Chapter 30 Adult Health

A nurse is teaching a client who will soon be discharged with a prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement should the nurse include in discharge teaching? "Eat more yogurt and broccoli." "This drug will dissolve any clots you may still have." "If you miss a dose, double the next dose." "Don't take aspirin while you're taking warfarin."

"Don't take aspirin while you're taking warfarin." Explanation: Because aspirin decreases platelet aggregation and interferes with clotting, concomitant use of aspirin with warfarin, an anticoagulant, may lead to excessive anticoagulant effects — and bleeding. Warfarin therapy is most effective with consistent dietary intake of vitamin K. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin K, such as broccoli, could change the client's warfarin dose requirements. Although warfarin interrupts the normal clotting cycle, it doesn't dissolve clots that have already formed. The client should take warfarin exactly as ordered to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Doubling a dose could cause bleeding.

A home health nurse is seeing an elderly female client for the first time. During the physical assessment of the client's feet, the nurse notes several circular ulcers around the tips of the toes on both feet. The bases of the ulcers are pale, and the client reports the ulcers to be very painful. From these assessment findings, the nurse suspects that the cause of the ulcers is which of the following? Arterial insufficiency Venous insufficiency Neither venous nor arterial Trauma

Arterial insufficiency Explanation: Characteristics of arterial insufficiency ulcers include location at the tips of the toes, extreme painfulness, and circular shape with pale to black ulcer bases. Ulcers caused by venous insufficiency will be irregular in shape, minimal pain if superficial (can be painful), and usually located around the ankles or the anterior tibial area.

Pentoxifylline (Trental) is a medication used for which of the following conditions? Claudication Thromboemboli Hypertension Elevated triglycerides

Claudication Explanation: Trental and Pletal are the only medications specifically indicated for the treatment of claudication. Thromboemboli, hypertension, and elevated triglycerides are not indications for using Trental

Which of the following are indications of a rupturing aortic aneurysm? Select all that apply. Constant, intense back pain Decreasing blood pressure Decreasing hematocrit Increasing blood pressure Increasing hematocrit

Constant, intense back pain Decreasing blood pressure Decreasing hematocrit Explanation: Indications of a rupturing abdominal aneurysm include constant, intense back pain; falling blood pressure; and decreasing hematocrit.

Which statement is accurate regarding Reynaud disease? The disease generally affects the client bilaterally. It affects more than two digits on each hand or foot. It is most common in men 16 to 40 years of age. Episodes may be triggered by unusual sensitivity to cold.

Episodes may be triggered by unusual sensitivity to cold. Explanation: Episodes of Reynaud disease may be triggered by emotional factors or by unusual sensitivity to cold. The disease is most common in women between 16 and 40 years of age. It is generally unilateral and affects only one or two digits

Which class of medication lyses and dissolves thrombi? Fibrinolytic Anticoagulant Platelet inhibitors Factor XA inhibitors

Fibrinolytic Explanation: Thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy lyses and dissolves thrombi in 50% of clients. Anticoagulants, platelet inhibitors, and factor XA inhibitors do not lyse or dissolve thrombi.

A client is receiving enoxaparin and warfarin therapy for a venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which laboratory value indicates that anticoagulation is adequate and enoxaparin can be discontinued? Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) is half of the control value Prothrombin time (PT) is 0.5 times normal. International normalized ratio (INR) is 2.5. K+ level is 3.5.

International normalized ratio (INR) is 2.5. Explanation: Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin are monitored by PT or the INR. Because the full anticoagulant effect of warfarin is delayed for 3 to 5 days, it is usually administered concurrently with heparin until desired anticoagulation has been achieved (i.e., when the PT is 1.5 to 2 times normal or the INR is 2.0 to 3.0)

While receiving heparin to treat a pulmonary embolus, a client passes bright red urine. What should the nurse do first? Decrease the heparin infusion rate. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Monitor the partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Start an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in water (D5W).

Prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Explanation: Frank hematuria indicates excessive anticoagulation and bleeding — and heparin overdose. The nurse should discontinue the heparin infusion immediately and prepare to administer protamine sulfate, the antidote for heparin. Decreasing the heparin infusion rate wouldn't prevent further bleeding. Although the nurse should continue to monitor PTT, this action should occur later. An I.V. infusion of D5W may be administered, but only after protamine has been given.

A postoperative client is receiving heparin after developing thrombophlebitis. The nurse monitors the client carefully for bleeding and other adverse effects of heparin. If the client starts to exhibit signs of excessive bleeding, the nurse should expect to administer an antidote that is specific to heparin. Which agent fits this description? Phytonadione (vitamin K) Protamine sulfate Thrombin Plasma protein fraction

Protamine sulfate Explanation: Protamine sulfate is the antidote specific to heparin. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is the antidote specific to oral anticoagulants such as warfarin. (Heparin isn't given orally.) Thrombin is a hemostatic agent used to control local bleeding. Plasma protein fraction, a blood derivative, supplies colloids to the blood and expands plasma volume; it's used to treat clients who are in shock.

Which of the following are alterations noted in Virchow's triad? Select all that apply. Stasis of blood Vessel wall injury Altered coagulation Edema Tenderness

Stasis of blood Vessel wall injury Altered coagulation Explanation: Three factors, known as Virchow's triad, are believed to play a significant role in the development of venous thrombosis. They are stasis of blood, vessel wall injury, and altered coagulation. Edema and tenderness are clinical manifestations of venous thrombosis, but are not part of the triad.

A nurse and physician are preparing to visit a hospitalized client with peripheral arterial disease. As you approach the client's room, the physician asks if the client has reported any intermittent claudication. The client has reported this symptom. The nurse explains to the physician which of the following details? The client can walk about 50 feet before getting pain in the right lower leg. The client's fingers tingle when left in one position for too long. The client experiences shortness of breath after walking about 50 feet. The client's legs awaken him during the night with itching.

The client can walk about 50 feet before getting pain in the right lower leg. Explanation: Intermittent claudication is caused by the inability of the arterial system to provide adequate blood flow to the tissues when increased demands are made for oxygen and nutrients during exercise. Pain is then experienced. When the client rests and decreases demands, the pain subsides. The client can then walk the same distance and repeat the process.

The nurse is assessing a hospital client who has low albumin levels due to liver disease. What assessment finding should the nurse attribute to the client's low albumin levels? There is severe edema to the client's legs and abdomen. The client has had two episodes of epistaxis (nosebleeds) in the past 24 hours. The client reports uncharacteristic levels of fatigue. The client is short of breath on exertion, with an expiratory wheeze

There is severe edema to the client's legs and abdomen. Explanation: Albumin helps to keep fluids within the vascular space. Deficiencies, as a result, cause the release of fluid into interstitial spaces, causing edema. Hypoalbuminemia does not cause excessive bleeding, reduced energy or respiratory difficulties.

A home health nurse is seeing an elderly male client for the first time. During the physical assessment of the skin on the lower legs, the nurse notes edema, brown pigmentation in the gaiter area, pedal pulses, and a few irregularly shaped ulcers around the ankles. From these findings, the nurse knows that the client has a problem with peripheral circulation. Which of the following does the nurse suspect? Arterial insufficiency Venous insufficiency Neither venous nor arterial insufficiency Trauma

Venous insufficiency Explanation: Symptoms of venous insufficiency include present pedal pulses, edema, pigmentation in gaiter area, and a reddish blue color. Ulcers caused by venous insufficiency will be irregular in shape and usually located around the ankles or the anterior tibial area. Characteristics of arterial insufficiency ulcers include location at the tips of the toes, great pain, and circular shape with a pale to black ulcer base.

The term for a diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is air plethysmography. contrast phlebography. lymphangiography. lymphoscintigraphy.

contrast phlebography. Explanation: When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection. In lymphangiography, contrast media are injected into the lymph system. In a lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.