Chapter 40: Management of Patients with Gastric and Duodenal Disorders

A client being treated for a peptic ulcer seeks medical attention for vomiting blood. Which statement indicates to the nurse the reason for the client developing hematemesis? "I think the soda that I drank irritated my stomach." "The pain stopped so I stopped taking the medications." "I felt better but then just got really nauseated and threw up." "I only ate dinner yesterday and it gave me an upset stomach."

"The pain stopped so I stopped taking the medications." Explanation: The client should be instructed to adhere to and complete the medication regimen to ensure complete healing of the peptic ulcer. Because most clients become symptom free within a week, it should be stressed to the client the importance of following the prescribed regimen so that the healing process can continue uninterrupted and the return of symptoms can be prevented. Since the client stopped taking the medication, the ulcer was not healed and became worse. The statements about soda, being nauseated, and eating only one meal would not explain the reason for the client's new onset of hematemesis during treatment for a peptic ulcer.

A 66-year-old African-American client has recently visited a physician to confirm a diagnosis of gastric cancer. The client has a history of tobacco use and was diagnosed 10 years ago with pernicious anemia. He and his family are shocked about the possibility of cancer because he was asymptomatic prior to recent complaints of pain and multiple gastrointestinal symptoms. On the basis of knowledge of disease progression, the nurse assumes that organs adjacent to the stomach are also affected. Which of the following organs may be affected? Choose all that apply. Liver Pancreas Bladder Duodenum Lungs

Liver Pancreas Duodenum Explanation: Most gastric cancers are adenocarcinomas; they can occur anywhere in the stomach. The tumor infiltrates the surrounding mucosa, penetrating the wall of the stomach and adjacent organs and structures. The liver, pancreas, esophagus, and duodenum are often already affected at the time of diagnosis. Metastasis through lymph to the peritoneal cavity occurs later in the disease.

Which ulcer is associated with extensive burn injury? Cushing ulcer Curling ulcer Peptic ulcer Duodenal ulcer

Curling ulcer Explanation: Curling ulcer is frequently observed about 72 hours after extensive burns and involves the antrum of the stomach or the duodenum.

A client sustained second- and third-degree burns over 30% of the body surface area approximately 72 hours ago. What type of ulcer should the nurse be alert for while caring for this client? Curling's ulcer Peptic ulcer Esophageal ulcer Meckel's ulcer

Curling's ulcer Explanation: Curling's ulcer is frequently observed about 72 hours after extensive burns and involves the antrum of the stomach or the duodenum. Peptic, esophageal, and Meckel's ulcers are not related to burn injuries.

Clients with Type O blood are at higher risk for which of the following GI disorders? Gastric cancer Duodenal ulcers Esophageal varices Diverticulitis

Duodenal ulcers Explanation: Familial tendency also may be a significant predisposing factor. People with blood type O are more susceptible to peptic ulcers than are those with blood type A, B, or AB. Blood type is not a predisposing factor for gastric cancer, esophageal varices, and diverticulitis.

A client with acute gastritis asks the nurse what might have caused the problem. What is a possible cause of acute gastritis? Select all that apply. Dietary indiscretion Overuse of allergy medicine Excessive alcohol intake Drinking fruit juices Radiation therapy

Dietary indiscretion Excessive alcohol intake Radiation therapy Explanation: Possible causes of gastritis include dietary indiscretion, overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. Allergy medicine and fruit juices are not causes of acute gastritis.

A client who had a Roux-en-Y bypass procedure for morbid obesity ate a chocolate chip cookie after a meal. After ingestion of the cookie, the client reported cramping pains, dizziness, and palpitation. After having a bowel movement, the symptoms resolved. What should the nurse educate the client about regarding this event? Gastric outlet obstruction Dumping syndrome Bile reflux Celiac disease

Dumping syndrome Explanation: Dumping syndrome is an unpleasant set of vasomotor and GI symptoms that occur in up to 76% of patients who have had bariatric surgery. Early symptoms include a sensation of fullness, weakness, faintness, dizziness, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping pains, and diarrhea. These symptoms resolve once the intestine has been evacuated (i.e., with defecation).

A client is prescribed tetracycline to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which instruction would the nurse give the client? "Take the medication with milk." "Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." "You will not experience GI upset while taking this medication." "Do not drive when taking this medication."

"Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." Explanation: Tetracycline may cause a photosensitivity reaction in clients. The nurse should caution the client to use sunscreen when taking this drug. Dairy products can reduce the effectiveness of tetracycline, so the nurse should not advise him or her to take the medication with milk. GI upset is possible with tetracycline administration. Administration of tetracycline does not necessitate driving restrictions.

A client with an H. pylori infection asks why bismuth subsalicylate is prescribed. Which response will the nurse make? "It improves digestion in the stomach." "It aids in the healing of the stomach lining." "It enhances the function of the pyloric sphincter." "It helps propel food from the stomach into the duodenum."

"It aids in the healing of the stomach lining." Explanation: Bismuth subsalicylate suppresses H. pylori bacteria in the gastric mucosa and assists with healing of mucosal ulcers. It does not affect digestion, enhance the function of the pyloric sphincter, or propel food from the stomach into the duodenum.

A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis and asks the nurse what could have caused it. What is the best response by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) "It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." "You may have ingested some irritating foods." "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." "It is a hereditary disease." "It is probably your nerves."

"It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." "You may have ingested some irritating foods." "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." Explanation: Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion—the person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. Other causes of acute gastritis include overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. A more severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with gastritis. To promote fluid balance when treating gastritis, the nurse knows that what minimal daily intake of fluids is required? 1.0 L 1.5 L 2.0 L 2.5 L

1.5 L Explanation: Daily fluid intake and output are monitored to detect early signs of dehydration (minimal fluid intake of 1.5 L/day, minimal output of 0.5 mL/kg/h).

A patient is scheduled for a Billroth I procedure for ulcer management. What does the nurse understand will occur when this procedure is performed? A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. A sectioned portion of the stomach is joined to the jejunum. The antral portion of the stomach is removed and a vagotomy is performed. The vagus nerve is cut and gastric drainage is established.

A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. Explanation: A Billroth I procedure involves removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach (which contains the cells that secrete gastrin) as well as a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus. The remaining segment is anastomosed to the duodenum. A vagotomy severs the vagus nerve; a Billroth I procedure may be performed in conjunction with a vagotomy. If the remaining part of the stomach is anastomosed to the jejunum, the procedure is a Billroth II.

The nurse practitioner suspects that a patient may have a gastric ulcer after completing a history and physical exam. Select an indicator that can be used to help establish the distinction between gastric and duodenal ulcers. Amount of hydrochloric acid (HCL) secretion in the stomach Sensitivity to the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Presence of H. pylori Patient's age

Amount of hydrochloric acid (HCL) secretion in the stomach Explanation: A duodenal ulcer is characterized by hypersecretion of stomach acid, whereas a gastric ulcer shows evidence of hyposecretion of stomach acid. The other three choices have similar characteristics in both types of ulcers.

When caring for a client with an acute exacerbation of a peptic ulcer, the nurse finds the client doubled up in bed with severe pain in the right shoulder. What is the initial appropriate action by the nurse? Notify the health care provider. Irrigate the client's NG tube. Place the client in the high-Fowler's position. Assess the client's abdomen and vital signs.

Assess the client's abdomen and vital signs. Explanation: Signs and symptoms of perforation includes sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity); pain may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm. The nurse should assess the vital signs and abdomen prior to notifying the physician. Irrigation of the NG tube should not be performed because the additional fluid may be spilled into the peritoneal cavity, and the client should be placed in a position of comfort, usually on the side with the head slightly elevated.

The nurse is evaluating a client's ulcer symptoms to differentiate ulcer as duodenal or gastric. Which symptom should the nurse at attribute to a duodenal ulcer? Vomiting Hemorrhage Awakening in pain Constipation

Awakening in pain Explanation: The client with a duodenal ulcer is more likely to awaken with pain during the night than is the client with a gastric ulcer. Vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, and bleeding are symptoms common to both gastric and duodenal ulcers.

A client is admitted to the health care facility with a diagnosis of a bleeding gastric ulcer. The nurse expects the client's stools to have which description? Coffee-ground-like Clay-colored Black and tarry Bright red

Black and tarry Explanation: Black, tarry stools are a sign of bleeding high in the GI tract, as from a gastric ulcer, and result from the action of digestive enzymes on the blood. Vomitus associated with upper GI tract bleeding commonly is described as coffee-ground-like. Clay-colored stools are associated with biliary obstruction. Bright red stools indicate lower GI tract bleeding.

The nurse is assessing a client with advanced gastric cancer. The nurse anticipates that the assessment will reveal which finding? Abdominal pain below the umbilicus Weight gain Bloating after meals Increased appetite

Bloating after meals Explanation: Symptoms of progressive disease include bloating after meals, weight loss, abdominal pain above the umbilicus, loss or decrease in appetite, and nausea or vomiting.

A client has received a diagnosis of gastric cancer and is awaiting a surgical date. During the preoperative period, the client should adopt what dietary guidelines? Eat small, frequent meals with high calorie and vitamin content. Eat frequent meals with an equal balance of fat, carbohydrates, and protein. Eat frequent, low-fat meals with high protein content. Try to maintain the pre-diagnosis pattern of eating.

Eat small, frequent meals with high calorie and vitamin content. Explanation: The nurse encourages the client to eat small, frequent portions of nonirritating foods to decrease gastric irritation. Food supplements should be high in calories, as well as vitamins A and C and iron, to enhance tissue repair.

As a nurse completes the admission assessment of a client admitted for gastric bypass surgery, the client states, "Finally! I'll be thin and able to eat without much concern." How should the nurse intervene? Rejoice with the client. Notify the health care provider that the client is eager to sign the consent form. Evaluate the client's understanding of the procedure. Ask the client about his or her plans for after surgery.

Evaluate the client's understanding of the procedure. Explanation: The nurse should evaluate the client's understanding of the procedure. The client may not understand that surgery alone isn't a cure for obesity; lifestyle modifications and counseling are also necessary. Based on the client's comment, the client isn't fully informed; therefore, signing an informed consent form without further teaching would be inappropriate. Rejoicing with the client is inappropriate. Asking the client about plans for after surgery redirects the conversation away from the client's misinterpretation of the procedure.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the PACU after surgery for peptic ulcer disease. For what potential complications does the nurse know to monitor? Select all that apply. Hemorrhage Inability to clear secretions Perforation Penetration Pyloric obstruction Cachexia

Hemorrhage Perforation Penetration Pyloric obstruction Explanation: Potential complications may include hemorrhage, perforation, penetration, and pyloric obstruction. A client who has had surgery for peptic ulcer disease may have a decreased appetite in the immediate postoperative stage, but it is not something the nurse would monitor for and would not cause cachexia. Inability to clear secretions is generally not a complication of peptic ulcer surgery.

A client diagnosed with a peptic ulcer says, "Now I have something else I have to worry about." Which actions will the nurse take to help reduce the client's anxiety? Select all that apply. Interact with the client in a relaxed manner. Help identify the client's current stressors. Discuss potential coping techniques with the client. Offer information about relaxation methods. Inform the client the medication will solve the problem.

Interact with the client in a relaxed manner. Help identify the client's current stressors. Discuss potential coping techniques with the client. Offer information about relaxation methods. Explanation: A client with a peptic ulcer may have a problem with anxiety. To help reduce the client's anxiety, the nurse should interact with the client in a relaxed manner and help the client identify stressors. The nurse can also discuss potential coping techniques and offer information about relaxation methods. Stating that medication will solve the problem may not be sufficient if stress and anxiety are contributors to the development of the ulcer.

Which is a true statement regarding the nursing considerations in administration of metronidazole? It may cause weight gain. The drug should be given before meals. Metronidazole decreases the effect of warfarin. It leaves a metallic taste in the mouth.

It leaves a metallic taste in the mouth. Explanation: Metronidazole leaves a metallic taste in the mouth. It may cause anorexia and should be given with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset. Metronidazole increases the blood-thinning effects of warfarin.

A nurse practitioner prescribes drug therapy for a patient with peptic ulcer disease. Choose the drug that can be used for 4 weeks and has a 90% chance of healing the ulcer. Nizatidine Cimetidine Famotidine Omeprazole

Omeprazole Explanation: Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a proton pump inhibitor that, if used according to the health care provider's directions, will result in healing in 90% of patients. The other drugs are H2 receptor antagonists that need to be used for 6 weeks.

Which medication classification represents a proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitor? Omeprazole Sucralfate Famotidine Metronidazole

Omeprazole Explanation: Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogen-potassium adenosine triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

The nurse is conducting a community education class on gastritis. The nurse includes that chronic gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori is implicated in which disease/condition? Pernicious anemia Systemic infection Peptic ulcers Colostomy

Peptic ulcers Explanation: Chronic gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori is implicated in the development of peptic ulcers. Chronic gastritis is sometimes associated with autoimmune disease, such as pernicious anemia, but not as a cause of the anemia. Chronic gastritis is not implicated in system infections and/or colostomies.

Which of the following are characteristics associated with the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES)? Select all that apply. Constipation Hypocalcemia Severe peptic ulcers Extreme gastric hyperacidity Gastrin-secreting tumors of the pancreas

Severe peptic ulcers Extreme gastric hyperacidity Gastrin-secreting tumors of the pancreas Explanation: ZES consists of severe peptic ulcers, extreme gastric hyperacidity, and gastrin-secreting benign or malignant tumors of the pancreas. Diarrhea and steatorrhea may be evident. The client may have co-existing parathyroid adenomas or hyperplasia and may therefore exhibit signs of hypercalcemia.

A client is recovering from gastric surgery. Toward what goal should the nurse progress the client's enteral intake? Three meals and 120 ml fluid daily Three meals and three snacks and 120 mL fluid daily Six small meals and 120 mL fluid daily Six small meals daily with 120 mL fluid between meals

Six small meals daily with 120 mL fluid between meals Explanation: After the return of bowel sounds and removal of the nasogastric tube, the nurse may give fluids, followed by food in small portions. Foods are gradually added until the client can eat six small meals a day and drink 120 mL of fluid between meals.

A client is preparing for discharge to home following a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy. Which is the best rationale for the client being taught to lie down for 30 minutes after each meal? Slows gastric emptying Provides much needed rest Allows for better absorption of vitamin B12 Removes tension on internal suture line

Slows gastric emptying Explanation: Dumping syndrome is a common complication following subtotal gastrectomy. To avoid the rapid emptying of stomach contents, resting after meals can be helpful. Promoting rest after a major surgery is helpful in recovery but not the reason for resting after meals. Following this type of surgery, clients will have a need for vitamin B12 supplementation due to absence of production of intrinsic factor in the stomach. Resting does not increase absorption of B12 or remove tension on suture line.

A nurse is teaching a client with gastritis about the need to avoid the intake of caffeinated beverages. The client asks why this is so important. Which explanation from the nurse would be most accurate? "Caffeine stimulates the central nervous system and thus gastric activity and secretions, which need to be minimized to promote recovery." "Caffeine increases the fluid volume in your system, which irritates your digestive organs." "Caffeine intake can cause tears in your esophagus and intestines, which can lead to hemorrhage." "Caffeine can interfere with absorption of vitamin B12, which leads to anemia and further digestive problems."

"Caffeine stimulates the central nervous system and thus gastric activity and secretions, which need to be minimized to promote recovery." Explanation: Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant that increases gastric activity and pepsin secretion. Caffeine is a diuretic that causes decreased fluid volume and potential dehydration. It does not lead to hemorrhage and does not interfere with absorption of vitamin B12.

A nursing student is preparing a teaching plan about peptic ulcer disease. The student knows to include teaching about the percentage of clients with peptic ulcers who experience bleeding. The percentage is Less than 5% 15% 25% Greater than 50%

15% Explanation: Fifteen percent of clients with peptic ulcer experience bleeding.

A young adult client is prescribed misoprostol to prevent gastric ulcers caused by frequent use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents for an autoimmune disorder. For which reason will the nurse question giving the client a dose of this medication? Can cause constipation Needs to be taken without food May cause diarrhea and cramping Awaiting the results of a pregnancy test

Awaiting the results of a pregnancy test Explanation: Misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that protects the gastric mucosa from agents that cause ulcers, and also increases mucus production and bicarbonate levels. It is a pregnancy category X medication and should not be taken by a pregnant client as it can soften the cervix and result in miscarriage or premature labor. This medication does not cause constipation. Sucralfate needs to be taken without food. Misoprostol can cause diarrhea and cramping; however, this is not the reason to question giving the client a dose of the medication.

Which medication is classified as a histamine-2 receptor antagonist? Famotidine Lansoprazole Metronidazole Esomeprazole

Famotidine Explanation: Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Lansoprazole and esomeprazole are proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). Metronidazole is an antibiotic.

A client has been taking famotidine at home. What teaching should the nurse include with the client? Famotidine will inhibit gastric acid secretions. Famotidine will neutralize acid in the stomach. Famotidine will shorten the time required for digestion in the stomach. Famotidine will improve the mixing of foods and gastric secretions.

Famotidine will inhibit gastric acid secretions. Explanation: Famotidine is useful for treating and preventing ulcers and managing gastroesophageal reflux disease. It functions by inhibiting the action of histamine at the H-2 receptor site located in the gastric parietal cells, thus inhibiting gastric acid secretion. Famotidine will not neutralize acid in the stomach, but inhibits acid secretion. Famotidine will not shorten digestion time and will not improve food mixing with gastric secretions.

During a home visit the nurse notes that a client recovering from peptic ulcer disease is experiencing cool clammy skin and has a heart rate of 96 beats a minute. Which action will the nurse take? Notify the primary health care provider. Provide a dose of a proton pump inhibitor. Encourage the client to drink a warm beverage. Discuss the types of foods the client has been eating.

Notify the primary health care provider. Explanation: The client with peptic ulcer disease is demonstrating signs of hemorrhage which include cool skin and tachycardia. The health care provider should be immediately notified. The client should not be given any additional medication. A warm beverage could enhance bleeding. It is inappropriate to provide any teaching while the client is experiencing an acute condition.

Peptic ulcer disease occurs more frequently in people with which blood type? A B AB O

O Explanation: People with blood type O are more susceptible to peptic ulcers than those with blood type A, B, or AB.

A client recovering from a total gastrectomy has a low red blood cell count. Which medication will the nurse expect to be prescribed for this client? Oral iron tablets Vitamin B12 injections Erythropoietin injections Transfusions of packed RBCs

Vitamin B12 injections Explanation: Intrinsic factor is secreted by the parietal cells in the stomach, which binds to vitamin B12 so it can be absorbed in the ileum. With the loss of some parietal cells, there is a deficiency in vitamin B12, which leads to a decreased production of red blood cells or pernicious anemia. Treatment would be vitamin B12 injections for life. Oral iron tablets would be prescribed for iron deficiency anemia. Erythropoietin injections would be prescribed for anemia caused by kidney disease. The client is not actively bleeding and would not need transfusions of packed RBCs.

A client recovering from the removal of a gastric tumor asks why radiation therapy is needed. Which response will the nurse provide? "It is to heal the wound faster." "It is to kill any remaining cancer cells." "It is to reduce your need for medication." "It is to prevent the development of a wound infection."

"It is to kill any remaining cancer cells." Explanation: Radiation therapy may also be used alone or along with chemotherapy before surgery to decrease the size of the tumor, or after surgery to destroy any remaining cancer cells and to delay or prevent reoccurrence of the cancer. Radiation therapy is not used to heal the surgical wound, reduce the need for medication, or to prevent the development of a wound infection.

Rebleeding may occur from a peptic ulcer and often warrants surgical interventions. Signs of bleeding include which of the following? Mental confusion Bradycardia Bradypnea Hypertension

Mental confusion Explanation: Signs of bleeding include tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, mental confusion, thirst, and oliguria.

The nurse is teaching a client with peptic ulcer disease who has been prescribed misoprostol. What information from the nurse would be most accurate about misoprostol? Works best when taken on an empty stomach Increases the speed of gastric emptying Prevents ulceration in clients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Decreases mucus production

Prevents ulceration in clients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Explanation: Misoprostol (Cytotec) is a synthetic prostaglandin that protects the gastric mucosa against ulceration and is used in clients who take NSAIDs. Misoprostol should be taken with food. It does not improve emptying of the stomach, and it increases (not decreases) mucus production.

A client is newly diagnosed with stomach cancer. The nurse will plan to provide the client education on which treatment? Surgery Radiation Chemotherapy Intermittent monitoring

Surgery Explanation: Surgery is more hazardous for the older adult, and the risk increases proportionately with increasing age. Nonetheless, gastric cancer should be treated with surgery in older patients. Other treatments such as radiation and chemotherapy will be decided after surgery. Intermittent monitoring is not a treatment option for gastric cancer in the older adult

A nurse is monitoring a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which assessment findings would most likely indicate perforation of the ulcer? Select all that apply. Tachycardia Hypotension Mild epigastric pain A rigid, board-like abdomen Diarrhea

Tachycardia Hypotension A rigid, board-like abdomen Explanation: Signs and symptoms of perforation include sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity); pain, which may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm; vomiting; collapse (fainting); extremely tender and rigid (board-like) abdomen; and hypotension and tachycardia, indicating shock. Perforation is a surgical emergency.

A client weighing 165 lb. (75 kg) is being treated for acute gastritis. Which amount of urine output for 4 hours would indicate an adequate fluid balance if the output should be 1 mL/kg/hour?

300 Explanation: To determine the client's weight in kg, divide the weight in lb. by 2.2 or 165 / 2.2 = 75 kg. Fluid balance for this client would be 75 mL/hr. For four hours, the client's output would need to be 300 mL as an indication of fluid balance.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic gastritis. Which interventions will the nurse add to this client's plan of care? Select all that apply. Remind to avoid alcohol intake. Review actions to reduce stress. Provide omeprazole as prescribed. Instruct to avoid foods that aggravate the condition. Suggest using over the counter ibuprofen for pain control.

Remind to avoid alcohol intake. Review actions to reduce stress. Provide omeprazole as prescribed. Instruct to avoid foods that aggravate the condition. Explanation: Chronic gastritis is managed by recommending avoidance of alcohol, reducing stress, providing medications to include proton pump inhibitors, and modifying the diet by avoiding foods that aggravate the condition. Over-the-counter NSAIDs should be avoided as this can aggravate the condition.

A client with peptic ulcer disease has been prescribed sucralfate. What health education should the nurse provide to this client? Take the medication 2 hours before or after other medications Blood levels will be evaluated after 1 week Take the medication at bedtime to accommodate sedative effects Ensure adequate potassium intake during therapy

Take the medication 2 hours before or after other medications Explanation: Sucralfate should be taken at least 2 hours before or after other medications. It does not decrease potassium levels and laboratory follow up is unnecessary. Sucralfate does not cause sedation.

A healthcare provider prescribes a combination of drugs to treat reoccurring peptic ulcer disease, and the client asks the nurse the reason for all the medications. What teaching should the nurse review with the client? The antibiotics, prostaglandin E1 analogs, and bismuth salts will work together to suppress or eradicate H. pylori. The proton pump inhibitors, prostaglandin E1 analogs, and bismuth salts will suppress or eradicate H. pylori. The bismuth salts, antibiotics, and proton pump inhibitors will work together to suppress or eradicate H. pylori. The prostaglandin E1 analogs, antibiotics, and proton pump inhibitors will work together to suppress or eradicate H. pylori.

The bismuth salts, antibiotics, and proton pump inhibitors will work together to suppress or eradicate H. pylori. Explanation: The recommended combination of bismuth salts, antibiotics, and proton pump inhibitors will suppress or eradicate H. pylori. Prostaglandin E1 analogs enhance mucosal resistance to injury; they do not suppress or eradicate H. pylori.

A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is teaching the client about the medications prescribed, including metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin. Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen? "My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria." "I should take these medications only when I have pain from my ulcer." "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." "These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach."

"The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." Explanation: Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton-pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori. Recommended therapy for 10 to 14 days includes triple therapy with two antibiotics (e.g., metronidazole [Flagyl] or amoxicillin [Amoxil] and clarithromycin [Biaxin]) plus a proton-pump inhibitor (e.g., lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], or rabeprazole [Aciphex]), or quadruple therapy with two antibiotics (metronidazole and tetracycline) plus a proton-pump inhibitor and bismuth salts (Pepto-Bismol). Research is being conducted to develop a vaccine against H. pylori.