Chapter 43 - The Immune System Test Preparation

C) direct exposure to a living or simulated disease organism.

A major difference between active and passive immunity is that active immunity requires A) secretion of interleukins from macrophages. B) acquisition and activation of antibodies. C) direct exposure to a living or simulated disease organism. D) transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta. E) proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow.

B) T cells

A patient can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but he does not produce antibodies against viral infections. This is probably due to a disorder in which cells of the immune system? A) B cells B) T cells C) plasma cells D) cytotoxic cells E) macrophages

E) antihistamines.

A patient reports severe symptoms of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing after being given a flower bouquet as a birthday gift. A reasonable initial treatment would involve the use of A) monoclonal antibodies. B) a vaccine. C) sterile pollen. D) complement. E) antihistamines.

D) rheumatoid arthritis

A person suffering from AIDS would be unlikely to suffer from which of the following diseases? A) influenza B) hepatitis C) tuberculosis D) rheumatoid arthritis E) cancer

B) the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells.

A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in A) the recipient's anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type. B) the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells. C) no reaction because type O is a universal donor. D) no reaction because the O-type individual does not have antibodies. E) the recipient's B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies.

B) The microbe survived the acidic environment of the stomach and resisted lysosomal degradation in macrophages.

After preparing barbequed chicken, you came down with salmonella poisoning. Why? A) The bacterium released chemical messengers that make it resistant to phagocytosis. B) The microbe survived the acidic environment of the stomach and resisted lysosomal degradation in macrophages. C) The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduced the pH of the stomach sufficiently that the bacterium was not destroyed. D) The chemotactic messengers released by the salmonella bacterium did not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection. E) There was a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and are responsible for fighting these bacterial infections.

E) They must be primed by the presence of antigen

All of the following are correct statements about nonspecific defenses except: A) They include physical and chemical barriers. B) They may involve the formation of membrane attack complexes. C) Macrophages and natural killer cells are participants in the process. D) They include inflammatory responses. E) They must be primed by the presence of antigen

C) MHC-induced transplant rejection.

All of the following are usually considered disorders of the immune system except A) allergic anaphylaxis. B) lupus erythematosus. C) MHC-induced transplant rejection. D) AIDS. E) SCID

B) Antibodies bind with foreign cells and destroy them.

All of the following statements about antibodies are true except: A) The structure of antibodies includes both a constant and a variable region. B) Antibodies bind with foreign cells and destroy them. C) Antibodies act as signals to blood complement proteins or phagocytes. D) Antibodies are immunoglobulin proteins. E) Plasma B cells are responsible for the production of antibodies.

B) They are contained only within the lymphatic vessels and nodes.

All of the following statements about lymphocytes are true except: A) All cells are produced in bone marrow. B) They are contained only within the lymphatic vessels and nodes. C) All cells differentiate only from pluripotent stem cells. D) They originate from the liver of a developing fetus. E) They may mature in either bone marrow or the thymus gland

E) histamine.

An alarm substance that triggers an inflammatory reaction is A) pyrogen. B) thyroxine. C) immunoglobulin. D) adrenaline. E) histamine.

C) MHC molecules on the graft may reject the host tissues.

An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because A) a response to the graft will involve T cells and a response to the bacterium will not. B) the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient. C) MHC molecules on the graft may reject the host tissues. D) the bacterium can escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells. E) the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune response.

D) the way they interact with the antigen.

Antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other in A) the type of cell that produces them. B) the way they are produced. C) the antigenic determinants that they recognize. D) the way they interact with the antigen. E) the number of carbohydrate subunits they have.

C) T cells.

Cell-mediated immunity is mostly the function of A) B cells. B) complement cells. C) T cells. D) cytotoxic cells. E) erythrocytes

D) decreased temperature.

Each indication below is a clinical characteristic of inflammation except A) increased blood flow. B) edema. C) redness. D) decreased temperature. E) pain.

B) releasing interleukin-1.

Each of the items below is a response of helper T cells once they are stimulated except A) releasing interleukin-2. B) releasing interleukin-1. C) enlarging in size. D) producing memory cells. E) dividing by mitosis.

C ) helper T cells

For the questions below, match the following answers with the phrase that best describes them. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) cytotoxic T cells B) delayed sensitivity T cells C ) helper T cells D) suppressor T cells E) B cells cooperate with macrophages to enable the production of antibodies by effector cells

E) B cells

For the questions below, match the following answers with the phrase that best describes them. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) cytotoxic T cells B) delayed sensitivity T cells C ) helper T cells D) suppressor T cells E) B cells form plasma cells that give rise to antibodies

C ) helper T cells

For the questions below, match the following answers with the phrase that best describes them. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) cytotoxic T cells B) delayed sensitivity T cells C ) helper T cells D) suppressor T cells E) B cells release cytokines, which activate B cells

A) cytotoxic T cells

For the questions below, match the following answers with the phrase that best describes them. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) cytotoxic T cells B) delayed sensitivity T cells C ) helper T cells D) suppressor T cells E) B cells release perforin, which causes target cells to lose their cytoplasm

E) snipping the wires coming from a car battery so that no electricity flows to the car components

HIV is ultimately a fatal disease. Which choice could be used as an analogy to describe how HIV affects the body? A) rebooting a computer after getting a program error message B) changing the color of your house to match the color of your car C) bypassing a light switch so that electricity is constantly flowing to a light D) an elevator stopping at the floor of which the button has been pushed E) snipping the wires coming from a car battery so that no electricity flows to the car components

E) All of the above could not be produced.

If a person's bone marrow were destroyed by radiation, which of the following cells could not be produced? A) T cells B) erythrocytes C) neutrophils D) B cells E) All of the above could not be produced.

D) the immune system.

In mammalian defenses against invading pathogens, all of these are considered nonspecific defense mechanisms except A) antimicrobial proteins. B) mucous membranes. C) the inflammatory response. D) the immune system. E) the skin.

D) Amoeboid coelomocytes may be activated against the foreign tissue.

In order to investigate the immune system of an invertebrate animal, a scientist grafts a section of epidermis from one earthworm to another. What would you expect to happen? A) This graft will be accepted, but a second graft would be rejected. B) Invertebrates do not have immune responses, so the graft will be accepted. C) The graft will be recognized as nonself and rejected. D) Amoeboid coelomocytes may be activated against the foreign tissue. E) Both B and D would happen.

D) release of histamine

In the inflammatory response, the absence of which of the following would prevent all the others from happening? A) leakage of plasma to the affected area B) increased permeability of blood vessels C) dilation of arterioles D) release of histamine E) increased population of phagocytes in the area

B) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.

Inflammatory responses may include all of the following except A) release of substances to increase the blood supply to an inflamed area. B) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma. C) The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduced the pH of the stomach sufficiently that the bacterium was not destroyed. D) The chemotactic messengers released by the salmonella bacterium did not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection. E) There was a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and are responsible for fighting these bacterial infections.

A) There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.

Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against a different virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds? A) There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses. B) Cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties. C) The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox. D) The immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens. E) All of the below are true.

C) The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.

Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against a different virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds? A) There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses. B) Cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties. C) The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox. D) The immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens. E) All of the below are true.

E) placental transfer of antibodies

Naturally acquired passive immunity would involve the A) absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes. B) injection of vaccine. C) ingestion of interferon. D) injection of antibodies. E) placental transfer of antibodies

E) the production of lysozyme.

One feature that the eye and the respiratory tract share is A) the formation of similar antibodies. B) their role in the secondary immune response. C) the release of slightly acidic secretions. D) the mucous membranes that cover their surface. E) the production of lysozyme.

E) A, B, and C are correct.

Physical barriers to invasion by other organisms A) may work in conjunction with secretions like tears, perspiration, and mucus. B) are difficult for bacteria and viruses to penetrate. C) include the skin and the mucous membranes. D) Only A and C are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct.

E) passive immunity.

Prevention of a disease by the injection of an antiserum containing gamma globulins is an example of A) autoimmunity. B) clonal selection. C) active immunity. D) cell-mediated immunity. E) passive immunity.

E) Both A and D are correct.

The MHC (major histocompatibility complex) is important in A) distinguishing self from nonself. B) identifying bacterial pathogens. C) recognizing parasitic pathogens. D) identifying abnormal cells. E) Both A and D are correct.

A) thymus.

The T in T lymphocytes stands for A) thymus. B) thyroid C) toxic. D) trigger. E) threshold.

C) how an antigen can provoke development of very few cells to result in production of high levels of specific antibodies.

The clonal selection theory is an explanation for A) how HIV can disrupt the immune system. B) how macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells. C) how an antigen can provoke development of very few cells to result in production of high levels of specific antibodies. D) how a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells. E) how antibody proteins can be molded to fit antigens after the antigen interacts with an antibody-producing type of cell.

C) III, IV, II, I, V

The following events occur when a mammalian immune system first encounters a pathogen. Place them in correct sequence, and then choose the answer that indicates that sequence. I. Pathogen is destroyed. II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies. III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes. IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous. V. Only memory cells remain. A) II, I, IV, III, V B) IV, II, III, I, V C) III, IV, II, I, V D) III, II, I, V, IV E) I, III, II, IV, V

A) binding of the MHC-antigen complex.

The function of CD4 and CD8 is to assist T cells in A) binding of the MHC-antigen complex. B) enhancing secretion of proteins such as interferon. C) secretion of antibodies specific for each antigen. D) recognition of self cells. E) activating B cells and other T cells.

E) A, B, and C are correct.

The lymphatic system involves which of the following organs? A) appendix and special portions of the small intestine B) adenoids and tonsils C) spleen and lymph nodes D) Only A and B are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct.

D) dilate blood vessels.

The main effect of histamine is to A) phagocytize pathogens. B) decrease blood flow. C) attract T cells. D) dilate blood vessels. E) destroy white blood cells.

A) the antibodies in the serum of the recipient.

The major concern for an individual with type A blood who receives type B blood would be A) the antibodies in the serum of the recipient. B) the production of memory cells that will ocur in the recipient. C) the anti-A antibodies produced by the donor. D) the antibodies in the serum of the donor. E) antibodies in both the donor's and recipient's serum

B) 2

The next questions refer to the following substances. 1. blood complement proteins 2. interleukin-1 3. interleukin-2 4. antibodies 5. perforin Which substance is secreted by antigen-presenting cells? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

B) 2 and 3

The next questions refer to the following substances. 1. blood complement proteins 2. interleukin-1 3. interleukin-2 4. antibodies 5. perforin Which substance(s) activate(s) T cells? A) 1 and 4 B) 2 and 3 C) 3 only D) 1 only E) 5 only

B) 1 and 5

The next questions refer to the following substances. 1. blood complement proteins 2. interleukin-1 3. interleukin-2 4. antibodies 5. perforin Which substances are used in the immune system to kill targeted, infected cells? A) 2 and 3 B) 1 and 5 C) 1 and 4 D) 4 and 5 E) 1, 4, and 5

B) opsonization

The questions below refer to the following list. Match the term that best fits each of the following descriptions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) clonal selection B) opsonization C) complement system D) passive immunity E) vaccination coating of foreign cells by proteins to attract macrophages

C) complement system

The questions below refer to the following list. Match the term that best fits each of the following descriptions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) clonal selection B) opsonization C) complement system D) passive immunity E) vaccination part of both specific and nonspecific defense

E) vaccination

The questions below refer to the following list. Match the term that best fits each of the following descriptions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) clonal selection B) opsonization C) complement system D) passive immunity E) vaccination process in which an attenuated pathogen is used to stimulate the body to produce antibodies against the pathogen

D) passive immunity

The questions below refer to the following list. Match the term that best fits each of the following descriptions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) clonal selection B) opsonization C) complement system D) passive immunity E) vaccination protection by antibodies that cross the placenta from mother to fetus

B) maternal Rh antibodies can cross the placenta, while those against the ABO blood groups cannot.

There is usually no concern if the mother's blood type is different from that of the developing fetus unless the Rh factor is involved. This is because A) maternal Rh antibodies cannot cross the placenta, while those against the ABO blood groups can. B) maternal Rh antibodies can cross the placenta, while those against the ABO blood groups cannot. C) maternal blood cells can cross the placenta. D) fetal blood cells can cross the placenta. E) antibodies against the Rh factor have a much greater impact on antigens compared to those involving the ABO blood groups

D) antibody-generating foreign macromolecules

What are antigens? A) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains B) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump C) proteins embedded in B cell membranes D) antibody-generating foreign macromolecules E) Both A and C are correct.

D) the effector cells of humoral immunity

What are plasma cells? A) cells that produce few antibodies B) the cells that are responsible for the phagocytosis of foreign organisms C) immature forms of T cells D) the effector cells of humoral immunity E) the cells that are responsible for immunological memory

A) interleukins

What attracts helper T cells to macrophages? A) interleukins B) lymphotoxins C) antigens D) interferons E) antibodies

B) a group of proteins

What is complement? A) a hormone from the thymus B) a group of proteins C) a specialized white blood cell D) a form of interferon E) a set of antigens

E) the recognition of self versus foreign

What is the single most important event establishing a primary immune response? A) the presentation of viral protein complexed to MHC I B) apoptosis of virally infected cells C) the phagocytosis of microbes by antigen-presenting cells D) the lyses of virally infected cell by cytotoxic T cells E) the recognition of self versus foreign

D) the shape of the antibody with at least two binding regions.

When antibodies attack antigens, clumping of the affected cells generally occurs. This is best explained by A) denaturation of the antibodies. B) bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules. C) disulfide bridges between the antigens. D) the shape of the antibody with at least two binding regions. E) complement that makes the affected cells sticky.

B) between 0 and 7 days

When would B cells produce effector cells? A) between 28 and 35 days B) between 0 and 7 days C) between 7 and 14 days D) Both A and B are correct. E) Both A and C are correct.

E) Both A and C are correct.

When would memory cells proliferate? A) between 0 and 7 days B) between 7 and 14 days C) between 28 and 35 days D) between 35 and 42 days E) Both A and C are correct.

E) Both A and C are correct.

When would you find antibodies being produced? A) between 28 and 35 days B) between 14 and 21 days C) between 3 and 7 days D) Both B and C are correct. E) Both A and C are correct.

E) Both B and C are necessary.

Which of the following are necessary to produce monoclonal antibodies? A) macrophages B) plasma cells C) myeloma cells D) fibroblasts E) Both B and C are necessary.

D) cytotoxic and helper cells

Which of the following are types of T cells that participate in the immune response system? A) interleukin-1, interleukin-2, and interferon B) lymphocytes, macrophages, and coelomocytes C) plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells D) cytotoxic and helper cells E) CD4, CD8, and helper cells

B) memory cells

Which of the following cell types is responsible for initiating a secondary immune response? A) stem cells B) memory cells C) macrophages D) B cells E) T cells

C) blocking the attachment of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells

Which of the following could prevent the appearance of the symptoms of an allergy attack? A) reducing the number of T helper cells in the body B) blocking the antigenic determinants of the IgM antibodies C) blocking the attachment of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells D) Only A and B are correct. E) Only B and C are correct.

A) antibody production by plasma cells

Which of the following defensive actions would be part of the body's third, or most advanced, line of defense? A) antibody production by plasma cells B) action of natural killer cells C) lysozyme production D) histamine release by basophils E) phagocytosis by neutrophils

E) T cell surface protein CD4

Which of the following is (are) not involved in the activation and functioning of cytotoxic T cells? A) perforin B) interleukins C) class I MHC molecules D) antigen-presenting cells E) T cell surface protein CD4

A) Cells release a cytokine that stimulates these cells to divide and release more of the cytokine.

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback in the immune system? A) Cells release a cytokine that stimulates these cells to divide and release more of the cytokine. B) Memory cells proliferate and produce antibodies. C) Cytotoxic cells release substances that attract macrophages. D) Large antigens with many repeating antigenic determinant sites can stimulate B cells without the aid of T cells. E) Both A and B are examples of positive feedback in the immune system.

D) the epitope

Which of the following is not a part of an antibody molecule? A) the heavy chains B) the light chains C) the variable or V regions D) the epitope E) the constant or C regions

D) Both A and B are true.

Which of the following is true of both T cells and B cells? A) They are produced from stem cells of the bone marrow. B) They produce effector cells against specific pathogens. C) They can attack and destroy invading pathogens. D) Both A and B are true. E) A, B, and C are all true.

E) Both B and C are correct.

Which of the following participates in both the specific and nonspecific defense systems of the body? A) B cells B) complement C) macrophages D) pyrogens E) Both B and C are correct.

D) It is mounted by lymphocytes that have matured in the bone marrow.

Which of the following statements about humoral immunity is correct? A) It primarily defends against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells. B) It primarily defends against fungi and protozoa. C) It is responsible for transplant tissue rejection. D) It is mounted by lymphocytes that have matured in the bone marrow. E) It protects the body against cells that become cancerous.

D) plasma cells

Which of the following types of cells is not involved in both antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity? A) macrophages B) memory cells C) pathogenic cells D) plasma cells E) helper T cells

C) injection of antibodies to the toxin

Which of the following would be most beneficial in treating an individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin? A) injection of interferon B) vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin C) injection of antibodies to the toxin D) injection of interleukin-2 E) injection of interleukin-1

A) Diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen.

Why can normal immune responses be described as polyclonal? A) Diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen. B) Blood contains many different antibodies to many different antigens. C) Multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell. D) Macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in normal immune response. E) Construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells.