Chapter 25 Pregnancy- Related Complications

A nurse is assessing a woman receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse assesses her deep tendon reflexes at 0 and 1+. What action by the nurse is best? a. Hold the magnesium sulfate. b. Ask the provider to order a 24-hour UA. c. Assess the woman's temperature. d. Take the woman's blood pressure.

ANS: A Absent or hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. The nurse should hold the magnesium and notify the provider. There is no need for a 24- hour UA at this point. Temperature changes are not related to magnesium. Blood pressure can be assessed, but that is not the priority.

The nursing student learns that spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if a. the pregnancy is less than 20 weeks. b. the fetus weighs less than 1000 g. c. the products of conception are passed intact. d. no evidence exists of intrauterine infection.

ANS: A An abortion is the termination of pregnancy before the age of viability (20 weeks). The weight of a fetus is not considered because some fetuses of an older age may have a low birth weight. A spontaneous abortion may be complete or incomplete. A spontaneous abortion may be caused by many problems, one being intrauterine infection.

The nurse learns that which is the most common cause of spontaneous abortion? a. Chromosomal abnormalities b. Infections c. Endocrine imbalance d. Immunologic factors

ANS: A Around 60% of pregnancy losses from spontaneous abortion in the first trimester result from chromosomal abnormalities that are incompatible with life. Maternal infection, endocrine imbalances, and immunologic factors may also be causes of early miscarriage.

The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to a. assess fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs. b. perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. c. place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage. d. monitor uterine contractions.

ANS: A Assessment of the FHR and maternal vital signs will assist the nurse in determining the degree of the blood loss and its effect on the mother and fetus. The blood levels can be obtained later. It is important to assess future bleeding and provide for comfort, but the top priority is mother/fetal well-being. Monitoring uterine contractions is important but not the top priority.

Rh incompatibility can occur if the woman is Rh negative and her a. fetus is Rh positive. b. husband is Rh positive. c. fetus is Rh negative. d. husband and fetus are both Rh negative.

ANS: A For Rh incompatibility to occur, the mother must be Rh negative and her fetus Rh positive. The husband's Rh factor is a concern only as it relates to the possible Rh factor of the fetus. If the fetus is Rh negative, the blood types are compatible and no problems should occur. If the fetus is Rh negative, the blood type with the mother is compatible. The husband's blood type does not enter into the problem.

What order should the nurse expect for a patient admitted with a threatened abortion? a. Abstinence from sexual activity b. Pitocin IV c. NPO d. Narcotic analgesia every 3 hours, prn

ANS: A The woman may be counseled to avoid sexual activity with a threatened abortion. Activity restrictions were once recommended, but they have not shown effectiveness as treatment. Pitocin would be contraindicated. There is no reason for the woman to be NPO. In fact, hydration is important. Narcotic analgesia is not indicated.

The nurse who suspects that a patient has early signs of ectopic pregnancy should be observing her for which symptoms? (Select all that apply.) a. Pelvic pain b. Abdominal pain c. Unanticipated heavy bleeding d. Vaginal spotting or light bleeding e. Missed period

ANS: A, B, D, E Early signs of ectopic pregnancy include pelvic pain, abdominal pain, spotting or light bleeding, and a woman's report of a "missed period." Heavy bleeding is a later sign and occurs after the tube has ruptured.

A woman is in the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. When her pregnancy test comes back positive, she yells "I can't be pregnant! I had a tubal ligation two months ago!" What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Provide emotional support to the woman. b. Facilitate an ultrasound examination. c. Call the lab to have them repeat the test. d. Administer an opioid pain medication.

ANS: B A failed tubal ligation is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. After a blood pregnancy test, a transvaginal ultrasound is needed to look for a gestational sac within the uterus. Of course the nurse provides emotional support, but that is not the priority. There is no need to repeat the test. Pain medications may be contraindicated if surgery is needed and consents have not yet been signed.

A woman who is 8 months pregnant is brought to the emergency department after a serious motor vehicle crash. Although she has no apparent injuries, she is admitted to the hospital. Her partner is upset and wants to know why she just can't come home. What response by the nurse is best? a. "This is standard procedure for all pregnant crash victims." b. "She needs to be monitored for some potential complications." c. "We may have to deliver the baby at any time now." d. "We are giving her medicine to keep her from laboring."

ANS: B After serious trauma, a woman may be admitted and observed because an abruptio placentae may take up to 24 hours to become apparent. Not all motor vehicle crash patients will need to be admitted. The baby may or may not need to be delivered at any time, but this statement will frighten the partner. There is no indication the patient is in labor.

A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a. tocolytic. b. anticonvulsant. c. antihypertensive. d. diuretic.

ANS: B Anticonvulsant drugs act by blocking neuromuscular transmission and depress the central nervous system to control seizure activity. A tocolytic drug does slow the frequency and intensity of uterine contractions, but it is not used for that purpose in this scenario. Decreased peripheral blood pressure is a therapeutic response (side effect) of the anticonvulsant magnesium sulfate. Diuresis is a therapeutic response to magnesium sulfate.

1. The perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman, status post suction and curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why she must take oral contraceptives for the next 12 months. The best response from the nurse is a. "If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if you desire a future pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of contraception available." b. "The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult." c. "If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a second molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a successful pregnancy, it is better not to get pregnant at this time." d. "Oral contraceptives are the only form of birth control that will prevent a recurrence of a molar pregnancy."

ANS: B Beta-hCG levels will be drawn for 1 year to ensure that the mole is completely gone. There is an increased chance of developing choriocarcinoma after the development of a hydatidiform mole. The goal is to achieve a "zero" hCG level. If the woman were to become pregnant, it may obscure the presence of the potentially carcinogenic cells. Any contraceptive method except an IUD is acceptable.

Which laboratory marker is indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? a. Positive KB test b. Presence of fibrin split products c. Thrombocytopenia d. Positive drug screen

ANS: B Degradation of fibrin leads to the accumulation of multiple fibrin clots throughout the body's vasculature. The other lab tests are not indicative of DIC.

A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate a. Anxiety due to hospitalization b. Worsening disease and impending seizure c. Effects of magnesium sulfate d. Gastrointestinal upset

ANS: B Headache and visual disturbances are due to increased cerebral edema. Epigastric pain indicates distention of the hepatic capsules and often warns that a seizure is imminent. These sign are not due to anxiety or magnesium sulfate or related to gastrointestinal upset.

2. Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean section? a. Partial abruptio placentae b. Total placenta previa c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Eclampsia

ANS: B In total placenta previa, the placenta completely covers the cervical os. The fetus would die if a vaginal delivery occurred. In a partial abruptio placentae, if the mother has stable vital signs and the fetus is alive, a vaginal delivery can be attempted. If the fetus has died, a vaginal delivery is preferred. The most common ectopic pregnancy is a tubal pregnancy, which is usually detected and treated in the first trimester. Labor can be safely induced if the eclampsia is under control.

What data on a patient's health history places her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy? a. Use of oral contraceptives for 5 years b. Recurrent pelvic infections c. Ovarian cyst 2 years ago d. Heavy menstrual flow of 4 days' duration

ANS: B Infection and subsequent scarring of the fallopian tubes prevents normal movement of the fertilized ovum into the uterus for implantation. Oral contraceptives, ovarian cysts, and heavy menstrual flows do not increase risk.

The nurse caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum should expect that initial treatment involves a. corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. b. IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances. c. an antiemetic, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting. d. enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits.

ANS: B Initially, the woman who is unable to down clear liquids by mouth requires IV therapy for correction of fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Corticosteroids are not the expected treatment for this disorder. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6, not an antiemetic. Promethazine, a common antiemetic, may be prescribed. In severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum, enteral nutrition via a feeding tube may be necessary to correct maternal nutritional deprivation. This is not an initial treatment for this patient.

4. An abortion in which the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called ________ abortion. a. inevitable b. missed c. incomplete d. threatened

ANS: B Missed abortion refers to a dead fetus being retained in the uterus. An inevitable abortion means that the cervix is dilating with the contractions. An incomplete abortion means that not all of the products of conception were expelled. With a threatened abortion the woman has cramping and bleeding but not cervical dilation.

A woman has several relatives who had gestational hypertension and wants to decrease her risk for it. What information does the nurse provide this woman? (Select all that apply.) a. There is no way to reduce risk factors for gestational hypertension. b. Losing weight before you get pregnant will help prevent it. c. Eating a diet high in protein and iron may help prevent it. d. The father contributes no risk factors for hypertension in pregnancy e. Waiting until you are 35 to get pregnant cuts the risk in half.

ANS: B, C There are many risk factors for gestational hypertension, including obesity and anemia. The woman can take action to address these factors prior to becoming pregnant. The father's risks include the first baby and having fathered other preeclamptic pregnancies. Maternal age >35 increases the risk

What assessment findings indicate to the nurses that a woman's preeclampsia should now be considered severe? (Select all that apply.) a. Urine output 40 mL/hour for the past 2 hours b. Serum creatinine 3.1 mg/dL c. Seeing "sparkly" things in the visual field d. Crackles in both lungs e. Soft, non-tender abdomen

ANS: B, C, D Signs of severe preeclampsia include elevated creatinine, seeing sparkles, and pulmonary edema (manifested by crackles). The urine output is above the minimum requirements, and a soft non-tender abdomen is a reassuring sign.

The student nurse is assessing a woman with abruptio placentae. The student reports to the registered nurse "I can't really palpate her abdomen, it's as hard as a board." What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Tell the student to document the findings. b. Have the student teach the woman relaxation techniques. c. Assess the woman's fundal height and vital signs. d. Administer a dose of opioid pain medication.

ANS: C A hard, board-like abdomen in this setting is characteristic of concealed hemorrhage. The nurse assesses the woman's fundal height (which will rise with bleeding) and vital signs to detect shock. Documentation occurs after interventions are complete. Relaxation techniques may help the woman cope with the situation, but anxiety is not the reason for the findings. The woman may or may not need pain medication, and if she is going to need surgery, she should not get opioids until consents are signed.

A woman taking magnesium sulfate has respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. In addition to discontinuing the medication, the nurse should a. vigorously stimulate the woman. b. instruct her to take deep breaths. c. administer calcium gluconate. d. increase her IV fluids.

ANS: C Calcium gluconate reverses the effects of magnesium sulfate. Stimulation, instruction on taking deep breaths, and increasing her fluid rate will not increase the respirations.

The nurse is explaining how to assess edema to the nursing students working on the antepartum unit. Which score indicates edema of lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area? a. +1 edema b. +2 edema c. +3 edema d. +4 edema

ANS: C Edema of the extremities, face, and sacral area is classified as +3 edema. Edema classified as +1 indicates minimal edema of the lower extremities. Marked edema of the lower extremities is termed +2 edema. Generalized massive edema (+4) includes accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

A pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational hypertension and is crying. She asks the nurse if this means she has to take blood pressure medicine for the rest of her life. What answer by the nurse is best? a. "Yes, you will have hypertension for the rest of your life." b. "No, this always goes away after you deliver." c. "Maybe, we have to wait and see at your 6-week postpartum checkup." d. "I don't know. But if you need medicine you should take it."

ANS: C Gestational hypertension can last after delivery. If it has not resolved by postpartum week 6, it is considered chronic, and the woman will probably have to take medication. It may or may not resolve, but the nurse should not provide false reassurance or state that he or she does not know without finding more information. Telling the woman to take medicine if she needs it belittles her concerns.

What is the only known cure for preeclampsia? a. Magnesium sulfate b. Antihypertensive medications c. Delivery of the fetus d. Administration of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) every day of the pregnancy

ANS: C If the fetus is viable and near term, delivery is the only known definitive treatment for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is one of the medications used to treat but not to cure preeclampsia. Antihypertensive medications are used to lower the dangerously elevated blood pressures in preeclampsia and eclampsia. Low doses of ASA (81 mg) have been administered to women at high risk for developing preeclampsia.

Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment plan for which obstetric complication? a. Complete hydatidiform mole b. Missed abortion c. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy d. Abruptio placentae

ANS: C Methotrexate is an effective, nonsurgical treatment option for a hemodynamically stable woman whose ectopic pregnancy is unruptured and less than 3.5 cm in diameter. Methotrexate is not indicated or recommended as a treatment option for a complete hydatidiform mole, a missed abortion, or abruptio placentae.

The primary symptom present in abruptio placentae that distinguishes it from placenta previa is a. vaginal bleeding. b. rupture of membranes. c. presence of abdominal pain. d. changes in maternal vital signs.

ANS: C Pain in abruptio placentae occurs in response to increased pressure behind the placenta and within the uterus. Placenta previa manifests with painless vaginal bleeding, but both may have vaginal bleeding. Rupture of membranes may occur with both conditions. Maternal vital signs may change with both if bleeding is pronounced.

The prenatal clinic nurse monitored women for preeclampsia. If all four women were in the clinic at the same time, which one should the nurse see first? a. Blood pressure increase to 138/86 mm Hg b. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks c. A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine d. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day

ANS: C Proteinuria is defined as a concentration of 1+ or greater via dipstick measurement. A dipstick value of 3+ is indicative of severe preeclampsia and should alert the nurse that additional testing or assessment should be made. Generally, hypertension is defined as a BP of 140/90 or higher. Preeclampsia may be manifested as a rapid weight gain. Gaining 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks does not qualify as rapid. Edema occurs in many normal pregnancies as well as in women with preeclampsia. Therefore, the presence of edema is no longer considered diagnostic of preeclampsia.

What finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole? a. Complaint of frequent mild nausea b. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg c. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm d. History of bright red spotting for 1 day, weeks ago

ANS: C The uterus in a hydatidiform molar pregnancy is often larger than would be expected on the basis of the duration of the pregnancy. Many women have nausea in the first trimester. A woman with a molar pregnancy may have early-onset pregnancy-induced hypertension. The history of bleeding is normally described as being brownish.

The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. The nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a low platelet count, an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level, and a falling hematocrit. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Palpate the woman's abdomen for tenderness. b. Document findings and begin the Pitocin infusion. c. Instruct the woman to ask for help getting out of bed. d. Assess the woman's drinking history.

ANS: C This woman has HELLP syndrome, with is characterized by low platelet counts and hepatic dysfunction. She is at risk for bleeding, so the nurse instructs her to call for assistance in getting in and out of bed. The nurse does not palpate the abdomen even though the woman may complain of abdominal pain because of possible rupture of a subcapsular hematoma. The findings should be documented but the nurse should intervene based on the abnormal findings. The liver enzymes are not elevated because of alcohol intake.

A placenta previa in which the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called a. total. b. partial. c. complete. d. marginal.

ANS: D A placenta previa that does not cover any part of the cervix is termed marginal. With a total placenta previa the placenta completely covers the os. With a partial previa the lower border of the placenta is within 3 cm of the internal cervical os but does not completely cover the os. A complete previa is termed total. The placenta completely covers the internal cervical os.

In which situation is a dilation and curettage (D&C) indicated? a. Complete abortion at 8 weeks b. Incomplete abortion at 16 weeks c. Threatened abortion at 6 weeks d. Incomplete abortion at 10 weeks

ANS: D D&C is used to remove the products of conception from the uterus and can be used safely until week 14 of gestation. After that there is a greater risk of excessive bleeding, and this procedure may not be used. If all the products of conception have been passed (complete abortion), a D&C is not used. If the pregnancy is still viable (threatened abortion), a D&C is not used.

A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Insert an oral airway. b. Suction the mouth to prevent aspiration. c. Administer oxygen by mask. d. Stay with the patient and call for help.

ANS: D If a patient seizes, the nurse should stay with her and call for help. Nursing actions during a seizure are directed toward ensuring a patent airway and patient safety. Insertion of an oral airway during seizure activity is no longer the standard of care. The nurse should attempt to keep the airway patent by turning the patient's head to the side to prevent aspiration. Once the seizure has ended, it may be necessary to suction the patient's mouth. Oxygen may or may not be needed after the seizure has ended.

A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that a. bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment. b. she will be unable to conceive in the future. c. a D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception. d. hemorrhage is the major concern.

ANS: D Severe bleeding occurs if the fallopian tube ruptures. The recommended treatment is to remove the pregnancy before hemorrhaging. If the tube must be removed, her fertility will decrease but she will not be infertile. A D&C is done on the inside of the uterine cavity. The ectopic pregnancy is located within the tubes.

Which clinical sign is not included in the symptoms of preeclampsia? a. Hypertension b. Edema c. Proteinuria d. Glycosuria

ANS: D Spilling glucose into the urine is not one of the three classic symptoms of preeclampsia. Hypertension is usually the first sign noted. Edema occurs but is considered a non-specific sign. Edema can lead to rapid weight gain. Proteinuria should be assessed through a 24- hour UA.

What routine nursing assessment is contraindicated in the patient admitted with suspected placenta previa? a. Monitoring FHR and maternal vital signs b. Observing vaginal bleeding or leakage of amniotic fluid c. Determining frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions d. Determining cervical dilation and effacement

ANS: D Vaginal examination of the cervix may result in perforation of the placenta and subsequent hemorrhage and is therefore contraindicated. Monitoring FHR and maternal vital signs is a necessary part of the assessment for this woman. Monitoring for bleeding and rupture of membranes is not contraindicated in this woman. Monitoring contractions is not contraindicated in this woman.