Chapter 30- Anemia (Lewis), Quiz 2 week 4

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

A blood type and cross-match has been ordered for a patient who has an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The results of the blood work indicate that the patient has type A blood. Which description explains this result?

The patient has A antigens on his red blood cells (RBCs). A person with type A blood has A antigens, not A antibodies, on his RBCs. An AB transfusion would result in agglutination, but he may be transfused with either type A or type O blood.

Before beginning a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), which action by the nurse would be of highest priority to avoid an error during this procedure? a. Check the identifying information on the unit of blood against the patient's ID bracelet. b. Select new primary IV tubing primed with lactated Ringer's solution to use for the transfusion. c. Remain with the patient for 60 minutes after beginning the transfusion to watch for signs of a transfusion reaction. d. Add the blood transfusion as a secondary line to the existing IV and use the IV controller to maintain correct flow.

a. Check the identifying information on the unit of blood against the patient's ID bracelet. The patient's identifying information (name, date of birth, medical record number) on the ID bracelet should exactly match the information on the blood bank tag that has been placed on the unit of blood. If any information does not match, the transfusions should not be hung because of possible error and risk to the patient. The transfusion is hung on blood transfusion tubing, not a secondary line, and cannot be hung with lactated Ringer's solution because it will cause RBC hemolysis. Usually, the patient will need continuous monitoring for 15 minutes after the transfusion is started, as this is the time most transfusion reactions occur. Then the patient should be monitored every 30 to 60 minutes during the administration.

The patient with leukemia has acute disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and is bleeding. What diagnostic findings should the nurse expect to find? a. Elevated D-dimers b. Elevated fibrinogen c. Reduced prothrombin time (PT) d. Reduced fibrin degradation products (FDPs)

a. Elevated D-dimers The D-dimer is a specific marker for the degree of fibrinolysis and is elevated with DIC. FDP is elevated as the breakdown products from fibrinogen and fibrin are formed. Fibrinogen and platelets are reduced. PT, PTT, aPTT, and thrombin time are all prolonged.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What is the first priority of care? a. Administer heparin. b. Administer whole blood. c. Treat the causative problem. d. Administer fresh frozen plasma.

a. Multiple myeloma Multiple myeloma typically manifests with skeletal pain and osteoporosis that may cause hypercalcemia, which can result in polyuria, confusion, or cardiac problems. Serum hyperviscosity syndrome can cause renal, cerebral, or pulmonary damage. Thrombocytopenia, megaloblastic anemia, and myelodysplastic syndrome are not characterized by these manifestations.

A patient has been diagnosed with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML). What should the nurse educate the patient that care will focus on? a. Leukapheresis b. Attaining remission c. One chemotherapy agent d. Waiting with active supportive care

b. Attaining remission Attaining remission is the initial goal of care for leukemia. The methods to do this are decided based on age and cytogenetic analysis. The treatments include leukapheresis or hydroxyurea to reduce the white blood cell count and risk of leukemia-cell-induced thrombosis. A combination of chemotherapy agents will be used for aggressive treatment to destroy leukemic cells in tissues, peripheral blood, and bone marrow and minimize drug toxicity. In nonsymptomatic patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia, waiting may be done to attain remission, but not with AML.

The blood bank notifies the nurse that the two units of blood ordered for a patient is ready for pick up. Which action should the nurse take to prevent an adverse effect during this procedure? a. Immediately pick up both units of blood from the blood bank. b. Infuse the blood slowly for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion. c. Regulate the flow rate so that each unit takes at least 4 hours to transfuse. d. Set up the Y-tubing of the blood set with dextrose in water as the flush solution.

b. Infuse the blood slowly for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion. Because a transfusion reaction is more likely to occur at the beginning of a transfusion, the nurse should initially infuse the blood at a rate no faster than 2 mL/min and remain with the patient for the first 15 minutes after hanging 1 unit of blood. Only 1 unit of blood can be picked up at a time, it must be infused within 4 hours, and it cannot be hung with dextrose.

A patient who has sickle cell disease has developed cellulitis above the left ankle. What is the nurse's priority for this patient? a. Start IV fluids. b. Maintain oxygenation. c. Maintain distal warmth. d. Check peripheral pulses.

b. Maintain oxygenation. Maintaining oxygenation is a priority as sickling episodes are frequently triggered by low oxygen tension in the blood which is commonly caused by an infection. Antibiotics to treat cellulitis, pain control, and fluids to reduce blood viscosity will also be used, but oxygenation is the priority.

A patient with an acute peptic ulcer and major blood loss requires an immediate transfusion with packed red blood cells. Which task is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Confirm the IV solution is 0.9% saline. b. Obtain the vital signs before the transfusion is initiated. c. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath and back pain. d. Double check the patient identity and verify the blood product.

b. Obtain the vital signs before the transfusion is initiated. The RN may delegate tasks such as taking vital signs to UAP. Assessments (e.g., monitoring for signs of a blood transfusion reaction [shortness of breath and back pain]) are within the scope of practice of the RN and may not be delegated to UAP. The RN must also assume responsibility for ensuring the correct IV fluid is used with blood products. A licensed nurse must complete verification of the patient's identity and the blood product data.

A patient with a diagnosis of hemophilia had a fall down an escalator earlier in the day and is now experiencing bleeding in the left knee joint. What should be the emergency nurse's immediate action? a. Immediate transfusion of platelets b. Resting the patient's knee to prevent hemarthroses c. Assistance with intracapsular injection of corticosteroids d. Range-of-motion exercises to prevent thrombus formation

b. Resting the patient's knee to prevent hemarthroses In patients with hemophilia, joint bleeding requires resting of the joint to prevent deformities from hemarthrosis. Clotting factors, not platelets or corticosteroids, are administered. Thrombus formation is not a central concern in a patient with hemophilia.

When preparing to administer an ordered blood transfusion, which IV solution does the nurse use when priming the blood tubing? a. Lactated Ringer's b. 5% dextrose in water c. 0.9% sodium chloride d. 0.45% sodium chloride

c. 0.9% sodium chloride The blood set should be primed before the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride, also known as normal saline. It is also used to flush the blood tubing after the infusion is complete to ensure the patient receives blood that is left in the tubing when the bag is empty. Dextrose and lactated Ringer's solutions cannot be used with blood because they will cause RBC hemolysis.

The nurse is assigned to care for several patients on a medical unit. Which patient should the nurse check on first? a. A 60-yr-old patient with a blood pressure of 92/64 mm Hg and hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL b. A 50-yr-old patient with a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute and an elevated D-dimer c. A 40-yr-old patient with a temperature of 100.8oF (38.2oC) and a neutrophil count of 256/μL d. A 30-yr-old patient with a pulse of 112 beats/min and a white blood cell count of 14,000/μL

c. A 40-yr-old patient with a temperature of 100.8oF (38.2oC) and a neutrophil count of 256/μL A low-grade fever greater than 100.4°F (38°C) in a patient with a neutrophil count below 500/μL is a medical emergency and may indicate an infection. An infection in a neutropenic patient could lead to septic shock and possible death if not treated immediately.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is to receive a transfusion of two units of packed red blood cells. After obtaining the first unit from the blood bank, the nurse would ask which health team member in the nurses' station to assist in checking the unit before administration? a. Unit secretary b. A physician's assistant c. Another registered nurse d. An unlicensed assistive personnel

c. Another registered nurse Before hanging a transfusion, the registered nurse must check the unit with another RN or with a licensed practical (vocational) nurse, depending on agency policy. The unit secretary, physician's assistant, or unlicensed assistive personnel should not be asked.

The nurse knows that hemolytic anemia can be caused by which extrinsic factors? a. Trauma or splenic sequestration crisis b. Abnormal hemoglobin or enzyme deficiency c. Macroangiopathic or microangiopathic factors d. Chronic diseases or medications and chemicals

c. Macroangiopathic or microangiopathic factors Macroangiopathic or microangiopathic extrinsic factors lead to acquired hemolytic anemias. Trauma or splenic sequestration crisis can lead to anemia from acute blood loss. Abnormal hemoglobin or enzyme deficiency are intrinsic factors that lead to hereditary hemolytic anemias. Chronic diseases or medications and chemicals can decrease the number of red blood cell (RBC) precursors which reduce RBC production.

The nurse is caring for a patient with microcytic, hypochromic anemia. What teaching should the nurse provide that would be beneficial to the patient? a. Take enteric-coated iron with each meal. b. Take cobalamin with green leafy vegetables. c. Take the iron with orange juice one hour before meals. d. Decrease the intake of the antiseizure medications to improve.

c. Take the iron with orange juice one hour before meals. With microcytic, hypochromic anemia may be caused by iron, vitamin B6, or copper deficiency; thalassemia; or lead poisoning. The iron prescribed should be taken with orange juice one hour before meals as it is best absorbed in an acid environment. Megaloblastic anemias occur with cobalamin (vitamin B12) and folic acid deficiencies. Vitamin B12 may help red blood cell (RBC) maturation if the patient has the intrinsic factor in the stomach. Green leafy vegetables provide folic acid for RBC maturation. Antiseizure drugs may contribute to aplastic anemia or folic acid deficiency, but the patient should not stop taking the medications. The health care provider will prescribe changes in medications.

The patient is admitted with hypercalcemia; polyuria; and pain in the pelvis, spine, and ribs with movement. Which hematologic problem is likely to display these manifestations in the patient? a. Multiple myeloma b. Thrombocytopenia c. Megaloblastic anemia d. Myelodysplastic syndrome

c. Treat the causative problem. Treating the underlying cause of DIC will interrupt the abnormal response of the clotting cascade and reverse the DIC. Blood product administration occurs based on the specific component deficiencies and is reserved for patients with life-threatening hemorrhage. Heparin will be administered if the manifestations of thrombosis are present and the benefit of reducing clotting outweighs the risk of further bleeding.

When caring for a patient with metastatic cancer, the nurse notes a hemoglobin level of 8.7 g/dL and hematocrit of 26%. What associated clinical manifestations does the nurse anticipate observing? a. Thirst b. Fatigue c. Headache d. Abdominal pain

d. Abdominal pain The patient with a low hemoglobin and hematocrit is anemic and would be most likely to experience fatigue. Fatigue develops because of the lowered oxygen-carrying capacity that leads to reduced tissue oxygenation to carry out cellular functions. Thirst, headache, and abdominal pain are not related to anemia.

A patient with leukemia is admitted for severe hypovolemia after prolonged diarrhea has a platelet count of 43,000/µL. It is most important for the nurse to take which action? a. Insert two 18-gauge IV catheters. b. Administer prescribed enoxaparin. c. Monitor the patient's temperature every 2 hours. d. Check stools for presence of frank or occult blood.

d. Check stools for presence of frank or occult blood. A platelet count below 150,000/µL indicates thrombocytopenia. Prolonged bleeding from trauma or injury does not usually occur until the platelet counts are below 50,000/µL. Bleeding precautions (e.g., check all secretions for frank and occult blood) are indicated for patients with thrombocytopenia. Injections (including IVs) should be avoided; however, when needed for critical fluids and medications, IV access should be provided through the smallest bore devices that are feasible. Enoxaparin, an anticoagulant administered subcutaneously, is contraindicated in patients with thrombocytopenia. Monitoring temperature would be indicated in a patient with leukopenia.

A patient is being treated for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). What should the nurse first teach the patient about the treatment? a. Skin care that will be needed b. Method of obtaining the treatment c. Gastrointestinal tract effects of treatment d. Treatment type and expected side effects

d. Treatment type and expected side effects The patient should first be taught about the type of treatment and the expected and potential side effects. Nursing care is related to the area affected by the disease and treatment. Skin care will be affected if radiation is used. Not all patients will have gastrointestinal tract effects of NHL or treatment. The method of obtaining treatment will be included in the teaching about the type of treatment.

The nurse is caring for a 76-yr-old woman admitted to the medical unit with hypernatremia and dehydration after prolonged fever. The best beverage to offer the patient is malted milk. orange juice. tomato juice. hot chocolate.

orange juice.

A patient with thrombocytopenia secondary to sepsis has small, pinpoint deposits of blood visible through the skin on the anterior and posterior chest. The nurse will document this skin abnormality as:

petechiae. Petechiae are pinpoint, discrete deposits of blood less than 1 to 2 mm in the extravascular tissues and visible through the skin or mucous membranes. Erythema is redness occurring in patches of variable size and shape. Telangiectasia is visibly dilated, superficial, cutaneous small blood vessels. Ecchymosis is a large, bruise-like lesion caused by a collection of extravascular blood in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.

You are caring for a patient admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. After several treatments, the ABG results are pH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L, PaO2 92 mm Hg, and O2 saturation of 99%. You interpret these results as metabolic acidosis. respiratory acidosis. respiratory alkalosis. within normal limits.

within normal limits.

When planning the care of a patient with dehydration, what urine output would the nurse instruct the unlicensed assistive personnel to report? 60 mL in 90 minutes 1200 mL in 24 hours 300 mL per 8-hour shift 20 mL for 2 consecutive hours

20 mL for 2 consecutive hours

When assessing laboratory values on a patient admitted with septicemia, what does the nurse expect to find?

Increased bands in the white blood cell (WBC) differential When infections are severe, such as in septicemia, more granulocytes are released from the bone marrow as a compensatory mechanism. To meet the increased demand, many young, immature polymorphonuclear neutrophils (bands) are released into circulation. WBCs are usually reported in order of maturity (initially with the less mature forms on the left side of a written report). Hence, the term "shift to the left" is used to denote an increase in the number of bands. Thrombocytosis occurs with inflammation and some malignant disorders. Increased red blood cells or decreased ESR is not indicative of septicemia.

You are caring for an older patient who is receiving IV fluids postoperatively. During the 8:00 AM assessment of this patient, you note that the IV solution, which was ordered to infuse at 125 mL/hr, has infused 950 mL since it was hung at 4:00 AM. What is the priority nursing intervention? Slow the rate to keep vein open until next bag is due at noon. Notify the health care provider and complete an incident report. Listen to the patient's lung sounds and assess respiratory status. Asses the patient's cardiovascular status by checking pulse and blood pressure.

Listen to the patient's lung sounds and assess respiratory status.

You are caring for a patient admitted with heart failure. The morning laboratory results reveal a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which classification of medications should you withhold until consulting with the health care provider? Antibiotics Loop diuretics Bronchodilators Antihypertensives

Loop diuretics

You are admitting a patient with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. A proximal bowel obstruction is suspected. Which acid-base imbalance do you anticipate in this patient? Metabolic acidosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis

Metabolic alkalosis

A patient is admitted with metabolic acidosis. Which system is not functioning normally? Renal system Buffer system Endocrine system Respiratory system

Renal system

When assessing a patient admitted with nausea and vomiting, which finding best supports the nursing diagnosis of deficient fluid volume? Polyuria Bradycardia Restlessness Difficulty breathing

Restlessness

The nurse collects a nutritional history from a 22-yr-old woman who is planning to conceive a child in the next year. Which foods reported by the woman would indicate that her diet is high in folate and iron?

Spinach, beans, and liver Normal intake of iron and folic acid is necessary for the development of red blood cells, and normal levels before conception and in early pregnancy are particularly important for normal fetal development. Foods high in both folic acid and iron include liver, red meat, egg yolks, turkey or chicken giblets, beans, lentils, chickpeas, soybeans, spinach, and collard greens. In addition, enriched cereals, pasta, and breads are also high in both folic acid and iron (check the labels).

A 50-yr-old woman with hypertension has a serum potassium level that has acutely risen to 6.2 mEq/L. Which type of order, if written by the health care provider, should the nurse question? Limit foods high in potassium Calcium gluconate IV piggyback Spironolactone (Aldactone) daily Administer intravenous insulin and glucose

Spironolactone (Aldactone) daily

You are caring for a patient admitted with diabetes mellitus, malnutrition, and a massive GI bleed. In analyzing the morning lab results, the nurse understands that a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L could be caused by which factors in this patient (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. The potassium level may be increased if the patient has nephropathy. The patient has been eating excessive amounts of foods that increase potassium levels. The patient may be excreting extra sodium and retaining potassium secondary to malnutrition. There may be excess potassium being released into the blood as a result of massive blood transfusion. The potassium level may be increased because of dehydration that accompanies high blood glucose levels.

The potassium level may be increased if the patient has nephropathy There may be excess potassium being released into the blood as a result of massive blood transfusion. The potassium level may be increased because of dehydration that accompanies high blood glucose levels.

The nurse is preparing to perform an assessment for a newly admitted patient with a potential hematologic disorder and petechiae. What does the nurse anticipate finding when assessing this patient?

Tiny purple spots on the skin Petechiae present as tiny purple spots on the skin. Large ecchymotic areas are purpura. Hyperkeratotic papules and plaques characterize actinic keratosis. Small, raised red areas on the soles of the feet signify Osler's nodes.

While caring for a patient with metastatic bone cancer, which clinical manifestations would alert the nurse to the possibility of hypercalcemia in this patient (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. Weakness Paresthesia Facial spasms Muscle tremors Depressed reflexes

Weakness Depressed reflexes

The nurse receives a physician's order to transfuse fresh frozen plasma to a patient with acute blood loss. Which procedure is most appropriate for infusing this blood product? a. Infuse the fresh frozen plasma as rapidly as the patient will tolerate. b. Hang the fresh frozen plasma as a piggyback to the primary IV solution. c. Infuse the fresh frozen plasma as a piggyback to a primary solution of normal saline. d. Hang the fresh frozen plasma as a piggyback to a new bag of primary IV solution without KCl.

a. Infuse the fresh frozen plasma as rapidly as the patient will tolerate. The fresh frozen plasma should be administered as rapidly as possible and should be used within 24 hours of thawing to avoid a decrease in factors V and VIII. Fresh frozen plasma is infused using any straight-line infusion set. Any existing IV should be interrupted while the fresh frozen plasma is infused, unless a second IV line has been started for the transfusion.

A patient will receive a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). What is the nurse's priority after the patient receives combination chemotherapy before the transplant? a. Prevent patient infection. b. Avoid abnormal bleeding. c. Give pneumococcal vaccine. d. Provide companionship while isolated.

a. Prevent patient infection. After combination chemotherapy for HSCT, the patient's bone marrow is destroyed in preparation to receive the bone marrow graft. Thus the patient is immunosuppressed and is at risk for a life-threatening infection. The priority is preventing infection. Bleeding is not usually a problem. Giving the pneumococcal vaccine at this time should not be done; it should have been done previously. Providing companionship is not the primary role of the nurse, although the patient will need support during the time of isolation.

A patient with cancer is having chemotherapy treatments and has now developed neutropenia. What care should the nurse expect to provide and teach the patient about (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. a. Strict hand washing b. Daily nasal swabs for culture c. Monitor temperature every hour. d. Daily skin care and oral hygiene e. Encourage eating all foods to increase nutrients. f. Private room with a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter

a. Strict hand washing Strict hand washing and daily skin and oral hygiene must be done with neutropenia, because the patient is predisposed to infection from the normal body flora; other people; and uncooked meats, seafood, and eggs; unwashed fruits and vegetables; and fresh flowers or plants. The private room with HEPA filtration reduces the aerosolized pathogens in the patient's room. Blood cultures and antibiotic treatment are used when the patient has a temperature of 100.4°F or more, but temperature is not monitored every hour. d. Daily skin care and oral hygiene Strict hand washing and daily skin and oral hygiene must be done with neutropenia, because the patient is predisposed to infection from the normal body flora; other people; and uncooked meats, seafood, and eggs; unwashed fruits and vegetables; and fresh flowers or plants. The private room with HEPA filtration reduces the aerosolized pathogens in the patient's room. Blood cultures and antibiotic treatment are used when the patient has a temperature of 100.4°F or more, but temperature is not monitored every hour. f. Private room with a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter Strict hand washing and daily skin and oral hygiene must be done with neutropenia, because the patient is predisposed to infection from the normal body flora; other people; and uncooked meats, seafood, and eggs; unwashed fruits and vegetables; and fresh flowers or plants. The private room with HEPA filtration reduces the aerosolized pathogens in the patient's room. Blood cultures and antibiotic treatment are used when the patient has a temperature of 100.4°F or more, but temperature is not monitored every hour.

The nurse notes a physician's order written at 10:00 AM for two units of packed red blood cells to be administered to a patient who is anemic as a result of chronic blood loss. If the transfusion is picked up at 11:30 AM, the nurse should plan to hang the unit no later than what time? a. 11:45 AM b. 12:00 noon c. 12:30 PM d. 3:30 PM

b. 12:00 noon The nurse must hang the unit of packed red blood cells within 30 minutes of signing them out from the blood bank.

Before starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells for an older anemic patient, the nurse would arrange for a peer to monitor his or her other assigned patients for how many minutes when the nurse begins the transfusion? a. 5 b. 15 c. 30 d. 60

b. 15 As part of standard procedure, the nurse remains with the patient for the first 15 minutes after starting a blood transfusion. Patients who are likely to have a transfusion reaction will more often exhibit signs within the first 15 minutes that the blood is infusing. Monitoring during the transfusion will be every 30 to 60 minutes.

Which patient is most likely to experience anemia related to an increased destruction of red blood cells? a. A 59-yr-old man whose alcoholism has precipitated folic acid deficiency b. A 23-yr-old African American man who has a diagnosis of sickle cell disease c. A 30-yr-old woman with a history of "heavy periods" accompanied by anemia d. A 3-yr-old child whose impaired growth and development is attributable to thalassemia

b. A 23-yr-old African American man who has a diagnosis of sickle cell disease A result of a sickling episode in sickle cell anemia involves increased hemolysis of the sickled cells. Thalassemias and folic acid deficiencies cause a decrease in erythropoiesis, whereas the anemia related to menstruation is a direct result of blood loss.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). What is a priority nursing action in the care of this patient? a. Administration of packed red blood cells b. Administration of oral or IV corticosteroids c. Administration of clotting factors VIII and IX d. Maintenance of reverse isolation and application of standard precautions

b. Administration of oral or IV corticosteroids Common treatment modalities for ITP include corticosteroid therapy to suppress the phagocytic response of splenic macrophages. Blood transfusions, administration of clotting factors, and reverse isolation are not interventions that are indicated in the care of patients with ITP. Standard precautions are used with all patients.

The nurse is caring for a patient with polycythemia vera. What is an important action for the nurse to initiate? a. Encourage deep breathing and coughing. b. Assist with or perform phlebotomy at the bedside. c. Teach the patient how to maintain a low-activity lifestyle. d. Perform thorough and regularly scheduled neurologic assessments.

b. Assist with or perform phlebotomy at the bedside. Primary polycythemia vera often requires phlebotomy in order to reduce blood volume. The increased risk of thrombus formation that accompanies the disease requires regular exercises and ambulation. Deep breathing and coughing exercises do not directly address the etiology or common sequelae of polycythemia, and neurologic manifestations are not typical.

A patient has anemia related to inadequate intake of essential nutrients. Which intervention would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care for this patient? a. Plan for 30 minutes of rest before and after every meal. b. Encourage foods high in protein, iron, vitamin C, and folate. c. Instruct the patient to select soft, bland, and nonacidic foods. d. Give the patient a list of medications that inhibit iron absorption.

b. Encourage foods high in protein, iron, vitamin C, and folate. Increased intake of protein, iron, folate, and vitamin C provides nutrients needed for maximum iron absorption and hemoglobin production. The other interventions do not address the patient's identified problem of inadequate intake of essential nutrients. Selection of foods that are soft, bland, and nonacidic is appropriate if the patient has oral mucosal irritation. Scheduled rest is an appropriate intervention if the patient has fatigue related to anemia. Providing information about medications that may inhibit iron absorption (e.g., antacids, tetracycline, soft drinks, tea, coffee, calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium salts) is important but does not address the patient's problem of inadequate intake of essential nutrients.

A patient has been diagnosed with stage 1A Hodgkin's lymphoma. The nurse knows that which chemotherapy regimen is most likely to be prescribed for this patient? a. Brentuximab vedotin (Adcetris) b. Two to four cycles of ABVD: doxorubicin (Adriamycin), bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine c. Four to six cycles of ABVD: doxorubicin (Adriamycin), bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine d. BEACOPP: bleomycin, etoposide, doxorubicin (Adriamycin), cyclophosphamide, vincristine (Oncovin), procarbazine, and prednisone

b. Two to four cycles of ABVD: doxorubicin (Adriamycin), bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine The patient with a favorable prognosis early-stage Hodgkin's lymphoma (stage 1A) will receive two to four cycles of ABVD. The unfavorable prognostic featured (stage 1B) Hodgkin's lymphoma would be treated with four to six cycles of chemotherapy. Advanced-stage Hodgkin's lymphoma is treated more aggressively with more cycles or with BEACOPP. Brentuximab vedotin (Adcetris) is a newer agent that will be used to treat patients who have relapsed or refractory disease.Note: Some of acronyms for drug protocols use the brand/trade name of drugs (Adriamycin, Oncovin). These brand/trade names have been discontinued but the drugs are still available as generic drugs.

The nurse instructs an African American man who has sickle cell disease about symptom management and prevention of sickle cell crisis. The nurse determines further teaching is necessary if the patient makes which statement? a. "When I take a vacation, I should not go to the mountains." b. "I should avoid contact with anyone who has a respiratory infection." c. "When my vision is blurred, I will close my eyes and rest for an hour." d. "I may experience severe pain during a crisis and need narcotic analgesics."

c. "When my vision is blurred, I will close my eyes and rest for an hour." Blurred vision should be reported immediately and may indicate a detached retina or retinopathy. Hypoxia (at high altitudes) and infection are common causes of a sickle cell crisis. Severe pain may occur during a sickle cell crisis, and narcotic analgesics are indicated for pain management.

A 36-yr-old patient suspected of having leukemia is scheduled for a bone marrow aspiration. What statement in the patient's health history requires immediate follow-up by the nurse?

"I have rheumatoid arthritis and take aspirin for joint pain." Complications of bone marrow aspiration are minimal, but there is a possibility of damaging underlying structures, especially if the sternum site is used. Other complications include hemorrhage, particularly if the patient is thrombocytopenic, and infection if the white blood cell count is low. The risk of hemorrhage is increased if the patient takes aspirin because it promotes bleeding by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Contrast dye is not used during a bone marrow aspiration. A bone marrow aspiration is not contraindicated in patients who have chronic renal failure on dialysis or a urinary tract infection on an antibiotic.

The nurse is planning health promotion teaching for a group of healthy older adults in a residential community. Which statement accurately describes expected hematologic effects of aging?

"Older adults with infections may have only a mild white blood cell count elevation." During an infection, the older adult may have only a minimal elevation in the total white blood cell count and may not have a fever. Presentation of infection can initially be nonspecific with disorientation, anorexia, and weakness. Platelets are unaffected by the aging process. However, changes in vascular integrity from aging can manifest as easy bruising. Iron absorption is not impaired in the older patient, but adequate nutritional intake of iron may be decreased. The total white blood cell count and differential are generally not affected by aging. However, a decrease in humoral antibody response and decrease in T-cell function may occur.

When planning care for stable adult patients, the oral intake that is adequate to meet daily fluid needs is 500 to 1500 mL. 1200 to 2200 mL. 2000 to 3000 mL. 3000 to 4000 mL.

2000 to 3000 mL.

A patient was admitted for a paracentesis to remove ascites fluid. Five liters of fluid was removed. Which IV solution may be used to pull fluid into the intravascular space after the paracentesis? 0.9% sodium chloride 25% albumin solution Lactated Ringer's solution 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline

25% albumin solution

Which serum potassium result best supports the rationale for administering a stat dose of IV potassium chloride 20 mEq in 200 mL of normal saline over 2 hours? 3.1 mEq/L 3.9 mEq/L 4.6 mEq/L 5.3 mEq/L

3.1 mEq/L

The nurse on a medical-surgical unit identifies which patient as having the highest risk for metabolic alkalosis? A patient with a traumatic brain injury A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus A patient with acute respiratory failure A patient with nasogastric tube suction

A patient with nasogastric tube suction

When assessing the patient with a multi-lumen central line, the nurse notices that the cap is off one of the lines. On assessment, the patient is in respiratory distress and the vital signs show hypotension and tachycardia. What is the nurse's priority action? Administer oxygen Notify the health care provider Rapidly administer more IV fluid Reposition the patient on the right side

Administer oxygen

The nurse is caring for a 36-yr-old patient receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) to treat seizures resulting from a traumatic brain injury as a teenager. It is most important for the nurse to observe for which hematologic adverse effect of this medication?

Anemia Hematologic adverse effects of phenytoin include anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and pancytopenia.

The thrombocytopenic patient has had a bone marrow biopsy taken from the posterior iliac crest. What intervention is the priority for this patient after this procedure?

Apply a pressure dressing. The sterile pressure dressing is applied after a bone marrow biopsy to ensure hemostasis. If bleeding is present, the patient will lie on the site and may need a rolled towel for additional pressure, thus this patient will not be in the prone position. The analgesic should have been administered preprocedure. Metal objects would be removed for an MRI, not a bone marrow biopsy.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the medical unit with hypokalemia. The best foods to offer the patient are? (Select all that apply.) Apple Banana Orange juice Chocolate milk Cooked broccoli

Banana Orange juice Cooked broccoli

A 22-yr-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a stab wound to the abdomen. The patient's vital signs are blood pressure 82/56 mm Hg, pulse 132 beats/min, respirations 28 breaths/min, and temperature 97.9° F (36.6° C). Which fluid, if ordered by the health care provider, should the nurse question? D5W 0.9% saline Packed red blood cells Lactated Ringer's solution

D5W

The nurse is providing care for older adults on a subacute, geriatric medical unit. What effect does aging have on hematologic function of older adults?

Decreased hemoglobin Older adults often have decreased hemoglobin levels as a result of changes in erythropoiesis. Decreased blood volume, decreased WBCs, and alterations in platelet number are not considered to be normal, age-related hematologic changes.

Which action is most important for the nurse to take when caring for a patient with a subclavian triple-lumen catheter? Change the injection cap after the administration of IV medications. Use a 5-mL syringe to flush the catheter between medications and after use. During removal of the catheter, have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. If resistance is met when flushing, use the push-pause technique to dislodge the clot.

During removal of the catheter, have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver.

The nurse is reviewing the objective data listed in the table below of a patient with suspected allergies. Which assessment finding indicates allergies?

Eosinophil result vEosinophils are granulocytes that phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes formed during an allergic response. The normal eosinophil count is 2% to 4% of all white blood cells. The dry cough, lymphocyte result, and acetaminophen use do not indicate allergies.

When planning care for a patient with dehydration related to nausea and vomiting, the nurse would anticipate which fluid shift to occur because of the fluid volume deficit? Fluid movement from the blood vessels into the cells Fluid movement from the interstitial spaces into the cells Fluid movement from the blood vessels into interstitial spaces Fluid movement from the interstitial space into the blood vessels

Fluid movement from the interstitial space into the blood vessels

The patient diagnosed with anemia had laboratory tests done. Which results indicate a lack of nutrients needed to produce new red blood cells (RBCs)? (Select all that apply.)

Increased homocysteine Decreased cobalamin (vitamin B12) Increased methylmalonic acid (MMA) Increased homocysteine and MMA along with decreased cobalamin (vitamin B12) indicate cobalamin deficiency, which is a nutrient needed for RBC production. Decreased reticulocytes indicate low bone marrow activity in producing RBCs, not available nutrients. Elevated ESR is related to an increased inflammatory process, not anemia.

A patient had a splenectomy for injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. Which phenomena are likely to result from the absence of the patient's spleen? (Select all that apply.)

Increased platelet levels Impaired immunologic function Splenectomy can result in increased platelet levels and impaired immunologic function because of the loss of storage and immunologic functions of the spleen. Fibrinolysis, fatigue, and cold intolerance are less likely to result from the loss of the spleen since coagulation and oxygenation are not primary responsibilities of the spleen.kl

Results of a patient's most recent blood work indicate an elevated neutrophil level. The nurse recognizes that this diagnostic finding suggests which problem?

Infection An increase in the neutrophil count most commonly occurs in response to infection or inflammation. Hypoxemia and coagulation do not directly affect neutrophil production.

When evaluating a patient's nutritional-metabolic pattern related to hematologic health, what priority assessment should the nurse perform?

Inspect the skin for petechiae. Any changes in the skin's texture or color should be explored when assessing the patient's nutritional-metabolic pattern related to hematologic health. The presence of petechiae or ecchymotic areas could be indicative of hematologic deficiencies related to poor nutritional intake or related causes. The other options are not specific to the nutritional-metabolic pattern related to hematologic health.

A dehydrated patient is receiving a hypertonic solution. Which assessments must be done to avoid adverse risks associated with these solutions (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. Lung sounds Bowel sounds Blood pressure Serum sodium level Serum potassium level

Lung sounds Blood pressure Serum sodium level

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when caring for a patient with dehydration? Monitor skin turgor every shift. Auscultate lung sounds every 2 hours. Monitor daily weight and intake and output. Encourage the patient to reduce sodium intake.

Monitor daily weight and intake and output.

You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.33, PaO2 47 mm Hg, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 32 mEq/L, and O2 saturation of 92%. What is the correct interpretation of these results? Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis Partially compensated respiratory acidosis Normal acid-base balance with hypoxemia Normal acid-base balance with hypercapnia

Partially compensated respiratory acidosis

You are caring for a patient receiving calcium carbonate for the treatment of osteopenia. Which serum laboratory result would you identify as an adverse effect related to this therapy? Sodium falling to 138 mEq/L Potassium rising to 4.1 mEq/L Magnesium rising to 2.9 mg/dL Phosphorus falling to 2.1 mg/dL

Phosphorus falling to 2.1 mg/dL

Which assessment finding would support the presence of a hemostasis abnormality?

Purpura Purpura may occur when platelets or clotting factors are decreased and bleeding into the skin occurs. Pruritus is not related to hemostasis but to hematologic cancers (e.g., lymphomas, leukemias) or increased bilirubin. Weakness and pale conjunctiva are not related to hemostasis unless a lot of bleeding leads to anemia with low hemoglobin level.

A 62-yr-old patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after urosepsis has a platelet count of 48,000/μL. The nurse should assess the patient for which abnormality?

Purpura The normal range for a platelet count is 150,000 to 400,000/μL. Purpura is caused by decreased platelets or clotting factors, resulting in small hemorrhages into the skin or mucous membranes. Pallor is decreased or absent coloration in the conjunctiva or skin. Pruritus is an intense itching sensation. Palpitation is a sensation of feeling the heart beat, flutter, or pound in the chest.

While performing patient teaching regarding hypercalcemia, which statements are appropriate (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. Have patient restrict fluid intake to less than 2000 mL/day. Renal calculi may occur as a complication of hypercalcemia. Weight-bearing exercises can help keep calcium in the bones. The patient should increase daily fluid intake to 3000 to 4000 mL. Any heartburn can be managed with an as needed calcium-containing antacid.

Renal calculi may occur as a complication of hypercalcemia. Weight-bearing exercises can help keep calcium in the bones. The patient should increase daily fluid intake to 3000 to 4000 mL.

You receive a provider's prescription to change a patient's IV from 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline with 40 mEq KCl/L to 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline with 20 mEq KCl/L. Which serum laboratory values best support the rationale for this IV order change? Sodium, 136 mEq/L; potassium, 3.6 mEq/L Sodium, 145 mEq/L; potassium, 4.8 mEq/L Sodium, 135 mEq/L; potassium, 4.5 mEq/L Sodium, 144 mEq/L; potassium, 3.7 mEq/L

Sodium, 135 mEq/L; potassium, 4.5 mEq/L


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