesis.

The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient? a. High-Fowler's position with the left arm extended b. Supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees c. On the right side with the left arm extended above the head d. Sitting upright with the arms supported on an over bed table

c. Coarse crackles are a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds caused by air passing through an airway intermittently occluded by mucus, an unstable bronchial wall, or a fold of mucosa. Coarse crackles are evident on inspiration and at times expiration. Stridor is a continuous crowing sound of constant pitch from partial obstruction of larynx or trachea. Vesicular sounds are relatively soft, low-pitched, gentle, rustling sounds. They are heard over all lung areas except the major bronchi. Bronchovesicular sounds are normal sounds heard anteriorly over the mainstem bronchi on either side of the sternum and posteriorly between the scapulae with a medium pitch and intensity.

The nurse, when auscultating the lower lungs of the patient, hears these breath sounds. How should the nurse document these sounds? a. Stridor b. Vesicular c. Coarse crackles d. Bronchovesicular

c. The sound of the cough, sputum production and description, and the pattern of the cough's occurrence (including acute or chronic) and what its occurrence is related to are the first assessments to be made to determine the severity. Frequency of the cough will not provide a lot of information. Family history can help to determine a genetic cause of the cough. Hematemesis is vomiting blood and not as important as hemoptysis. Smoking is an important risk factor for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and lung cancer and may cause a cough. Medications may or may not contribute to a cough as does residence location. Weight loss, activity intolerance, and orthopnea may be related to respiratory or cardiac problems, but are not as important when dealing with a cough.

The patient is calling the clinic with a cough. What assessment should be made first before the nurse advises the patient? a. Frequency, family history, hematemesis b. Weight loss, activity tolerance, orthopnea c. Cough sound, sputum production, pattern d. Smoking status, medications, residence location

c. Arterial blood gases are used to assess the efficiency of gas exchange in the lung and tissue oxygenation as is pulse oximetry. Thoracentesis is used to obtain specimens for diagnostic evaluation, remove pleural fluid, or instill medication into the pleural space. Bronchoscopy is used for diagnostic purposes, to obtain biopsy specimens, and to assess changes resulting from treatment. Pulmonary function tests measure lung volumes and airflow to diagnose pulmonary disease, monitor disease progression, evaluate disability, and evaluate response to bronchodilators.

The patient is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which diagnostic test should be used to measure the efficiency of gas exchange in the lung and tissue oxygenation? a. Thoracentesis b. Bronchoscopy c. Arterial blood gases d. Pulmonary function tests

a. Motion is the most likely cause of the low SpO2 for this patient with Parkinson's disease. Anemia, dark skin color, and thick acrylic nails as well as low perfusion, bright fluorescent lights, and intravascular dyes may also cause an inaccurate pulse oximetry result. There is no mention of these or reason to suspect these in this question.

The patient with Parkinson's disease has a pulse oximetry reading of 72%, but he is not displaying any other signs of decreased oxygenation. What is most likely contributing to his low SpO2 level? a. Artifact b. Anemia c. Dark skin color d. Thick acrylic nails

a. With inadequate oxygenation, early manifestations include restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis, decreased urinary output, and unexplained fatigue. The unexplained confusion, dyspnea at rest, hypotension, and diaphoresis; combativeness, retractions with breathing, cyanosis, and decreased urinary output; coma, accessory muscle use, cool and clammy skin, and unexplained fatigue occur as later manifestations of inadequate oxygenation.

The patient's arterial blood gas results show the PaO2 at 65 mmHg and SaO2 at 80%. What early manifestations should the nurse expect to observe in this patient? a. Restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis b. Unexplained confusion, dyspnea at rest, hypotension, and diaphoresis c. Combativeness, retractions with breathing, cyanosis, and decreased output d. Coma, accessory muscle use, cool and clammy skin, and unexplained fatigue

a. Clubbing, a sign of long-standing hypoxemia, is evidenced by an increase in the angle between the base of the nail and fingernail to 180 degrees or more, usually accompanied by an increase in the depth, bulk, and sponginess of the end of the finger.

What should the nurse inspect when assessing a patient with shortness of breath for evidence of long-standing hypoxemia? a.Fingernails b. Chest excursion c. Spinal curvatures d. Respiratory pattern

a, c, e-A patient with obstructive sleep apnea may have insomnia, abrupt awakenings, or both. Patients with cardiovascular disease (e.g., heart failure that may affect respiratory health) may need to sleep with the head elevated on several pillows (orthopnea). Sleeping more than 8 hours per night or needing to urinate during the night is not indicative of impaired respiratory health.

When assessing a patient's sleep-rest pattern related to respiratory health, what should the nurse ask the patient (select all that apply.)? a. Do you awaken abruptly during the night? b. Do you sleep more than 8 hours per night? c. Do you need to sleep with the head elevated? d. Do you often need to urinate during the night? e. Do you toss and turn when trying to fall asleep?

d. When a patient with type 1 diabetes has hyperglycemia and ketonemia causing metabolic acidosis, the physiologic response is to increase the respiratory rate and tidal volume to blow off the excess CO2. Vomiting and increased urination may occur with hyperglycemia, but not as physiologic responses to metabolic acidosis. The heart rate will increase.

When the patient is experiencing metabolic acidosis secondary to type 1 diabetes mellitus, what physiologic response should the nurse expect to assess in the patient? a. Vomiting b. Increased urination c. Decreased heart rate d. Increased respiratory rate

ANS: B Labeling of specimens is within the scope of practice of UAP. The other actions require nursing judgment and should be done by licensed nursing personnel.

Which action is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Listen to a patient's lung sounds for wheezes or crackles. b. Label specimens obtained during percutaneous lung biopsy. c. Instruct a patient about how to use home spirometry testing. d. Measure induration at the site of a patient's intradermal skin test.

ANS: D Crackles in the lower half of the lungs indicate that the patient may have an acute problem such as heart failure. The nurse should immediately accomplish further assessments, such as O2 saturation, and notify the health care provider. A barrel-shaped chest, hyperresonance to percussion, and a weak cough effort are associated with aging. Further evaluation may be needed, but immediate action is not indicated. An older patient has a less forceful cough and fewer and less functional cilia. Mucous membranes tend to be drier.

Which assessment finding indicates that the nurse should take immediate action for an older patient? a. Weak cough effort c. Dry mucous membranes b. Barrel-shaped chest d. Bilateral basilar crackles

c. Early clinical manifestations of hypoxemia include dysrhythmias (e.g., premature ventricular contractions), unexplained decreased level of consciousness (e.g., disorientation), dyspnea on exertion, and unexplained decreased urine output

Which patient is exhibiting an early clinical manifestation of hypoxemia? a. A 48-yr-old patient who is intoxicated and acutely disoriented to time and place b. A 67-yr-old patient who has dyspnea while resting in the bed or in a reclining chair c. A 72-yr-old patient who has four new premature ventricular contractions per minute d. A 94-yr-old patient who has renal insufficiency, anemia, and decreased urine output